RRB NTPC · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

2060 Total Questions41 Official PapersYears: 1995–2026Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 121–140 of 2060Page 7 of 100
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 121

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

In which country was the International Conference on 'Reimagining Existence: Emerging Perspectives in World Literature and Language' held in March 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    China

  3. COption (c)

    Russia

  4. DOption (d)

    Italy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • The International Conference on 'Reimagining Existence: Emerging Perspectives in World Literature and Language' was successfully conducted on March 10 and 11, 2025.
  • The prestigious event was organized and hosted by the Department of English, School of Liberal Arts (SLA) at XIM University, which is located in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, India.
  • The conference utilized a hybrid mode, allowing for both in-person participation at the IC II Seminar Hall and virtual attendance from global scholars and delegates.
  • The primary objective of the conference was to explore the evolving aspects of human identity, culture, and consciousness through the lens of global literary and linguistic traditions.
  • It provided a vital platform for academicians, writers, translators, and researchers to address modern global challenges such as climate change, migration, and technological transformation.

 Additional Information

  • XIM University:
  • It is a premier private university based in Bhubaneswar, India, formerly known as Xavier University.
  • The inaugural address of the conference was delivered by Fr. Antony R. Uvari, the Vice Chancellor of the university.
  • Notable Speakers:
  • The keynote address was delivered by Prof. David Anshen from the University of Texas Rio Grande Valley, USA.
  • A plenary speech was given by Prof. Pramod K. Nayar, the UNESCO Chair in Vulnerability Studies from the University of Hyderabad.
  • Academic Output:
  • The scholarly articles and research papers presented during the two-day event were later curated into a collection published by Bloomsbury Publishing.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 122

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the provincial administration in the Mughal period and select the correct option.

Statement I: Each Suba was placed under a Subedar or provincial governor who was directly appointed by the Emperor.

Statement II: Daroga-i-Dak was responsible for maintaining the communication channel.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I is incorrect, while statement II is correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect.

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements I and II are incorrect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both statements I and II are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both statements I and II are correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both statements I and II are correct.

Key Points

  • In 1580, the Mughal Emperor Akbar organized the empire into administrative units known as Subas. Each province was headed by a Subedar (also known as Sipah Salar), who was the executive head and commander of the provincial forces. He was directly appointed by the Emperor and was responsible for maintaining law, order, and general administration. Hence, statement I is correct.
  • The Daroga-i-Dak was the superintendent of the Postal and Intelligence Department. His primary responsibility was to maintain the communication channel between the central government and the provinces. He managed the dispatch of imperial orders and the receipt of news reports from local officials like the Waqia-navis. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

  • Provincial Officials:
  • Diwan: He was the head of the revenue department at the provincial level and acted as a check on the Subedar. He was appointed by the Imperial Diwan.
  • Bakshi: This official looked after the military administration, including the payment of salaries and the recruitment of provincial troops.
  • Sadr: Responsible for religious grants, judicial matters, and charitable endowments within the Suba.
  • Waqia-navis: They were the official news reporters who kept the Emperor informed about every important occurrence in the province via the Daroga-i-Dak.
  • Kotwal: Functioned as the city administrator and police chief, responsible for law enforcement and internal security in urban areas.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 123

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which type of natural vegetation covers the largest geographical area in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mountain vegetation

  2. BOption (b)

    Dry Tropical Thorn vegetation

  3. COption (c)

    Tropical Deciduous vegetation

  4. DOption (d)

    Tidal mangrove vegetation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tropical Deciduous vegetation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tropical Deciduous vegetation.

Key Points

  • Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread and dominant forest type in India, covering approximately 65 percent of the total forest area of the country.
  • Popularly known as Monsoon Forests, they flourish in regions that receive an annual rainfall ranging between 70 cm and 200 cm.
  • Based on the availability of water, these forests are further categorized into Moist Deciduous (rainfall between 100-200 cm) and Dry Deciduous (rainfall between 70-100 cm).
  • A defining characteristic of this vegetation is that the trees shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks during the dry summer to prevent loss of moisture through transpiration.
  • They are geographically distributed across the foothills of the Himalayas, eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and the Peninsular plateau.
  • Economically, these forests are highly valuable as they provide timber from species such as Teak, Sal, Sandalwood, Shisham, Arjun, Kusum, and Mulberry.

 Additional Information

  • Mountain Vegetation:
  • Found in high-altitude regions like the Himalayas where the temperature decreases with height.
  • It transitions from wet temperate forests to coniferous forests (Pine, Deodar) and finally to Alpine vegetation at higher elevations.
  • Dry Tropical Thorn Vegetation:
  • Found in semi-arid regions receiving less than 70 cm of rainfall, such as Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Haryana.
  • Trees are typically stunted with deep roots and thick stems, including Acacias, Euphorbias, and Cacti.
  • Tidal Mangrove Vegetation:
  • Located along coastal areas and river deltas influenced by tides and saline water.
  • The Sundarbans in West Bengal is the largest mangrove habitat, dominated by Sundari trees.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 124

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

In November 2025, PM Modi chaired the 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police in which city of Chhattisgarh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bilaspur

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhilai

  3. COption (c)

    Korba

  4. DOption (d)

    Raipur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Raipur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Raipur.

Key Points

  • The 60th All India Conference of Directors General and Inspectors General of Police is scheduled to be held in Raipur, the capital city of Chhattisgarh, in November 2025.
  • This high-level annual summit is organized by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) and serves as a premier platform for top police leadership to deliberate on internal security challenges and policing strategies.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi will chair the core sessions of the conference, continuing the tradition of the head of government spending substantial time interacting with the country’s top police brass.
  • Union Home Minister Amit Shah and National Security Advisor Ajit Doval are also key participants, guiding discussions on policy implementation and inter-state police coordination.
  • The venue Raipur was selected following the successful conclusion of the 59th conference, highlighting the strategic importance of Chhattisgarh in India’s internal security map.

 Additional Information

  • Objectives of the Conference:
  • The primary focus includes the effective implementation of new criminal laws—Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA).
  • Specific sessions are dedicated to tackling Cyber Crime, Drug Trafficking, Left-Wing Extremism (LWE), and the security implications of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in policing.
  • The conference promotes Cooperative Federalism by bringing together Directors General of Police (DGPs) from all States and Union Territories alongside heads of Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).
  • Historical Context:
  • Since 2014, the conference has been moved out of Delhi to different states to provide exposure to regional security dynamics; previous venues include Jaipur (2024), Bhubaneswar (2024), and Lucknow.
  • The 59th All India DGP/IGP Conference was hosted in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, where the formal announcement for the Raipur edition was consolidated.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 125

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which statement is True or False about the Windows 11 Operating System (OS)?

(i) The OS loads program code directly onto the hard disk for execution, as the CPU can only execute code from permanent storage.

(ii) For multitasking, the OS allocates small CPU time slices to processes, rapidly switching between them, a technique known as Time-Sharing.

  1. AOption (a)

    (i) False, (ii) True

  2. BOption (b)

    (i) True, (ii) False

  3. COption (c)

    (i) False, (ii) False

  4. DOption (d)

    (i) True, (ii) True

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(i) False, (ii) True

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (i) False, (ii) True.

Key Points

  • The Central Processing Unit (CPU) does not execute program code directly from a Hard Disk or any permanent storage device because these devices are significantly slower than the processor; instead, the Operating System (OS) must first load the code into the Random Access Memory (RAM) for execution. Hence, statement

(i) is incorrect.

  • Windows 11 utilizes a Preemptive Multitasking model where the OS Scheduler assigns a specific duration of processor time, known as a Time Slice or Quantum, to various active processes, switching between them so rapidly that it creates the effect of simultaneous execution. Hence, statement

(ii) is correct.

 Additional Information

  • Random Access Memory (RAM):
  • It is the Primary Memory of the computer system characterized by high-speed data access and Volatile storage, meaning it loses data when power is removed.
  • The Memory Management unit of the Windows 11 OS ensures that only the necessary fragments of a program (pages) are loaded into RAM to optimize performance.
  • Time-Sharing Systems:
  • This technique allows multiple users or programs to share the resources of a single CPU by alternating execution in small intervals, improving Throughput and responsiveness.
  • It prevents a single application from monopolizing the Processor, ensuring a smooth User Interface (UI) experience in modern environments like Windows 11.
  • Windows 11 OS Architecture:
  • It is built upon the Windows NT kernel, which is designed to handle complex Process Scheduling, security protocols, and Virtual Memory management.
  • The system uses Context Switching to save the state of a process before moving to the next time slice, allowing the previous task to resume exactly where it left off.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 126

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

In which year did FEMA replace FERA?

  1. AOption (a)

    1998

  2. BOption (b)

    1994

  3. COption (c)

    1990

  4. DOption (d)

    1999

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1999

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1999.

Key Points

  • The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) was introduced by the Government of India in 1999 to replace the archaic Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1973.
  • This legislative transition was a direct result of the economic liberalization policies initiated in 1991, which necessitated a shift from a control-oriented regime to a management-oriented framework.
  • While the FEMA bill was passed by the Indian Parliament in December 1999, it officially came into force on June 1, 2000, marking the complete repeal of FERA.
  • The primary objective of the 1999 Act is to facilitate external trade and payments and to promote the orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India.
  • Under FEMA, the legal philosophy changed significantly; violations that were previously treated as criminal offenses under FERA were reclassified as civil offenses.
  • The act applies to the whole of India and also extends to all branches, offices, and agencies outside India that are owned or controlled by a person resident in India.

 Additional Information

  • Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), 1973:
  • Enacted during a period of acute foreign exchange shortage, it was designed to conserve foreign exchange reserves through strict regulations.
  • It was characterized by its draconian provisions, where the burden of proof lay on the accused, and the Enforcement Directorate (ED) had extensive powers of arrest and search.
  • Key Features of FEMA, 1999:
  • Current Account Transactions: These are generally permitted unless specifically restricted by the Central Government.
  • Capital Account Transactions: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is empowered to specify the classes of capital account transactions and the limit up to which foreign exchange shall be admissible.
  • Adjudicating Authority: It provides for the appointment of Adjudicating Officers for holding inquiries and an Appellate Tribunal for hearing appeals against the orders of these officers.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 127

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Amendment restored the primacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles?

  1. AOption (a)

    42nd Amendment

  2. BOption (b)

    84th Amendment

  3. COption (c)

    44th Amendment

  4. DOption (d)

    74th Amendment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

44th Amendment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 44th Amendment.

Key Points

  • The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, was enacted by the Janata Party government primarily to nullify the various distortions introduced into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, during the Emergency.
  • Prior to this, the 42nd Amendment had significantly expanded the scope of Article 31C to state that no law giving effect to any or all Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) could be declared void on the ground of being inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights (specifically Articles 14, 19, and 31).
  • The 44th Amendment sought to restore the balance between Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (Directive Principles) by stripping away the absolute immunity granted to all DPSPs over Fundamental Rights, thereby reinstating the primacy of individual liberties.
  • A crucial step in this restoration was the removal of the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right (originally Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31) and its reclassification as a Legal Right under Article 300A, which reduced the friction between state-led socio-economic reforms and individual rights.
  • The amendment also ensured that the enforcement of the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences and Protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.

 Additional Information

  • 42nd Amendment Act, 1976:
  • Often referred to as the Mini-Constitution, it was enacted by the Indira Gandhi government.
  • It added the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble.
  • It introduced Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A (Article 51A).
  • 74th Amendment Act, 1992:
  • This amendment granted constitutional status and protection to the Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) or Municipalities.
  • It added Part IX-A and the 12th Schedule to the Constitution of India.
  • 84th Amendment Act, 2001:
  • It extended the freeze on the number of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies until the year 2026.
  • This was based on the population figures of the 1991 Census and later adjusted to the 2001 Census for delimitation purposes without changing the total number of seats.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 128

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following led the large-scale armed attack on the Chittagong armoury in April 1930?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jatin Das

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhagat Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Chandrasekhar Azad

  4. DOption (d)

    Surya Sen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Surya Sen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Surya Sen.

Key Points

  • Surya Sen, popularly known as Masterda due to his profession as a school teacher, was the primary architect and leader of the Chittagong Armoury Raid executed on April 18, 1930.
  • He founded and led the Indian Republican Army (IRA), Chittagong Branch, which was modeled after the Irish Republican Army to challenge British colonial rule through armed resistance.
  • The meticulously planned operation targeted two major armories in Chittagong (now in Bangladesh): the Police Armoury and the Auxiliary Force Armoury, with the aim of seizing weapons and ammunition.
  • Under his leadership, approximately 65 revolutionaries successfully severed communication lines by destroying telegraph and telephone wires and disrupted railway links to isolate the city from British reinforcements.
  • After the raid, Surya Sen hoisted the Indian National Flag outside the captured police armoury and was proclaimed the head of the Provisional Revolutionary Government.
  • Following the Battle of Jalalabad Hills on April 22, 1930, he went underground for nearly three years before being captured in February 1933 and was eventually hanged on January 12, 1934.

 Additional Information

  • Jatin Das
  • A prominent member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
  • He is best remembered for his 63-day hunger strike in Lahore Jail in 1929, protesting against the ill-treatment of political prisoners, which led to his martyrdom.
  • Bhagat Singh
  • A key figure in the HSRA who was involved in the Lahore Conspiracy Case and the 1929 Central Legislative Assembly bombing.
  • He was executed on March 23, 1931, alongside Rajguru and Sukhdev.
  • Chandrasekhar Azad
  • The reorganized leader of the HSRA who participated in the Kakori Train Robbery.
  • He vowed never to be caught alive by the British and died during a shootout at Alfred Park, Allahabad, in February 1931.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 129

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

By which Amendment Act were the words ‘socialist’, ‘secular’, and ‘integrity’ added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    62nd Amendment Act

  2. BOption (b)

    32nd Amendment Act

  3. COption (c)

    52nd Amendment Act

  4. DOption (d)

    42nd Amendment Act

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

42nd Amendment Act

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 42nd Amendment Act.

Key Points

  • The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended only once since its enactment on January 26, 1950, which was achieved through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • This landmark legislation was passed during the National Emergency (1975−1977) under the government of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • The amendment inserted three significant words into the Preamble: 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'.
  • The addition of 'Socialist' and 'Secular' transformed the description of India from a 'Sovereign Democratic Republic' to a 'Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic'.
  • Furthermore, the phrase 'Unity of the Nation' was replaced with 'Unity and Integrity of the Nation' to emphasize the territorial and psychological unity of the country.

 Additional Information

  • The 42nd Amendment Act is widely referred to as the 'Mini-Constitution' because it brought about massive changes across various parts of the document.
  • It introduced Fundamental Duties for citizens under a new Part IV-A (Article 51A).
  • It transferred five subjects—Education, Forests, Weights and Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice—from the State List to the Concurrent List.
  • 62nd Amendment Act: Enacted in 1989, this act extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for another 10 years (until 2000).
  • 52nd Amendment Act: Passed in 1985, it is famously known as the Anti-Defection Law. It added the 10th Schedule to the Constitution to disqualify members of Parliament or State Legislatures on grounds of defection.
  • 32nd Amendment Act: Enacted in 1973, it provided for the insertion of Article 371-D and Article 371-E to ensure equitable opportunities in Andhra Pradesh for public employment and education, specifically addressing the Telangana region's grievances.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 130

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which academic institution was responsible for designing the IRIS chip based on the SHAKTI microprocessor, India's push for self-reliance in semiconductor technology, in February 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    IIT Madras

  2. BOption (b)

    IISc Bangalore

  3. COption (c)

    IIT Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    NIT Trichy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

IIT Madras

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IIT Madras.

Key Points

  • The IRIS chip is a cutting-edge semiconductor design developed by the SHAKTI team at IIT Madras, representing a major milestone in India's mission for technological sovereignty in February 2025.
  • It is built upon the SHAKTI microprocessor framework, which is the first indigenous industrial-grade processor family in India, designed using the open-source RISC-V Instruction Set Architecture (ISA).
  • The development of the IRIS chip directly supports the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-Reliant India) initiative by providing a home-grown alternative to foreign proprietary semiconductor technologies like ARM and Intel.
  • The IRIS variant is specifically optimized for Edge Computing and Internet of Things (IoT) devices, emphasizing high energy efficiency, integrated security features, and a small silicon footprint for compact hardware.
  • This project was managed by the RISE Group (Reconfigurable Intelligent Systems Engineering) within the Department of Computer Science and Engineering at IIT Madras, funded largely by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

 Additional Information

  • SHAKTI Microprocessor Project:
  • Launched in 2014, the project aims to develop six different classes of processors, including the E-class for low-power microcontrollers and the C-class for core-level compute tasks.
  • The project is led by Professor V. Kamakoti, the current Director of IIT Madras, who has been instrumental in advocating for indigenous hardware in India's strategic sectors.
  • The IRIS chip signifies the evolution of this project into commercial-ready silicon that can be mass-produced for the domestic electronics market.
  • India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
  • This is a specialized business division within the Digital India Corporation tasked with building a sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem in the country.
  • The IRIS development aligns with the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme, which offers financial incentives and design infrastructure support to domestic startups and academic institutions.
  • RISC-V Architecture:
  • Unlike proprietary architectures, RISC-V is a royalty-free, open-standard ISA that allows Indian engineers to customize hardware for specific security protocols without needing external licenses or being subject to export controls.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 131

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tertiary services?

  1. AOption (a)

    Includes tourism, banking, and trade

  2. BOption (b)

    Involves face-to-face or remote interaction

  3. COption (c)

    Directly processes natural resources

  4. DOption (d)

    Often located in urban areas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Directly processes natural resources

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Directly processes natural resources.

Key Points

  • The Tertiary Sector, often called the Service Sector, involves activities that provide support and intangible value, such as tourism, banking, trade, and transportation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • A primary feature of tertiary services is that they rely on human interaction, which may take place face-to-face (like medical consultations) or through remote digital communication and telecommunications. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The act of directly processing natural resources is the fundamental characteristic of the Primary Sector, which includes agriculture, mining, forestry, and fishing; the tertiary sector does not engage in raw material extraction. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Service-based industries are often located in urban areas because these regions provide the necessary infrastructure, a dense consumer market, and a specialized labor force required for commercial activities. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

  • Economic sectors are categorized based on the nature of activity:
  • Primary Sector: Focused on the extraction and harvesting of natural resources. It includes quarrying, farming, and animal husbandry.
  • Secondary Sector: Involved in manufacturing and construction, where raw materials are transformed into finished products (e.g., steel production or textile mills).
  • Quaternary Sector: A knowledge-oriented subset of the service sector involving information technology, research and development (R&D), and financial planning.
  • Quinary Sector: Comprises the highest level of decision-making, including government officials, top executives, and scientific consultants who formulate policies and strategies.
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Question 132

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Where does the Indian Prime Minister hoist the national flag on the occasion of Independence Day?

  1. AOption (a)

    India Gate

  2. BOption (b)

    Red Fort

  3. COption (c)

    Jantar Mantar

  4. DOption (d)

    Qutb Minar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Red Fort

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Red Fort.

Key Points

  • The Red Fort, or Lal Qila, is a historic fortification in Old Delhi that serves as the designated venue for the national Independence Day ceremony held every August 15.
  • The Prime Minister of India hoists the National Flag (Tiranga) from the ramparts of the fort, specifically at the Lahori Gate, to commemorate India's freedom from British rule.
  • This tradition was initiated by the first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, on August 15, 1947, symbolizing the birth of a sovereign nation and the end of the British Raj.
  • The ceremony includes a 21-gun salute, the singing of the national anthem, Jana Gana Mana, and an address to the nation by the Prime Minister detailing the country's progress and future vision.
  • The fort was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in 1638 and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site for its architectural and historical significance.

 Additional Information

  • India Gate:
  • A prominent war memorial located on Kartavya Path (formerly Rajpath) in New Delhi, designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens.
  • It commemorates the soldiers of the British Indian Army who died during World War I and the Third Anglo-Afghan War.
  • Jantar Mantar:
  • An astronomical observatory built by Maharaja Jai Singh II of Jaipur in 1724, consisting of 13 architectural astronomy instruments.
  • The primary purpose of the structures was to compile astronomical tables and predict the times and movements of the sun, moon, and planets.
  • Qutb Minar:
  • A 73-metre high victory tower and UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the Mehrauli area of Delhi.
  • Its construction was started by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1192 and completed by his successor Iltutmish and later Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
  • Protocol Distinction:
  • On Independence Day (August 15), the flag is hoisted (pulled from bottom to top) by the Prime Minister at the Red Fort.
  • On Republic Day (January 26), the flag is unfurled (unfolded while tied at the top) by the President of India at Kartavya Path.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 133

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

In the Windows 11 File System, a file named mydriver.sys is found in the C:\Windows\System32\drivers folder. Based on its file extension and location, which of the following best describes the purpose and classification of this file?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is an Application Data File used for temporary user settings and can be safely deleted to free up disk space.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is a System Configuration File that holds graphical settings and can be edited with a standard text editor.

  3. COption (c)

    It is an Operating System Log File that records system events and is only read by the Task Manager.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is a System Driver File that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component..

Key Points

  • The .sys extension is the standard file format for Windows System Files, which are primarily used as device drivers or hardware configuration files that interact directly with the Windows Kernel.
  • The specific directory C:\Windows\System32\drivers is the critical repository where Windows 11 stores Kernel-mode driver files required for the operating system to manage hardware peripherals and core system resources.
  • A System Driver File acts as a software interface or 'translator,' enabling the Operating System (OS) to send high-level commands to hardware devices (such as network cards, disk drives, or chipsets) and receive feedback or data in return.
  • Files located in the drivers folder are typically loaded during the boot sequence; they operate at a high privilege level (Ring 0) to ensure efficient and direct communication with the physical hardware layer of the computer.

 Additional Information

  • Application Data Files:
  • These files usually reside in C:\Users\[Username]\AppData or ProgramData folders. They store user-specific settings or temporary data and typically use extensions like .xml, .json, or .dat rather than .sys.
  • System Configuration Files:
  • Most modern Windows 11 configurations are managed via the Windows Registry or Group Policy. Legacy configuration files like .ini or .cfg are text-based, whereas .sys files are binary files that cannot be read or edited using a standard text editor.
  • Operating System Log Files:
  • System events are recorded in Log Files (extensions like .log or .evtx), typically found in C:\Windows\Logs. These records are viewed through the Event Viewer utility rather than the Task Manager.
  • Impact of Deletion:
  • Deleting or corrupting a System Driver File like mydriver.sys can lead to severe system instability, hardware failure, or the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) because the OS loses the ability to control a specific hardware component.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 134

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following services is a core component of the tourism industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    Teaching

  2. BOption (b)

    Banking

  3. COption (c)

    Insurance

  4. DOption (d)

    Hospitality

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hospitality

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hospitality.

Key Points

  • Hospitality is recognized as the core foundational pillar of the tourism industry, as it encompasses the essential services required by travelers, including accommodation, food and beverage, and guest relations.
  • The relationship between tourism and hospitality is symbiotic; while Tourism refers to the activity of people traveling to places outside their usual environment, Hospitality provides the infrastructure and service quality that makes the stay possible and comfortable.
  • The hospitality sector includes lodging operations such as hotels, resorts, and homestays, which are vital for any tourist destination to sustain overnight visitors and generate economic value.
  • Key components of hospitality in tourism also involve culinary services and event management, ensuring that the basic physiological and social needs of a tourist are met during their journey.

 Additional Information

  • Banking
  • This service belongs to the Financial Sector.
  • In the context of travel, it facilitates currency exchange, international transactions, and ATM accessibility, but it remains a supporting function rather than a core tourism component.
  • Insurance
  • Insurance is a part of the Financial and Risk Management sector.
  • While Travel Insurance is highly recommended to cover medical emergencies or trip cancellations, it is a risk-mitigation tool and not an inherent part of the tourism experience itself.
  • Teaching
  • Teaching is the primary activity of the Education Sector.
  • It focuses on pedagogical methods and knowledge dissemination, which does not directly involve the hosting or servicing of travelers within the tourism value chain.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 135

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

When did Ladakh become a union territory of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    2019

  2. BOption (b)

    2017

  3. COption (c)

    2021

  4. DOption (d)

    2020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2019

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2019.

Key Points

  • Ladakh officially became a Union Territory of India on October 31, 2019, following the enactment of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
  • The proposal to reorganize the state was introduced in the Rajya Sabha on August 5, 2019, and received the Presidential assent on August 9, 2019.
  • This administrative change led to the bifurcation of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir into two separate Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
  • The effective date, October 31, was chosen to coincide with the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who played a pivotal role in the political integration of India.
  • Ladakh is established as a Union Territory without a legislature, meaning it is governed directly by the Central Government through an appointed Lieutenant Governor.

 Additional Information

  • Administrative Structure of Ladakh:
  • The Union Territory comprises two primary districts: Leh and Kargil.
  • Radha Krishna Mathur was sworn in as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Ladakh in 2019.
  • While it lacks a state-level assembly, it retains its Autonomous Hill Development Councils for both Leh and Kargil to manage local governance.
  • Constitutional Context:
  • The transition occurred alongside the effective abrogation of Article 370, which previously granted special autonomous status to the region.
  • The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, unlike Ladakh, was created with a provision for its own Legislative Assembly, similar to the model of Puducherry.
  • National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas) is celebrated annually on October 31, the same day the new administrative status of the region was formalized.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 136

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following sites contains prehistoric paintings ranging from the Mesolithic to the historic period?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nalanda

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhimbetka

  3. COption (c)

    Hampi

  4. DOption (d)

    Pattadakal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bhimbetka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhimbetka.

Key Points

  • Located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, the Bhimbetka rock shelters are situated within the Vindhya Mountain Range and represent the earliest traces of human life on the Indian subcontinent.
  • The site features over 700 rock shelters, containing paintings that provide a continuous cultural record from the Upper Paleolithic and Mesolithic periods through the Chalcolithic and into the historic period.
  • Mesolithic paintings at Bhimbetka are characterized by depictions of hunting, dancing, and various animals such as bison, tigers, and elephants, often painted in red and white pigments.
  • The historic period paintings at the site demonstrate a transition in social life, featuring warriors on horseback, processions, and religious symbols, indicating more organized societal structures.
  • Discovered by archaeologist Dr. V.S. Wakankar in 1957, Bhimbetka was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2003 for its exceptional prehistoric art.

 Additional Information

  • Nalanda:
  • Situated in Bihar, it was a world-famous ancient Buddhist university and monastic center that reached its peak during the Gupta Empire and Pala Empire.
  • It is purely a historic period site, serving as a hub for higher learning and Buddhist philosophy.
  • Hampi:
  • Located in Karnataka on the banks of the Tungabhadra River, it was the grand capital of the Vijayanagara Empire during the 14th to 16th centuries.
  • It is known for its Dravidian style temple architecture and was a major medieval historic trade center.
  • Pattadakal:
  • A UNESCO World Heritage Site in Karnataka, it represents the high point of Chalukya architecture during the 7th and 8th centuries.
  • The site features a unique blend of Nagara and Dravidian temple styles, categorized as the Vesara style, and belongs strictly to the historic period.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 137

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

What was the Dual Government system introduced after the Battle of Buxar?

  1. AOption (a)

    A system where the French and British shared governance

  2. BOption (b)

    A system where the British ruled directly

  3. COption (c)

    A system where the Nawab collected revenue and the Company maintained the army

  4. DOption (d)

    A system where the Company collected revenue, and Nawab handled administration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A system where the Company collected revenue, and Nawab handled administration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A system where the Company collected revenue, and Nawab handled administration.

Key Points

  • The Dual Government system was a unique administrative arrangement introduced in Bengal by Robert Clive in 1765 following the British victory in the Battle of Buxar.
  • Under this system, the administration of Bengal was divided into two distinct parts: Diwani and Nizamat.
  • The East India Company acquired the Diwani rights (the right to collect revenue and manage civil justice) from the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II through the Treaty of Allahabad.
  • The Nawab of Bengal was restricted to Nizamat functions, which included general administration, maintenance of law and order, and criminal justice.
  • This arrangement created a scenario where the British exercised actual power and controlled the financial resources without any responsibility, while the Nawab bore the full responsibility of administration without the funds or power to execute it.
  • The Company exercised its Diwani powers through appointed Deputy Diwans, specifically Mohammad Reza Khan for Bengal and Raja Shitab Roy for Bihar.

 Additional Information

  • Battle of Buxar (1764):
  • This decisive battle was fought between the British East India Company and the combined forces of Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Shuja-ud-Daula (Nawab of Awadh), and Shah Alam II (Mughal Emperor).
  • The British victory established them as a dominant political power in Northern India.
  • Abolition of Dual Government:
  • The system was eventually abolished in 1772 by Warren Hastings, who brought Bengal under the direct control of the Company.
  • The abolition was necessitated by the rampant corruption, administrative breakdown, and the devastating impact of the Great Bengal Famine of 1770.
  • Robert Clive:
  • Served as the first Governor of Bengal and is credited with laying the foundation of British rule in India.
  • He returned to India in 1765 specifically to reform the administration and consolidate the gains made after Buxar.
RRB NTPC (UG) CBT-I Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 138

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which football player was named the Professional Footballers’ Association (PFA) Player of the Year in August 2025, becoming the first player to win the award three times?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lionel Messi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mohamed Salah

  3. COption (c)

    Neymar

  4. DOption (d)

    Casemiro

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mohamed Salah

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mohamed Salah.

Key Points

  • Mohamed Salah, the prolific forward for Liverpool FC, was officially named the Professional Footballers’ Association (PFA) Player of the Year in August 2025.
  • With this achievement, he became the first player in history to win the prestigious award three times, establishing a new record in English football.
  • Salah’s previous victories in the PFA Players’ Player of the Year category occurred during the 2017–18 and 2021–22 seasons.
  • The PFA Player of the Year is an annual award given to the player who is adjudged to have been the best of the year in English football, based on a vote by the members of the players' union, the Professional Footballers' Association.
  • Winning the award in 2025 highlights his consistent performance and dominance in the Premier League, where he has maintained elite scoring and playmaking levels for nearly a decade.

 Additional Information

  • Award History and Multi-time Winners:
  • Before Mohamed Salah secured his third trophy, the record for most wins was two, shared by several legends including Mark Hughes, Alan Shearer, Thierry Henry, Cristiano Ronaldo, Gareth Bale, and Kevin De Bruyne.
  • The award has been presented since the 1973–74 season and is considered one of the most coveted individual honors because it is voted for by the players' own peers.
  • Mohamed Salah’s Legacy:
  • Known as the 'Egyptian King', Salah has broken numerous records at Liverpool, including becoming the club’s all-time leading scorer in the Premier League era.
  • His 2024–25 campaign, which led to the August 2025 recognition, was characterized by high goal contributions and leadership on the pitch.
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Question 139

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Constitution of municipalities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 243Q

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 243P

  3. COption (c)

    Article 243R

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 243S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 243Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 243Q.

Key Points

  • Article 243Q of the Indian Constitution mandates the establishment of three types of Municipalities in every State based on the size and nature of the urban area.
  • This provision was introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which added Part IXA to the Constitution, providing a formal structure to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
  • A Nagar Panchayat is constituted for a transitional area, which is a location shifting from a rural to an urban character.
  • A Municipal Council is established for a smaller urban area, ensuring local governance and infrastructure management.
  • A Municipal Corporation is created for a larger urban area, typically characterized by high population density and significant revenue generation.
  • The Governor of the state has the authority to define and notify these areas based on factors such as population, density, and the percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities.

 Additional Information

  • Article 243P:
  • Contains the Definitions for terms used in Part IXA, including Metropolitan area, Municipal area, and Panchayat.
  • A Metropolitan area is defined as an area having a population of ten lakhs or more.
  • Article 243R:
  • Deals with the Composition of Municipalities, requiring all seats to be filled by direct election from territorial constituencies.
  • It allows for the representation of the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly members within the municipal body.
  • Article 243S:
  • Provides for the Constitution and Composition of Wards Committees in municipalities having a population of three lakhs or more.
  • The 74th Amendment also introduced the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 functional items such as urban planning, fire services, and public health that fall under municipal jurisdiction.
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Question 140

RRB NTPC 2026• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin that helps in promotion of calcium absorption in the gut for bone health?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin C

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin D

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin A

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vitamin D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vitamin D.

Key Points

  • Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that functions primarily as a steroid hormone, playing a critical role in maintaining calcium homeostasis and bone health.
  • The primary function of Vitamin D is to enhance the intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus by stimulating the expression of calbindin and TRPV6 transport proteins in the small intestine.
  • Without adequate Vitamin D, the body can only absorb about 10% to 15% of dietary calcium, but with sufficient levels, the absorption efficiency increases to 30% to 40%.
  • It is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation, converting 7-dehydrocholesterol into Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol).
  • The active form of the vitamin, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D or calcitriol, is produced in the kidneys and acts on the bone cells (osteoblasts and osteoclasts) to regulate bone remodeling.
  • Deficiency in this vitamin can lead to skeletal deformities like Rickets in children and Osteomalacia or Osteoporosis in adults, where bones become brittle and weak.

 Additional Information

  • Vitamin C
  • It is a water-soluble vitamin, also known as ascorbic acid, found in citrus fruits and leafy greens.
  • Its primary role is the synthesis of collagen and acting as a potent antioxidant; its deficiency leads to Scurvy.
  • Vitamin A
  • A fat-soluble vitamin that is vital for vision, as it is a component of rhodopsin in the retina.
  • It supports immune function and skin health; major sources include retinol from animal liver and beta-carotene from carrots.
  • Vitamin B
  • A complex of water-soluble vitamins (B1, B2, B12, etc.) that act as coenzymes in various metabolic pathways.
  • They are essential for energy production, red blood cell formation, and maintaining neurological health.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in RRB NTPC?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.