General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Aravalli Range.

Key Points

• The Aravalli Range is an ancient mountain system in Northwestern India, stretching approximately 670 kilometers across the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and the Union Territory of Delhi.
• It is globally recognized as one of the oldest fold mountain systems, with its geological origins dating back to the Proterozoic Eon, approximately 2.5 billion years ago.
• The range was formed during the Aravalli-Delhi Orogeny in the Precambrian era, making it significantly older than the Himalayas, which are classified as young fold mountains.
• Due to continuous weathering and erosion over millions of years, the Aravallis are now categorized as relict mountains (residual mountains), characterized by rounded peaks and lower elevations.
• The highest point of this range is Guru Shikhar, located on Mount Abu in Rajasthan, which stands at an elevation of 1,722 meters above sea level.

 Additional Information

• Himalayas:
• Known as Young Fold Mountains, they formed about 50 million years ago due to the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates.
• They contain the world's highest peaks, including Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga.
• Karakoram Range:
• Part of the Trans-Himalayan mountain system, it is home to K2 (Godwin-Austen), the second-highest peak in the world.
• It is a geologically active and young range situated in the Gilgit-Baltistan and Ladakh regions.
• Eastern Ghats:
• A discontinuous chain of mountains along India's eastern coast, spanning through Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
• They are older than the Western Ghats but younger than the Aravallis, primarily composed of metamorphic rocks like khondalites and charnockites.

The correct answer is All apps and data are closed and the PC powers off completely.

Key Points

• The Shut down command in Windows initiates a sequence that gracefully terminates all active software processes and services.
• When this option is selected, the Operating System sends a signal to all open applications to close; if there is unsaved data, Windows typically prompts the user to save their work before proceeding.
• Unlike other power modes, a full Shut down flushes the Random Access Memory (RAM) entirely, ensuring that no temporary session data remains in the volatile memory.
• Once all software components are closed and the Windows Kernel is stopped, the motherboard sends a signal to the Power Supply Unit (PSU) to cease the flow of electricity to the CPU, Hard Drives, and other peripherals.
• This process is essential for hardware maintenance, installing certain updates, and clearing system cache or memory leaks that may have occurred during the session.
• Therefore, the correct option is 2.

 Additional Information

• Sleep Mode (Stand-by):
• This is a low-power state that keeps the current session, including all open apps and files, stored in the RAM.
• It allows the computer to resume full-power operation within seconds, but it requires a small amount of electricity to maintain the data in volatile memory.
• Hibernation:
• Primarily designed for laptops, this mode saves the current state of the system to the Hard Disk or SSD in a file named hiberfil.sys.
• After saving the session to the disk, the PC powers off completely, consuming zero power while allowing the user to resume exactly where they left off.
• Restart:
• This function closes all applications, shuts down the Operating System, and then immediately reboots the machine. It is frequently used to finalize software installations or driver updates.

The correct answer is Austroasiatic.

Key Points

• The Munda languages represent the western sub-family of the Austroasiatic language family, which is considered one of the oldest indigenous linguistic groups in the Indian subcontinent.
• Geographically, these languages are concentrated in the Chota Nagpur Plateau and surrounding regions, spanning states such as Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
• The most widely spoken Munda language is Santali, which is spoken by over 7 million people and holds the distinction of being the only Munda language listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution (added via the 92^nd Amendment Act, 2003).
• Other significant languages in this group include Mundari, Ho, Korku, Sora, and Kharia, which are predominantly spoken by tribal communities identified as Adivasis.
• Linguistically, the Munda branch is distinct from the Mon-Khmer branch (the eastern sub-family of Austroasiatic) found in Southeast Asia and parts of North-East India (like the Khasi and Jaintia languages in Meghalaya).

 Additional Information

• Indo-Aryan
• This is a branch of the Indo-European family and the largest language group in India, spoken by approximately 78 percent of the population.
• Major languages include Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Gujarati, Punjabi, and Sanskrit.
• Dravidian
• This family is primarily indigenous to Southern India and is spoken by about 20 percent of the Indian population.
• It comprises major classical languages such as Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.
• Sino-Tibetan
• Languages in this family are mostly found in the Himalayan region and North-East India.
• Key examples include Manipuri (Meitei), Bodo, Lushai, and various dialects spoken in Arunachal Pradesh.

The correct answer is Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) held its first session from December 28 to December 31, 1885, marking the beginning of organized national political activity in India.
• Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee (W.C. Bonnerjee), a prominent barrister from Calcutta, was chosen as the first President of the assembly.
• The session was held at the Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai). It was attended by 72 delegates representing various regions of British India.
• The formation of the Congress was spearheaded by Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British Civil Service officer, who served as the first General Secretary.
• Key objectives of the first session included promoting friendship among political workers from different parts of the country and formulating popular demands to be presented to the British government.

 Additional Information

• Allan Octavian Hume:
• Often referred to as the Father of the Indian National Congress, he played a crucial role in organizing the first meeting to provide a constitutional outlet for Indian political aspirations, sometimes described as the Safety Valve Theory.
• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• Known as the Grand Old Man of India, he was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons. He presided over the Congress sessions in 1886 (Calcutta), 1893 (Lahore), and 1906 (Calcutta), where he first used the word Swaraj.
• Dinshaw Wacha:
• One of the founding members of the INC, he was a distinguished politician and economist who served as the President of the 1901 Calcutta session.
• Venue Change:
• The first session was originally scheduled to take place in Poona (Pune). However, due to a sudden outbreak of cholera in the city, the venue was shifted to Bombay.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad.

Key Points

• The Commonwealth Sport General Assembly held in Glasgow, United Kingdom, in 2025 officially designated Ahmedabad, India, as the host city for the 2030 Commonwealth Games.
• The 2030 edition is of historical importance as it marks the Centenary (100^th anniversary) of the Commonwealth Games, which originated as the British Empire Games in 1930.
• The successful bid was a joint effort by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and the Government of Gujarat, showcasing Ahmedabad as a premier global destination for multi-sport events.
• The city’s selection was bolstered by its existing infrastructure, including the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Sports Enclave and the Narendra Modi Stadium, the largest stadium in the world.
• Hosting the 2030 Games is a strategic move by India to strengthen its bid for hosting the 2036 Summer Olympic Games.
• This will be the second time India hosts the event, 20 years after the 2010 Commonwealth Games were held in New Delhi.

 Additional Information

• Centenary History:
• The first Commonwealth Games were held in Hamilton, Canada, in 1930, featuring 11 countries and 6 sports.
• The 2030 Centenary edition aims to celebrate a century of sportsmanship and the shared values of the Commonwealth.
• Other Notable Cities:
• New Delhi: The capital of India hosted the 19^th Commonwealth Games in 2010, which saw India finishing second in the overall medal tally.
• Pune: Known as the cultural capital of Maharashtra, it successfully hosted the 3^rd Commonwealth Youth Games in 2008 at the Balewadi Sports Complex.
• Bhopal: The capital of Madhya Pradesh has emerged as a major sports hub, notably hosting the 5^th Khelo India Youth Games in 2023.
• Glasgow Connection:
• Glasgow hosted the 2014 Commonwealth Games and was selected to host the 2026 edition following the withdrawal of Victoria, Australia.

The correct answer is This region receives low rainfall below 15 mm per year.

Key Points

• The Great Indian Desert, commonly known as the Thar Desert, is situated towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills. The range acts as a climatic divide, keeping the western part dry. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This region is characterized by an arid climate with extremely low precipitation. While the rainfall is indeed low, it typically averages between 100 mm and 150 mm per year (not below 15 mm). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is geologically believed that the Thar Desert was under the sea during the Mesozoic era. This is supported by marine deposits and wood fossils discovered in regions like Akal near Jaisalmer, which date back to about 180 million years. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The desert features an undulating sandy plain covered with sand dunes. Due to high evaporation and low moisture, it has low vegetation cover consisting mostly of xerophytic plants. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Geographical Features of Thar Desert:
• Luni River: It is the only large and significant river in this region, which flows through the southern part of the desert before reaching the Rann of Kutch.
• Barchans: These are crescent-shaped sand dunes that cover larger areas of the desert, while longitudinal dunes become more prominent near the Indo-Pakistan border.
• Mesozoic Era Evidence: The Akal Wood Fossil Park contains fossils that prove the existence of lush forests in a humid climate before the region turned into a desert.
• Location: The desert spans across the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana, and Punjab in India, as well as the Sindh and Punjab provinces in Pakistan.

The correct answer is Proteins.

Key Points

• Proteins are large, complex molecules known as the building blocks of the human body, composed of smaller units called amino acids. There are 20 different amino acids that combine in various sequences to form proteins.
• In the process of growth, proteins are essential for the production of new cells and the expansion of muscle mass, skin, and organs, especially during childhood, adolescence, and pregnancy.
• For healing and tissue repair, the body utilizes proteins to synthesize collagen, which provides the structural framework for skin and bones, and fibrin, which is necessary for blood clotting and wound closure.
• Beyond structure, proteins serve as enzymes and hormones (like insulin) that catalyze metabolic reactions and regulate physiological processes necessary for maintaining homeostasis.
• While the body can use proteins for energy, providing approximately 4 kcal per gram, their primary biological priority is the maintenance and regeneration of damaged tissues.

 Additional Information

• Vitamins
• These are organic micronutrients required in trace amounts to facilitate chemical reactions, such as Vitamin C for immune function and Vitamin K for bone metabolism.
• Minerals
• Inorganic elements like Calcium and Phosphorus are vital for bone mineralization, while Iron is essential for hemoglobin production to transport oxygen.
• Fats
• Known as lipids, these provide the most concentrated source of energy (9 kcal per gram), aid in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K), and offer thermal insulation for the body.

The correct answer is 3.5 billion cycles per sec.

Key Points

• The Clock Rate (or clock speed) refers to the frequency at which a Central Processing Unit (CPU) executes its most basic operations, such as adding two numbers or moving data between registers.
• Clock speed is measured using the Hertz (Hz) unit, where 1 Hz is defined as one cycle per second.
• The prefix Giga (G) in the metric system represents a factor of 10⁹, which is equivalent to 1,000,000,000 (one billion).
• Consequently, 1 Gigahertz (GHz) means the processor performs one billion clock cycles every second.
• For a CPU with a clock rate of 3.5 GHz, the calculation is 3.5 × 10⁹, which equals 3,500,000,000 cycles per second.
• This measurement indicates the internal speed at which the System Clock oscillates to synchronize the components of the computer.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Metric Prefixes in Computing:
• Kilohertz (kHz): Represents 1,000 (one thousand) cycles per second. Early computing devices often operated in this range.
• Megahertz (MHz): Represents 1,000,000 (one million) cycles per second. This was the standard unit for processors during the 1980s and 1990s (e.g., the Intel 80486).
• Gigahertz (GHz): The current standard for modern CPUs, RAM (Random Access Memory), and GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) speeds.
• The Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle:
• The speed of this cycle is directly limited by the clock rate; higher GHz generally allows more instructions to be processed in the same timeframe.
• Modern CPUs often employ Overclocking, which involves increasing the clock rate beyond the factory settings to enhance performance, though this generates significant heat.
• Efficiency is also measured by IPC (Instructions Per Cycle), meaning a CPU with a lower clock rate but higher IPC might outperform a high-GHz processor.

The correct answer is 15 Years.

Key Points

• The Constitution (One Hundred Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023, also known as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, was introduced in the Lok Sabha on September 19, 2023, to enhance women's participation in governance.
• The legislation mandates the reservation of one-third (approximately 33 percent) of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha, the Legislative Assemblies of every State, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
• As per the newly inserted Article 334A, these reservation provisions will come into effect after a delimitation exercise is conducted based on the relevant figures of the first census taken after the commencement of the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023.
• The Act specifies that the reservation for women shall continue for an initial period of 15 years from the date of its commencement.
• The Parliament holds the authority to extend this duration beyond the initial 15-year period by enacting a new law if deemed necessary.

 Additional Information

• Implementation Criteria:
• The reservation is linked to the completion of the next Census and the subsequent Delimitation exercise, ensuring seat allocation is based on updated demographic data.
• Seats reserved for women will be rotated after every subsequent delimitation exercise as determined by Parliamentary law.
• Horizontal Reservation:
• The bill provides for one-third reservation for women within the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislatures.
• Legislative Status:
• After receiving the President's assent on September 28, 2023, the bill became the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023.

The correct answer is Ernest Rutherford.

Key Points

• In 1911, the British physicist Ernest Rutherford conducted the landmark Gold Foil Experiment (also known as the Geiger-Marsden experiment) to probe the structure of the atom.
• He bombarded a very thin sheet of gold foil, approximately 1000 atoms thick, with high-energy, positively charged alpha particles (doubly ionized helium nuclei).
• While most particles passed straight through the foil, Rutherford observed that a small fraction was deflected by large angles, and approximately 1 in 12,000 particles rebounded almost 180 degrees.
• Rutherford concluded that the atom is mostly empty space and contains a tiny, dense, and positively charged center called the nucleus, which contains nearly all of the atom's mass.
• This discovery effectively disproved the Plum Pudding Model proposed by J.J. Thomson, leading to the development of the Rutherford Atomic Model.
• Therefore, Ernest Rutherford is the scientist associated with the discovery of the atomic nucleus.

 Additional Information

• Dmitri Mendeleev:
• A Russian chemist who formulated the Periodic Law and created the first widely recognized Periodic Table of elements in 1869.
• He famously left gaps for yet-to-be-discovered elements and predicted their properties based on their positions in the table.
• John Dalton:
• He pioneered the modern Atomic Theory in 1808, proposing that all matter is composed of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms.
• His work established the Law of Multiple Proportions and laid the foundation for modern chemical calculations.
• Robert Boyle:
• Regarded as the first modern chemist, he is most famous for Boyle's Law, which defines the inverse relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at a constant temperature.
• He was a founding member of the Royal Society and was instrumental in separating chemistry from alchemy.

The correct answer is It is partially molten and allows plates to move.

Key Points

• The asthenosphere is a highly viscous, mechanically weak, and ductile region of the Earth's upper mantle, situated just below the lithosphere.
• It typically extends from a depth of about 80 km to 200 km below the Earth's surface, though it can reach as deep as 700 km in certain regions.
• This layer exists in a plastic or semi-fluid state because the temperatures are high enough to cause partial melting of the rock (approximately 1% to 5% melt), reducing its overall rigidity.
• The lithosphere, which is composed of the crust and the rigid uppermost mantle, is broken into tectonic plates that 'float' and glide over the yielding material of the asthenosphere.
• Convection currents occurring within the asthenosphere serve as the primary driving force for plate movements, facilitating processes such as seafloor spreading and subduction.

 Additional Information

• Lithosphere:
• Characterized by its brittle and rigid nature compared to the layers below.
• It includes both continental crust and oceanic crust.
• Outer Core:
• The layer responsible for generating the Earth's magnetic field through the geodynamo process.
• Unlike the asthenosphere, the outer core is entirely liquid and composed mainly of iron and nickel.
• Mantle Composition:
• The asthenosphere is primarily composed of peridotite, an ultramafic rock rich in magnesium and iron.
• Seismic waves slow down when they hit the asthenosphere, a region often called the Low Velocity Zone (LVZ), confirming its less-than-solid state.

The correct answer is Science and mathematics learning.

Key Points

• The Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan (RAA) was formally launched on July 9, 2015, by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now the Ministry of Education) to create a scientific temper among school children.
• The initiative was conceptualized based on the vision of the late former President Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, aiming to nurture a spirit of inquiry and creativity in students outside the traditional rote-learning framework.
• It focuses primarily on students in the age group of 6 to 18 years, covering children from Class I to XII in government schools, Kendriya Vidyalayas, and Navodaya Vidyalayas.
• The core objective is to motivate children to develop an interest and excellence in Science, Mathematics, and Technology through observation, experimentation, and drawing inferences from their surroundings.
• The programme facilitates a mentorship model where Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) like IITs, IISERs, IIMs, and Central Universities adopt schools to provide technical guidance and academic support.

 Additional Information

• Components of RAA:
• School-based Clubs: The scheme encourages the formation of Science Circles and Mathematics Circles to organize activities like quizzes, exhibitions, and model-making.
• Teacher Training: It emphasizes the professional development of Science and Mathematics teachers through workshops and exposure to modern pedagogical tools.
• Learning Resources: The Abhiyan promotes the use of Science Laboratories, Maths Kits, and Technology-Enabled Classrooms to make abstract concepts more tangible for students.
• Field Visits: Students are encouraged to visit National Research Laboratories, Innovation Hubs, Science Museums, and Industrial Units to see the real-world application of their curriculum.
• Sustainability: RAA is now implemented as a component of the Samagra Shiksha scheme, ensuring integrated support from pre-school to senior secondary levels.

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 2003 to institutionalize fiscal discipline and reduce the country's fiscal deficit.
• The legislation was introduced during the tenure of the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government with the aim of ensuring inter-generational equity in fiscal management and long-term macro-economic stability.
• The primary mandate of the Act was for the Central Government to limit the fiscal deficit to 3% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and eliminate the revenue deficit by a specified target date.
• The Act requires the government to maintain transparency in its fiscal operations by presenting three documents along with the annual budget: the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, and the Macro-economic Framework Statement.

 Additional Information

• Implementation and Reviews:
• While the Act was enacted in 2003, it officially came into effect on July 5, 2004.
• In 2016, the N.K. Singh Committee was formed to review the FRBM Act, recommending a Debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% (40% for the Centre and 20% for States) to be achieved by 2023.
• Escape Clause and Amendments:
• The Act contains an Escape Clause (Section 4) that allows the government to exceed fiscal targets during exceptional circumstances like national security, war, national calamity, or a severe collapse in agriculture.
• The Finance Act, 2018 significantly amended the FRBM Act, shifting the policy focus toward targeting the Debt-to-GDP ratio rather than just the revenue deficit.
• Article 292 of the Indian Constitution provides the legal basis for the Union Government to borrow money upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of India within limits set by Parliament.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Astra is a state-of-the-art Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aerial targets, and its successful launch from the LCA Tejas marks a significant milestone in India's indigenization efforts.
• The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), in coordination with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), conducted this critical test launch to validate the weapon system's integration with the LCA Tejas AF MK1 prototype.
• The test was conducted at the Integrated Test Range (ITR) located in Chandipur, Odisha, which is the premier facility for testing and evaluating the performance of Indian missiles, providing sophisticated telemetry, electro-optical, and radar systems for flight tracking.
• The successful validation of the Astra missile from the Tejas platform significantly enhances the combat potential of the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), allowing it to strike enemy aircraft from a distance of over 100 kilometers without being detected.

 Additional Information

• Astra Missile Features:
• It is an all-weather missile developed by Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL) and other laboratories of DRDO.
• The missile has a speed of over Mach 4 and is equipped with advanced electronic counter-countermeasures (ECCM) to perform in electronic warfare environments.
• It serves as a key component of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, reducing dependence on imported air-to-air missiles like the R-77 or MICA.
• Integrated Test Range (ITR), Odisha:
• Located along the Bay of Bengal in Balasore district, it includes the Chandipur range and the Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island (formerly Wheeler Island).
• It is the nerve center for India's Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP), where systems like Agni, Prithvi, and Akash undergo rigorous trials.
• Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA):
• Established in 1984, it is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Defence responsible for the design and development of India's Light Combat Aircraft (LCA).

The correct answer is Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.

Key Points

• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which was enacted by the Parliament in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 323A of the Constitution of India.
• Article 323A was inserted into the Constitution via the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, specifically authorizing the Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants.
• The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 facilitates the setting up of a Central Administrative Tribunal for the Union and State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) for individual states to ensure speedy and inexpensive justice.
• The Central Administrative Tribunal was formally established on November 1, 1985, during the tenure of the Rajiv Gandhi government, with its principal bench located in New Delhi.
• The tribunal is a statutory body that functions as a specialized court to adjudicate service-related matters, thereby reducing the heavy pendency of cases in the High Courts and the Supreme Court.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework and Jurisdiction:
• While Article 323A is dedicated exclusively to administrative tribunals for public service matters, Article 323B provides for the establishment of tribunals for other matters like taxation, labor, and land reforms.
• The jurisdiction of CAT extends to the All-India Services, the Central Civil Services, civil posts under the Centre, and civilian employees of the defense services.
• Members of the regular defense forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are specifically excluded from its jurisdiction.
• Composition and Procedural Nature:
• The tribunal is a multi-member body consisting of a Chairman and several Members drawn from both Judicial and Administrative backgrounds to provide balanced expertise.
• The tribunal is not bound by the rigid procedure prescribed in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908; instead, it is guided by the Principles of Natural Justice.
• Following the landmark L. Chandra Kumar Case (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that orders of the CAT are subject to the judicial review of the High Courts under Article 226/227.

The correct answer is Battle of Chinhat.

Key Points

• The Battle of Chinhat was fought on June 30, 1857, at Chinhat, a village near Lucknow, as part of the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah, a prominent revolutionary leader known as the 'Lighthouse of Rebellion', played a crucial role in leading the rebel forces during this encounter.
• The British East India Company forces, led by Sir Henry Lawrence, were significantly outnumbered and outmaneuvered by the rebel army, leading to a disastrous defeat for the British.
• Following the victory at Chinhat, the rebel forces effectively chased the British troops back to the Lucknow Residency, which initiated the historic Siege of Lucknow.
• This battle is noted for the desertion of the British native police and artillerymen to the rebel side, which fundamentally shifted the tide of the conflict in the Awadh region.

 Additional Information

• Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah:
• He was a native of Arcot but became a central figure in Faizabad and was a staunch advocate of armed resistance against British colonial rule.
• Because of his military success and spiritual influence, the British government placed a significant bounty of Rs 50,000 on his head.
• Battle of Jhansi:
• This refers to the Siege of Jhansi in 1858, where Rani Lakshmibai defended her state against the Central India Field Force led by Sir Hugh Rose.
• Battle of Kanpur:
• A major center of rebellion led by Nana Sahib and Tatya Tope, which included events like the Satichaura Ghat incident before the city was retaken by Sir Colin Campbell.
• Battle of Plassey:
• Fought on June 23, 1757, between Siraj-ud-Daulah and Robert Clive; it predates the 1857 Revolt by a century and established British political dominance in Bengal.

The correct answer is 32.

Key Points

• ASCII, which stands for American Standard Code for Information Interchange, is a character encoding standard that uses 7 bits to represent each character.
• A 7-bit system allows for a total of 128 unique characters (2⁷ = 128), ranging from decimal values 0 to 127.
• Within this set, the original standard specifically designates a block of 32 control characters located at the beginning of the character map.
• These 32 control characters occupy decimal positions 0 through 31 (hexadecimal 00 to 1F) and are primarily non-printable.
• The purpose of these codes is to manage hardware devices and data streams; for instance, CR (Carriage Return) at 13 and LF (Line Feed) at 10 are used to control text formatting on printers and screens.
• Other notable control characters include NUL (Null) at 0, TAB (Horizontal Tab) at 9, and ESC (Escape) at 27, all of which provide functional instructions rather than visual symbols.

 Additional Information

• ASCII Character Categories:
• Printable Characters: There are 95 printable characters in the 7-bit ASCII standard, ranging from decimal 32 to 126. This group includes the space character, punctuation marks, digits 0-9, and both uppercase and lowercase English alphabets.
• The DEL Character: Decimal 127 represents the Delete (DEL) character. While it is non-printable, it is often categorized separately from the primary 32-character control block (0-31).
• Extended ASCII: To support more characters, an 8-bit version was developed, doubling the capacity to 256 characters. This allows for additional mathematical symbols, graphical elements, and foreign language characters.
• Evolution to Unicode: Modern computing has largely transitioned to Unicode (UTF-8), which maintains the original ASCII table as its first 128 entries to ensure backward compatibility with older systems and files.

The correct answer is In RAM, which remains powered with a small amount of electricity.

Key Points

• Sleep Mode, technically referred to as the S3 sleep state under the ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) specification, is a low-power mode that allows a computer to quickly resume full operation.
• When a Windows laptop enters this mode, the Operating System saves the current working state, including all open applications, files, and system metadata, into the RAM (Random Access Memory).
• Since RAM is volatile memory, it requires a constant flow of power to retain data; therefore, the system maintains a trickle charge or a small amount of electricity to the memory modules while cutting power to most other hardware components.
• The primary advantage of this mechanism is the resume speed, as the system does not need to reload data from the slower storage drive into the memory upon waking.
• If power is completely lost (e.g., battery dies) while in this mode, any unsaved data stored in the RAM is permanently lost because the volatile storage resets without power.

 Additional Information

• Comparison of Power States:
• Hibernate Mode (S4 State): Saves the session to the Hard Disk (HDD) or Solid State Drive (SSD) in a file named hiberfil.sys and turns off the power entirely.
• Hybrid Sleep: A combination used mainly on desktops where the session is saved to both RAM and the Hard Drive to protect against power failure.
• Modern Standby (S0 Low Power Idle): A newer state used in modern laptops that allows the system to stay connected to the internet and receive notifications even when the screen is off.
• Technical Limitations of Other Options:
• System Drive: Writing to the drive is a non-volatile process characteristic of Hibernation, not standard Sleep.
• CPU Cache: L1, L2, and L3 caches are extremely small (ranging from a few kilobytes to several megabytes) and cannot hold the Gigabytes of data required for a user session.
• BIOS Chip: The ROM or Flash memory on the Motherboard is reserved for firmware and POST (Power-On Self-Test) instructions and lacks the capacity or speed for session storage.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra remains the leading state in India regarding the density of UNESCO World Heritage Sites, boasting a total of five unique cultural inscriptions as of December 2025.
• The Ajanta Caves, recognized in 1983, consist of 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments dating from the 2^nd century BCE to about 480 CE, famous for their mural paintings.
• The Ellora Caves, also inscribed in 1983, are a magnificent complex of 34 monasteries and temples representing Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism, including the largest monolithic structure, the Kailasa Temple.
• The Elephanta Caves, located on Gharapuri Island in the Mumbai Harbour, were designated in 1987 and are primarily dedicated to the cult of Lord Shiva.
• The Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus (formerly Victoria Terminus) was added to the list in 2004 as a masterpiece of Victorian Gothic Revival architecture blended with Indian traditional motifs.
• The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai, inscribed in 2018, highlight the city's unique urban development through 19^th-century neo-Gothic and 20^th-century Art Deco styles.

 Additional Information

• UNESCO World Heritage Sites are places of Outstanding Universal Value to humanity, protected under an international convention.
• Rajasthan:
• Hosts four primary entries: the Keoladeo National Park, Jantar Mantar, the Hill Forts of Rajasthan (Chittorgarh, Kumbhalgarh, etc.), and the Pink City of Jaipur.
• Karnataka:
• Contains four distinct entries: the Group of Monuments at Hampi, Group of Monuments at Pattadakal, the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (added in 2023), and portions of the Western Ghats.
• Uttar Pradesh:
• Home to three world-renowned sites: the Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, and the abandoned city of Fatehpur Sikri.

The correct answer is keeping a bill pending indefinitely.

Key Points

• The Pocket Veto is a constitutional power exercised by the President of India whereby they neither give assent to a bill nor return it for reconsideration to the Parliament.
• Under Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, the President has three choices regarding a bill: grant assent, withhold assent, or return it (if it is not a Money Bill). However, the Constitution does not specify any time limit within which the President must take action.
• Because there is no prescribed duration for the President to act, they can simply keep the bill on their desk for an indefinite period, effectively preventing the bill from becoming an Act.
• This veto is called 'pocket' because the President metaphorically puts the bill in their pocket and forgets about it, as the Constitution is silent on the urgency of the decision.

 Additional Information

• Veto Powers of the Indian President:
• Absolute Veto: The power of the President to say 'no' to a bill passed by Parliament. The bill then ends and does not become an act. This is usually used for Private Members' Bills.
• Suspensive Veto: The President exercises this by returning a bill for reconsideration. If Parliament passes the bill again with a simple majority (with or without amendments), the President is bound to give assent. This veto cannot be used for Money Bills.
• Historical Instance: In 1986, President Giani Zail Singh exercised the pocket veto with respect to the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, which the government of Rajiv Gandhi had passed, as it was criticized for violating the privacy of correspondence.
• Comparison: In the USA, the President must return a bill within 10 days; thus, the Indian President has a wider scope for the pocket veto because of the absence of a constitutional deadline.