General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Token currency.

Key Points

• In 1329-1330 AD, Muhammad bin Tughlaq introduced a Token Currency system to manage the severe global shortage of silver bullion during the 14^th century.
• The Sultan issued coins made of base metals, specifically brass and copper, and decreed that they should be accepted at the same value as the silver Tanka.
• The primary objective was to preserve the state's silver reserves while maintaining a high level of liquidity for his ambitious military projects and administrative expenses.
• The idea was modeled after the successful use of paper currency (Chao) in China under Kublai Khan and similar experiments in Persia (Gaykhatu Khan).
• However, the experiment failed because the government could not prevent forgery; households reportedly began minting their own copper coins, leading to massive inflation and a total collapse of the credit system.
• To restore order, the Sultan had to withdraw the token coins and exchange them for genuine silver and gold coins from the royal treasury, resulting in a massive financial loss.

 Additional Information

• Muhammad bin Tughlaq:
• He is often referred to by historians as the Prince of Moneyers because of the high quality and variety of coins he produced during his reign.
• His other controversial projects included the transfer of the capital from Delhi to Devagiri (renamed Daulatabad) in 1327 AD.
• Land Revenue Reforms:
• While he did introduce heavy taxation in the Doab region to increase state revenue, this was aimed at funding his large standing army rather than directly addressing the bullion shortage.
• Garrison Towns:
• These were fortified settlements with soldiers, a concept more associated with the military control strategies of earlier Sultans like Ghiyasuddin Balban and Alauddin Khalji to defend against Mongol invasions.

The correct answer is Service Tax.

Key Points

• The Constitution (88^th Amendment) Act, 2003, was enacted to provide a formal constitutional framework for the levy and collection of Service Tax in India.
• Prior to this amendment, service tax was collected by the Union Government using its residuary powers under Entry 97 of the Union List (List I) since 1994.
• The amendment resulted in the insertion of Article 268A, which explicitly empowered the Government of India to levy taxes on services, while the appropriation of the revenue was to be shared between the Union and the States.
• It also expanded the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution by adding Entry 92C (Taxes on Services) to the Union List.
• This legislative step was crucial for formalizing the sharing of service tax proceeds between different levels of government, following the recommendations of various tax reform committees like the Chelliah Committee.

 Additional Information

• Goods and Services Tax (GST):
• Introduced through the 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, it completely overhauled the indirect tax regime in India.
• The GST subsumed Service Tax, Excise Duty, and VAT, leading to the repeal of Article 268A and Entry 92C that were introduced by the 88^th Amendment.
• Wealth Tax:
• Governed by the Wealth-tax Act, 1957, it was a Direct Tax on the net wealth of certain entities.
• The government abolished wealth tax in the Union Budget 2015, replacing it with an additional 2% surcharge on individuals with a taxable income exceeding 1 crore rupees.
• Property Tax:
• A local tax levied by Municipal Corporations or Local Bodies on real estate, based on the annual rental value or capital value of the property.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

• Megasthenes was an ancient Greek historian, diplomat, and explorer who served as the official ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator, the founder of the Seleucid Empire.
• Following the Seleucid–Mauryan war (approximately 305–303 BCE), a peace treaty was concluded between Seleucus I and Chandragupta Maurya, which involved territorial exchanges and a matrimonial alliance.
• As a consequence of this diplomatic reconciliation, Megasthenes was sent to the Mauryan capital, Pataliputra, to represent the Greeks in the royal court of Chandragupta Maurya.
• During his tenure at the court, he authored the seminal work titled Indica, which serves as a vital primary source for understanding the Mauryan administration, the seven-fold caste system, and the urban layout of Pataliputra.
• His accounts provide the earliest systematic description of Indian society and the military strength of the Mauryan Empire by a foreign observer.

 Additional Information

• Chandragupta Maurya:
• He was the founder of the Mauryan Dynasty (reigned c. 321–297 BCE) and is credited with unifying most of the Indian subcontinent under a single central authority with the guidance of Chanakya.
• Bindusara:
• The son of Chandragupta Maurya; during his reign, the Greek king Antiochus I sent an ambassador named Deimachus to the Mauryan court.
• Ashoka:
• The third Mauryan emperor, famous for his conversion to Buddhism; historical records suggest that Dionysius was the Greek ambassador sent to his court by Ptolemy II Philadelphus.
• Brihadratha:
• The last ruler of the Mauryan Empire, who was assassinated by his general Pushyamitra Shunga in 185 BCE, leading to the rise of the Shunga Dynasty.

The correct answer is Safeguarding the Girl Child.

Key Points

• The 10^th National Consultation on Child Protection was organized by the Supreme Court Juvenile Justice Committee in collaboration with UNICEF India on October 11-12, 2025.
• The event was specifically themed Safeguarding the Girl Child to coincide with the International Day of the Girl Child, which is observed globally on October 11 every year.
• The primary objective of the consultation was to evaluate the implementation of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, with a specific focus on the unique vulnerabilities faced by girls.
• Key stakeholders, including High Court Judges, representatives from the Ministry of Women and Child Development, and child rights advocates, discussed strategies to enhance gender-sensitive legal procedures and rehabilitation frameworks.
• The consultation emphasized the urgency of addressing the backlog of POCSO cases in Special Courts and ensuring the privacy and dignity of girl survivors during trial proceedings.

 Additional Information

• International Day of the Girl Child:
• Declared by the United Nations in 2011, this day aims to highlight and address the needs and challenges girls face while promoting girl empowerment and the fulfillment of their human rights.
• The 2025 consultation utilized this global platform to push for structural changes in India’s Child Protection Services (CPS).
• Judicial Oversight:
• The Supreme Court of India plays a pivotal role in monitoring the Juvenile Justice system through these annual consultations, ensuring that Special Juvenile Police Units (SJPUs) and Child Welfare Committees (CWCs) are functioning effectively.
• Previous themes have focused on the digital safety of children and the prevention of child trafficking, but the 10^th edition prioritized the comprehensive safety of girls in both domestic and institutional settings.

The correct answer is Dockyards.

Key Points

• Lothal, located in the Bhal region of modern-day Gujarat, is world-famous for possessing the earliest known artificial dockyard, which dates back to approximately 2400 BCE.
• The dockyard is a sophisticated rectangular basin made of kiln-burnt bricks, measuring roughly 214 meters in length and 36 meters in width, connected to the ancient course of the Sabarmati River.
• This structure was engineered with a sluice gate system to control the flow of water and maintain the water level during low tides, showcasing the advanced hydrographic knowledge of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC).
• The presence of the dockyard established Lothal as a premier maritime trade center, linking the Harappan civilization with distant lands such as Mesopotamia (Sumer), Egypt, and the Persian Gulf.
• Excavations led by archaeologist S.R. Rao in 1954 revealed that this dockyard facilitated the export of luxury items like carnelian beads, ivory, and copper, which were highly valued in international markets.

 Additional Information

• Other Archaeological Features at Lothal:
• Bead-Making Factory: Lothal was a major industrial hub for the production of micro-beads and gemstone ornaments, featuring a specialized factory with a working platform.
• Rice Husk: Evidence of rice cultivation was found here, which is relatively rare in other major Harappan sites.
• Persian Gulf Seals: The discovery of circular button-shaped seals indicates direct maritime contact with the Dilmun civilization (modern-day Bahrain).
• Comparison with Other Options:
• Great Baths: This iconic structure is the hallmark of Mohenjo-daro, primarily used for ritualistic bathing rather than trade.
• Citadels: While most IVC cities, including Lothal, had a Citadel (upper town) for the ruling class, it is not the unique feature that defines Lothal's international importance.
• Granaries: Massive Granaries for surplus food storage were the dominant features of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, serving as the state treasury.

The correct answer is 2000.

Key Points

• The National Agriculture Policy (NAP) was officially announced by the Government of India on July 28, 2000. It was the first-ever comprehensive policy formulated to steer the country's agricultural sector into the new millennium.
• The central objective of the policy was to achieve a growth rate of over 4 percent per annum in the agriculture sector. This growth was intended to be sustainable, technologically driven, and demand-oriented.
• The policy introduced the concept of the Rainbow Revolution, which aimed to integrate various specialized revolutions like the Green Revolution (food grains), White Revolution (milk), Yellow Revolution (oilseeds), Blue Revolution (fisheries), Red Revolution (meat and poultry), and Golden Revolution (fruits and honey).
• It emphasized 'Growth with Equity', focusing on regional balance and ensuring that the benefits of agricultural development reached small and marginal farmers across all geographical areas of India.
• The NAP 2000 encouraged the involvement of the private sector through contract farming and land leasing arrangements to facilitate accelerated technology transfer, capital inflow, and a steady market for agricultural produce.
• The policy aimed at protecting plant varieties through a specialized sui generis system and promoting the use of biotechnology for developing improved seed varieties and sustainable farming practices.

 Additional Information

• National Policy for Farmers (NPF), 2007:
• While the 2000 policy focused on agricultural production, the 2007 policy (approved based on the recommendations of the National Commission on Farmers chaired by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan) shifted the focus toward the well-being of the farmers and improving their net income.
• It introduced the concept of 'Income Security' for farmers as a primary goal.
• Resource Management:
• The National Agriculture Policy 2000 highlighted the importance of conserving biodiversity and the sustainable management of natural resources like land and water.
• It prioritized integrated pest management (IPM) and integrated nutrient management (INM) to reduce the chemical footprint on the environment.

The correct answer is One-Child Policy.

Key Points

• The One-Child Policy was a rigorous population control program introduced by the Chinese government in 1979 to curb the country's rapid population growth.
• Deep-seated cultural traditions in China historically favored male heirs for agricultural labor, carrying on the family lineage, and providing social security for elderly parents.
• Under the strict limitation of a single child, many families resorted to sex-selective abortion, female infanticide, and abandonment of girls to ensure their only legal child was a boy.
• This demographic engineering led to a severely skewed Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB); while the natural ratio is roughly 105 boys to 100 girls, China's ratio peaked at approximately 118 to 120 males for every 100 females in the early 21^st century.

 Additional Information

• The policy was formally ended in 2015, transitioning first to a two-child policy in 2016 and subsequently to a three-child policy in 2021 to mitigate the crisis of an aging population and labor shortages.
• Impact of other options:
• Universal Healthcare Act: Refers to policies ensuring medical access for all citizens, which generally improves overall life expectancy rather than skewing birth ratios.
• Gender Equity Law: These legal frameworks are designed to eliminate discrimination and protect women's rights, which typically works toward balancing social disparities.
• Rural Migration Ban: Often associated with the Hukou system, this policy restricted internal migration from villages to cities but did not dictate reproductive outcomes or gender selection.

The correct answer is Article 32.

Key Points

• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights listed in Part III.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the architect of the Constitution, described this article as the 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution' because it makes all other rights functional and enforceable.
• The Supreme Court is designated as the protector and guarantor of Fundamental Rights under this provision, ensuring that the State does not infringe upon individual liberties.
• The Article empowers the court to issue five types of prerogative writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo-Warranto.
• This right cannot be suspended except as provided by the Constitution, specifically during a National Emergency under Article 359 by the President.
• Because it is vital to the constitutional structure, the Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution, meaning it cannot be abridged or taken away even by a constitutional amendment.

 Additional Information

• Article 226:
• Empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for 'any other purpose', giving it a broader jurisdiction than the Supreme Court in this specific regard.
• Article 21:
• Guarantees the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty, stating that no person shall be deprived of their life or liberty except according to procedure established by law.
• It has been widely interpreted by the judiciary to include rights like privacy, clean environment, and legal aid.
• Article 19:
• Protects six basic freedoms for citizens: speech and expression, peaceful assembly, formation of associations, movement throughout India, residence, and practicing any profession.

The correct answer is Article 39 A.

Key Points

• Article 39 A is a significant provision under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
• This article was inserted by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, during the emergency period to promote equal justice and free legal aid.
• The provision directs the State to ensure that the legal system operates in a manner that promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity for all citizens.
• It specifically mandates the State to provide free legal aid through suitable legislation or schemes to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
• To fulfill the constitutional mandate of this Article, the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted, which led to the establishment of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) to monitor and implement legal aid programs.

 Additional Information

• Article 29:
• Falls under Part III (Fundamental Rights) and deals with the Protection of interests of minorities.
• It grants any section of citizens residing in India the right to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture.
• Article 51 A:
• Contained in Part IV-A, it lists the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
• Originally, ten duties were added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, and an eleventh was added by the 86^th Amendment Act, 2002.
• Article 78:
• Specifies the Duties of the Prime Minister regarding the furnishing of information to the President.
• It mandates the PM to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the Union and proposals for legislation to the President.

The correct answer is Shehnai.

Key Points

• Ustad Bismillah Khan (1916–2006) was a legendary Indian musician who is credited with single-handedly elevating the Shehnai from a traditional folk and wedding instrument to the global classical concert stage.
• Born as Qamaruddin Khan in Dumraon, Bihar, he came from a lineage of court musicians; he received his training in Varanasi under his maternal uncle, Ali Baksh 'Vilayatu', a prominent Shehnai player at the Kashi Vishwanath Temple.
• He is celebrated for his historic performance at the Red Fort on 15^th August 1947, where his music greeted the nation on the eve of Indian Independence at the invitation of Jawaharlal Nehru.
• He was a symbol of India's composite culture (Ganga-Jamuni Tehzeeb) and received the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 2001.
• Throughout his career, he was honored with numerous accolades including the Padma Shri (1961), Padma Bhushan (1968), and Padma Vibhushan (1980).

 Additional Information

• Shehnai:
• A double-reed aerophone common in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh; it features a wooden body and a flared metal bell.
• Tabla:
• A pair of twin hand drums (the Dayan and Bayan) fundamental to Hindustani classical music; famous maestros include Ustad Zakir Hussain and Pandit Kishan Maharaj.
• Sarod:
• A fretless string instrument with a deep, resonant tone; it is a vital part of the Indian classical tradition, mastered by Ustad Amjad Ali Khan and Ustad Ali Akbar Khan.
• Sitar:
• A plucked string instrument known for its complex sympathetic strings; it gained worldwide fame through Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Vilayat Khan.

The correct answer is North-Eastern Hills.

Key Points

• Slash-and-burn agriculture, locally known as Jhum or Jhumming, is a primitive form of shifting cultivation widely practiced in the North-Eastern Hills of India, encompassing states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland.
• The process involves clearing a patch of forest land by cutting down vegetation and burning it; the resulting ash provides essential nutrients to the soil for crop production.
• Farmers typically cultivate crops like dry paddy, buckwheat, maize, and millets for a few years until soil fertility declines, after which the land is left fallow to recover naturally.
• This agricultural system is deeply integrated into the tribal culture and socio-economic life of the North-Eastern region, though it is increasingly being regulated due to environmental concerns like deforestation and soil erosion.

 Additional Information

• Regional nomenclature of shifting cultivation:
• Western Ghats: In the hilly regions of the Western Ghats (specifically Kerala and Karnataka), this practice is known as Kumari.
• Central India: It is called Bewar or Dahiya in Madhya Pradesh, and Podu or Penda in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
• Himalayan Belt: The practice is referred to as Khil in the Himalayan range.
• South-East Rajasthan: It is known as Valre or Waltre in this arid/semi-arid region.
• Global nomenclature:
• In Mexico and Central America, it is called Milpa.
• In Vietnam, it is known as Ray, and in Indonesia/Malaysia, it is termed Ladang.
• The Indo-Gangetic Plain and the Deccan Plateau are primarily known for intensive subsistence farming and commercial agriculture respectively, rather than slash-and-burn methods, due to their distinct topography and high population density.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh is situated in the fertile Indo-Gangetic Plain, a region characterized by rich alluvial soil and an abundance of perennial water sources like the Ganges and Yamuna rivers.
• Historically, this region served as the cradle of early human settlements in South Asia, including the center of the Vedic civilization and several Mahajanapadas (powerful ancient kingdoms), which fostered high population concentrations over millennia.
• The flat topography of the state facilitated the easy development of transport networks, agriculture, and permanent housing, leading to a long-standing pattern of high-density habitation.
• According to the 2011 Census, Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India, with a population density of 829 persons per square kilometer, which is significantly higher than the national average.
• The continuous availability of arable land and a favorable climate for double-cropping have historically supported large agrarian societies, ensuring food security and sustained population growth.

 Additional Information

• Rajasthan:
• Much of its territory is covered by the Thar Desert, where extreme temperatures and water scarcity historically limited the density of human settlements.
• Despite being the largest state by area, its population density is much lower than that of the northern plains.
• Sikkim and Meghalaya:
• These states are located in the Himalayan and North-Eastern hilly regions, respectively.
• Rugged terrain, steep slopes, and dense forest cover pose significant challenges for large-scale agriculture and infrastructure development, resulting in sparse population distribution.
• Sikkim is notably the least populous state in India, reflecting the constraints of high-altitude geography on human settlement.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• In October 2025, the Government of Maharashtra entered into a strategic Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Spain's Fira Barcelona International to establish a state-of-the-art convention center.
• The project is specifically slated for development at the Multi-modal International Cargo Hub and Airport at Nagpur (MIHAN), which is the flagship industrial project of the Maharashtra Airport Development Company (MADC).
• The collaboration aims to leverage the expertise of Fira Barcelona, one of the world's leading organizers of trade fairs and congresses, to create a global destination for MICE (Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, and Exhibitions) tourism.
• By situating this world-class convention center in Nagpur, the state government intends to capitalize on the city's unique geographical position at the center of India, enhancing its potential as a logistics and commercial hub.
• The facility will be designed to host large-scale international exhibitions, business summits, and industrial trade fairs, providing a significant boost to the economy of the Vidarbha region.

 Additional Information

• MIHAN (Nagpur):
• It stands as India's largest Multi-product Special Economic Zone (SEZ) attached to an existing airport.
• The project includes a re-developed international airport, a Captive Power Plant, and a sprawling IT park.
• Fira Barcelona International:
• Based in Spain, it is renowned for managing the Mobile World Congress (MWC) and the Smart City Expo World Congress.
• Their participation ensures that the Maharashtra project will adhere to European standards of infrastructure and operational excellence.
• Strategic Impact:
• This MoU represents a significant step in the Magnetic Maharashtra initiative to attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
• The development is expected to create thousands of jobs in the hospitality, transport, and service sectors.

The correct answer is Duodenum.

Key Points

• The Duodenum is the first and shortest segment of the small intestine, measuring approximately 20 to 25 cm in length and exhibiting a characteristic C-shape.
• It is the critical site where the stomach empties its acidic chyme to be mixed with alkaline digestive secretions from the accessory organs.
• The common bile duct (transporting bile from the liver and gall bladder) and the main pancreatic duct (carrying pancreatic juice) converge to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla, also known as the Ampulla of Vater.
• This ampulla opens into the second part of the duodenum through a structure called the major duodenal papilla, which is regulated by the Sphincter of Oddi.
• The bile received here is essential for the emulsification of fats, while the pancreatic juice provides enzymes like trypsin, lipase, and amylase along with bicarbonate ions to neutralize gastric acid.

 Additional Information

• Jejunum
• The middle section of the small intestine, roughly 2.5 meters long, where the majority of nutrient absorption (sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids) occurs via its dense villi and microvilli.
• Ileum
• The final and longest segment (about 3.5 meters) that primarily absorbs Vitamin B12, bile salts, and any remaining nutrients before joining the large intestine at the ileocecal valve.
• Colon
• A major component of the large intestine, divided into ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid sections, primarily responsible for water reabsorption and the formation of solid waste.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Wahabi Movement was an Islamic revivalist movement in India during the 19^th century, which sought to purify Islam and return to its original simplicity as practiced during the time of the Prophet.
• The movement was founded in India by Sayyid Ahmad Barelvi (1786−1831), who was deeply influenced by the teachings of Shah Waliullah and the Wahabism of Saudi Arabia.
• While the founder belonged to Rae Bareli, Patna in Bihar emerged as the movement's primary organizational headquarters and the most active center for recruitment and operations.
• In 1821, Sayyid Ahmad Barelvi visited Patna and appointed four spiritual vice-regents (Khalifas), including Shah Muhammad Husain, which institutionalized Bihar as the nerve center for the movement in the subcontinent.
• The Sadiqpur family of Patna played a legendary role in providing leadership, funds, and logistics to the movement for several decades, making Bihar the focal point of their anti-colonial and reformist activities.

 Additional Information

• Delhi:
• It served as the ideological birthplace where Shah Waliullah established the foundation for Islamic reform, but it did not serve as the movement's primary operational hub.
• Punjab:
• This region was the primary military theater where the Wahabis, led by Sayyid Ahmad Barelvi, fought against the Sikh Kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, culminating in the Battle of Balakot in 1831.
• Bengal:
• In Bengal, the movement was championed by Titu Mir (Mir Nisar Ali), who organized the Muslim peasantry against the British and local Zamindars, constructing a famous Bamboo Stockade at Narkelberia.
• Wahabi Trials:
• To suppress the movement, the British conducted a series of legal actions known as the Wahabi Trials (1863−1871) in locations like Ambala and Patna, leading to the arrest of key leaders from Bihar.

The correct answer is Jasprit Bumrah.

Key Points

• The Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy is the most prestigious individual award in world cricket, presented annually by the International Cricket Council (ICC) to the overall best male cricketer across all three formats of the game.
• Jasprit Bumrah was recognized with this honor for the year 2024 following a year of unprecedented dominance where he spearheaded India’s bowling attack to significant victories.
• A primary factor for this award was his sensational performance in the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024, where he was named the Player of the Tournament for taking 15 wickets with a record-breaking economy rate of 4.17.
• In Test cricket, Bumrah demonstrated his class by claiming 19 wickets in the home series against England in early 2024, which propelled him to the Number 1 spot in the ICC Men’s Test Bowling Rankings.
• He became the first Indian specialist fast bowler to win the Sir Garfield Sobers Award, joining the ranks of Indian legends like Sachin Tendulkar, Virat Kohli, and Ravichandran Ashwin who have won it in previous years.

 Additional Information

• Sir Garfield Sobers:
• The award is named after the legendary West Indian all-rounder, often regarded as one of the greatest cricketers of all time.
• Travis Head:
• An Australian aggressive top-order batter who was a top contender for the award due to his match-winning centuries in major ICC finals and consistency in White-ball cricket throughout 2023-2024.
• Joe Root:
• The England batting mainstay who continued his prolific run-scoring in Test cricket, nearing the record for the most runs and centuries for his country in 2024.
• Mitchell Starc:
• A premier Australian left-arm fast bowler known for his impact in ICC tournaments and for becoming one of the most expensive players in IPL history during the 2024 season.

The correct answer is Iron is more reactive than copper.

Key Points

• The reaction between iron filings and copper sulphate solution is a classic example of a single displacement reaction, where a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound.
• According to the reactivity series of metals, Iron (Fe) is positioned above Copper (Cu), indicating that iron is more chemically active and has a higher tendency to lose electrons.
• When iron is added to the blue-coloured copper sulphate solution (CuSO₄), it displaces the copper ions to form ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄) and solid copper metal.
• The chemical equation for this reaction is represented as: Fe (s) + CuSO₄ (aq) → FeSO₄ (aq) + Cu (s).
• The observation of the solution changing from blue to light green confirms the formation of Fe²⁺ ions in the form of ferrous sulphate.
• The reddish-brown deposit seen on the iron filings is the pure copper metal that has been displaced from the solution.

 Additional Information

• Reactivity Series:
• It is an arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity. Metals at the top, like Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na), are highly reactive, while those at the bottom, like Gold (Au) and Platinum (Pt), are least reactive.
• Iron is more reactive than Tin (Sn), Lead (Pb), and Copper (Cu), allowing it to displace these metals from their respective salt solutions.
• Displacement Constraints:
• A reaction will not occur if a less reactive metal is added to a solution of a more reactive metal's salt; for instance, copper cannot displace iron from iron sulphate.
• Iron belongs to Group 8 and Period 4 of the Periodic Table, whereas Copper belongs to Group 11 and Period 4. Although they are both transition metals, their electronic configurations result in different levels of chemical reactivity.

The correct answer is Sixth.

Key Points

• The Bangkok Vision 2030 is a high-level strategic document that was officially approved during the Sixth BIMSTEC Summit, with Thailand serving as the host nation and the regional chair.
• The primary objective of this vision is to propel the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) toward a Prosperous, Resilient, and Open (PRO) region by the year 2030.
• This document aligns the regional goals of the member states with the United Nations 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, emphasizing collective growth and stability in the face of global economic uncertainties.
• The Sixth Summit signifies a shift from institutionalizing the group (which was the focus of the previous summit) to implementing a concrete roadmap for multimodal connectivity and maritime security.

 Additional Information

• BIMSTEC Profile and Foundation:
• The organization was established on 6 June 1997 following the signing of the Bangkok Declaration, originally as BIST-EC.
• It serves as a unique bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia, comprising seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• The permanent BIMSTEC Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh, facilitating administrative and coordinated efforts among members.
• Evolution of Summit Decisions:
• The Fifth BIMSTEC Summit, held in Colombo, Sri Lanka in 2022, was landmark for adopting the BIMSTEC Charter, which provided the organization with a formal legal identity and flag.
• Following the Fifth Summit, the cooperation sectors were streamlined from 14 to 7 pillars, with India leading the Security pillar, which includes counter-terrorism and transnational crime.
• Economic Significance:
• BIMSTEC members represent approximately 22% of the global population and possess a combined Gross Domestic Product (GDP) exceeding 4.5 trillion USD.
• The Bangkok Vision 2030 specifically targets the reduction of trade barriers and the enhancement of digital connectivity to boost intra-regional trade.

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Supreme Court of India passed a significant judgment clarifying that the right to maternity leave is an intrinsic part of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.
• The Court held that the right to reproduce and the right to maternal health are fundamental components of a woman's dignity and bodily autonomy, which cannot be curtailed by the state or employers based on the number of children.
• The ruling addressed various state service rules that previously restricted maternity benefits to only the first two children. The Court declared such restrictions unconstitutional, stating that the biological reality of childbirth and the necessity of infant care do not change with the third child.
• The bench emphasized that Article 21 must be read in conjunction with the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, to ensure that social security measures fulfill the constitutional goal of gender justice and economic empowerment for women in the workforce.
• By linking maternity leave to the Right to Life, the judiciary ensured that women are not forced to choose between their fundamental right to employment and their reproductive rights.

 Additional Information

• Article 14:
• Guarantees Equality before the law and equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
• While it prohibits arbitrary classification, the primary focus of the 2025 declaration was the inherent dignity and survival rights found under the umbrella of Article 21.
• Article 19:
• Protects the six Fundamental Freedoms, including speech, assembly, and profession.
• Although maternity leave impacts the right to practice a profession, it is categorized under protective discrimination and right to health rather than mere freedom of movement or expression.
• Article 27:
• Provides Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
• This article is entirely unrelated to labor welfare, reproductive rights, or constitutional mandates for maternity benefits.
• Article 42:
• A Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) that mandates the state to make provisions for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
• It serves as the interpretative guide that the Supreme Court used to expand the functional scope of Article 21 in this context.

The correct answer is NARI 2025 Index.

Key Points

• The National Annual Report & Index (NARI) 2025 was released on August 28, 2025, by the National Commission for Women (NCW) under the leadership of Chairperson Vijaya Rahatkar.
• The index provides a unique perception-based safety score for urban women, aiming to capture the ground reality of safety across 31 major Indian cities covering all states.
• Methodologically, the report is based on a comprehensive survey of 12,770 women, documenting their lived experiences, unreported harassment, and sense of security, which often differs from official police records.
• The report established a national safety score of 65% as a benchmark; cities were categorized as much above, above, below, or much below this average.
• In the 2025 rankings, Kohima (Nagaland) emerged as the safest city, followed by Visakhapatnam, Bhubaneswar, Aizawl, Gangtok, Itanagar, and Mumbai, which all performed significantly above the benchmark.
• Conversely, cities like Patna, Jaipur, Faridabad, Delhi, Kolkata, Srinagar, and Ranchi were ranked at the bottom of the index, indicating high levels of perceived insecurity and weak institutional responsiveness.

 Additional Information

• Gap between Perception and Statistics:
• While NCRB (National Crime Records Bureau) data reflects only reported crimes, the NARI Index reveals that 40% of women in urban India feel unsafe or not so safe, particularly after dark.
• The survey found that only one in three women reported harassment incidents to the authorities, highlighting a significant gap in trust toward formal redressal mechanisms.
• Specific Risk Factors and Hotspots:
• Vulnerable Groups: Women under the age of 24 were found to be the most at-risk demographic, with 14% reporting harassment compared to the overall average of 7%.
• Locations: The most common locations for harassment identified were neighbourhoods (38%) and public transport (29%).
• Structural Determinants:
• The report emphasizes that safety is closely linked to gender equity, women-friendly infrastructure (such as adequate street lighting), and civic participation rather than just policing.