General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.

Key Points

• The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA), seeks to amend the Citizenship Act, 1955, to facilitate Indian citizenship for specific categories of illegal migrants.
• The Act specifically targets individuals belonging to six minority religious communities: Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians.
• These individuals must hail from three specific neighboring countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.
• To be eligible, the person must have entered India on or before the cut-off date of December 31, 2014, fleeing religious persecution or the fear of religious persecution in their respective home countries.
• The CAA 2019 reduces the period of residency required for naturalization for these groups from the standard 11 years to 5 years.
• The Act ensures that such individuals will not be treated as illegal migrants under the Foreigners Act, 1946, or the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920.

 Additional Information

• Geographical Exemptions:
• The provisions of the CAA 2019 do not apply to the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura as included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• It also excludes areas covered under the Inner Line Permit (ILP) system, which includes Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, and Nagaland.
• Excluded Nations:
• Neighboring countries such as Sri Lanka (home to Eelam Tamils), Myanmar (home to Rohingya), Bhutan, and Nepal are not included in the scope of this particular amendment.
• The Act focuses exclusively on minorities from the three designated Islamic Republics where these six communities are historically recognized as religious minorities.
• OCI Status:
• The Act also contains provisions regarding the cancellation of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) registration if the OCI holder violates any law notified by the Central Government.

The correct answer is Teak.

Key Points

• Tropical Deciduous Forests, also known as Monsoon Forests, are the most widespread forest type in India, occupying regions that receive annual rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm.
• Teak (scientific name Tectona grandis) is the most dominant and characteristic tree species of these forests. It is highly valued for its durable and high-quality timber, used extensively in furniture making and construction.
• These forests are characterized by the seasonal shedding of leaves. The trees shed their foliage for about six to eight weeks during the dry summer to minimize water loss through transpiration.
• The distribution of Teak is concentrated in the central parts of India, the Deccan Plateau, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, and the foothills of the Himalayas.
• Tropical deciduous forests are further classified into Moist Deciduous (100−200 cm rainfall) and Dry Deciduous (70−100 cm rainfall), with Teak being a primary component of both, though it thrives best in the moist subtype.

 Additional Information

• Mangrove:
• Found in coastal regions and deltaic areas influenced by tides and saline water.
• Characterized by pneumatophores or breathing roots. Major examples include the Sunderbans in West Bengal, where Sundari trees are found.
• Deodar:
• A prominent species of the Montane (Himalayan) Forests, specifically found in the Western Himalayas.
• Grows at altitudes between 1,500 and 2,500 meters and provides strong, aromatic timber used in structural work.
• Fir:
• A coniferous tree typical of the Temperate and Alpine Forests at higher altitudes in the Himalayas.
• Usually found at elevations above 2,500 meters, where temperatures are significantly lower.
• Other Deciduous Species:
• In Moist Deciduous Forests, other important species include Sal, Shisham, Hurra, Mahua, Amla, Semul, Kusum, and Sandalwood.
• In Dry Deciduous Forests, common trees include Sal, Peepal, Neem, and Khair.

The correct answer is Black soil.

Key Points

• Black soil, also popularly known as Regur soil or Black Cotton Soil, is scientifically categorized as Vertisols due to its high clay content and unique expansive properties.
• The most defining characteristic of this soil is its exceptional moisture retention capacity; it swells and becomes sticky when wet, and develops deep wide cracks upon drying, which facilitates self-aeration or self-plowing.
• Geologically, it is derived from the weathering of volcanic rocks (Basalt) found in the Deccan Trap region, covering approximately 15% of India total land area including Maharashtra, Gujarat, and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is chemically rich in minerals such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime, but generally lacks phosphorus, nitrogen, and organic matter.
• The soil is ideally suited for cotton cultivation because the crop requires sustained moisture levels throughout its growth cycle, which the deep clayey layers of black soil provide efficiently.

 Additional Information

• Other Soil Types:
• Laterite soil:
• Formed through the process of intense leaching in regions with high temperatures and heavy seasonal rainfall.
• Rich in iron oxide and aluminum, it is primarily used for growing cashew nuts, tea, and coffee.
• Red soil:
• Develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau.
• Its reddish color is attributed to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks; it appears yellow when in hydrated form.
• Sandy soil:
• Consists of large particles with high porosity, leading to very low water-holding capacity.
• Mainly found in arid and semi-arid regions like Rajasthan, it is generally unsuitable for moisture-intensive crops like cotton.

The correct answer is H3-24L.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-5 is the official designation for the Lunar Polar Exploration (LUPEX) mission, which is a collaborative venture between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
• The mission is designed to explore the South Pole region of the Moon, specifically focusing on the presence, abundance, and quality of water ice and other resources.
• As per the bilateral agreement, Japan (JAXA) is responsible for providing the Launch Vehicle and the Lunar Rover, while India (ISRO) is responsible for developing the Lander system.
• The designated launch vehicle for this mission is the H3-24L, a specific heavy-lift configuration of Japan's new flagship H3 Rocket.
• The H3-24L configuration features two LE-9 engines in the first stage, four solid rocket boosters (SRB-3), and a Large-type fairing to accommodate the mission's payload.
• The mission is tentatively scheduled for launch around 2028 from the Tanegashima Space Center in Japan.

 Additional Information

• GSLV Mk III (LVM3):
• Known as the Launch Vehicle Mark-3, it is India's most powerful heavy-lift rocket.
• It was used for the successful Chandrayaan-2 and Chandrayaan-3 missions.
• It consists of two S200 solid boosters, an L110 liquid core stage, and a C25 cryogenic upper stage.
• GSLV Mk II:
• A three-stage vehicle featuring four liquid strap-on motors and a Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS).
• It is primarily used to launch INSAT class communication satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• PSLV-C45:
• A specific flight of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) in its QL variant (with four strap-on motors).
• It famously launched the EMISAT satellite and 28 international customer satellites in April 2019.

The correct answer is Processes.

Key Points

• The Processes tab in modern Windows Task Manager (introduced in Windows 10 Version 1709) provides a granular, real-time view of hardware resource consumption for every active software and system process.
• It features a dedicated GPU column that displays the percentage of the Graphics Processing Unit being utilized by individual applications, allowing users to identify which specific program is causing heavy graphical load.
• Adjacent to the GPU usage percentage, the GPU Engine column specifies which part of the hardware is being leveraged, such as 3D, Video Encode, or Video Decode, for each running process.
• This tab is the primary tool for troubleshooting performance bottlenecks caused by specific background tasks or high-demand software like video editors and games.

 Additional Information

• Performance Tab:
• Provides high-level, system-wide telemetry and graphical data for the CPU, RAM, Disk, and GPU.
• While it displays dedicated video memory and shared system memory usage, it does not breakdown the utilization by specific application names.
• App History Tab:
• Displays cumulative resource usage (such as CPU time and network data) over a specific time period, typically 30 days.
• It primarily tracks Universal Windows Platform (UWP) applications and does not offer live per-app GPU monitoring for all software.
• Startup Tab:
• Lists applications that are configured to launch automatically when the user logs into Windows.
• Its main function is to monitor and manage Startup impact on the BIOS boot time, rather than real-time GPU utilization during active use.

The correct answer is Siddhesvara Mahadeva Temple.

Key Points

• Brihadeeswara Temple, also known as Rajarajeswaram, is a classic example of Dravidian architecture located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu. Built by the Chola emperor Raja Raja I between 1003 and 1010 CE, it features a massive 13-story Vimana (temple tower) that stands approximately 66 meters high.
• The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram represents the structural phase of Pallava architecture. Constructed under Narasimhavarman II (Rajasimha) in the 8^th century, it is one of the oldest structural stone temples in South India and a key Dravidian monument.
• The Gangaikondacholapuram Temple was built by Rajendra I, the son of Raja Raja I, to commemorate his victory over the Pala dynasty of Bengal. It follows the Dravidian style with a slightly concave Vimana, distinguishing it from the Thanjavur temple.
• Siddhesvara Mahadeva Temple (specifically the ones located in Bhubaneswar, Odisha or Barakar, West Bengal) is a prime example of the Nagara style of architecture. These temples are characterized by a Rekha Deul (curvilinear spire) and a Jagamohana (assembly hall), which are defining traits of the Kalinga school of North Indian architecture, not the Dravidian style.

 Additional Information

• Dravidian Architecture Features:
• The presence of high enclosure walls and magnificent gateway towers known as Gopurams.
• The main temple tower, called the Vimana, is a stepped pyramid that rises geometrically.
• The presence of a large temple tank (water reservoir) within the complex is a mandatory feature.
• The Garbagriha (sanctum sanctorum) is connected to the assembly hall via an Antarala (vestibule).
• Nagara Architecture Features:
• The entire temple is usually built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
• Unlike Dravidian temples, they typically do not have elaborate boundary walls or Gopurams.
• The tower is called a Shikhara, which is curvilinear in shape and topped by a stone disc called an Amalaka and a Kalasha.

The correct answer is Amino acids.

Key Points

• Proteins are complex nitrogenous macromolecules composed of long chains of monomers known as amino acids, which are linked together by peptide bonds.
• The digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, where the highly acidic environment created by hydrochloric acid (HCl) facilitates the activation of the enzyme pepsin. Pepsin breaks down the large protein molecules into smaller fragments called proteoses and peptones.
• The process continues in the small intestine, where the pancreas releases proteolytic enzymes, including trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidases, which further hydrolyze the peptides into dipeptides.
• The final stage occurs at the brush border of the small intestine, where the enzyme dipeptidase (found in the succus entericus) breaks the remaining dipeptides into individual, free amino acids.
• These amino acids represent the simplest form of proteins and are the final products that can be absorbed through the intestinal mucosa into the bloodstream for use in growth, repair, and enzyme production.

 Additional Information

• Glucose:
• It is a monosaccharide and the primary end product of carbohydrate digestion.
• Complex carbohydrates like starch are broken down by amylase and maltase into glucose to provide immediate energy for metabolic activities.
• Fatty acids and Glycerol:
• These are the fundamental building blocks and end products of fat (lipid) digestion.
• Bile salts from the liver first emulsify fats, which are then chemically broken down by lipase enzymes into fatty acids and glycerol for absorption into the lacteals (lymphatic vessels).

The correct answer is The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Key Points

• The Railway Convention Committee (RCC) is an ad-hoc Parliamentary Committee that is specifically constituted to review the financial arrangements between the Railway Undertaking and the General Finances of the government.
• The committee consists of a total of 18 members of Parliament, drawn from both houses.
• The composition includes 12 members from the Lok Sabha and 6 members from the Rajya Sabha.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha nominates the members representing the lower house, while the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha nominates the members representing the upper house.
• The Chairman of the Railway Convention Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among the members of the committee.
• The formation of the committee is initiated by a resolution moved by the Minister of Railways in the Lok Sabha, which is subsequently concurred in by the Rajya Sabha.

 Additional Information

• Functions of the RCC:
• The primary function is to determine the rate of dividend payable by the Railways to the General Revenues.
• It also examines various aspects of railway finances, such as the Railway Development Fund and the Depreciation Reserve Fund.
• Historical Background:
• The committee owes its origin to the Separation Convention of 1924 (Acworth Committee recommendation), which separated Railway Finance from General Finance.
• The first Railway Convention Committee in independent India was set up in 1949.
• Roles of Other Authorities:
• Chairman of the Rajya Sabha: While the Chairman nominates the 6 members from the Rajya Sabha, the overall coordination and the appointment of the committee head lie with the Speaker.
• President and Prime Minister: Neither the President of India nor the Prime Minister has any constitutional or procedural role in the nomination of members to Parliamentary Committees, as these are legislative bodies independent of the executive for internal appointments.

The correct answer is Rajendra I.

Key Points

• Rajendra I (reigned 1014−1044 CE) was the son of the legendary Chola king Rajaraja I and is considered one of the greatest military conquerors in Indian history.
• He launched a daring military expedition to North India around 1022−1023 CE, crossing the Godavari and reaching the banks of the Ganges River.
• During this campaign, his forces defeated Mahipala I, the ruler of the Pala Dynasty of Bengal and Bihar.
• To celebrate this victory and the symbolic arrival of the holy river in the south, he assumed the prestigious title Gangaikonda, which literally translates to The Conqueror of the Ganges.
• He established a new imperial capital named Gangaikondacholapuram in the Ariyalur district of modern-day Tamil Nadu to commemorate his northern triumphs.
• At the new capital, he constructed a magnificent Shiva Temple (similar to the Brihadisvara Temple) and a massive artificial lake called Cholagangam, filled with water brought from the Ganges.

 Additional Information

• Vijayalaya:
• He was the founder of the Imperial Chola line in the 9^th century.
• He captured Tanjore (Thanjavur) from the Muttharaiyar chiefs and assumed the title Parakesarivarman.
• Rajaraja I:
• The father of Rajendra I, he ruled from 985−1014 CE and built the iconic Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur.
• He held titles such as Mummudi Chola, Jayangonda, and Sivapadasekhara.
• Pulakesin II:
• He was the most powerful ruler of the Chalukya Dynasty of Badami in the Deccan.
• He is famously known for stopping the southward march of Emperor Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada, earning the title Dakshinapatha Pathisvara.

The correct answer is Non-justiciable but fundamental in governance.

Key Points

• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, spanning from Article 36 to Article 51.
• According to Article 37, the provisions of this part are non-justiciable, which means they are not enforceable by any court. Unlike Fundamental Rights, a citizen cannot sue the government for the non-fulfillment of these directives.
• Despite their non-justiciable nature, Article 37 explicitly mandates that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
• The core aim of DPSP is to create a Welfare State by ensuring social and economic justice, serving as a guide for the Legislature and the Executive in policy formulation.

 Additional Information

• Source and Influence:
• The DPSP are borrowed from the Irish Constitution (which in turn took them from the Spanish Constitution).
• They are similar to the Instrument of Instructions mentioned in the Government of India Act, 1935.
• Categorization:
• Socialistic Principles: Aim at providing social and economic justice (e.g., Article 38, Article 39).
• Gandhian Principles: Based on the ideology of Mahatma Gandhi (e.g., Article 40 regarding Village Panchayats).
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles: Based on liberalism (e.g., Article 44 regarding Uniform Civil Code).
• Legal Status:
• In the Minerva Mills Case (1980), the Supreme Court ruled that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
• While Fundamental Rights establish political democracy, DPSP strive to establish social and economic democracy.

The correct answer is Processing and control.

Key Points

• The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is widely regarded as the brain of the computer, responsible for interpreting and executing most of the commands from the computer’s hardware and software.
• The Control Unit (CU) is a core component that manages and coordinates the activities of all other units. It directs the flow of data between the processor, memory, and peripheral devices by generating timing and control signals.
• The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is the part of the CPU where actual data processing occurs. It performs fundamental arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division) and logical comparisons (equal to, greater than, less than).
• The CPU operates through a cycle known as the Instruction Cycle or Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle, where it retrieves instructions from RAM, determines the required action, and carries out the task.
• The primary function of the CPU is to process input data into meaningful information while maintaining synchronized control over the entire system architecture.

 Additional Information

• Functional Units of a Computer:
• Input Unit: Devices like the keyboard and mouse that feed raw data into the system.
• Output Unit: Devices like the monitor (display) and printer that present the processed results to the user.
• Storage Unit: This consists of Primary Memory (RAM/ROM) for immediate data access and Secondary Storage (HDD/SSD) for permanent data retention.
• CPU Components:
• Registers: Small, high-speed storage locations within the CPU used to hold instructions and data currently being processed.
• Cache Memory: A small amount of high-speed SRAM that sits between the CPU and the main memory to speed up data retrieval processes.
• Clock Speed: Measured in Gigahertz (GHz), it determines the number of cycles a CPU can perform per second, directly impacting processing power.

The correct answer is Petroleum.

Key Points

• Non-renewable resources are natural substances that exist in finite quantities and cannot be replaced or regenerated by natural processes within a short geological timeframe.
• Petroleum, commonly referred to as crude oil, is a fossil fuel composed primarily of hydrocarbons and other organic compounds.
• It was formed over millions of years from the remains of ancient marine organisms, such as plankton and algae, which were subjected to intense heat and pressure deep within the Earth's crust.
• Because the consumption rate of petroleum significantly exceeds its extremely slow rate of natural formation, it is classified as an exhaustible resource.
• Once extracted and consumed, these reserves are depleted forever, making them unsustainable for long-term energy security compared to renewable alternatives.

 Additional Information

• Renewable Energy Sources:
• Solar Energy: Harvested using photovoltaic cells or solar thermal collectors, this energy originates from nuclear fusion in the Sun and is considered inexhaustible.
• Wind Energy: Generated by the kinetic energy of airflows caused by the uneven heating of the Earth's surface; it is a clean, perpetual resource.
• Biomass: Derived from organic materials like wood, agricultural crops, and animal waste. It is renewable because plants can be regrown in relatively short cycles.
• Environmental Context:
• The use of petroleum is a major contributor to carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions, leading to the greenhouse effect and climate change.
• In contrast, renewable sources like wind and solar produce little to no greenhouse gases during operation, supporting global decarbonization efforts.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• The Society of Association Executives (SAE) India was officially launched on October 25, 2025, at the Hilton, Embassy Manyata Business Park in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• The organization serves as the first unified platform in the country specifically for association leadership, aiming to professionalize the management of trade bodies, professional societies, and non-profits.
• The leadership of the newly formed society includes Dr. Ramesh S. Bilimagga as the President and Dr. Ishwar Gilada as the General Secretary.
• The launch was the result of a strategic collaboration between GConvene, led by Ms. Kalpana Uberoi, and Gregg H. Talley, an international expert in association management from the Talley Management Group (TMG).
• The primary objective of SAE India is to empower associations through shared learning, policy advocacy, and global collaboration, positioning them as critical drivers of India's economic development.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Global Alignment:
• SAE India is strategically aligned with major global bodies including the American Society of Association Executives (ASAE), the European Society of Association Executives (ESAE), and the African Society of Association Executives (AfSAE).
• This alignment facilitates the adoption of international standards and best practices in the governance of member-based organizations within India.
• Digital Ecosystem:
• During the Bengaluru launch, the society unveiled a dedicated web platform designed to act as a nerve center for knowledge exchange and professional networking among industry changemakers.
• Sector Significance:
• The association sector in India comprises thousands of organizations that set professional standards and drive innovation across diverse sectors like healthcare, technology, and manufacturing.
• While SAEINDIA is a well-known mobility engineering society, the Society of Association Executives (SAE) India is a distinct entity focused on the management profession of associations themselves.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• West Bengal is the largest producer of jute in India, accounting for approximately 75% to 80% (nearly three-fourths) of the total production of the country.
• The state dominance is primarily due to the fertile Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, which provides new alluvial soil (Khadar) that is rich in nutrients and renewed annually by seasonal floods.
• The Hooghly river belt serves as the central hub for the jute industry, offering the necessary hot and humid climate with temperatures between 24°C and 35°C and annual rainfall exceeding 150 cm.
• Processing jute requires an immense amount of clean soft water for retting (the process of soaking stalks to separate fibers), which is abundantly supplied by the river systems in the state.
• The availability of skilled inexpensive labor from neighboring regions and well-connected waterway transportation further supports the massive scale of cultivation and manufacturing in this region.

 Additional Information

• Other Producing States:
• Bihar: It is the second-largest producer, with cultivation concentrated in the Purnea, Katihar, and Saharsa districts.
• Assam: The Brahmaputra valley facilitates significant jute production, ranking it third in India.
• Odisha: Production is mainly localized in coastal districts like Cuttack, Puri, and Balasore.
• Golden Fibre:
• Jute is known as the Golden Fibre because of its silky shine and high commercial value.
• It is 100% biodegradable and recyclable, making it an eco-friendly alternative to synthetic fibers.
• Major products include gunny bags, hessian cloth, carpets, ropes, and twines.
• Institutional Support:
• The National Jute Board and the Jute Corporation of India (JCI) work towards price stabilization and the welfare of jute farmers.
• The Jute Packaging Materials Act, 1987 mandates the use of jute for packing foodgrains and sugar to sustain domestic demand.

The correct answer is Article 9.

Key Points

• Article 9 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that no person shall remain a citizen of India if they have voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.
• This provision acts as a definitive prohibition of dual citizenship, reinforcing the principle of single citizenship within the Indian legal framework.
• The article specifies that any person who acquires foreign nationality will not be considered a citizen by virtue of Article 5, Article 6, or Article 8.
• The Constitution of India does not allow individuals to hold Indian passports while simultaneously holding the passport of another country, ensuring undivided loyalty to the Republic of India.
• Citizenship matters are governed under Part II of the Constitution, which includes Articles 5 to 11, outlining the criteria for citizenship at the time of the Constitution's commencement on January 26, 1950.

 Additional Information

• Article 5:
• Deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution for persons having their domicile in the territory of India.
• Requires the person to be born in India, or have parents born in India, or have been resident for at least five years.
• Article 7:
• Provides rights of citizenship for certain migrants to Pakistan who later returned to India under a permit for resettlement or permanent return.
• It overrides Article 5 and Article 6 for individuals who migrated after March 1, 1947.
• Article 3:
• Falls under Part I of the Constitution, dealing with the Union and its Territory.
• Empowers Parliament to form new states, increase or diminish the area of any state, and alter state boundaries or names.
• Citizenship Act, 1955:
• Provides comprehensive rules for the acquisition and termination of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
• Introduced concepts like the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI), which provides certain rights to the Indian diaspora without granting full citizenship or voting rights.

The correct answer is Incomplete Dominance.

Key Points

• Incomplete dominance is a genetic phenomenon where the dominant allele does not completely mask the effects of a recessive allele, resulting in a blended phenotype in the heterozygote.
• In the cross described, the true-breeding red-flowered plant (genotype RR) and the true-breeding white-flowered plant (genotype rr) produce F₁ progeny with the genotype Rr.
• The pink phenotype observed in the F₁ generation is an intermediate expression between red and white, which characterizes incomplete dominance.
• This pattern of inheritance was famously observed by Carl Correns in Mirabilis jalapa (Four o clock plant) and is also seen in Antirrhinum majus (Snapdragon).
• In the F₂ generation, produced by selfing the F₁ hybrids, the phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio are identical at 1:2:1 (1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White).

 Additional Information

• Complete Dominance:
• Occurs when the dominant allele completely covers up the recessive allele in the heterozygous state.
• The F₁ phenotype is identical to the dominant parent, as seen in Mendel’s pea plant experiments (e.g., Tall vs. Dwarf).
• Co-dominance:
• A condition where both alleles are simultaneously and equally expressed in the heterozygote without blending.
• Classic examples include the ABO blood group (specifically the AB type) and sickle-cell trait.
• Sex-linkage:
• Refers to the inheritance of genes located on the sex chromosomes (X or Y).
• Traits like Haemophilia and Red-green color blindness follow this pattern, often showing criss-cross inheritance.

The correct answer is Presiding over Rajya Sabha sessions.

Key Points

• Under Article 64 and Article 89 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). It is the Vice-President, not the President, who is responsible for presiding over Rajya Sabha sessions, maintaining order, and regulating the business of the house. Hence, statement 3 is the correct identification of what is NOT a presidential function.
• The President is empowered by Article 72 to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in specific cases, such as court-martial or death sentences. Hence, statement 1 is a function of the President.
• According to Article 123, the President has the legislative power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly. Hence, statement 2 is a function of the President.
• Article 85 mandates that the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet. The President also has the authority to prorogue the Houses and dissolve the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 4 is a function of the President.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Role of the Vice-President
• The Vice-President acts as the President during a vacancy caused by death, resignation, or removal, but otherwise performs the primary function of Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• While presiding, the Vice-President does not have a vote in the first instance but holds a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
• Executive and Legislative Powers of the President
• The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India.
• All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in the name of the President.
• The President appoints the Prime Minister, other Ministers, the Attorney General, and Governors of States.
• A bill passed by Parliament becomes an Act only after receiving the Presidential assent under Article 111.

The correct answer is Sliding friction.

Key Points

• Sliding friction, also referred to as kinetic friction, is the resistive force that acts between two solid surfaces when one is sliding over the other.
• When a book is pushed across a table, the physical contact between the two surfaces results in the interlocking of microscopic irregularities (projections and depressions), which opposes the relative motion.
• The direction of this frictional force is always parallel to the contact surfaces and opposite to the direction of the applied force or motion.
• The magnitude of sliding friction is determined by the coefficient of kinetic friction (μ_k) and the normal force (N), expressed as f_k = μ_kN.
• It is a non-conservative force, meaning it dissipates kinetic energy into thermal energy (heat), which is why surfaces often warm up when rubbed together.

 Additional Information

• Rolling friction:
• Occurs when a spherical or cylindrical object, such as a ball, wheel, or roller, rolls over a surface.
• It is significantly weaker than sliding friction because the area of contact is minimal, making it easier to move heavy loads using wheels or ball bearings.
• Fluid friction:
• Also known as viscous drag, this is the resistance encountered by objects moving through fluids (liquids or gases).
• It depends on the viscosity of the medium, the shape of the object (streamlining), and the speed of motion.
• Magnetic friction:
• Refers to electromagnetic braking or eddy current damping, where motion is resisted by magnetic fields and induced currents.
• It does not require physical contact between surfaces and is used in modern high-speed trains and gym equipment.

The correct answer is MS Word.

Key Points

• MS Word, also known as Microsoft Word, is a premier word processing application developed by Microsoft. It is a core component of the Microsoft Office Suite and is designed primarily for the creation, editing, and formatting of text-based documents.
• As an application software, it serves the end-user directly to perform specific productive tasks. It operates on a WYSIWYG (What You See Is What You Get) interface, ensuring that the content appearing on the screen is exactly what will be printed.
• The software supports various file formats, most notably the .docx extension, which is based on XML, and the older .doc binary format. It allows users to manipulate text through font styles, paragraph alignment, and page layout settings.
• Advanced features of MS Word include Mail Merge for bulk documentation, Macros for task automation, and integrated tools for collaborative editing via OneDrive. It also provides robust referencing tools, such as citations and bibliographies, making it essential for academic and professional environments.
• In the hierarchy of software, it sits above the Operating System, relying on system resources to execute its functions while providing a user-friendly interface for document production.

 Additional Information

• BIOS (Basic Input/Output System):
• This is a type of firmware or system software stored on a ROM chip on the motherboard.
• It performs the POST (Power-On Self-Test) to ensure hardware components are functioning before loading the bootloader of the operating system.
• Operating Systems (Windows and Linux):
• Windows is a widely used proprietary Operating System (OS) developed by Microsoft, providing a Graphical User Interface (GUI) for managing hardware and software resources.
• Linux is an open-source kernel that serves as the foundation for various Linux distributions (like Ubuntu or Fedora). It is known for its security and multi-user multitasking capabilities.
• Both Windows and Linux are categorized as system software because they manage the fundamental operations of the computer hardware and provide a platform for application software like MS Word to run.

The correct answer is Compact Disc.

Key Points

• A Compact Disc is a digital optical disc data storage format that was co-developed by Sony and Philips, officially hitting the market in 1982.
• The technology utilizes a semiconductor laser with a wavelength of approximately 780 nanometers to read data stored as microscopic pits and lands on a spiral track.
• Standard CDs have a physical diameter of 120 millimeters and a thickness of 1.2 millimeters, providing a storage capacity of 700 MB or about 80 minutes of uncompressed Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) audio.
• Structurally, a CD consists of a polycarbonate plastic substrate, a thin reflective layer (usually aluminum), and a protective lacquer coating to prevent oxidation and physical damage.
• In computer terminology, the CD-ROM (Read-Only Memory) standard was established in the Yellow Book (1985), allowing discs to store computer data rather than just audio.

 Additional Information

• Variations of CD Technology:
• CD-R (Compact Disc-Recordable): Uses a photosensitive organic dye layer that allows a laser to burn data onto the disc once.
• CD-RW (Compact Disc ReWritable): Employs a phase-change alloy (typically silver, indium, antimony, and tellurium) that can be melted and recrystallized to erase and rewrite data multiple times.
• VCD (Video Compact Disc): A format for storing video on a CD using MPEG-1 compression, popular before the advent of DVDs.
• Distinction from Software Commands:
• The acronym cd in a Command Line Interface (CLI) like Windows Command Prompt or Linux Terminal stands for Change Directory, which is used to navigate between different folders in a file system.
• Successor Technologies:
• DVD (Digital Versatile Disc): Introduced in 1995, offering 4.7 GB storage using a 650 nm red laser.
• Blu-ray Disc: Uses a 405 nm blue-violet laser to achieve capacities of 25 GB or more per layer.