General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 2047.

Key Points

• The Government of Telangana has formulated a strategic long-term vision to elevate the state's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) to 3 trillion dollars by the year 2047.
• This ambitious economic roadmap is integrated with the broader national objective of Viksit Bharat @ 2047, which aims to transform India into a developed nation by the centenary of its independence.
• The vision emphasizes a multi-sectoral growth strategy, focusing on high-value industries such as Information Technology (IT), Biotechnology, Aerospace, and Precision Engineering to drive the economy forward.
• To achieve this 3 trillion dollar milestone, the state plans to leverage its capital, Hyderabad, as a global hub for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR) and Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• The roadmap includes significant investments in infrastructure, such as the Regional Ring Road (RRR) and the development of Future Cities, to facilitate seamless trade and industrial expansion.
• Strategic policy interventions are designed to maintain a consistent Double-Digit Growth Rate over the coming decades, ensuring that Telangana remains a primary engine of India's economic growth.
• Therefore, the year 2047 is the target year for achieving this specific economic scale.

 Additional Information

• Viksit Telangana Framework:
• Economic Diversification: The state is moving beyond traditional services into Semiconductor Manufacturing and Green Energy to ensure a resilient 3 trillion dollar economy.
• Per Capita Income: Telangana currently boasts one of the highest Per Capita Incomes in India, which serves as a foundational strength for the 2047 vision.
• Urbanization and Growth: The state government is focusing on creating Industrial Clusters in tier-2 and tier-3 cities like Warangal, Khammam, and Karimnagar to decentralize growth.
• Life Sciences Ecosystem: Telangana aims to capture a significant share of the global pharmaceutical market, targeting a sectoral valuation of 250 billion dollars by 2030 as a stepping stone toward the final 2047 goal.

The correct answer is NABARD.

Key Points

• The All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) is a comprehensive national-level primary survey conducted by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
• The survey aims to provide a holistic assessment of the rural financial landscape by collecting data on livelihoods, income, expenditure, savings, debts, and insurance patterns of households.
• The first edition, NAFIS 2016-17, was released in August 2018, covering approximately 40,327 households across the country to establish a benchmark for financial inclusion.
• The second edition, NAFIS 2021-22, was released in August 2024, providing updated insights into the financial health of rural and semi-urban populations in the post-pandemic era.
• The survey is unique as it captures data on both agricultural and non-agricultural households, measuring the depth of institutional credit penetration in remote areas.

 Additional Information

• NABARD:
• It was established on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee through the NABARD Act 1981.
• It serves as the apex regulatory body for the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Apex Cooperative Banks in India.
• The institution is headquartered in Mumbai and operates under the Ministry of Finance.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• While the RBI constructs the annual Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) to monitor inclusion levels, the specific NAFIS field survey is exclusively a NABARD initiative.
• CII and FICCI:
• The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) are non-governmental industry associations.
• They focus on policy advocacy and business networking rather than conducting official government-backed rural financial surveys.

The correct answer is Utility software.

Key Points

• Utility software is a type of system software specifically designed to help analyze, configure, optimize, or maintain a computer.
• Unlike application software, which focuses on user-centric tasks, utility software focuses on the internal infrastructure and hardware management of the computer system.
• Disk Cleanup is a prominent example of a utility program that identifies and removes unnecessary files, such as temporary internet files and system logs, to enhance system performance and reclaim storage space.
• These programs provide preventative maintenance and system protection, ensuring that the operating system runs smoothly and securely.
• Other critical examples of utility software include disk defragmenters, antivirus programs, file compression tools (like WinZip), and backup utilities.

 Additional Information

• Programming software:
• Refers to tools and programs that assist developers in creating, debugging, and maintaining other software applications.
• Key components include Compilers, Interpreters, Debuggers, and Integrated Development Environments (IDEs) like Visual Studio or Eclipse.
• Firmware:
• A specific class of computer software that provides low-level control for a device's specific hardware.
• It is usually stored in Read-Only Memory (ROM) or Flash memory and includes the BIOS/UEFI found on computer motherboards.
• Application software:
• Software designed to perform a specific group of coordinated functions or tasks for the benefit of the user.
• Common examples include word processors (MS Word), spreadsheets (MS Excel), web browsers, and database management systems.

The correct answer is 42^nd Amendment, 1976.

Key Points

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 1976 during the Internal Emergency (1975−1977), is the most comprehensive amendment in Indian history, often referred to as the Mini-Constitution.
• This amendment inserted Part IV-A and Article 51A into the Constitution, which originally enumerated ten Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens.
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was incorporated based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, which was constituted by the government in 1976 to suggest changes to the Constitution.
• These duties were inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics) and serve as a reminder to citizens that while they enjoy rights, they also have duties toward the nation.
• In addition to Fundamental Duties, this amendment also added the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble of the Constitution.

 Additional Information

• 24^th Amendment, 1971
• This amendment was enacted to neutralize the effects of the Golaknath case judgement.
• It affirmed the power of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, and made it obligatory for the President to give assent to Constitutional Amendment Bills.
• 44^th Amendment, 1978
• Introduced by the Janata Party government to reverse several changes made by the 42^nd Amendment and provide safeguards against future misuse of emergency powers.
• It notably deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
• 52^nd Amendment, 1985
• Commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law, it added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution.
• It provides for the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection from one political party to another.

The correct answer is More people are employed than actually needed, with marginal productivity being zero.

Key Points

• Disguised unemployment is a phenomenon where the number of people working on a specific task is significantly higher than the number actually required to complete it.
• The defining characteristic of this state is that the Marginal Productivity of the extra labor is zero, meaning that if these surplus workers are removed, the total production or output will not decrease.
• In the Indian context, this is most prevalent in the Agricultural sector, where large families often work on small land holdings because of a lack of alternative employment opportunities in manufacturing or services.
• It is also referred to as hidden unemployment because the individuals appear to be fully employed, but their labor contribution is technically redundant to the production process.

 Additional Information

• Types of Unemployment:
• Cyclical Unemployment: Occurs when there is a lack of aggregate demand in the economy, typically during an economic slowdown or recession.
• Frictional Unemployment: A temporary period of unemployment that occurs when a worker is shifting from one job to another or searching for a new position.
• Structural Unemployment: Results from a mismatch between the skills possessed by the workforce and the skills required by employers, often driven by technological advancement.
• Seasonal Unemployment: Occurs when people are unemployed at certain times of the year when demand for labor is low, such as in agriculture after the harvesting season or in the tourism industry.
• Vulnerable Employment: Refers to people working informally without proper job contracts or social security benefits, which is a major challenge in the Indian labor market.

The correct answer is Power & Sleep Settings.

Key Points

• In Windows 10, the Power & Sleep Settings menu is the primary interface used to manage how the computer consumes energy during periods of inactivity.
• This section allows users to specify separate time intervals for the Screen to turn off and for the PC to enter Sleep Mode (a low-power state that saves open apps to memory).
• The configuration provides granular control by allowing different timers for when the device is On battery power versus when it is Plugged in to an external power source.
• Setting shorter durations for entering Power Saving Mode is a critical step for preserving Battery life on portable devices like laptops and tablets.
• To navigate to this section, users must click the Start button, select the Settings gear icon, choose System, and then click on Power & sleep in the left-hand sidebar.

 Additional Information

• Network & Internet:
• Manages all connectivity features including Wi-Fi, Ethernet, VPN, Dial-up, and Proxy settings.
• Includes tools like Network Reset and monitoring of Data usage.
• Display Settings:
• Controls visual output parameters such as Brightness, Resolution, Orientation, and Scaling.
• Houses settings for HDR (High Dynamic Range) and Night light filters.
• Updates & Security:
• Responsible for Windows Update, Windows Security, Recovery options, and Activation.
• Used to schedule system restarts after updates have been downloaded.

The correct answer is Transfers the highlighted paragraphs to clipboard for duplication elsewhere.

Key Points

• Ctrl + C is a standard keyboard shortcut used in Microsoft Word 2016 and later versions to execute the Copy command, which duplicates selected content.
• When multiple paragraphs are highlighted, pressing this shortcut sends a copy of the text, paragraph formatting, and any associated metadata to the Windows System Clipboard.
• The Clipboard is a temporary storage buffer located in the computer's Random Access Memory (RAM) that holds data until it is overwritten or the system is shut down.
• Unlike the Cut command, Copy is a non-destructive operation, meaning the original paragraphs remain in their initial position within the document while a replica is made available for use.
• In Office 365 and Microsoft Word 2016/2019, the Office Clipboard can store up to 24 items, allowing users to collect multiple snippets of information and paste them selectively.

 Additional Information

• Related Shortcut Commands:
• Ctrl + V (Paste): This command retrieves the most recent item from the Clipboard and inserts it at the current Insertion Point or replaces a selected block of text.
• Ctrl + X (Cut): This function removes the highlighted paragraphs from the document and places them on the Clipboard, effectively facilitating a Move operation.
• Ctrl + S (Save): This shortcut triggers the Save function, committing the current state of the document to the Hard Drive or Cloud Storage (like OneDrive) to prevent data loss.
• Windows Key + V: In modern Windows 10 and 11 environments, this shortcut opens the Clipboard History, allowing users to access multiple previously copied paragraphs or images.

The correct answer is Kelvin.

Key Points

• The Kelvin (symbol: K) is the primary base unit of thermodynamic temperature in the International System of Units (SI).
• Unlike the Celsius or Fahrenheit scales, the Kelvin scale is an absolute scale, meaning it begins at absolute zero (0 K), the point at which all thermal motion of particles ceases.
• Since 2019, the Kelvin has been defined by the fixed numerical value of the Boltzmann constant (k), which is 1.380649 × 10⁻²³ when expressed in the unit J K⁻¹.
• In scientific research and physics laboratory experiments, Kelvin is the standard because it allows for direct proportionality in thermodynamic equations, such as the Ideal Gas Law (PV = nRT).
• The magnitude of one Kelvin is exactly equal to the magnitude of one degree Celsius; however, the two scales differ by an offset of 273.15 units.

 Additional Information

• Celsius
• A derived SI unit commonly used for everyday temperature measurements.
• 0 °C is defined as 273.15 K, which is approximately the freezing point of water.
• Fahrenheit
• A non-SI temperature scale used primarily in the United States.
• The conversion formula to Celsius is °C = (°F − 32) × 5/9.
• Joule
• The SI unit of energy, work, or heat.
• It is a derived unit defined as one Newton-meter (1 J = 1 kg m² s⁻²).

The correct answer is Malik Kafur.

Key Points

• Malik Kafur, also known as Hazardinari (meaning bought for a thousand dinars), was a prominent slave-general of Alauddin Khilji, the Sultan of Delhi.
• He was captured by Nusrat Khan during the invasion of Gujarat in 1299 CE and subsequently rose to the highest military rank of Naib (Viceroy) in the Sultanate.
• Between 1309 and 1311 CE, Kafur led the Deccan campaigns, making the Delhi Sultanate the first northern Islamic power to reach the southern tip of the Indian peninsula.
• His successful military expeditions subdued several powerful southern dynasties, including the Yadavas of Devagiri (King Ramachandra), the Kakatiyas of Warangal (King Prataparudra II), the Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra (Vira Ballala III), and the Pandyas of Madurai.
• These campaigns were focused on establishing suzerainty and collecting vast spoils of war, including gold, jewelry, horses, and elephants, rather than direct administrative annexation of the southern territories.

 Additional Information

• Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq:
• He was the founder of the Tughlaq Dynasty (1320–1325 CE) and is known for building the fortified city of Tughlaqabad.
• Balban:
• A powerful ruler of the Mamluk (Slave) Dynasty (1266–1287 CE), famous for his policy of Blood and Iron and the introduction of Sijda and Paibos.
• Qutbuddin Aibak:
• The first Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate and founder of the Slave Dynasty (1206–1210 CE), who began the construction of the Qutub Minar.

The correct answer is 30 kW IDD&IS Mk-IIA.

Key Points

• The 30 kW IDD&IS Mk-IIA, also known by its nickname Sahastra Shakti, is an advanced Directed Energy Weapon (DEW) successfully field-tested by the DRDO on April 13, 2025.
• The field trials were conducted at the National Open Air Range (NOAR) in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh, where the system effectively neutralized fixed-wing Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) and swarm drones at ranges between 3.5 to 5 kilometers.
• This weapon system was developed by the Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences (CHESS), a premier DRDO laboratory located in Hyderabad, in collaboration with other labs like LRDE and IRDE.
• Technically, the Mk-IIA variant utilizes a 30-kilowatt laser output generated by combining six individual 5 kW fiber laser sources in a 2×3 configuration to achieve a precision 'hard kill'.
• The system is integrated with radar and Electro-Optical/Infrared (EO/IR) sensors for automated target detection and tracking, allowing it to destroy enemy sensors or airframes within seconds.
• Following its successful evaluation, DRDO initiated the Transfer of Technology (ToT) to private sector partners to begin serial production, supporting the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative in defense manufacturing.

 Additional Information

• Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs):
• These systems offer a revolutionary low cost-per-shot, with each engagement costing approximately the same as a few liters of fuel, compared to expensive traditional interceptor missiles.
• India is now part of an exclusive group of nations, including the USA, Russia, and China, that possess operational high-power laser weapon capabilities.
• Evolution of IDD&IS:
• The Mk-I version featured a 2 kW laser used primarily for soft-kill or short-range operations, while the Mk-II was a 10 kW system.
• The 30 kW Mk-IIA represents a significant scale-up in power, allowing for the neutralization of larger aerial threats and coordinated swarm attacks.
• Future developments by CHESS include scaling these systems to 50 kW and 100 kW for strategic defense applications.

The correct answer is Granting of the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the Company.

Key Points

• The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 16 August 1765, following the Battle of Buxar (1764), between Robert Clive of the East India Company and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
• By this treaty, the Mughal Emperor granted the Diwani rights (the right to collect land revenue and manage civil justice) of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the Company in perpetuity.
• This provision was the most significant because it gave the British direct control over the vast financial resources of the wealthiest provinces in India, providing the capital necessary for further military expansions.
• It marked the transition of the East India Company from a mere trading body to a major political and administrative power, effectively establishing the Dual Government system in Bengal.
• Under this arrangement, the Company exercised Diwani functions (revenue and civil justice), while the Nawab of Bengal was left with Nizamat functions (military, police, and criminal justice) but without the financial means to support them.

 Additional Information

• Impact on the Mughal Emperor:
• Shah Alam II was taken under the Company protection and was assigned Allahabad and Kora as his residence.
• The Company agreed to pay the Emperor an annual tribute of 26 lakh rupees in exchange for the Diwani grant.
• Arrangement with Awadh:
• Shuja-ud-Daula, the Nawab of Awadh, was restored to his kingdom except for Kora and Allahabad.
• He was forced to pay a war indemnity of 50 lakh rupees to the Company, and Awadh was turned into a buffer state to protect British interests from Maratha and Afghan threats.
• Battle of Buxar Context:
• Unlike the Battle of Plassey (1757), which was won largely through treachery, the Battle of Buxar was a definitive military victory against the combined forces of the Mughal Emperor, the Nawab of Awadh, and Mir Qasim.

The correct answer is Charter Act of 1813.

Key Points

• The Charter Act of 1813 was passed by the British Parliament to renew the charter of the East India Company for another 20 years.
• The most significant feature of this Act was the abolition of the commercial monopoly of the East India Company in India, effectively opening Indian trade to all British merchants.
• The Act asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company, marking a shift toward formal imperial control.
• While it ended the general trade monopoly, the Company was still allowed to retain its monopoly over the trade in tea and the trade with China.
• The Act mandated a sum of one lakh rupees to be set aside annually for the revival of literature and the promotion of modern sciences among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
• It granted formal permission to Christian missionaries to enter India for the purpose of religious proselytization and promoting moral improvements.

 Additional Information

• Charter Act of 1833:
• It completely ended the Company's monopoly, including the tea trade and trade with China, making it a purely administrative body.
• The Governor-General of Bengal was designated as the Governor-General of India, with Lord William Bentinck being the first to hold this title.
• Charter Act of 1853:
• It introduced an open competition system for the recruitment of civil servants, ending the patronage system.
• It separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s Council for the first time.
• Charter Act of 1793:
• This Act renewed the Company's commercial privileges for 20 years and mandated that the salaries of the Board of Control members be paid out of Indian revenues.

The correct answer is Quicklime (calcium oxide).

Key Points

• Soil acidity is characterized by a low pH value (below 7.0), resulting from an excess of hydrogen ions (H+) and a deficiency of basic cations like calcium and magnesium.
• Quicklime, scientifically known as calcium oxide (CaO), is an alkaline substance frequently used in agriculture to raise the pH level of acidic soils to a range suitable for crop production, typically between 6.0 and 7.0.
• When Quicklime is applied to the soil, it reacts with water in a process called slaking (CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂), forming calcium hydroxide, which releases hydroxide ions (OH−) that neutralize the acidic hydrogen ions.
• This chemical neutralization helps prevent aluminum and manganese toxicity, which occurs at low pH levels and can severely stunt root development and overall plant growth.
• The use of Quicklime is considered more effective for rapid correction of soil acidity compared to agricultural limestone (calcium carbonate) due to its higher solubility and faster reaction rate in the soil profile.

 Additional Information

• Baking soda (Sodium bicarbonate):
• While sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) is basic, its use in soil is limited because it adds sodium, which causes soil sodicity, degrades soil structure, and can be toxic to most agricultural plants.
• Table salt (Sodium chloride):
• Sodium chloride (NaCl) is a neutral salt and does not possess any properties to neutralize acidity. High concentrations of salt lead to soil salinization, causing osmotic stress that prevents plants from absorbing water.
• Vinegar:
• Vinegar is a dilute solution of acetic acid (CH₃COOH). Adding an acid to already acidic soil would further lower the pH, increasing acidity and potentially damaging beneficial soil microorganisms and plant tissues.

The correct answer is The incomplete combustion of fossil fuels produces it and replaces oxygen in haemoglobin.

Key Points

• Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colorless, odorless, and highly toxic gas that is primarily formed through the incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels like coal, petrol, diesel, and natural gas. This occurs when there is an insufficient supply of oxygen to oxidize carbon fully into carbon dioxide.
• The primary danger of carbon monoxide to human health lies in its interaction with haemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells responsible for transporting oxygen. CO has an affinity for haemoglobin that is approximately 200 to 300 times higher than that of oxygen.
• When inhaled, CO binds with haemoglobin to form a stable coordination complex known as carboxyhaemoglobin. This effectively blocks haemoglobin from binding to oxygen molecules.
• By replacing oxygen in the bloodstream, carbon monoxide severely reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to hypoxia (oxygen deprivation in tissues), which can cause tissue damage, neurological impairment, or death.

 Additional Information

• Toxicity comparison:
• Carbon monoxide is significantly more dangerous than carbon dioxide (CO₂). While CO₂ is a greenhouse gas and can be harmful at very high concentrations, CO is a direct chemical asphyxiant that is lethal even at low concentrations.
• Sources of emission:
• While natural events like forest fires and volcanic eruptions release CO, the majority of urban carbon monoxide comes from anthropogenic sources, particularly vehicular exhaust, industrial processes, and tobacco smoke.
• Atmospheric behavior:
• CO is not harmless nor is it quickly converted to oxygen. It is a persistent pollutant that is gradually oxidized in the atmosphere to form carbon dioxide, a process that typically takes several weeks to months.

The correct answer is Nucleus.

Key Points

• In 1911, Ernest Rutherford conducted the Alpha-ray scattering experiment by bombarding a very thin gold foil with high-energy alpha particles (doubly charged helium ions).
• The experiment revealed that while most alpha particles passed through the foil without deflection, a small fraction was diverted at large angles, and approximately 1 in 12,000 particles bounced back nearly 180 degrees.
• Rutherford concluded that the positive charge and nearly all the mass of an atom are not uniformly distributed but are concentrated in an extremely small, dense region at the center.
• This central core was named the nucleus, proving that atoms consist of a tiny, massive, and positively charged center surrounded by mostly empty space.
• This discovery successfully refuted the Thomson Plum Pudding Model, which suggested that positive charge was spread evenly throughout the atom like a pudding.

 Additional Information

• Electron:
• Discovered by J.J. Thomson in 1897 using the Cathode Ray Tube experiment.
• These are negatively charged subatomic particles that reside in the space surrounding the nucleus in specific energy levels or orbits.
• Proton:
• While the concept of a positive charge was established by Rutherford in 1911, he specifically identified the hydrogen nucleus as a fundamental particle called the proton in 1919 through nitrogen bombardment experiments.
• Protons carry a positive charge equal in magnitude to the negative charge of an electron.
• Neutron:
• Discovered by James Chadwick in 1932.
• These are electrically neutral particles located inside the nucleus alongside protons, accounting for the remaining mass of the atom that protons alone could not explain.
• Rutherford Atomic Model:
• Proposed that electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths called orbits, similar to how planets revolve around the sun in the solar system.

The correct answer is Rank 99 with an overall SDG index score close to 67 points.

Key Points

• The Sustainable Development Report (SDR) 2025, released by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), provides a comprehensive assessment of progress toward the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for all United Nations member states.
• In the 2025 Index, India achieved Rank 99, showing a notable improvement from its 109^th rank in the 2024 report. This shift indicates India's entry into the top 100 nations regarding global development benchmarks.
• India's overall SDG Index score was recorded at approximately 67.0 points (out of 100), reflecting the country's percentage of total progress toward achieving the 2030 Agenda targets.
• The report highlights that India has maintained a positive trajectory in SDG 1 (No Poverty), SDG 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation), and SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), driven by large-scale government schemes like Jal Jeevan Mission and PM Ujjwala Yojana.
• The SDG Index score is calculated as a weighted average of the scores for all 17 SDGs, where a score of 100 indicates that all targets for a particular goal have been met.
• India's performance in the 2025 report signifies a successful mitigation of post-pandemic developmental lags, particularly in health and economic growth sectors, raising the score from the 64.02 level seen in previous cycles.

 Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN):
• It was established in 2012 under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General to mobilize global scientific and technological expertise.
• The SDR 2025 is the 10^th edition of this annual report, which serves as a global report card for sustainable development.
• SDG India Index by NITI Aayog:
• Domestically, NITI Aayog tracks India's progress through the SDG India Index, which uses a similar methodology but focuses on state-level performance.
• While the UN SDG Index compares India with 166 other nations, the NITI Aayog report categorizes Indian States as Aspirants, Performers, Front Runners, and Achievers.
• Global Context:
• Nordic countries like Finland, Sweden, and Denmark traditionally lead the SDG Index rankings, often scoring above 85 points.
• The 2025 report emphasizes that while global progress has been slow due to geopolitical tensions, countries in South Asia, led by India, have shown resilient growth in SDG 13 (Climate Action) and SDG 9 (Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure).

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, Maharashtra is the second most populous state in India, with a recorded population of 112,374,333.
• The state accounts for approximately 9.28% of the total population of the country, trailing only Uttar Pradesh, which is the most populous state.
• The decadal growth rate of Maharashtra during the 2001-2011 period was 15.99%, reflecting a steady increase in human resources.
• In terms of urbanization, Maharashtra is one of the most urbanized states, with a significant portion of its population residing in major metropolitan hubs like Mumbai and Pune.
• The Census 2011 data also highlighted that Thane, a district in Maharashtra, was the most populous district in India at that time.

 Additional Information

• Bihar:
• It was ranked as the third most populous state in 2011, with a population of 104,099,452.
• It holds the distinction of having the highest population density in India, with 1,106 persons per square kilometer.
• West Bengal:
• It stood as the fourth most populous state with a total population of 91,276,115.
• The state has the second highest population density in the country, recorded at 1,028 persons per square kilometer.
• Karnataka:
• It was the ninth most populous state in India during the 2011 Census, with a population of 61,095,297.
• The state covers roughly 5.05% of the total population of India.

The correct answer is Convection.

Key Points

• Convection is the primary mode of heat transfer in fluids, which include both liquids and gases.
• When air near a heated surface (such as the Earth's crust warmed by the sun) absorbs thermal energy, the kinetic energy of its molecules increases.
• This increase in kinetic energy causes the air to expand, which leads to a decrease in its density compared to the surrounding cooler air.
• Because the warm air is less dense, it becomes buoyant and rises upward, while the denser, cooler air sinks to take its place near the heat source.
• This cyclical movement of fluid particles creates convection currents, which are responsible for atmospheric circulation, weather patterns, and the rising of warm air over a heated surface.

 Additional Information

• Conduction:
• The process of heat transfer through direct contact between materials.
• It occurs mainly in solids where energy is passed via molecular vibrations and free electrons without any bulk movement of the matter.
• Radiation:
• Transfer of thermal energy through electromagnetic waves, specifically infrared waves.
• Unlike conduction and convection, it does not require a medium and can travel through a vacuum, such as solar energy traveling from the Sun to Earth.
• Insulation:
• A technique or material used to resist or inhibit the flow of heat.
• Insulators have low thermal conductivity and are used in construction and clothing to maintain temperature by preventing energy loss.

The correct answer is “A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles.”.

Key Points

• World Consumer Rights Day is observed annually on March 15 to advocate for the fundamental rights of all consumers and to protest against market abuses.
• For the year 2025, the theme selected by Consumers International is “A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles.”
• This theme emphasizes the urgency of shifting global consumption patterns towards sustainability to mitigate climate change, pollution, and resource depletion.
• The concept of a Just Transition ensures that the move toward a green economy is equitable and inclusive, specifically ensuring that sustainable products and services are affordable and accessible to consumers of all income levels.
• It focuses on empowering consumers to demand durability, repairability, and ethical production, aligning with United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production).
• The choice of this theme reflects the dual challenge of protecting the planet while safeguarding the economic interests of the most vulnerable consumers in the marketplace.

 Additional Information

• Historical context and previous themes:
• “Fair and Responsible AI for Consumers.”: This was the theme for 2024, addressing the rapid advancement of Generative AI and the need to protect consumers from misinformation and privacy violations.
• “Empowering Consumers Through Clean Energy Transitions”: The 2023 theme, which highlighted the role of consumers in accelerating the shift toward renewable energy and energy efficiency during the global energy crisis.
• “Fair Digital Finance”: The theme for 2022, focusing on the risks and opportunities within fintech, digital banking, and the necessity of financial inclusion.
• The first World Consumer Rights Day was celebrated in 1983, inspired by President John F. Kennedy’s special message to the US Congress on March 15, 1962, which defined four basic consumer rights.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Rajasthan Government passed the Coaching Centres (Control and Regulation) Bill, 2025 in March 2025 to create a robust legal framework for monitoring private coaching institutes across the state.
• The primary objective of this legislation is to safeguard the mental health and well-being of students, particularly in coaching hubs like Kota, which have witnessed high rates of student stress and suicides.
• The bill mandates the compulsory registration of all coaching centres with a designated State-level Authority, ensuring that only institutes meeting specific safety and academic standards can operate.
• It prohibits coaching institutes from publishing misleading advertisements that make false claims about success rates or rank guarantees, aiming to reduce the psychological pressure on aspirants.
• The legislation includes provisions for a mandatory refund policy and a transparent fee structure to prevent the financial exploitation of parents and students.
• Provisions for regular inspections and the establishment of a grievance redressal cell have been integrated to allow students to report harassment or inadequate facilities directly to the government.

 Additional Information

• Kota Coaching Hub:
• Known as the Coaching Capital of India, Kota attracts over 2.5 lakh students annually for competitive exams like JEE (Main and Advanced) and NEET.
• The rapid growth of this sector necessitated state intervention to regulate hostel safety, mess quality, and the intense academic environment.
• National Context:
• The Union Ministry of Education issued national guidelines in January 2024, which served as a precursor to state-specific laws like the one in Rajasthan.
• These guidelines suggested that coaching centres should not enroll students below the age of 16 years or those who have not completed their secondary education.