General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Bharatmala Pariyojana.

Key Points

• Bharatmala Pariyojana is a centrally-sponsored and funded umbrella program for the highways sector, launched by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) in October 2017.
• The project is designed to improve the efficiency of freight and passenger movement across India by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective interventions like Economic Corridors, Inter-corridors, and Feeder Routes.
• It identifies and develops Economic Corridors spanning approximately 9,000 km and Inter-corridors and Feeder Routes covering about 6,000 km to enhance nationwide logistics.
• A central component of the initiative is the construction of Greenfield Expressways, such as the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway, which are high-speed access-controlled roads aimed at reducing travel time and improving fuel efficiency.
• The project also focuses on National Corridor Efficiency Improvement (5,000 km), Border and International connectivity roads (2,000 km), and Coastal and Port connectivity roads (2,000 km).
• Phase I of the Bharatmala Pariyojana entails the development of a total of 34,800 km of road highways, requiring a massive financial outlay to overhaul the nation's surface transport infrastructure.

 Additional Information

• PM Gati Shakti:
• Launched in October 2021, it is a National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity that provides a digital platform to 16 Ministries for integrated planning and synchronized implementation of infrastructure projects.
• It incorporates existing flagship schemes like Bharatmala, Sagarmala, and UDAN to ensure the seamless movement of goods and people across the country.
• Smart Cities Mission:
• Launched in June 2015 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, it aims to develop 100 cities across India that provide core infrastructure and a decent quality of life to their citizens.
• Key features include sustainable urban development, efficient energy usage, IT connectivity, and digitalization of public services.
• Sagarmala Programme:
• This initiative focuses on port-led development and modernization of India's 7,500 km coastline to reduce logistics costs for domestic and Export-Import (EXIM) cargo.
• The four pillars of the project include Port Modernization, Port Connectivity, Port-linked Industrialization, and Coastal Community Development.

The correct answer is Articles 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18.

Key Points

• The Right to Equality is one of the six fundamental rights provided by the Constitution of India, spanning five consecutive articles from Article 14 to Article 18.
• Article 14 establishes Equality before Law and Equal Protection of Laws, ensuring that the State treats all individuals equally within the territory of India.
• Article 15 prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, particularly regarding access to public places.
• Article 16 guarantees Equality of Opportunity in matters of public employment, preventing discrimination in government jobs while allowing for reservations for backward classes.
• Article 17 deals with the Abolition of Untouchability, making the practice of untouchability a punishable offense under the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 (renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act).
• Article 18 mandates the Abolition of Titles, prohibiting the State from conferring any titles except military or academic ones, ensuring social equality.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights:
• These are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, specifically from Articles 12 to 35.
• Right to Freedom: This group covers Articles 19, 20, 21, and 22, protecting individual liberties such as speech and personal liberty.
• Right against Exploitation: Enshrined in Articles 23 and 24, focusing on the prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor.
• Right to Freedom of Religion: Covered under Articles 25 to 28, ensuring secularism and the freedom to manage religious affairs.
• Articles 12 and 13: These provide the definition of the State and the doctrine of Judicial Review respectively, rather than specific group rights.

Therefore, Option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is RFID-driven supply chain systems.

Key Points

• RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) is a computer-driven technology that uses electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects, making it the primary tool for real-time inventory tracking.
• Unlike traditional barcoding, RFID does not require a direct line-of-sight to read information, allowing for the simultaneous scanning of hundreds of items as they move through a warehouse or distribution center.
• This application falls under the category of AIDC (Automatic Identification and Data Capture), which minimizes human intervention and significantly reduces errors in supply chain management and logistics.
• The system provides high-speed data transmission to a central database, enabling businesses to maintain accurate stock levels, prevent out-of-stock scenarios, and monitor the transit of goods across global networks.

 Additional Information

• System Components:
• RFID Tags: These can be Passive (powered by the reader signal) or Active (battery-powered for longer range and higher data storage).
• RFID Readers: Devices that emit radio waves and receive signals back from the tags to identify individual assets.
• Middleware: Software that filters the raw data from readers and integrates it with ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) systems.
• Alternative Technologies:
• OCR (Optical Character Recognition): A technology used to convert different types of documents, such as scanned paper or PDFs, into editable and searchable data; it is not designed for physical asset tracking.
• Presentation Software: Applications like Microsoft PowerPoint used for visual information delivery, which lack the sensor-based data capture required for inventory control.
• Email-based Notifications: A communication protocol used to send messages; while it may report inventory status, it cannot perform the automated identification itself.

The correct answer is Total Internal Reflection.

Key Points

• Total Internal Reflection (TIR) is the fundamental principle that allows optical fibres to guide light over long distances with minimal signal loss.
• An optical fibre consists of a central Core surrounded by a layer called Cladding. For TIR to occur, the refractive index of the core (n₁) must be higher than the refractive index of the cladding (n₂).
• When a light signal (representing data) is launched into the fibre, it strikes the interface between the core and the cladding at an angle of incidence that is greater than the critical angle.
• Because the angle exceeds the critical threshold, the light does not exit the core through refraction but is entirely reflected back into the denser medium of the core.
• This process repeats thousands of times per meter, effectively trapping the light pulse inside the fibre and allowing it to travel at high speeds through curved or straight paths.
• The efficiency of Total Internal Reflection ensures that nearly 100 percent of the light energy remains confined, which is crucial for maintaining signal integrity in modern telecommunication systems.

 Additional Information

• Dispersion of light
• This refers to the splitting of light into its constituent spectral colors.
• In fibre optics, chromatic dispersion can lead to pulse broadening, which actually acts as a limitation to bandwidth rather than a means of transmission.
• Refraction of light
• Refraction involves the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another.
• While refraction is used to initially couple light into the fibre, the goal of the fibre design is to avoid refraction at the core-cladding boundary to prevent light leakage.
• Interference of light
• Interference is the phenomenon where two waves superpose to form a resultant wave of greater, lower, or the same amplitude.
• It is utilized in interferometers and specific sensors but is not the primary mechanism for guiding light through a standard telecommunication fibre.

The correct answer is Precipitation reaction forming insoluble barium sulphate.

Key Points

• When aqueous solutions of Barium chloride and Sodium sulphate are mixed, a chemical reaction occurs where the Barium ions (\( Ba^{2+} \)) from the barium chloride react with the Sulphate ions (\( SO_{4}^{2−} \)) from the sodium sulphate.
• The balanced chemical equation for this process is: \( BaCl_{2}(aq) + Na_{2}SO_{4}(aq) \rightarrow BaSO_{4}(s) + 2NaCl(aq) \).
• This reaction is specifically classified as a double displacement reaction because the positive and negative ions of the two ionic compounds exchange partners to form two new compounds.
• The Barium sulphate (\( BaSO_{4} \)) produced is an insoluble salt that does not dissolve in water and settles out of the solution as a white, curd-like solid.
• In chemistry, any reaction that produces an insoluble solid (precipitate) upon mixing two aqueous solutions is defined as a precipitation reaction.
• The other product, Sodium chloride (\( NaCl \)), remains dissolved in the aqueous solution as it is highly soluble.

 Additional Information

• Redox Reaction
• Involves a change in oxidation states of atoms through the transfer of electrons.
• In the reaction between barium chloride and sodium sulphate, the oxidation states of all elements remain constant; therefore, it is not a redox process.
• Decomposition Reaction
• A process where a single reactant breaks down into two or more simpler products, often requiring thermal energy, light, or electricity.
• This scenario involves two distinct reactants forming two new products, which contradicts the definition of decomposition.
• Evolution of Gas
• Certain reactions result in the release of gaseous products like \( SO_{2} \) or \( CO_{2} \).
• The mixing of these specific salt solutions does not involve any effervescence or the formation of Sulphur dioxide gas; the only visible change is the formation of a solid precipitate.

The correct answer is Ball and Socket Joint.

Key Points

• A Ball and Socket Joint is a specialized type of synovial joint where the rounded, ball-like surface of one bone fits into the cup-like depression (socket) of another bone.
• It is classified as a multiaxial joint (or triaxial), which means it allows movement in three primary planes: anterior-posterior, medial-lateral, and rotational.
• This joint structure provides the widest range of movement of all joint types in the human body, facilitating flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction.
• Specifically, it enables both medial rotation (inward) and lateral rotation (outward), which are critical for the functionality of the limbs.
• The most prominent examples are the Shoulder Joint (glenohumeral joint), where the head of the humerus meets the glenoid cavity, and the Hip Joint (acetabulofemoral joint), where the femur head meets the acetabulum.

 Additional Information

• Hinge Joint:
• Characterized as a uniaxial joint that functions like a door hinge, allowing movement in only one plane.
• Primary actions are flexion and extension; found in the Elbow, Knee, and Interphalangeal joints of the fingers.
• Pivot Joint:
• A uniaxial joint that allows only rotation around a single longitudinal axis.
• Examples include the Atlanto-axial joint (between the first two vertebrae) and the Proximal radioulnar joint.
• Gliding Joint:
• Also known as a Plane Joint, where the articulating surfaces are flat or slightly curved.
• Allows bones to slide over each other with minimal rotation; found between the Carpal bones of the wrist and Tarsal bones of the foot.

The correct answer is Leading the Bardoli Satyagraha that established him as the 'Sardar'.

Key Points

• The Bardoli Satyagraha was a major non-violent tax resistance movement launched in 1928 in the Bardoli Taluka of Gujarat against the British Raj.
• The movement was a response to the Bombay Presidency government's decision to increase the land revenue by 30 percent, despite the region suffering from severe floods and crop failure.
• Vallabhbhai Patel was invited by local leaders like Kalyanji Mehta and Kunverji Mehta to lead the struggle after the peasants resolved not to pay the enhanced tax.
• Patel organized the taluka into 13 chovisis (circles), each under a leader, and utilized a network of volunteers to keep the farmers united against the seizure of their property and cattle.
• The success of the movement forced the government to appoint the Broomfield-Maxwell Committee, which ultimately reduced the tax increase to 6.03 percent and restored confiscated lands.
• Following the triumph, the women of Bardoli conferred the title 'Sardar' (meaning chief or leader) upon him, a title that became synonymous with his name throughout the Indian Independence Movement.

 Additional Information

• Anti-Rowlatt Agitations:
• These protests in 1919 were primarily aimed at the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act.
• In Punjab, the movement was led by local leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal, which eventually led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
• Lucknow Pact:
• Signed in 1916, it was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
• It was largely the work of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mohammad Ali Jinnah to provide a joint platform for constitutional reforms.
• INA forces (Indian National Army):
• The INA was revitalized by Subhash Chandra Bose (Netaji) in 1943.
• He led the forces during the Burma campaign and the Imphal-Kohima offensive against the British Indian Army.

The correct answer is Iron is more reactive.

Key Points

• The reaction between an iron nail and copper sulphate solution is a single displacement reaction, a process where a more chemically active element displaces a less active element from its compound.
• The fundamental cause of this reaction is the relative position of the metals in the reactivity series; Iron (Fe) is more reactive than Copper (Cu).
• Because iron is more electropositive, it has a stronger tendency to lose electrons and form Fe²⁺ ions compared to copper ions.
• The chemical transformation can be represented by the balanced equation: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu.
• During the process, Iron atoms from the nail dissolve into the solution as Ferrous Sulphate, while Copper ions from the solution are reduced to solid copper metal.
• Visually, the intense blue color of the copper sulphate solution gradually fades and turns pale green due to the accumulation of iron(II) sulphate in the water.

 Additional Information

• Reactivity Series of Metals:
• It is an analytical ranking of metals in descending order of their reactivity or standard electrode potentials.
• Metals at the top, such as Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na), are extremely reactive, while those at the bottom, like Silver (Ag) and Gold (Au), are noble and relatively unreactive.
• Iron is placed higher than Copper in this series, allowing it to displace copper, but iron cannot displace metals like Zinc or Magnesium from their respective salts.
• Observations and Characteristics:
• The reddish-brown coating that appears on the iron nail is the precipitated metallic copper.
• This is also a Redox reaction (Reduction-Oxidation), where Iron acts as the reducing agent and is oxidized, while Copper ions act as the oxidizing agent and are reduced.
• Contrary to some misconceptions, Copper Sulphate is highly soluble in water, forming an aqueous solution of Cu²⁺ and SO₄²⁻ ions.

The correct answer is Term 'one-fourth' was replaced with 'one-third'.

Key Points

• Article 171 of the Constitution of India deals with the composition of the Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishad) in the states.
• Prior to the 1956 amendment, Article 171(1) stipulated that the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State should not exceed one-fourth of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State.
• The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956, was enacted primarily to implement the States Reorganisation Act, which restructured state boundaries on a linguistic basis.
• Section 10 of this amendment specifically modified Article 171(1) by substituting the word one-fourth with one-third.
• This change allowed for a larger Legislative Council in proportion to the Legislative Assembly, providing broader representation while ensuring the Council remained the smaller, revisory chamber.
• Despite the increase in the maximum limit, the constitutional minimum strength of a Legislative Council remained fixed at 40 members.

 Additional Information

• Composition Details of Legislative Council:
• Elected by Local Bodies: Approximately one-third of the members are elected by members of local authorities like Municipalities and District Boards.
• Elected by Legislative Assembly: Another one-third are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly from among persons who are not members of the Assembly.
• Elected by Graduates: About one-twelfth are elected by persons residing in the state who have been graduates for at least three years.
• Elected by Teachers: About one-twelfth are elected by persons engaged in teaching in educational institutions (not lower than secondary schools) for at least three years.
• Nominated by Governor: The remainder (about one-sixth) are nominated by the Governor from individuals with special knowledge in Literature, Science, Art, Co-operative Movement, and Social Service.
• Legislative Status:
• Unlike the Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every second year.

The correct answer is 29.

Key Points

• The Eleventh Schedule was added to the Constitution of India through the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which provided a formal framework for Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
• This schedule specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats and contains exactly 29 functional items or subjects over which these local bodies have jurisdiction.
• The inclusion of these 29 functions is mandated under Article 243G, which empowers the State Legislatures to devolve necessary powers to the Panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.
• These functions are intended to ensure economic development and social justice at the grassroots level by allowing local representatives to manage essential community services and resources.

 Additional Information

• Core Subjects of the Eleventh Schedule:
• Agriculture and Land: Includes agricultural extension, land improvement, implementation of land reforms, and soil conservation.
• Water and Resources: Covers minor irrigation, water management, watershed development, and providing safe drinking water.
• Social Infrastructure: Encompasses rural housing, roads, culverts, bridges, and rural electrification including distribution of electricity.
• Social Welfare: Includes poverty alleviation programs, education (primary and secondary), adult and non-formal education, and libraries.
• Health and Community: Manages health and sanitation (including hospitals and PHCs), family welfare, women and child development, and the Public Distribution System (PDS).
• Economic Activities: Focuses on fisheries, animal husbandry, social forestry, and small-scale industries like Khadi and village industries.
• Constitutional Framework:
• The 73^rd Amendment Act introduced Part IX to the Constitution, titled The Panchayats, spanning from Article 243 to Article 243O.
• In contrast, the Twelfth Schedule, introduced by the 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act, lists 18 functional items specifically for Municipalities in urban areas.

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

• Shi Yuqi is a prominent professional badminton player who represents China in international competitions. Hence, the statement regarding his nationality is correct.
• The 2025 BWF World Championships were held in Paris, France, in August 2025. This event is one of the most prestigious tournaments in the badminton calendar, sanctioned by the Badminton World Federation (BWF). Hence, the tournament details provided are correct.
• Shi Yuqi secured the Men's Singles title at this championship, reinforcing China's historical dominance in the sport. He has consistently been ranked among the top players globally, reaching the World No. 1 ranking in the BWF World Rankings. Hence, the outcome of the final is correct.
• His victory in Paris followed his consistent performance in major team events like the Thomas Cup and Sudirman Cup, where he serves as a lead singles player for the Chinese National Badminton Team. Hence, his association with the Chinese team is correct.

 Additional Information

• The BWF World Championships (formerly known as the IBF World Championships) offer the highest ranking points, along with the Summer Olympic Games. Winners are crowned as World Champions and awarded gold medals.
• Badminton Powerhouses:
• Indonesia: Known for legendary players like Taufik Hidayat and a strong tradition in Men's Doubles.
• Japan: Emerged as a major force in the last decade, led by stars like Kento Momota and Akane Yamaguchi.
• Malaysia: Famous for producing world-class talent such as Lee Chong Wei and having a massive following for the sport.
• The 2025 Championships in Paris served as a significant post-Olympic milestone, utilizing the same venues that hosted the badminton events during the 2024 Paris Olympics.

The correct answer is Article 38.

Key Points

• Article 38 of the Indian Constitution is the primary article that directs the State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
• It serves as the foundational basis for the concept of a Welfare State, mandating that justice—social, economic, and political—must inform all institutions of national life.
• The article specifically instructs the State to minimize inequalities in income and strive to eliminate disparities in status, facilities, and opportunities among individuals and groups of people.
• The 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 expanded the scope of Article 38 by adding clause (2), which emphasizes the reduction of economic inequalities to ensure social welfare.
• Under this article, the State is empowered to implement policies that redistribute resources to ensure that the material resources of the community are subserved for the common good.

 Additional Information

• Article 40:
• Directs the State to organize village panchayats and provide them with the necessary powers to function as units of self-government.
• This article reflects the Gandhian principles of decentralized governance in the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• Article 41:
• Concerns the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in specific cases such as unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement.
• It establishes the duty of the State to provide social security measures within its economic capacity.
• Article 42:
• Mandates the State to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work.
• It also specifically mentions the provision of maternity relief for women employees.
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
• Enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36 to 51), these principles are non-justiciable but fundamental in the governance of the country.
• The concept was borrowed from the Irish Constitution, which had in turn taken it from the Spanish Constitution.

The correct answer is Thiruvalluvar.

Key Points

• Thiruvalluvar is the revered poet-philosopher traditionally credited with authoring the Tirukkural, a masterpiece of Tamil literature that provides a comprehensive code of ethics for humanity.
• The Tirukkural consists of 1,330 couplets or Kurals, which are structured into 133 chapters, each containing exactly ten couplets.
• The work is systematically divided into three main books or Paals: Arathuppal (Virtue), Porutpal (Wealth/Polity), and Kamathuppal (Love), representing the three of the four goals of human life in Indian philosophy.
• The text is a part of the Pathinenkilkanakku (Eighteen Lesser Texts) collection, dating back to the post-Sangam period, generally estimated between the 3^rd and 5^th century CE, though the Tamil Nadu government officially recognizes 31 BCE as the Thiruvalluvar Era.
• Often referred to as the Tamil Veda or the Universal Code of Conduct, the Tirukkural is celebrated for its secular nature and its focus on universal values such as truth, non-violence, and social justice.

 Additional Information

• Avvaiyar
• She was a title given to various female poets throughout different periods of Tamil history, most notably known for didactic works like Aathichoodi and Konrai Venthan.
• Her writings emphasize moral conduct and wisdom for children and common folk.
• Ilango Adigal
• He was a Chera prince and a Jain monk who authored the Silappatikaram, which is the earliest and one of the Five Great Epics of Tamil literature.
• The epic revolves around the tragic life of Kannagi and her husband Kovalan in the cities of Poompuhar and Madurai.
• Kambar
• A famous medieval poet from the 12^th century who wrote the Kamba Ramayanam (Ramavataram), a landmark adaptation of the Ramayana in Tamil.
• He is often hailed as Kavi Chakravarti due to his exceptional use of the Virutham poetic meter.

The correct answer is South-West Monsoon Arabian Sea branch.

Key Points

• The South-West Monsoon is the primary rainy season in India, typically active from June to September. It originates due to the intense low-pressure system over the Thar Desert and the Tibetan Plateau, which draws moisture-laden winds from the high-pressure area over the Indian Ocean.
• As the monsoon winds approach the Indian Peninsula, they are divided into two main branches: the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.
• The Arabian Sea branch strikes the Western Coast of India first, typically hitting the coast of Kerala around June 1^st. This branch is significantly more powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch, carrying approximately three times more moisture.
• Rainfall on the Western Coast is primarily orographic in nature. When the moisture-laden winds encounter the Western Ghats (Sahyadri), they are forced to rise. As the air rises, it cools adiabatically, leading to heavy precipitation on the windward side (the coastal plains).
• Regions such as the Konkan Coast, Malabar Coast, and the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala receive torrential rainfall, often exceeding 250 cm annually, due to this specific branch.

 Additional Information

• South-West Monsoon Bay of Bengal branch:
• This branch moves towards Northeast India and the Ganges Valley.
• It is responsible for the highest rainfall in the world at Mawsynram and Cherrapunji on the Khasi Hills.
• North-East Monsoon:
• Also known as the Retreating Monsoon, it occurs during October and November.
• The winds blow from the land to the sea, picking up moisture from the Bay of Bengal and providing crucial rainfall to the Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu).
• Western Disturbances:
• These are extra-tropical cyclones originating in the Mediterranean Sea.
• They bring winter rainfall to Northwest India (Punjab, Haryana), which is vital for the Rabi crops, specifically wheat.

The correct answer is Thankamani Kutty.

Key Points

• Thankamani Kutty is a pre-eminent dancer and teacher who has made significant contributions to the Indian classical dance landscape, particularly in West Bengal.
• She is widely recognized for her mastery and proficiency in two distinct classical dance forms: Bharatanatyam and Mohiniyattam.
• The Government of West Bengal honored her with the West Bengal State Academy of Dance Drama Music and Visual Arts Award (commonly referred to in the regional context as the Nritya Natak Sangeet Drishya Kala Akademy Award) for her excellence in the performing arts.
• She moved from Kerala to Kolkata in the late 1950s and, along with her husband Govindan Kutty, played a pivotal role in popularizing South Indian classical dances in Eastern India.
• In 1968, she founded Kalamandalam Calcutta, a premier institution dedicated to training students in Bharatanatyam, Mohiniyattam, and Kathakali.

 Additional Information

• Elam Endira Devi
• She is a distinguished exponent of Manipuri classical dance.
• She was awarded the Padma Shri in 2014 for her contributions to the field of Art.
• Aruna Mohanty
• She is a leading Odissi dancer, choreographer, and guru.
• She currently serves as the Secretary of the Orissa Dance Academy and is a recipient of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
• Radha Reddy
• She is a legendary Kuchipudi dancer who performs alongside her husband, Raja Reddy.
• The duo is credited with taking Kuchipudi to the global stage and they are recipients of the Padma Bhushan.

The correct answer is River erosion.

Key Points

• A V-shaped valley is a narrow valley with a cross-section resembling the letter 'V', formed primarily through the action of River erosion in high-altitude mountainous regions.
• In the youthful stage of a river, the flow is extremely rapid due to a steep topographic gradient, leading to a process known as vertical erosion or downcutting.
• The river bed is eroded downward much faster than the valley walls can be eroded laterally, which creates a deep, narrow channel.
• As the river deepens, the exposed valley sides are subjected to mechanical weathering and mass wasting (such as soil creep and landslides), which gradually widen the top of the valley while the base remains narrow.
• The combination of constant downward incision by the water and the outward collapse of the slopes results in the characteristic V-shaped profile.

 Additional Information

• Wind erosion:
• Primarily occurs in arid and semi-arid environments where vegetation is sparse.
• It creates landforms such as Mushroom rocks, Inselbergs, and Yardangs through processes like abrasion and deflation.
• Wave action:
• Focuses on coastal geomorphology where the energy of the ocean waves erodes shorelines.
• Key landforms include Sea cliffs, Stacks, Sea caves, and Natural arches.
• Glacier movement:
• Responsible for the formation of U-shaped valleys or glacial troughs.
• Unlike rivers, glaciers are massive ice bodies that erode both the valley floor and the valley walls simultaneously through plucking and abrasion, resulting in a wide, flat bottom and steep, straight sides.

The correct answer is Qawwali.

Key Points

• Qawwali is the most prominent form of Sufi devotional music in South Asia, primarily associated with the Chishti Sufi order.
• The genre was established in the 13^th century by the legendary poet and musician Amir Khusrau, who is often referred to as the Father of Qawwali.
• The primary goal of Qawwali is to lead both the performers and the listeners to a state of spiritual ecstasy known as Wajad or Hal.
• A typical performance starts with the Hamd (praise of Allah), followed by the Naat (praise of Prophet Muhammad), and Manqabat (praise of Ali or Sufi saints).
• Musically, it involves a lead singer supported by a chorus, rhythmic hand clapping, and instruments like the Harmonium and Tabla or Dholak to create a powerful, repetitive rhythmic cycle.

 Additional Information

• Tarana:
• A fast-paced vocal composition in Hindustani classical music that uses rhythmic syllables like odani, tanedere, and yalali.
• While invented by Amir Khusrau with Persian influences, it is now primarily a secular concert piece focused on Layakari (rhythmic play).
• Dhrupad:
• The oldest surviving genre of Hindustani music, known for its meditative and austere nature, originally performed in Hindu temples and later the Mughal court.
• It features a four-part structure: Sthayi, Antara, Sanchari, and Abhog, typically accompanied by the Pakhawaj.
• Tappa:
• Developed from the folk songs of Punjabi camel riders, it was refined into a classical style by Shory Mian.
• It is characterized by extremely rapid, complex, and ornamental melodic phrases or taans.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Ambubachi Mela is a prominent Hindu festival held annually at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, Assam, and is considered the most important event of the temple's calendar.
• This festival is celebrated during the monsoon season, specifically in the middle of June, coinciding with the Assamese month of Ahaar.
• It celebrates the annual menstrual cycle of the goddess Kamakhya; during this three-day period, the temple remains closed to the public as it is believed the Mother Earth is undergoing menstruation.
• On the fourth day, the temple doors are opened with great fanfare, and devotees are allowed to enter to receive Prasad and seek blessings from the goddess.
• The festival is popularly known as the Mahakumbh of the East because it attracts millions of pilgrims, Sadhus, Tantriks, and Bauls from across India and neighboring countries.

 Additional Information

• Kamakhya Temple:
• Situated atop the Nilachal Hills, this temple is one of the 51 Shakti Peethas and represents the yoni (genitals) of Goddess Sati.
• The temple follows the Nilachal style of architecture, featuring a unique hemispherical dome resting on a cruciform base.
• It is a primary center for Tantric Shaktism, where the deity is worshipped in the form of a natural stone fissure kept moist by a natural spring.
• Cultural Significance:
• The Ambubachi Mela promotes the idea of fertility and challenges social taboos by openly celebrating the biological process of menstruation.
• The devotees are often given small pieces of red cloth called Angodak as Prasad, which is highly sought after for its spiritual significance.
• While Bihar, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh host significant regional festivals like Chhath Puja, Sarhul, and Bastar Dussehra respectively, they do not observe the Ambubachi Mela.

The correct answer is Human Rights Watch.

Key Points

• Human Rights Watch (HRW) is an international non-governmental organization headquartered in New York City that investigates and reports on abuses happening in all corners of the world.
• The World Report is the flagship annual publication of Human Rights Watch. It serves as a comprehensive review of human rights practices and trends globally.
• The World Report 2025 represents the 35^th edition of this series, summarizing research findings on human rights conditions in approximately 100 countries and territories.
• The report typically evaluates events from the preceding year (2024) to provide a global perspective on humanitarian crises, democratic integrity, and international law.

 Additional Information

• Amnesty International:
• This organization publishes a similar flagship document titled The State of the Worlds Human Rights, which covers the human rights situation in 155 countries.
• United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC):
• An inter-governmental body within the United Nations system, based in Geneva, which oversees the Universal Periodic Review (UPR) of all member states.
• International Criminal Court (ICC):
• Governed by the Rome Statute, the ICC is a judicial institution located in The Hague that prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.

The correct answer is Wheat.

Key Points

• Rabi crops are agricultural crops that are sown during the winter season, typically starting from October to December, and are harvested in the spring season between April and June.
• Wheat is the premier rabi crop in India and is extensively grown in the Northern and Northwestern regions, including states like Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh.
• The growth of Wheat is significantly aided by the Western Temperate Cyclones, which bring vital precipitation during the winter months, ensuring a healthy yield for the rabi season.
• Other prominent examples of rabi crops include Barley, Peas, Gram, and Mustard, all of which require a cool growing season followed by bright sunshine during the ripening phase.

 Additional Information

• Kharif Crops: These are monsoon-dependent crops sown at the beginning of the rainy season (June to July) and harvested in September to October.
• Rice: It is a staple kharif crop requiring high temperatures (above 25°C), high humidity, and heavy annual rainfall exceeding 100 cm.
• Cotton: This is a major commercial kharif crop that thrives in black cotton soil and requires at least 210 frost-free days for optimal growth.
• Bajra: Also known as pearl millet, it is a kharif crop that grows well in dry climates, sandy soils, and shallow black soils, predominantly in states like Rajasthan.
• Zaid Crops: These are short-duration crops grown during the summer months between the rabi and kharif seasons (March to June), such as Watermelon, Muskmelon, and Cucumber.