General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Full-screen mode.

Key Points

• Full-screen mode is a display configuration where a software application occupies the entire surface area of the monitor. Unlike a standard window, it removes all Operating System interface elements such as the Taskbar, Start Button, and System Tray from view.
• The primary purpose of this mode is to provide an immersive experience by hiding the Desktop background and other running applications, ensuring that no external visual stimuli distract the user from the primary task.
• In most web browsers like Google Chrome, Microsoft Edge, and Mozilla Firefox, users can trigger this mode by pressing the F11 function key. This action hides the Address Bar, Tabs, and Bookmarks Toolbar.
• It is technically distinct from the Maximized state. While a maximized window fills the available workspace, it typically remains bounded by the Taskbar. In contrast, Full-screen mode overlays the taskbar entirely, utilizing every available pixel of the Display Resolution.
• This mode is the standard for Video Players, Digital Presentations, and Video Games, where maximizing the Aspect Ratio and visibility of the content is critical for functionality and user engagement.

 Additional Information

• Other Window States:
• Restored mode: Also known as Windowed mode, this refers to a state where the window is set to a specific, adjustable size. In this state, the Desktop and other windows are clearly visible behind the active application, allowing for Multitasking.
• Minimized mode: This action collapses the window into a small icon or button on the Taskbar. While the application remains active in the Random Access Memory (RAM), it is not rendered on the display, making the Desktop fully visible.
• Hidden mode: This generally refers to Background Processes or windows that are deliberately excluded from the user interface. These processes run without a visible window or taskbar entry, often used for System Services or Malware detection scripts.

The correct answer is Part IX.

Key Points

• Part IX of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). It was constitutionally mandated to establish local self-government in rural areas.
• This part was officially inserted into the Constitution of India by the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which came into force on April 24, 1993.
• It consists of Articles 243 to 243-O, detailing the structure, composition, powers, and functions of Panchayats.
• The 73^rd Amendment also introduced the 11^th Schedule, which identifies 29 functional items related to rural development, including agriculture, land improvement, and primary education, to be handled by the Panchayats.
• The provision mandates a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj at the Village, Intermediate (Mandal), and District levels for states with a population exceeding 20 lakhs.

 Additional Information

• Other Parts of the Constitution:
• Part V: This part deals with The Union, encompassing the executive, legislature, and judiciary at the central level from Articles 52 to 151.
• Part VII: This part previously dealt with States in Part B of the First Schedule but was repealed by the 7^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
• Part XI: This part defines the Relations between the Union and the States, covering legislative and administrative aspects under Articles 245 to 263.
• Evolution of Panchayati Raj:
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): Recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system for the first time.
• Rajasthan: Was the first state to adopt the Panchayati Raj system in Nagaur district on October 2, 1959.
• Article 40: Located in the Directive Principles of State Policy, it initially directed the State to organize Village Panchayats.

The correct answer is 103^rd Amendment.

Key Points

• The 103^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, introduced a 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens who are not covered under the existing reservation schemes for SCs, STs, and OBCs.
• This amendment modified the Indian Constitution by inserting Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) to permit the State to make special provisions for the advancement of economically weaker citizens.
• Article 15(6) enables the State to reserve up to 10% of seats in educational institutions, including private institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, except for minority educational institutions.
• Article 16(6) empowers the State to provide a maximum of 10% reservation in appointments or posts in favor of any economically weaker section of citizens in addition to the existing reservations.
• The criteria for EWS eligibility are notified by the State from time to time based on family income and other indicators of economic disadvantage.

 Additional Information

• 98^th Amendment
• Enacted in 2012, it inserted Article 371J to provide special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, aiming to promote inclusive growth in backward districts of Karnataka.
• 102^nd Amendment
• Passed in 2018, it granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) and inserted Article 338B and Article 342A regarding the identification of socially and educationally backward classes.
• 104^th Amendment
• Enacted in 2020, it extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies for another 10 years, while discontinuing the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community.

The correct answer is Gomdhar Konwar.

Key Points

• The Ahom Revolt of 1828 was the first significant organized uprising in Assam against the British East India Company following the conclusion of the first Anglo-Burmese War.
• After the signing of the Treaty of Yandabo in 1826, the British failed to fulfill their promise of withdrawing from Assam, instead attempting to annex the territory into their administrative fold.
• Gomdhar Konwar, a prince of the Ahom royal family, emerged as the primary leader of the resistance, aiming to restore the Ahom Monarchy and end foreign interference.
• In October 1828, the rebels formally declared Gomdhar Konwar as the Swargadeo (Ahom King) at Binnakuchi and planned a military strike against the British station at Jorhat.
• The rebellion was bolstered by prominent Ahom officials and nobles, including Dhanjay Borgohain and Jairam Khargharia Phukan, who mobilized local levies to fight the colonial forces.
• The British military response, led by Lieutenant Rutherford, quickly suppressed the uprising; Gomdhar Konwar fled to the Naga Hills but was eventually captured and sentenced to imprisonment for treason.

 Additional Information

• Maniram Dutta (Maniram Dewan):
• He was a sophisticated Assamese nobleman who originally served the British but later became a mastermind of the Revolt of 1857 in Assam.
• He sought to restore Kandarpeswar Singha to the throne and was eventually executed by hanging in 1858 for his anti-British conspiracies.
• Piyali Phukan:
• He was a patriot who led a subsequent rebellion in 1830, targeting the British military headquarters at Rangpur.
• Following the failure of this second major attempt at restoration, he was executed by the British, becoming a celebrated martyr of the Assamese freedom struggle.
• Treaty of Yandabo:
• Signed on February 24, 1826, this treaty ended the First Anglo-Burmese War and resulted in Burma ceding Assam, Manipur, and Arakan to the British.

The correct answer is Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007.

Key Points

• The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 was enacted to ensure the financial security, health, and welfare of elderly individuals in India. It mandates a legal obligation for children and heirs to provide maintenance to their parents.
• The Supreme Court of India and various High Courts have consistently interpreted the provisions of this Act to include the power of the Maintenance Tribunal to issue eviction orders. This is particularly applicable when children or legal heirs fail to maintain the senior citizen or occupy their property against their will, causing physical or mental distress.
• Under Section 23 of the Act, any transfer of property by a senior citizen (via gift or otherwise) can be declared void by the Tribunal if the transferee fails to provide basic amenities and physical needs as promised.
• In recent judicial reiterations, the courts have clarified that while the Act does not explicitly use the word 'eviction' in its text, the Right to Live with Dignity and the definition of Welfare (under Section 2k) grant the Tribunal the authority to remove abusive or non-compliant children from the senior citizen's residence to ensure their protection.
• The Act provides a summary procedure for maintenance, meaning the Tribunal can pass orders relatively quickly compared to standard civil court proceedings, which is essential for the immediate relief of the elderly.

 Additional Information

• Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007:
• Senior Citizen: Defined as any person being a citizen of India who has attained the age of 60 years or above.
• Maintenance: Includes provisions for food, clothing, residence, medical attendance, and treatment.
• Tribunal Composition: Each state government constitutes one or more Maintenance Tribunals for each sub-division, presided over by an officer not below the rank of Sub-Divisional Officer (SDO).
• Maximum Maintenance: The Act originally capped the monthly maintenance amount at Rs. 10,000, though several amendments and judicial reviews have sought to remove this ceiling based on the standard of living.
• Appellate Tribunal: Any senior citizen or parent aggrieved by the order of the Tribunal can prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal within 60 days.
• Legal Representation: One unique feature of this Act is that no party to a proceeding before a Tribunal or Appellate Tribunal shall be represented by a legal practitioner, ensuring a simplified and direct process.

The correct answer is Life expectancy, education, and per capita income.

Key Points

• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary composite measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, being knowledgeable, and having a decent standard of living.
• The health dimension is assessed by Life Expectancy at Birth, which estimates the number of years a newborn is expected to live based on current mortality rates.
• The education dimension is measured by combining the Mean Years of Schooling for adults aged 25 years and older and the Expected Years of Schooling for children of school-entering age.
• The standard of living dimension is measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in international dollars to account for differences in the cost of living across countries.
• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the Human Development Report annually, ranking countries based on their HDI score, which ranges from 0 to 1.

 Additional Information

• Origin of HDI:
• It was created by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian economist Amartya Sen in 1990 to shift the focus of development economics from national income accounting to people-centered policies.
• Other Indices in the Human Development Report:
• Inequality-adjusted HDI (IHDI): Adjusts the HDI for inequality in the distribution of each dimension across the population.
• Gender Inequality Index (GII): Measures gender disparities in reproductive health, empowerment, and labor market participation.
• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): Identifies multiple deprivations at the household and individual level in health, education, and standard of living.
• Categorization:
• Countries are categorized into four groups based on their scores: Very High (0.800 and above), High (0.700 to 0.799), Medium (0.550 to 0.699), and Low Human Development (below 0.550).

The correct answer is An immediate sync to Drive is triggered.

Key Points

• Google Docs is a cloud-based word processor that utilizes asynchronous data transmission to save changes in real-time as a user types.
• While the application features an Auto-save mechanism that periodically pushes data to the server, pressing Ctrl + S acts as a manual trigger to force the synchronization process immediately.
• Technically, this action sends a request to the Google Drive servers to ensure that the latest buffer of edits is committed to the cloud storage and reflected in the Version History.
• Upon pressing the shortcut, the status message near the document title usually transitions from Saving... to All changes saved to Drive, confirming that the handshake between the browser and the remote server is complete.

 Additional Information

• Cloud Architecture and Storage:
• Unlike legacy software that writes data to a local Hard Disk Drive (HDD), Google Docs stores data within the Google Cloud Platform infrastructure.
• The Ctrl + S shortcut in web apps is often a legacy habit for users transitioning from desktop environments like Microsoft Word, where manual saving is critical to prevent data loss from system crashes.
• Collaborative Environment:
• Immediate syncing ensures that other collaborators viewing the same document see the most recent updates with minimal latency.
• The Real-time Presence feature relies on these constant sync triggers to maintain consistency across multiple user sessions.
• Offline Functionality:
• If Offline Mode is enabled via the Google Docs Offline extension, pressing Ctrl + S saves the changes to the browser's IndexedDB or Local Storage until a network connection allows for a server sync.

The correct answer is Managing files and folders.

Key Points

• Microsoft Windows is a widely used Operating System (OS) that serves as the essential layer of software managing communication between the user and the computer hardware.
• One of the fundamental responsibilities of any operating system, including Windows, is File Management, which involves the organized storage, retrieval, and naming of data on storage devices.
• Windows utilizes a hierarchical file system structure where data is stored in files, and these files are grouped into folders (also known as directories) to maintain an orderly environment.
• The File Explorer is the native utility in Windows that provides a Graphical User Interface (GUI) for users to perform critical tasks such as creating, moving, renaming, copying, and deleting files and folders.
• Behind the scenes, the operating system manages file allocation tables or NTFS (New Technology File System) metadata to keep track of exactly where bits of data are physically located on Hard Disk Drives (HDD) or Solid State Drives (SSD).
• Beyond organization, the OS ensures data security by managing file permissions and attributes, deciding which users or programs have the right to read, write, or execute specific files.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Application vs. System Software:
• Designing multimedia presentations: This is an application-level task performed using specialized software like Microsoft PowerPoint or Google Slides, which runs on top of the operating system.
• Editing audio files: This requires dedicated Digital Audio Workstations (DAW) or editors such as Audacity or Adobe Audition; the OS provides the resources (CPU/RAM) for these tools but does not perform the editing itself.
• Playing games: While Windows is a premier platform for gaming due to its DirectX API and driver support, the actual execution of game logic is the function of the game application, not the primary role of the OS.
• Other Core Functions of Windows:
• Memory Management: Efficiently allocating Random Access Memory (RAM) to different running processes.
• Processor Management: Handling the scheduling of tasks to ensure the Central Processing Unit (CPU) is utilized optimally.
• Device Management: Using Device Drivers to facilitate communication with peripherals like printers, keyboards, and monitors.

The correct answer is USD 10 billion.

Key Points

• The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has officially pledged a substantial funding of USD 10 billion specifically dedicated to India’s urban infrastructure sector for the five-year period spanning 2025 to 2030.
• This commitment is designed to support the Government of India in its mission to create climate-resilient, inclusive, and sustainable cities, aligning with the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.
• The funding will prioritize critical areas such as urban transport (including metro rail projects), solid waste management, wastewater treatment, and the provision of 24/7 piped water supply in various urban clusters.
• This investment strategy focuses on improving the Ease of Living in Indian cities by leveraging digital technologies and smart governance to manage rapid urbanization effectively.
• The pledge underscores ADB's role as a primary development partner, helping India mobilize private sector participation and innovative financing for large-scale municipal projects.

 Additional Information

• Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• Headquarters: Located in Mandaluyong, Metro Manila, Philippines.
• Establishment: Founded on December 19, 1966, to foster economic growth and cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.
• Membership: Currently comprises 68 members, with 49 from within the region and 19 from outside.
• India’s Status: India is a founding member of ADB and is currently its largest borrower of sovereign loans, focusing on industrial corridors and energy efficiency.
• Strategic Alignment:
• The USD 10 billion pledge complements India's flagship schemes like AMRUT 2.0 (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) and the Smart Cities Mission.
• It emphasizes decarbonization of urban centers to help India meet its Net Zero targets by 2070.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh emerged as the most populous state in India as per the Census 2011, recording a total population of approximately 19,98,12,341 (nearly 199.8 million).
• The state accounts for roughly 16.5% of the total Indian population, which was enumerated at 1.21 billion during that period.
• The population of Uttar Pradesh is notably higher than that of many sovereign nations, being roughly equal to the population of Brazil at the time of the census.
• The decadal growth rate of the state between 2001 and 2011 was 20.23%, indicating a significant demographic expansion over ten years.

 Additional Information

• Other highly populous states in India according to Census 2011 include:
• Maharashtra: Secured the second position with a population of 11.23 crore.
• Bihar: Ranked as the third most populous state with 10.40 crore and remains the most densely populated state in India.
• West Bengal: Occupied the fourth position with 9.12 crore residents.
• Sikkim: Recorded as the least populous state in India with a population of only 6.10 lakh.
• Lakshadweep: Identified as the least populous Union Territory in the country.
• Census 2011 Details: This was the 15^th national census of India and the 7^th since independence, conducted under Registrar General and Census Commissioner C. Chandramouli.

The correct answer is Electric energy.

Key Points

• The unit Kilowatt-hour (kWh) is the standard commercial unit used to measure the total amount of Electric energy consumed or generated over a specific period of time.
• Physical quantity Power is defined as the rate of energy consumption or transfer, expressed as Power = Energy ÷ Time.
• By rearranging the formula, Energy is calculated as the product of power and time (Energy = Power × Time); since Kilowatt is a unit of power and Hour is a unit of time, their product represents energy.
• In the context of Solar energy systems, the output of Photovoltaic (PV) panels is measured in kWh to quantify the total electrical work performed or electricity produced by the system globally.

 Additional Information

• Electric charge:
• The physical property of matter that causes it to experience a force in an electromagnetic field, measured in Coulombs (C).
• It is the product of current and time (Q = I × t).
• Current:
• The rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor, with the Ampere (A) as its SI unit.
• 1 Ampere is equivalent to the flow of 1 Coulomb of charge per second.
• Force:
• A vector quantity that causes an object to change its velocity, measured in Newtons (N).
• It is defined by Newton's Second Law as mass multiplied by acceleration (F = m × a).
• Energy Conversion Fact:
• 1 kWh is equivalent to 3.6 × 10⁶ Joules.
• This is derived from 1,000 Watts (Joules/second) × 3,600 Seconds.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.

The correct answer is Providing minimum support price for agricultural produce to farmers.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched on 18^th February 2016 to provide a comprehensive insurance solution for farmers against non-preventable natural risks.
• One primary objective is to provide financial support to farmers who suffer crop loss or damage arising out of unforeseen events such as floods, dry spells, or pest attacks. Hence, statement 1 is an objective of PMFBY.
• The scheme aims to encourage farmers to adopt modern and innovative agricultural practices by providing a safety net, which reduces the financial risk of experimenting with new technologies. Hence, statement 2 is an objective of PMFBY.
• Stabilising the income of farmers is a core goal, ensuring they remain financially stable and continue their farming activities despite seasonal fluctuations or disasters. Hence, statement 4 is an objective of PMFBY.
• Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a separate market intervention by the Government of India to protect producers against sharp falls in agricultural prices; it is managed under different policies and is not a component of this insurance scheme. Hence, statement 3 is not an objective of PMFBY.

 Additional Information

• Premium Structure:
• Farmers pay a uniform premium of only 2% for all Kharif crops.
• A premium of 1.5% is applicable for all Rabi crops.
• For annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers is 5%.
• Minimum Support Price (MSP):
• MSP is fixed on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union Government takes the final decision on the level of MSP.
• Currently, it covers 22 mandated crops and a fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane.
• Administrative Authority:
• PMFBY is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• It replaced the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and the Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS).

The correct answer is S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India.

Key Points

• The landmark case of S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India (1981), popularly known as the First Judges Case, is fundamentally credited with the relaxation of the traditional rule of Locus Standi.
• The Supreme Court, through a bench led by Justice P.N. Bhagwati, ruled that any member of the public or a social action group acting bona fide can approach the court to seek judicial redress for a person or class of persons who, due to poverty, disability, or a socially disadvantaged position, cannot approach the court themselves.
• By allowing third parties to represent the interests of the marginalized, the judgment established the procedural foundation for Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
• The court emphasized that the Rule of Law requires that legal injury to a person or group should not go unredressed simply because they lack the means to navigate the legal process.
• This shift transformed the Indian judiciary from a passive arbiter of private disputes into an active protector of Fundamental Rights and social justice, making justice more accessible to the common man.

 Additional Information

• Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (1980)
• This case is pivotal for the Basic Structure Doctrine, where the court struck down clauses of the 42^nd Amendment Act that sought to give Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) absolute precedence over Fundamental Rights.
• It established that the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited and Judicial Review is an essential feature of the Constitution.
• Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
• The Supreme Court held that the Parliament does not have the power to curtail or take away any of the Fundamental Rights through constitutional amendments.
• It introduced the doctrine of Prospective Overruling, ensuring that the judgment did not invalidate previous amendments but restricted future ones.
• Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978)
• This case expanded the horizon of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) by ruling that any 'procedure established by law' must be just, fair, and reasonable, and not arbitrary.
• It linked Article 14, 19, and 21, creating the Golden Triangle of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is 1959.

Key Points

• Oil India Limited (OIL) was officially incorporated as a private limited company on February 18, 1959.
• The company was established as a joint venture between the Government of India and the Burmah Oil Company Limited (a British entity) to explore and develop oil resources in Northeast India.
• The incorporation followed the significant discovery of oil fields in Nahorkatiya (1953) and Moran (1956) in the state of Assam, which necessitated a specialized corporate body for management.
• Initially, the headquarters was located in Shillong, but the operational base was later moved to Duliajan, Assam, to be closer to the production sites.

 Additional Information

• Corporate Evolution and Nationalization:
• In 1961, the equity structure was revised to a 50:50 partnership between the Government of India and Burmah Oil Company.
• On October 14, 1981, the company became a fully-owned Government of India Enterprise under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• OIL was granted the Navratna status in 2010 and was further elevated to the Maharatna category in August 2023.
• Infrastructural Contributions:
• OIL constructed the 1,157 km long cross-country crude oil pipeline to transport crude from the Assam fields to refineries in Guwahati, Bongaigaon, and Barauni.
• The company is the second-largest national hydrocarbon explorer in India, maintaining a diverse portfolio in exploration, production, and transportation across over nine states and several international locations like Russia, Nigeria, and Gabon.

The correct answer is IIT Palakkad.

Key Points

• On 8^th October 2025, a significant Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between the Ministry of Minority Affairs (MoMA) and the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Palakkad at the institute's Nila Campus in Kerala.
• The partnership is established under the Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) scheme, a 100% centrally funded initiative aimed at the socio-economic empowerment of minority communities.
• The collaboration focuses on providing future-tech training to 400 aspirants from minority communities, equipping them with advanced skills in high-demand technological sectors.
• Specifically, the program includes three specialized courses: Junior Chip Designer (150 seats), Embedded Software Engineer (150 seats), and Junior Drone Engineer - R&D (100 seats).
• The ceremony was attended by the Union Minister of State for Minority Affairs, Shri George Kurian, who emphasized the role of such initiatives in building Brand India and fostering entrepreneurship.

 Additional Information

• IIT Palakkad and the PM VIKAS Scheme:
• IIT Palakkad is the third institute in Kerala to join this national skilling initiative, following IIIT Kottayam and CMFRI Trivandrum.
• The total number of beneficiaries under the PM VIKAS scheme in Kerala across these three institutes reached 1,540 by late 2025.
• Beyond technical training, the program provides participants with a monthly stipend and dedicated placement support for both employment and self-employment.
• The PM VIKAS scheme integrates five earlier schemes (Seekho aur Kamao, USTTAD, Hamari Dharohar, Nai Roshni, and Nai Manzil) to provide a unified platform for skill development, education, and leadership.
• The training is implemented through the IIT Palakkad Technology I-Hub Foundation (IPTIF), which specializes in Intelligent Collaborative Systems.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri mountains, are a mountain range that covers an area of 160,000 square kilometers in a stretch of 1,600 kilometers parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula. In the state of Maharashtra, this range is locally and primarily referred to as Sahyadri. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Nilgiri Hills form a part of the Western Ghats and are located at the junction where the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats meet. These hills are spread across the borders of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, and are locally identified by this name in these regions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Anaimalai Hills, which translate to Elephant Hills, are located in the southern part of the Western Ghats. They are situated on the border of Kerala and Tamil Nadu, south of the Palghat Gap. They are a prominent local mountain range in Kerala. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Geographical Significance:
• The Western Ghats are older than the Himalayan mountains and represent geomorphic features of immense importance with highly unique biophysical and ecological processes.
• The range is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is one of the eight hotspots of biological diversity in the world.
• The highest peak of the Western Ghats is Anamudi, standing at an elevation of 2,695 meters (8,842 feet), located within the Anaimalai Hills in the state of Kerala.
• The mountains act as a major watershed, giving rise to important perennial rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.
• Further south of the Anaimalai Hills lie the Cardamom Hills, which are also part of the Western Ghats system in Kerala.

The correct answer is Alluri Seetharama Raju.

Key Points

• The Rampa Rebellion, also known as the Manyam Rebellion, took place between 1922−1924 in the Godavari Agency region of the Madras Presidency (modern-day Andhra Pradesh).
• Alluri Seetharama Raju led the tribal people against the oppressive British colonial rule, specifically targeting the Madras Forest Act of 1882 which restricted tribal rights over forest land.
• The revolt was a response to the British policy of preventing tribal communities from practicing their traditional Podu (shifting) cultivation and collecting forest produce.
• Raju was highly influenced by the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi; he persuaded people to wear Khadi and give up drinking alcohol.
• Despite his admiration for Gandhiji, he believed that Swaraj could only be achieved through the use of force and guerrilla warfare rather than pure non-violence.
• The rebels carried out daring raids on police stations in Chintapalle, Rampa Chowdavaram, Dammanapalli, and Anantagiri to capture weapons.
• The rebellion came to an end after Alluri Seetharama Raju was captured and executed by the British in May 1924.

 Additional Information

• Durgawati Devi
• Commonly known as Durga Bhabhi, she was a prominent member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• She played a crucial role in assisting Bhagat Singh in his escape from Lahore following the Saunders assassination in 1928.
• Chittu Pandey
• He was a revolutionary leader during the Quit India Movement of 1942 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh.
• He is celebrated as the Sher-e-Ballia (Tiger of Ballia) for establishing a short-lived independent local government.
• Manyam Veerudu
• This title, meaning Hero of the Jungles, was given to Alluri Seetharama Raju by the local tribal population in recognition of his bravery and leadership.
• His struggle remains a significant part of the Indian Independence Movement history in South India.

The correct answer is Jay Shah.

Key Points

• Jay Shah, the current Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC) and former Honorary Secretary of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), was honored with the CNN-News18 Indian of the Year 2025 award in the Outstanding Achievement category.
• He was recognized for his transformative role in the sports industry, particularly for his successful efforts in securing the inclusion of cricket in the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics, marking a historic milestone for the game's global expansion.
• His leadership was instrumental in implementing equal match fees for Indian women and men cricketers, a landmark decision that established gender pay parity within the BCCI.
• Under his administration, the Women’s Premier League (WPL) was conceptualized and launched, which has become the most successful professional women's cricket league globally, providing a major platform for emerging talent.
• The 15^th edition of the prestigious awards ceremony took place on November 28, 2025, in New Delhi, under the theme India’s Invincible Icons.
• The award reflects his significant influence on sports governance and his vision for modernizing the commercial and administrative framework of the game while maintaining record levels of fan engagement.

 Additional Information

• Rahul Dravid:
• Known as The Wall, he served as the head coach of the Indian men's cricket team and guided them to victory in the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024.
• Mahendra Singh Dhoni:
• The only captain in history to win all three major ICC trophies (T20 World Cup, 50-over World Cup, and Champions Trophy).
• He continues to lead the Chennai Super Kings in the IPL and remains one of India's most iconic sports figures.
• Gautam Gambhir:
• A former Indian opener and a two-time World Cup winner (2007 and 2011).
• He was appointed as the Head Coach of the Indian national team in July 2024, succeeding Dravid.

The correct answer is Pure water.

Key Points

• The pH scale is a logarithmic measurement used to specify the acidity or basicity of an aqueous solution, originally developed by Danish biochemist S.P.L. Sørensen in 1909.
• A substance is defined as neutral when it possesses a pH value of exactly 7.0 at a standard temperature of 25°C (298 K).
• Pure water is the primary reference for neutrality because it undergoes auto-ionization, where the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) is exactly equal to the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH⁻).
• At equilibrium in pure water, the concentration of these ions is 1.0 × 10⁻⁷ moles per liter, resulting in a state where neither acidic nor basic characteristics are dominant.
• The scale ranges from 0 to 14, where values below 7 indicate an acidic nature (high H⁺ concentration) and values above 7 indicate a basic or alkaline nature (high OH⁻ concentration).

 Additional Information

• Stomach acid
• Mainly consists of Hydrochloric acid (HCl) produced by the stomach lining.
• It typically has a very low pH range of 1.5 to 3.5, which is crucial for activating digestive enzymes and killing ingested bacteria.
• Sea water
• Functions as a complex chemical solution with a slightly alkaline pH generally ranging from 7.5 to 8.4.
• Its pH is stabilized by the bicarbonate buffer system, though it is susceptible to ocean acidification due to rising atmospheric CO₂ levels.
• Lime juice
• Contains high concentrations of citric acid, typically between 5% to 6% by weight.
• This high acid content results in a low pH value of approximately 2.0 to 2.8, making it significantly more acidic than neutral solutions.

The correct answer is 24.

Key Points

• The system of Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) was first inaugurated in the Indian Parliament in April 1993 based on the recommendation of the Rules Committee.
• Initially, there were 17 committees established to cover various ministries and departments of the Union Government.
• On July 20, 2004, the Parliament expanded the committee system, increasing the total number of DRSCs from 17 to 24.
• Among the 24 committees, 16 committees function under the administrative control of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and 8 committees function under the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The main objective of these committees is to ensure the accountability of the Executive to the Legislature, especially in terms of financial expenditure and policy implementation.

 Additional Information

• Composition and Membership:
• Each Departmentally Related Standing Committee consists of 31 members in total.
• Out of these 31 members, 21 are nominated from the Lok Sabha and 10 are nominated from the Rajya Sabha.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha nominate the members from their respective houses based on the proportional representation of political parties.
• Tenure and Eligibility:
• The term of office for the members of these committees is one year.
• A Minister cannot be a member of any Standing Committee; if a member is appointed as a minister, they must vacate their seat in the committee.
• Functions:
• The committees examine the Demands for Grants made by various ministries before they are voted upon in the Lok Sabha.
• They scrutinize Bills referred to them by the presiding officers and consider Annual Reports of the ministries.
• They also evaluate long-term National Policy Documents presented to the Parliament.