General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Meerut.

Key Points

• The First War of Independence, historically referred to as the Sepoy Mutiny or the Rebellion of 1857, officially began on May 10, 1857, in the garrison town of Meerut.
• The immediate spark for the uprising was the introduction of the Enfield rifle, which required soldiers to bite off the ends of cartridges rumored to be greased with cow and pig fat, offending both Hindu and Muslim religious sentiments.
• Sepoys of the 3^rd Native Cavalry in Meerut refused to use these cartridges, leading to the court-martial and imprisonment of 85 soldiers on May 9, 1857.
• On the following day, their comrades revolted, killed their British officers, liberated the imprisoned soldiers, and set fire to the Meerut Cantonment.
• The success of the outbreak in Meerut emboldened the troops to march toward the nearby Mughal capital, effectively transforming a military mutiny into a nationwide struggle against the British East India Company.

 Additional Information

• Delhi
• The mutineers from Meerut arrived in Delhi on May 11, 1857, and proclaimed Bahadur Shah Zafar as the Emperor of Hindustan.
• The city served as the symbolic and political focal point of the rebellion until it was recaptured by the British in September 1857.
• Lucknow
• The rebellion in Lucknow was led by Begum Hazrat Mahal, the wife of the exiled Nawab of Awadh, starting in June 1857.
• It is famous for the Siege of the Residency, which lasted for several months before the city was finally cleared by British forces.
• Kanpur
• In Kanpur, the revolt was spearheaded by Nana Sahib, the adopted son of the last Peshwa, Baji Rao II.
• He was assisted by the military commander Tantia Tope and his diplomat Azimullah Khan in driving out the British garrison.

The correct answer is 2.5%.

Key Points

• Mass percent (w/w) is a measure of the concentration of a solute in a solution, representing the mass of the solute per 100 units of the total mass of the solution.
• The mass of the solute (salt) in this specific problem is provided as 15 g.
• The mass of the solvent (water) is provided as 585 g.
• The total mass of the solution is the sum of the mass of the solute and the mass of the solvent, which is 15 g + 585 g = 600 g.
• To calculate the mass percent, the formula used is: (Mass of solute / Total mass of solution) × 100.
• Applying the values to the formula: (15 / 600) × 100. This simplifies to 1500 / 600, which equals 2.5%.

 Additional Information

• Solute and Solvent:
• The solute is the substance being dissolved (usually present in a smaller amount), while the solvent is the medium doing the dissolving (usually present in a larger amount).
• In aqueous solutions, water is almost always the solvent due to its polar nature and ability to dissolve many substances.
• Solution Characteristics:
• A solution is a homogeneous mixture where the particles of the solute are evenly distributed at the molecular level throughout the solvent.
• The law of conservation of mass applies here, meaning the mass of the resulting solution is exactly equal to the sum of the masses of the components added.
• Concentration Units:
• Apart from mass percentage (w/w), other common expressions include volume percentage (v/v), mass by volume percentage (w/v), molarity, and parts per million (ppm).
• Mass percentage is particularly useful in industrial chemical applications where temperature-independent concentration measurements are required.

The correct answer is It primarily maintains and optimizes storage resources, not domain tasks like writing letters..

Key Points

• A disk defragmenter is a utility program designed to increase data access speed by rearranging files stored on a disk to occupy contiguous storage locations, a process known as defragmentation.
• System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer's hardware and application programs; it provides the platform upon which other software operates.
• The classification of a defragmenter as system software stems from its fundamental role in resource management and hardware optimization, rather than performing user-centric domain tasks like data entry or image editing.
• Unlike application software, which serves the user's specific needs, utility software like defragmenters serves the needs of the computer system itself to ensure efficient performance and stability.

 Additional Information

• System Software Categories:
• Operating Systems (OS): Examples include Windows, macOS, and Linux, which manage CPU scheduling and memory allocation.
• Device Drivers: Specialized programs that allow the OS to communicate with hardware like printers or graphics cards.
• Utility Software: Tools like antivirus programs, backup software, and disk cleaners that maintain the system.
• Application Software Characteristics:
• Designed for end-users to perform specific tasks such as word processing (e.g., MS Word), web browsing (e.g., Chrome), or accounting.
• They rely on the underlying system software to interact with hardware resources.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

Key Points

• Lakshadweep is an archipelago located in the Arabian Sea and is the closest group of islands to the Malabar Coast of India.
• It is situated at a distance of approximately 220 km to 440 km from the coastal city of Kochi in Kerala.
• The Union Territory consists of 36 islands, of which only 10 are inhabited, including Kavaratti, Agatti, and Minicoy.
• These islands are unique for being of coral origin (atolls), and they are considered a northward extension of the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge.
• Due to its proximity to the Malabar Coast, the islands share deep cultural, linguistic, and historical ties with the state of Kerala, with Malayalam being the most widely spoken language.

 Additional Information

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
• Located in the Bay of Bengal, these islands are significantly farther from the Malabar Coast (which is on the western side of India).
• They are separated from the Indonesian archipelago by the Great Channel and from Myanmar by the Preparis Channel.
• Diu Island:
• This is a small island located off the southern coast of the Kathiawar Peninsula in Gujarat.
• While it is on the western coast, it is far to the north of the Malabar Coast, which primarily covers the Kerala shoreline.
• Malabar Coast:
• It represents the southwestern coastline of the Indian Peninsula, extending from Goa to Kanyakumari.
• It is famous for its backwaters (Kayals) and historically served as a major hub for the international spice trade.

The correct answer is Integrated judiciary.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution is described as quasi-federal in nature, meaning it contains both federal and unitary features.
• An Integrated Judiciary refers to a single system of courts that enforces both Central laws and State laws. In this hierarchy, the Supreme Court of India stands at the apex, followed by High Courts in the states and Subordinate Courts at the district level.
• This system contrasts with a pure federal system (like in the United States), where there is a dual system of courts: one for federal laws and another for state laws.
• The integrated nature ensures uniformity in the administration of justice across the entire territory of India, which is a hallmark of a unitary state.
• Under this structure, the Supreme Court has supervisory and appellate jurisdiction over all other courts in the country, reinforcing centralized judicial control.

 Additional Information

• Federal Features of the Indian Constitution:
• Bicameral legislature: The existence of two houses, the Lok Sabha (representing the people) and the Rajya Sabha (representing the states), is a federal feature ensuring representation of states at the center.
• Dual government: The establishment of governments at both the Union and State levels with specific jurisdictions is a core federal characteristic.
• Supremacy of the Constitution: This ensures that both the Center and the States are bound by the Constitution, and neither can unilaterally alter the basic structure or division of powers.
• Independent Judiciary: While the judiciary is integrated (unitary), its independence from the executive and legislature is a federal necessity to settle disputes between the Center and States.
• Other Unitary Features include:
• Single Constitution for both Union and States.
• Single Citizenship for all citizens regardless of their state of residence.
• Appointment of the Governor by the President of India.
• All-India Services (IAS, IPS, etc.) where officers are recruited by the Center but serve in the States.

The correct answer is Nizam of Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The Subsidiary Alliance was a landmark diplomatic and military policy introduced by Lord Richard Wellesley, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805.
• The Nizam of Hyderabad (Nizam Ali Khan) was the first Indian ruler to formally accept the terms of the Subsidiary Alliance in September 1798.
• Under this treaty, the Nizam was compelled to disband his French-trained battalions and replace them with a permanent British subsidiary force.
• The Nizam agreed to pay for the maintenance of these troops and accepted a British Resident at his court, effectively surrendering his external sovereignty and foreign relations to the British East India Company.

 Additional Information

• The alliance system was designed to eliminate European rivals (specifically the French) and bring Indian princely states under British paramountcy.
• Several other major Indian powers were forced into this system over the following years:
• Maharaja of Mysore: Following the fall of Seringapatam and the death of Tipu Sultan in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799), the Wodeyar dynasty was restored and forced to sign the alliance.
• Nawab of Oudh: Saadat Ali Khan II was pressured into the Subsidiary Alliance in November 1801, ceding substantial territories like Rohilkhand and the Lower Doab to the Company.
• Peshwa Baji Rao II: The Marathas entered the fold after the Peshwa signed the Treaty of Bassein in 1802.
• Maharaja of Jaipur: The Rajput states, including Jaipur, Jodhpur, and Udaipur, signed similar treaties much later, predominantly between 1817 and 1818, during the tenure of Lord Hastings.

The correct answer is Bit.

Key Points

• A Bit, which is a portmanteau of Binary Digit, represents the smallest possible unit of data and memory in a digital computer or communication system.
• It functions as a logical state that can only hold one of two values: 0 or 1. These values typically represent binary conditions such as Off/On, False/True, or Low/High voltage levels.
• All complex data types, including text, images, and executable programs, are ultimately stored and processed as long sequences of bits.
• In hardware, bits are physically stored using capacitors (charge/no charge), transistors (conducting/non-conducting), or magnetic polarity on storage disks.
• The concept of the bit was pioneered by Claude Shannon in 1948, forming the basis of modern Information Theory and digital electronics.

 Additional Information

• Byte:
• A Byte is a sequence of exactly 8 bits and is considered the standard unit of addressable memory.
• It is used to represent a single alphanumeric character in encoding schemes like ASCII or EBCDIC.
• Nibble:
• A Nibble consists of 4 bits, which is equivalent to half of a standard byte.
• This unit is frequently utilized in microcontroller programming and to represent a single hexadecimal digit (0-F).
• Word:
• A Word is the natural unit of data used by a computer CPU, representing the number of bits processed in a single cycle.
• Common word sizes in modern computer architecture include 32-bit and 64-bit configurations, which dictate the processing power and memory capacity of the system.

The correct answer is Social media awareness campaign.

Key Points

• The Kerala Motor Vehicle Department (MVD) initiated a phased implementation of stringent child safety regulations beginning in October 2024 to ensure compliance with the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act.
• The first phase was strategically designed as a social media awareness campaign to educate the public, especially parents and guardians, about the legal requirements for child safety while traveling.
• This phase focused on disseminating information through platforms like Facebook, Instagram, and WhatsApp, highlighting the critical importance of helmets for children on two-wheelers and Child Restraint Systems (CRS) in four-wheelers.
• The objective of starting with an awareness drive was to ensure that citizens were well-informed about the safety standards and potential risks before the department transitioned to stricter enforcement and penalties.
• The campaign specifically targeted the reduction of pediatric road fatalities by explaining the technical specifications of safety gear suitable for different age groups.

 Additional Information

• Child Restraint Systems (CRS):
• These are specialized seats or equipment designed to protect children from injury during vehicle collisions or sudden braking.
• Under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, children below the age of 12 years are required to be secured with a seatbelt or a CRS appropriate for their weight and height.
• Two-Wheeler Safety for Children:
• According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), children above 9 months must wear a crash helmet of BIS standard when riding on a motorcycle.
• The speed of the motorcycle carrying a child below 4 years must not exceed 40 kmph.
• Section 194B of the MV Act:
• This section stipulates penalties for failing to secure children with safety belts or restraint systems, aiming to enforce the Safety of Children clause introduced in the 2019 amendment.
• Phased Enforcement Strategy:
• Modern traffic management in Kerala often follows a Three-Tier approach: initial Public Awareness, followed by Stopping and Warning (Phase 2), and concluding with Financial Penalties and License Suspension (Phase 3).

The correct answer is Part XIV-A.

Key Points

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which is widely known as the Mini-Constitution, introduced Part XIV-A to the Indian Constitution to deal specifically with Tribunals.
• This Part contains two key articles: Article 323A, which deals with Administrative Tribunals, and Article 323B, which deals with Tribunals for other matters.
• Article 323A empowers the Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for resolving disputes related to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or any State.
• Article 323B allows the Parliament and the State Legislatures to create tribunals for matters such as Taxation, Foreign Exchange, Industrial and Labour disputes, Land Reforms, Ceiling on urban property, and Elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.
• The inclusion of these provisions followed the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, aimed at reducing the mounting pressure on the High Courts and ensuring speedy justice in specialized areas.

 Additional Information

• Part XV
• This Part comprises Articles 324 to 329 and provides the constitutional framework for Elections in India, including the establishment of the Election Commission.
• Part IX-B
• This Part was inserted by the 97^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, and focuses on the management and regulation of Co-operative Societies.
• Part XII
• Spanning Articles 264 to 300A, this Part deals with Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits, including the distribution of revenues between the Union and States and the Right to Property.
• Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
• Enacted under the authority of Article 323A, this act led to the formation of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) to adjudicate service-related matters for central government employees.

The correct answer is Low birth rates and high life expectancy.

Key Points

• A population pyramid, also known as an age-sex pyramid, is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in a population. A narrow base indicates that the proportion of children and infants is relatively small, which is a direct consequence of low birth rates.
• A wider top or an apex that remains broad into the upper age brackets signifies that a significant portion of the population survives into old age. This structural feature is the primary indicator of high life expectancy and low geriatric mortality.
• This specific shape is characteristic of a constrictive pyramid. It represents a population that is aging and may eventually face a natural decrease if birth rates remain below the replacement level (typically 2.1 children per woman).
• Such demographic profiles are most commonly found in developed countries that have completed the Demographic Transition Model. Examples include nations like Japan, Germany, and Italy, where healthcare and socio-economic stability support longevity.

 Additional Information

• Types of Population Pyramids:
• Expansive Pyramid:
• Features a very wide base and a narrow top.
• Indicates high birth rates and high death rates (or short life expectancy).
• Common in developing nations with high fertility and limited healthcare access.
• Stationary Pyramid:
• Displays somewhat equal proportions across most age groups, tapering only at the very top.
• Reflects stable birth rates and death rates, often seen in countries like the United States or Australia.
• Dependency Ratio:
• In a pyramid with a narrow base and wide top, the old-age dependency ratio increases.
• This places economic pressure on the working-age population (typically ages 15 to 64) to support social security and healthcare for the elderly.

The correct answer is Hooghly industrial belt.

Key Points

• The Hooghly industrial belt is recognized as the most prominent port-based industrial region in India, extending along the banks of the Hooghly River for about 100 km from Bansberia to Birlapur.
• The region owes its industrial dominance to the Kolkata Port and the Haldia Dock Complex, which provide vital maritime access for the import of raw materials and the export of finished products to international markets.
• Historically, the belt developed as a major center during the colonial era, specifically after the opening of the first jute mill at Rishra in 1855, supported by British capital.
• It is the world’s leading hub for jute manufacturing and houses a diverse range of industries including heavy engineering, chemicals, pharmaceuticals, cotton textiles, paper, and leather goods.
• The belt benefits from the geographical advantage of being close to the Chotanagpur Plateau, ensuring a consistent supply of coal, iron ore, and other minerals, while the river serves as a source of cheap inland water transport.

 Additional Information

• Hyderabad-Bengaluru corridor:
• This region is primarily a knowledge-based industrial hub rather than a port-based one.
• It is famous for Information Technology (IT), Biotechnology, Aerospace, and Precision Engineering sectors.
• Ahmedabad-Vadodara region:
• Located in Gujarat, this region is a major center for cotton textiles and petrochemicals.
• While it utilizes nearby ports like Kandla and Mundra, its industrial core is historically rooted in local cotton production.
• Chotanagpur plateau region:
• Known as the mineral heartland or the Ruhr of India, spanning across Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha.
• It is an inland industrial region focused on iron and steel and metallurgical industries due to vast deposits of coal and metallic minerals.

The correct answer is Aligarh Movement supported Western-style education, while Arya Samaj promoted Vedic studies..

Key Points

• The Aligarh Movement, led by Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan, primarily aimed at the social and educational advancement of Indian Muslims by reconciling Islamic teachings with modern Western education and scientific temperament.
• The movement established the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875 at Aligarh, which later became the Aligarh Muslim University, focusing on English literature and physical sciences.
• In contrast, the Arya Samaj, founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875, was a revivalist movement that sought to reform Hinduism by returning to the original teachings of the Vedas.
• The core philosophy of Arya Samaj was captured in the slogan Back to the Vedas, emphasizing Vedic studies, monotheism, and the rejection of idol worship and ritualistic priesthood.
• While both movements advocated for social reform (such as women’s education and the removal of social evils), their academic foundations differed significantly: one looked toward the modern West for intellectual progress, while the other looked toward ancient Indian scriptures.

 Additional Information

• Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan:
• He authored the journal Tahzib-ul-Akhlaq to spread awareness about social reforms and rationalism.
• He believed that the Muslim community could only progress by cooperating with the British administration and mastering Western sciences.
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati:
• His famous work, Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Truth), detailed his interpretations of the Vedas and criticized later Puranic distortions.
• The Arya Samaj also introduced the Shuddhi movement to bring individuals back into the Hindu fold, which marked a shift toward organized proselytization.
• Educational Legacy:
• The Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) schools were a later compromise that integrated Vedic education with modern curriculum, whereas the Aligarh Movement remained the standard-bearer for Western-style higher education in the 19^th century.

The correct answer is Gir National Park.

Key Points

• The 7^th National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) meeting was chaired by the Prime Minister of India in March 2025 at Gir National Park in Gujarat. This high-level meeting marked a significant shift in conducting apex wildlife policy discussions directly within iconic biodiversity hotspots.
• The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory body established under Section 5A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. While the Prime Minister chairs the full Board, the Standing Committee of the NBWL is chaired by the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The primary focus of the March 2025 session was the review of Project Lion @ 2047, a roadmap aimed at securing the genetic diversity and habitat of the Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica), which is found exclusively in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.
• The meeting also addressed the expansion of the Protected Area (PA) network and the implementation of the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH) scheme, emphasizing the use of satellite tracking and AI-based monitoring for preventing human-wildlife conflict.
• Choosing Gir National Park as the venue served to highlight the success of community-led conservation efforts by the Maldhari tribes and the Gujarat Forest Department, which have seen lion populations grow from approximately 523 in 2015 to over 674 in the 2020 estimation.

 Additional Information

• Pench National Park
• Located across the Seoni and Chhindwara districts of Madhya Pradesh and parts of Maharashtra.
• It is renowned as the ecological setting for Rudyard Kipling's famous work, The Jungle Book.
• The park is dominated by Teak (Tectona grandis) forests and serves as a critical corridor between Kanha and Satpura Tiger Reserves.
• Satpura Tiger Reserve
• Situated in the Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh, it is part of the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
• It features unique terrain including deep gorges, sandstone peaks, and is home to the Indian Giant Squirrel and the Malabar Whistling Thrush.
• Sariska Tiger Reserve
• Located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan within the Aravalli Range.
• It made history in 2008 as the site of the world's first successful aerial translocation of tigers to restore a locally extinct population.

The correct answer is Gelatinization.

Key Points

• Gelatinization is a biochemical process that occurs when starch granules are heated in the presence of water, causing the granules to absorb moisture and swell significantly.
• Starch consists of two types of polysaccharide molecules: Amylose (linear) and Amylopectin (branched). During heating, the hydrogen bonds between these molecules are weakened, allowing water to enter the granule.
• As water is absorbed, the crystalline structure of the starch is disrupted, leading to the leaching of Amylose into the surrounding liquid, which results in an increase in viscosity and the formation of a starch paste.
• The temperature at which this process begins is known as the gelatinization temperature, which typically ranges from 60°C to 75°C for most common food starches like those found in flour and potatoes.
• This phenomenon is crucial in cooking for thickening soups, sauces, and providing the characteristic texture to boiled potatoes and baked bread.

 Additional Information

• Saponification
• This is a chemical reaction between a fat or oil (triglyceride) and a strong alkali (such as Sodium Hydroxide or Potassium Hydroxide) to produce soap and glycerol.
• Caramelization
• This is the non-enzymatic browning of sugars that occurs at high temperatures (above 160°C). It involves the removal of water (as steam) and the pyrolysis of the sugar, creating complex flavors and a brown color.
• Fermentation
• This is an anaerobic metabolic process where microorganisms like yeast or bacteria convert carbohydrates (sugars) into ethanol, lactic acid, and Carbon Dioxide. It is essential in the production of yogurt, beer, and the rising of dough.

The correct answer is Pandit Bhimsen Joshi.

Key Points

• Pandit Bhimsen Gururaj Joshi (1922–2011) was an legendary Hindustani classical vocalist belonging to the Kirana Gharana, celebrated for his powerful voice and breathtaking breath control.
• In 2008, he was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian award of India, for his unparalleled contributions to the field of classical music.
• He achieved nationwide fame for his appearance in the iconic 1988 music video 'Mile Sur Mera Tumhara', which promoted national integration; he famously sang the opening verses in Raga Bhairavi.
• He was a disciple of Sawai Gandharva and later founded the Sawai Gandharva Music Festival in Pune in 1953 to honor his guru, which remains one of the largest music festivals in the world.
• His musical repertoire was diverse, spanning Khayal singing, Thumri, and his deeply moving Marathi Abhangs (devotional songs dedicated to Lord Vitthal).

 Additional Information

• Gangubai Hangal:
• She was a prominent female vocalist of the Kirana Gharana known for her deep, masculine voice texture.
• She was honored with the Padma Bhushan (1971) and Padma Vibhushan (2002) but did not receive the Bharat Ratna.
• Bade Fateh Ali Khan:
• A legendary classical singer from the Patiala Gharana, he was based in Pakistan and was a master of Khayal and Thumri styles.
• He was part of the famous duo with his brother, Amanat Ali Khan, and received the Pride of Performance award from the Government of Pakistan.
• Nayak Gopal:
• A medieval Indian musician of the 13^th-14^th century, he was a contemporary of Amir Khusro during the reign of Alauddin Khalji.
• He is traditionally associated with the Dhrupad style of singing and is a figure of historical significance in the evolution of Indian classical music.

The correct answer is Bhimbetka Rock Shelters in Madya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Bhimbetka Rock Shelters are located in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh, within the Vindhya Range, and were discovered by archaeologist V.S. Wakankar in 1957-58.
• This site is unique because it provides a continuous stratigraphic record of human occupation spanning from the Lower Palaeolithic (Acheulian) through the Middle Palaeolithic and Upper Palaeolithic, leading into the Mesolithic period and beyond.
• The Acheulian levels at Bhimbetka are characterized by large stone tools such as handaxes and cleavers, predominantly made of quartzite found locally in the Vindhyan hills.
• The Middle Palaeolithic layer shows a transition to smaller flake-based tools, while the Upper Palaeolithic is marked by the appearance of blades and burins, signifying advanced cognitive and technical skills.
• The Mesolithic layer is the most prolific at the site, yielding vast quantities of microliths and providing world-renowned evidence of prehistoric rock paintings depicting hunting, dancing, and social life.
• Due to its exceptional cultural continuity and archaeological significance, it was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2003.

 Additional Information

• Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh:
• Located near Hoshangabad on the Narmada River, this site is famous for Mesolithic remains.
• It provided some of the earliest evidence of animal domestication (specifically cattle and sheep/goats) in India, dated to approximately 5000 BCE.
• Paisra in Munger district, Bihar:
• It is a significant Acheulian site known for providing evidence of early habitation structures.
• Excavations revealed stone-paved floors and post-holes, suggesting that Lower Palaeolithic humans constructed temporary shelters or huts.
• Chirki-Nevasa in Maharashtra:
• Situated on the Pravara River, it is identified as a massive factory site for Acheulian tools.
• The site is noted for the production of heavy-duty tools using basalt rather than the more common quartzite.

The correct answer is Wular Lake.

Key Points

• Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India and one of the largest in Asia, situated in the Bandipora district of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is primarily fed by the Jhelum River, which flows into and out of the lake.
• Its surface area is highly seasonal, fluctuating from approximately 30 square kilometers during dry periods to nearly 260 square kilometers during peak flood seasons.
• On March 23, 1990, it was designated as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention due to its immense ecological value.
• The lake serves as a critical flood-absorption basin for the Kashmir Valley, helping to regulate water flow and prevent flooding in downstream areas.
• It is a vital source of livelihood for the local population, supporting a large-scale fishing industry and the harvesting of water chestnuts (Trapa natans).

 Additional Information

• Loktak Lake:
• Located in Manipur, it is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for its floating islands called Phumdis.
• It hosts the Keibul Lamjao National Park, the world’s only floating national park, which is the last natural home of the endangered Sangai deer.
• Chilika Lake:
• Situated in Odisha, it is the largest brackish water lagoon in India and the second largest in the world, serving as a major wintering ground for migratory birds.
• It is well-known for being a habitat for the Irrawaddy dolphins and was the first Indian wetland to be designated a Ramsar Site in 1981.
• Dal Lake:
• Known as the 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir', this freshwater lake in Srinagar is iconic for its houseboats and Shikara rides.
• It features unique floating gardens, known as 'Rad', where vegetables and flowers are cultivated.

The correct answer is ₹10,000 crore.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2025, introduced a major financial boost for the Indian startup ecosystem.
• A new Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) with a total corpus of ₹10,000 crore was proposed to provide stable and long-term equity capital to budding entrepreneurs.
• The primary objective of this fund is to address the funding gap faced by startups during their growth and scaling phases, thereby fostering innovation and job creation.
• This initiative aligns with the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision, aiming to transform India into a global hub for deep-tech, green-tech, and high-innovation sectors.
• By mobilizing this corpus, the government intends to catalyze further investments from the private sector through Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), multiplying the total available capital for the market.

 Additional Information

• Fund of Funds Mechanism:
• Unlike direct investment schemes, a Fund of Funds does not invest directly in startups. It provides capital to SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs).
• These AIFs (daughter funds) are then responsible for selecting and investing in high-potential Indian startups, ensuring professional management of the corpus.
• Nodal Agency:
• The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) typically serves as the implementing agency for managing such funds of funds on behalf of the government.
• Space Sector Fund:
• Apart from the general startup fund, the budget also highlighted a specific ₹1,000 crore Venture Capital Fund dedicated to the Space Sector to encourage private participation in the space economy.
• Startup India Initiative:
• Launched in January 2016, this initiative has led India to become the third-largest startup ecosystem in the world, with over 1.2 lakh recognized startups.

The correct answer is 80%.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched on 25^th December 2000 by the Government of India as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to provide all-weather road connectivity to eligible unconnected habitations.
• At the time of its inception in 2000, it was estimated that approximately 40% of the rural habitations in India lacked connectivity to all-weather roads, which severely hindered their socio-economic development.
• According to the Ministry of Rural Development, the implementation of PMGSY over two decades (2000–2020) resulted in a transformative increase in connectivity, with the coverage percentage reaching approximately 80% or higher for the targeted habitations across the country.
• The scheme has played a pivotal role in poverty reduction by providing rural populations access to Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs), higher education institutions, and specialized healthcare centers.
• The construction progress involved massive engineering efforts, with road construction rates reaching an average of nearly 100 to 130 kilometers per day during peak implementation phases between 2014 and 2020.
• The improved 80% connectivity has facilitated a shift from subsistence farming to commercial agriculture, as farmers can now transport perishable goods to urban centers more efficiently.

 Additional Information

• Phases of PMGSY:
• PMGSY-I: The initial phase focused on connecting habitations with a population of 500 and above in plain areas and 250 and above in Hilly States, Desert Areas, and Tribal Areas.
• PMGSY-II: Approved in 2013, this phase aimed at the consolidation of 50,000 km of the existing Rural Road Network to improve transport efficiency.
• PMGSY-III: Launched in 2019, it focuses on the consolidation of 1,25,000 km of through routes and major rural links connecting habitations to hospitals and schools.
• Funding and Governance:
• The funding pattern for the scheme is shared between the Central Government and State Governments in a 60:40 ratio for general states and 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States.
• The National Rural Infrastructure Development Agency (NRIDA) provides technical and managerial support for the effective implementation of the program.
• Usage of Green Technology, including waste plastic, cold mix technology, and fly ash, has been prioritized to ensure environmental sustainability in road construction.

The correct answer is Analytical Engine.

Key Points

• The Analytical Engine was a proposed mechanical computer designed by the English mathematician and inventor Charles Babbage in 1837, following his work on the Difference Engine.
• It is historically significant as the first conceptual design for a general-purpose computer that could be programmed to perform any logical or mathematical operation.
• The architecture of the machine included fundamental components found in modern systems, such as the Mill (the equivalent of a Central Processing Unit) and the Store (the equivalent of Memory).
• Babbage incorporated the use of punched cards, a technology adapted from the Jacquard loom, to provide instructions and data to the engine, allowing for sequential control and conditional branching.
• While it was never fully constructed during Babbage's lifetime due to its immense complexity and financial constraints, it laid the logical foundation for the development of modern digital computing.

 Additional Information

• Atanasoff-Berry Computer (ABC):
• Developed by John Vincent Atanasoff and Clifford Berry between 1937 and 1942 at Iowa State College.
• It was the first electronic digital computing device to use vacuum tubes and binary arithmetic, though it was not programmable.
• ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer):
• Completed in 1945 by John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert at the University of Pennsylvania.
• This was the world's first programmable, electronic, general-purpose digital computer, originally designed for calculating artillery firing tables.
• UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer):
• Also designed by Eckert and Mauchly, the UNIVAC I became the first commercial computer produced in the United States in 1951.
• It gained fame for successfully predicting the outcome of the 1952 U.S. Presidential Election.

Therefore, the Analytical Engine is the correct answer.