General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Marmagao Port.

Key Points

• Marmagao Port is a premier Major Port of India located on the west coast in the state of Goa, specifically situated on the southern headland at the entrance of the Zuari Estuary.
• The port gained immense significance after 1961, following the Liberation of Goa from Portuguese rule, which led to its administrative integration and subsequent remodelling to serve national interests.
• It is internationally recognized as one of the oldest natural deep-water harbours in India, facilitating the movement of massive bulk carriers.
• The primary commodity driving the port's economy is iron ore, sourced from the rich mining belts of the Goa-Ratnagiri region.
• The remodelling in the early 1960s was specifically geared towards streamlining the mechanized handling and export of iron ore to industrial markets, most notably Japan, which became a leading trade partner for Goan minerals.

 Additional Information

• New Mangalore Port:
• Located at Panambur in Karnataka, it is often referred to as the Gateway of Karnataka.
• It predominantly handles the export of iron ore concentrates specifically from the Kudremukh mines.
• Kandla Port:
• Now officially known as Deendayal Port, it is located in the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat.
• It is a Tidal Port developed in the 1950s to decongest Mumbai Port and serve as a replacement for the loss of Karachi Port following independence.
• Jawaharlal Nehru Port:
• Situated in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, it is also known as Nhava Sheva.
• Commissioned in 1989, it is the largest container port in India, equipped with state-of-the-art automated technology.

The correct answer is Finland.

Key Points

• Finland has maintained its status as the happiest country in the world for the eighth consecutive year according to the 2025 World Happiness Report.
• The report is a landmark survey of the state of global happiness, published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN).
• Rankings are primarily based on self-reported life evaluation data from the Gallup World Poll, which utilizes the Cantril ladder question where respondents rate their lives on a scale of 0 to 10.
• The high ranking of Finland is consistently driven by exceptional scores in six fundamental variables: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and the perceived absence of corruption.
• Finnish society is characterized by high levels of social trust, where citizens feel safe and supported by both their community and government institutions.

 Additional Information

• Other high-performing Nordic nations:
• Iceland: Frequently ranks in the top three globally, benefiting from a very strong sense of social cohesion and community resilience.
• Norway: A consistent top-tier performer that held the number one spot in 2017, supported by robust economic stability and natural resource management.
• Sweden: Known for its emphasis on work-life balance, environmental sustainability, and high institutional transparency, usually appearing in the global top ten.
• The Nordic Model: These countries share a unique socio-economic system that combines free-market capitalism with a comprehensive welfare state, ensuring universal access to high-quality education and healthcare funded through progressive taxation.

The correct answer is Touchscreen.

Key Points

• A Touchscreen is a unique peripheral that combines the capabilities of an input device and an output device within a single physical unit.
• It functions as an input device by utilizing a touch-sensitive overlay that detects the pressure or electrical conductivity of a finger or stylus, converting these physical interactions into digital signals for the processor.
• Simultaneously, it serves as an output device by using an integrated LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) or OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode) panel to display visual information and feedback to the user.
• Common technologies used in these devices include Capacitive sensing (relying on electrical charges) and Resistive sensing (relying on physical pressure), both of which allow for direct interaction with a Graphical User Interface (GUI).
• Because it both receives data from the user and provides data back to the user on the same interface, it is classified as a dual-purpose or hybrid peripheral.

 Additional Information

• Barcode Reader:
• This is a dedicated input device that uses a laser beam or an image sensor to scan and decode the printed bars of a barcode.
• It transmits the decoded numerical or alphanumeric data into a computer system for processing, but it cannot display information to the user.
• Plotter:
• A Plotter is a specialized output device used for printing vector graphics.
• Unlike standard printers, it uses automated pens to draw continuous, high-precision lines on large sheets of paper, making it essential for Computer-Aided Design (CAD), engineering blueprints, and architectural plans.
• Digital Camera:
• In a computing context, a digital camera is primarily viewed as an input device because it captures light through a lens and converts it into digital data via CCD (Charge-Coupled Device) or CMOS sensors.
• This data is then transferred into a computer or storage medium for later viewing or editing.

The correct answer is Voting or holding a government job.

Key Points

• The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme was introduced by amending the Citizenship Act, 1955, in August 2005 to cater to the demands of the Indian Diaspora residing abroad.
• Although OCI cardholders are granted a lifelong visa and a multipurpose, multi-entry facility to visit India, they do not possess dual citizenship, as Article 9 of the Constitution of India strictly prohibits holding citizenship of two countries simultaneously.
• Under Section 7B(2) of the Citizenship Act, 1955, an OCI cardholder is specifically denied political rights, meaning they cannot exercise the Right to Vote in any General Election or State Assembly Election.
• OCI cardholders are ineligible to hold public office or constitutional posts, including the offices of the President, Vice-President, or Governor of a state.
• They are also barred from being appointed as Judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts and cannot be members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) or the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
• Employment in government services or public sector undertakings is restricted unless the Central Government issues a specific notification allowing such appointments for a particular field.

 Additional Information

• Ownership of Property:
• OCI cardholders can acquire and transfer immovable property in India, such as residential or commercial buildings.
• However, they are legally prohibited from purchasing agricultural land, plantation property, or farmhouses.
• Education and Taxation:
• They are treated at par with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) for admission to educational institutions under specified quotas.
• Regarding taxation, OCI cardholders are liable to pay taxes on any income earned or generated within the geographical boundaries of India.
• Consolidation of Schemes:
• In January 2015, the Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card scheme was merged with the OCI scheme to provide a unified platform and better facilities for the diaspora.

The correct answer is 1999.

Key Points

• The Justice J.S. Verma Committee was constituted by the Union Government in 1998 to operationalize the strategy to teach Fundamental Duties to every citizen and to create awareness among the masses.
• The committee was tasked with identifying the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of Fundamental Duties and suggesting ways to make them more effective.
• The committee submitted its comprehensive report to the Union Government in October 1999.
• A primary finding of the report was that several Fundamental Duties are already backed by legal statutes and can be enforced through the Indian Penal Code or specific legislative acts.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties:
• These were not part of the original Constitution but were added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• They are enshrined in Part IV-A and Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
• Legal Provisions Identified by the Verma Committee:
• Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971): Prevents disrespect to the National Flag, the Constitution of India, and the National Anthem.
• Wildlife (Protection) Act (1972): Prohibits trade in rare and endangered species to protect the natural environment.
• Representation of the People Act (1951): Disqualifies members of Parliament or State Legislatures for promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, or language.
• Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (1967): Provides for the declaration of a communal organization as an unlawful association.
• Justice J.S. Verma:
• He served as the 27^th Chief Justice of India and was later the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).

The correct answer is Article 126.

Key Points

• Article 126 of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the Appointment of acting Chief Justice of India.
• This provision is invoked when the office of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is vacant or when the incumbent is unable to perform their duties due to absence or other reasons.
• The power to make this appointment resides with the President of India, who selects one of the other Judges of the Supreme Court to discharge the duties of the office.
• This Article is part of Chapter IV (The Union Judiciary) of Part V of the Constitution, which establishes the structure and functions of the Supreme Court.
• The appointment is temporary and lasts only until the permanent Chief Justice resumes office or a new one is appointed under Article 124.

 Additional Information

• Article 120:
• Regulates the language to be used in Parliament, primarily Hindi and English for conducting business.
• It allows the Speaker or Chairman to permit a member to address the House in their mother tongue if they cannot express themselves in the official languages.
• Article 122:
• Prohibits Courts from inquiring into the validity of proceedings in Parliament on the grounds of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
• It ensures the independence of the Legislature from judicial interference regarding internal parliamentary functions.
• Article 130:
• Designates Delhi as the official seat of the Supreme Court of India.
• It also empowers the Chief Justice of India, with the prior approval of the President, to sit in other places for the convenience of the public and the judiciary.

The correct answer is Prakash Padukone.

Key Points

• Prakash Padukone created history by becoming the first Indian badminton player to win the All England Open Badminton Championships in 1980.
• In the championship final, he defeated the legendary Indonesian player and defending champion Liem Swie King in straight sets with a dominant score of 15-3, 15-10.
• Following this historic victory at the Wembley Arena in London, he reached the World No. 1 ranking, becoming the first Indian to achieve this feat in badminton.
• His success played a pivotal role in popularizing the sport in India and established the Prakash Padukone Badminton Academy to train future champions.
• He was honored with the Arjuna Award in 1972 and the Padma Shri in 1982 by the Government of India for his outstanding sporting achievements.

 Additional Information

• HS Prannoy:
• A prominent Indian shuttler who was a key member of the Thomas Cup 2022 winning team and won a bronze medal at the 2023 BWF World Championships.
• Kidambi Srikanth:
• He became the World No. 1 in 2018 and was the first Indian male to win a silver medal at the BWF World Championships in 2021.
• Saina Nehwal:
• She was the first Indian woman to reach the final of the All England Championship in 2015 and won India's first Olympic medal in badminton (Bronze) at the 2012 London Olympics.
• Pullela Gopichand:
• The only other Indian besides Padukone to win the All England Championship, achieving the title in 2001.

The correct answer is Dayanand Saraswati.

Key Points

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati established the Arya Samaj, a monotheistic Indian Hindu reform movement, on April 10, 1875, in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• The movement was founded on the principle of the infallible authority of the Vedas, with the famous slogan Go Back to the Vedas.
• Dayanand Saraswati rejected rituals such as idol worship, animal sacrifice, ancestor worship, and the caste system based on birth rather than merit.
• The Arya Samaj worked extensively toward social reforms, including the promotion of female education, widow remarriage, and the abolition of untouchability.
• The organization played a significant role in the Indian Nationalist Movement by instilling a sense of self-respect and pride in Indian culture and heritage.
• The Arya Samaj also established a vast network of educational institutions known as Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) schools and colleges across the country.

 Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi:
• Known as the Father of the Nation, he led the Indian independence struggle through the principles of Satyagraha (truth-force) and Ahimsa (non-violence).
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
• Commonly referred to as the Father of Modern India, he founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 and was instrumental in the legal abolition of Sati in 1829.
• Ramakrishna Paramhansa:
• A famous 19^th-century mystic and saint from Bengal whose teachings led his disciple, Swami Vivekananda, to found the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897.
• Satyarth Prakash:
• This is the most influential work written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1874, outlining the philosophical and social tenets of the Arya Samaj.

Therefore, the correct option is 4.

The correct answer is Montreal Protocol.

Key Points

• The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a global agreement finalized in 1987 and entered into force on January 1, 1989.
• It was designed to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS), which allow harmful ultraviolet (UV-B) radiation to reach the Earth.
• The treaty targets several groups of halogenated hydrocarbons, including Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), Halons, Carbon tetrachloride, and Methyl chloroform.
• It is considered one of the most successful environmental treaties, being the first to achieve universal ratification by all 198 UN Member States.
• To commemorate its signing, September 16 is observed annually as World Ozone Day.
• The Kigali Amendment (2016) is a recent addition to the protocol aimed at phasing down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are potent greenhouse gases.

 Additional Information

• Ramsar Convention:
• Adopted in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, it is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
• It promotes the wise use of wetlands and identifies sites of international importance to maintain ecological health.
• Paris Agreement:
• Adopted in 2015 at COP21, this legally binding treaty aims to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels.
• It requires countries to submit Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
• Kyoto Protocol:
• Adopted in 1997 and implemented in 2005, it operationalized the UNFCCC by committing industrialized nations to reduce emissions.
• It focuses on six primary greenhouse gases, including Carbon Dioxide (CO2) and Methane (CH4).

The correct answer is Botswana.

Key Points

• In November 2025, the government of Botswana formally committed to gifting eight cheetahs to India, facilitating the next phase of the Project Cheetah initiative.
• The symbolic release and handover ceremony took place at the Mokolodi Nature Reserve, a prominent wildlife sanctuary located near Gaborone, the capital of Botswana.
• This partnership is designed to expand the genetic diversity of the reintroduced cheetah population in India, building upon the foundations laid by earlier translocations from other African nations.
• The Mokolodi Nature Reserve serves as a critical site for conservation and education in Botswana, and its involvement highlights the growing South-South cooperation in environmental and wildlife management between India and the African Union members.
• This phase of the project focuses on establishing a self-sustaining meta-population in designated habitats such as Kuno National Park and potentially Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary.

 Additional Information

• Project Cheetah Background:
• The program was launched to restore the Asiatic cheetah lineage (represented by its African counterparts) to India after the species was officially declared extinct in the country in 1952.
• The first historic translocation occurred in September 2022, involving eight cheetahs from Namibia.
• Namibia:
• As the Cheetah Capital of the World, it was the first country to sign a Memorandum of Understanding with India, providing the founding members of the reintroduction project.
• South Africa:
• In February 2023, India signed a long-term agreement with South Africa, resulting in the translocation of twelve additional cheetahs to strengthen the existing population.
• Kenya:
• While Kenya possesses a significant population of the East African cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus raineyi), it has not been a primary donor country in the current phases of India's reintroduction program compared to Southern African nations.
• Ecological Significance:
• Beyond the reintroduction of a predator, the project aims to revitalize open forest and grassland ecosystems, which have historically been neglected in conservation priorities.

The correct answer is 1995.

Key Points

• India is a founding member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), having joined the organization on the very day of its inception, January 1, 1995.
• The WTO was established as the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which had been in place since 1948; India was also a founding member of GATT.
• The transition from GATT to the WTO was formalized through the Marrakesh Agreement, signed in April 1994 in Morocco, following the conclusion of the Uruguay Round of trade negotiations.
• By becoming a member, India committed to a rule-based multilateral trading system designed to ensure transparency, predictability, and the reduction of trade barriers like tariffs and quotas.
• Membership allows India to invoke the Dispute Settlement Mechanism of the WTO to protect its commercial interests against unfair trade practices by other nations.

 Additional Information

• World Trade Organization (WTO):
• The organization is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and serves as the primary forum for negotiating global trade rules.
• Its core principles include Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) treatment (treating all members equally) and National Treatment (treating foreigners and locals equally).
• The WTO covers trade in goods, services (GATS), and intellectual property (TRIPS), which was a significant expansion over the original GATT framework.
• Historical Context:
• 1991: Although India did not join the WTO this year, it was a pivotal year for the Indian economy as it launched Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) reforms under the leadership of P.V. Narasimha Rao.
• 2001: This year saw the initiation of the Doha Development Round at the fourth WTO Ministerial Conference, which focused on improving the trading prospects of developing nations.
• Uruguay Round: Conducted from 1986 to 1994, this was the 8^th round of multilateral trade negotiations and the largest ever, directly leading to the creation of the WTO.

The correct answer is 1957.

Key Points

• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953).
• The committee, chaired by Balwant Rai Mehta, submitted its final report in November 1957, suggesting measures for better implementation and public participation in development.
• The primary recommendation of the report was the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, which became the foundation of local self-government in India.
• The proposed hierarchy included the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level.
• The committee emphasized the concept of Democratic Decentralization, shifting power from the central authority to local representative bodies.

 Additional Information

• Three-Tier Structure:
• Gram Panchayat: Composed of directly elected representatives at the village level to handle local administration.
• Panchayat Samiti: The intermediate tier serving as the executive body at the block level, formed by indirectly elected members.
• Zila Parishad: The apex body at the district level, primarily acting in an advisory and supervisory capacity.
• Implementation Milestones:
• The recommendations were approved by the National Development Council in January 1958.
• Rajasthan was the first state to adopt the system, with the inauguration held in Nagaur district by Jawaharlal Nehru on October 2, 1959.
• Andhra Pradesh followed shortly after, adopting the system later in 1959.
• Constitutional Status:
• The early Panchayati Raj system lacked constitutional protection until the passage of the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which added Part IX and the 11^th Schedule to the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Allahabad Pillar Inscription.

Key Points

• The Allahabad Pillar Inscription, popularly known as the Prayag Prashasti, is a major epigraphic source that provides a comprehensive account of the reign and military conquests of Samudragupta.
• It was composed by Harisena, who served as the Sandhivigrahika (Minister of War and Peace) and court poet of Samudragupta, written in the Champu kavya style using classical Sanskrit and Brahmi script.
• The inscription details the expansion of the Gupta Empire, categorizing Samudragupta's victories into different regions, such as the 9 kings of Aryavarta (North India) and 12 kings of Dakshinapatha (South India).
• For the southern kings, the inscription highlights Samudragupta's policy of Grahana-Moksha-Anugraha, where he defeated rulers, liberated them, and then reinstated them as tributary chiefs.
• The pillar itself is a monolithic structure originally erected by Ashoka, and it later featured inscriptions from Samudragupta and the Mughal Emperor Jahangir, symbolizing a continuity of imperial power in Prayagraj.

 Additional Information

• Mehrauli Iron Pillar Inscription
• Located in Delhi within the Qutub Minar complex, this inscription is famously associated with king Chandra, identified by most historians as Chandragupta II.
• It is renowned for its metallurgical excellence, as the iron has remained virtually rust-free for over 1,600 years.
• Nasik Cave Inscription
• This inscription, found in the Pandavleni Caves in Maharashtra, was issued by Gautami Balasri to record the achievements of her son, the Satavahana ruler Gautamiputra Satakarni.
• It describes him as the Ekabrahmana and the destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas, and Pahlavas.
• Junagadh Rock Inscription
• Associated with the Saka ruler Rudradaman I, it is one of the earliest long inscriptions in pure Sanskrit.
• It records the history of the Sudarshana Lake, mentioning its construction under Chandragupta Maurya and subsequent repairs by Ashoka and Skandagupta.

The correct answer is Maand.

Key Points

• Maand is a sophisticated and soul-stirring style of folk music originating from the state of Rajasthan, particularly associated with the Jaisalmer region, which was historically known as the Maand area.
• It is recognized for its unique position in Indian music, acting as a bridge between pure folk and Indian classical music, often utilizing complex melodies and raga-based structures.
• The form is celebrated for its lively melodies and high-energy rhythms when performed during festive occasions and royal gatherings, typically accompanied by instruments like the Kamayacha, Sarangi, and Dholak.
• The most famous song in this genre is Kesariya Balam, which has become a cultural anthem for Rajasthan, symbolizing the welcoming nature of the desert people.
• Renowned vocalists such as Allah Jilai Bai and Mangi Bai have played a pivotal role in popularizing Maand on national and international stages, earning high civilian honors like the Padma Shri.
• Therefore, Maand is the traditional folk music form of Rajasthan described in the question.

 Additional Information

• Lavani
• It is a traditional folk music and dance form popular in the state of Maharashtra.
• Known for its powerful percussion using the Dholki and its socially relevant or romantic themes.
• Baul
• This is a group of mystic minstrels from the Bengal region (West Bengal and Bangladesh).
• Their music reflects a spiritual philosophy and is typically performed with an Ektara or Dotara.
• Bhatiali
• A traditional river song or folk music form from Bengal, specifically sung by boatmen.
• The term is derived from Bhata, meaning downstream, and the songs reflect the rhythm of the rowing process and the flow of the river.

The correct answer is Bronze Age.

Key Points

• The Harappan Civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, is classified as a Bronze Age culture because its inhabitants mastered the art of metallurgy, specifically the production of bronze.
• Technologically, the Harappans created bronze by alloying copper, which they primarily sourced from the Khetri mines in Rajasthan, with tin, which was largely imported from regions like Afghanistan and Hazaribagh.
• Archaeological evidence from major urban centers such as Mohenjo-daro and Harappa reveals advanced bronze artifacts, including the famous Dancing Girl figurine, manufactured using the sophisticated lost-wax casting (cire perdue) technique.
• The civilization reached its Mature Phase between approximately 2600 BCE and 1900 BCE, characterized by planned cities, drainage systems, and the widespread use of bronze for crafting tools, weapons, and ornaments.
• While the civilization used stone tools, the dominance of bronze for specialized craftsmanship and trade distinguishes it from the preceding stone-based eras.

 Additional Information

• Neolithic Age
• This era represents the New Stone Age, marked by the transition from hunting-gathering to agriculture and animal husbandry.
• The site of Mehrgarh in present-day Pakistan is a significant precursor, showing early farming practices that eventually evolved into the urban Harappan stage.
• Chalcolithic Age
• Known as the Copper-Stone Age, this period involved the use of both stone tools and copper.
• Various regional cultures like the Ahar-Banas and Kayatha flourished in India, often overlapping with or succeeding the Harappan timeline in different geographies.
• Iron Age
• The Iron Age in the Indian subcontinent began long after the decline of the Harappan Civilization, starting roughly around 1000 BCE.
• The Indus people had no knowledge of iron; the metal only became prominent during the Later Vedic Period and the era of the Mahajanapadas.

The correct answer is Textile Industry.

Key Points

• The Textile Industry is one of the largest sectors in the global economy and specifically relies on natural fibers like cotton, jute, and silk as its primary raw materials.
• Cotton is an agro-based raw material that undergoes a series of transformations including ginning (separation of fiber from seeds), spinning (converting fiber into yarn), and weaving or knitting (converting yarn into fabric).
• In the Indian context, the Cotton Textile Industry is highly significant, providing massive employment and contributing nearly 2 percent to the total GDP of the country.
• The industry is geographically concentrated in states like Maharashtra and Gujarat due to the availability of raw cotton, proximity to markets, and favorable moist climatic conditions for spinning.
• Historically, the first successful mechanized textile mill in India was established in Mumbai in 1854, marking the beginning of the modern industrial era in this sector.

 Additional Information

• Iron and Steel Industry:
• Commonly referred to as a basic industry because all other industries depend on it for machinery.
• Its primary raw materials are iron ore, coking coal, and limestone, which are bulky and heavy in nature.
• Cement Industry:
• Essential for construction and infrastructure, this industry utilizes limestone, silica, alumina, and gypsum as its core inputs.
• It requires substantial energy resources like coal and electric power for manufacturing.
• Mining Industry:
• It is an extractive industry that involves the removal of valuable minerals or other geological materials from the earth.
• The output includes ores, metals, coal, and oil shales, which then serve as raw materials for other manufacturing sectors.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Dilwara Temples are a group of five world-renowned marble Jain temples located about 2.5 kilometers from Mount Abu, the only hill station in Rajasthan.
• These temples were built between the 11^th and 16^th centuries AD and are considered masterpieces of Maru-Gurjara architecture, characterized by incredible intricate carvings on white marble.
• The complex is situated in the Sirohi district amidst the lush green hills of the Aravalli Range, which is the oldest fold mountain range in India.
• The most famous among them, the Vimal Vasahi Temple, was constructed in 1031 AD by Vimal Shah, a minister of the Solanki ruler of Gujarat, and is dedicated to the first Tirthankara, Lord Rishabhdeva.
• Another significant shrine is the Luna Vasahi Temple, built in 1230 AD by the brothers Vastupala and Tejpal, which is dedicated to the 22^nd Tirthankara, Lord Neminatha.

 Additional Information

• Architectural Elements:
• The temples are famous for their ornamental vaulted ceilings, pillars, and toranas (arched gateways) that display minute details of dancers, musicians, and floral patterns.
• While primarily Jain in nature, the evolution of the site over centuries saw the integration of regional Hindu motifs and, in later structures, subtle refinements in stonework often associated with the high precision of later Indian craftsmanship.
• Gujarat:
• Although the patrons (Solankis) were from the Gujarat region, the physical site of Mount Abu falls within the administrative boundaries of Rajasthan.
• Gujarat is home to other major Jain sites like Palitana and Girnar, which share similar architectural DNA.
• Key Shrines:
• The five temples are Vimal Vasahi, Luna Vasahi, Pitalhar, Parshvanatha, and Mahavir Swami, each dedicated to different Jain Tirthankaras.

The correct answer is Article 243A.

Key Points

• Article 243A of the Indian Constitution specifies the establishment, powers, and functions of the Gram Sabha at the village level.
• The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX to the Constitution, which established a three-tier Panchayati Raj System in India to facilitate rural local governance.
• A Gram Sabha is defined under Article 243(b) as a local body consisting of all individuals registered in the electoral rolls of a village within the Panchayat area.
• Under Article 243A, the Gram Sabha is empowered to exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may provide by law.

 Additional Information

• Article 243B (Constitution of Panchayats):
• This article mandates the establishment of a three-tier local governance structure in every state: the village level, the intermediate level, and the district level.
• States with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs (2 million) are exempt from constituting Panchayats at the intermediate level.
• Article 224A (Appointment of Retired Judges):
• This article permits the Chief Justice of a High Court, with the prior consent of the President of India, to request a retired High Court judge to sit and act as a judge of that High Court.
• Article 224 (Appointment of Additional and Acting Judges):
• While Article 224B is not a valid provision, Article 224 deals with the appointment of temporary additional and acting judges to clear pending cases or address temporary increases in High Court workloads.

The correct answer is A marshy tract with a high water table and thick forests.

Key Points

• The Terai is a lowland belt located south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and the Bhabar region, spanning across parts of India and Nepal.
• It is characterized by a high water table because the streams and rivers that disappear into the porous rocks of the Bhabar zone re-emerge at the surface in this region.
• The re-emergence of these underground water sources creates a damp, swampy, and marshy tract that is naturally conducive to the growth of thick forests and tall grasslands.
• This region is historically known for its immense biodiversity and rich wildlife; however, over the years, significant portions have been cleared for agriculture to support settlement and crop production like sugarcane, rice, and wheat.

 Additional Information

• The Northern Plains of India are divided into four distinct physiological regions based on relief features:
• Bhabar: A narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the Shiwalik slopes, consisting of pebbles where rivers disappear.
• Bhangar: The largest part of the northern plain formed of older alluvium; it lies above the floodplains and contains calcareous deposits known as Kankar.
• Khadar: The newer, younger alluvium of the floodplains which is renewed almost every year, making the land highly fertile and ideal for intensive agriculture.

The correct answer is Varadero, Cuba.

Key Points

• The Global Youth Summit 2025 (GYS-25) is a flagship event organized by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), specifically under its Generation Connect initiative.
• The summit was hosted in Varadero, Cuba, from 11-13 March 2025, serving as a specialized platform for young leaders to engage with global ICT policies.
• The primary theme of the 2025 edition was 'Amplifying youth voices in ICT', which emphasizes the critical role of the younger generation in shaping the digital economy and overcoming the digital divide.
• The event gathered delegates from member states, private sector entities, and academic institutions to discuss the impact of Artificial Intelligence (AI), cybersecurity, and sustainable connectivity on global development.
• The outcomes of the GYS-25 directly feed into the World Telecommunication Development Conference (WTDC-25), ensuring that youth-led recommendations are integrated into the global telecommunications agenda.

 Additional Information

• International Telecommunication Union (ITU):
• It is the United Nations specialized agency for Information and Communication Technologies, established in 1865.
• Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, it comprises 193 Member States and over 900 entities from the private sector and academia.
• The organization is divided into three main sectors: Radiocommunication (ITU-R), Telecommunication Standardization (ITU-T), and Telecommunication Development (ITU-D).
• Host City - Varadero:
• Located in the province of Matanzas, Varadero is one of the most prominent convention and tourism hubs in the Caribbean region.
• Cuba was selected as the host nation to demonstrate its commitment to digital transformation and its active participation in the ITU-D regional initiatives for the Americas.
• Generation Connect:
• This is the ITU's global youth strategy designed to empower young people with the skills and opportunities to participate in the digital world safely and effectively.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.