General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 3.6 times 10^6 watt sec.

Key Points

• Electrical energy is the total work done by an electric current in a given time, and its commercial unit is the kilowatt-hour (kWh), often referred to as a unit in utility bills.
• The relationship between energy, power, and time is expressed by the formula Energy = Power × Time.
• To convert 1 kilowatt-hour into watt-seconds (which is equivalent to Joules), we must convert each component into its base SI units.
• 1 Kilowatt (kW) is equal to 1000 Watts (W), representing the rate of energy consumption.
• 1 Hour (h) consists of 60 minutes, and each minute has 60 seconds, totaling 3600 seconds (s).
• By multiplying these values: 1 kWh = 1000 W × 3600 s = 3,600,000 Watt-seconds.
• In scientific notation, 3,600,000 is expressed as 3.6 × 10⁶. Therefore, 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ watt sec.

 Additional Information

• Watt (W):
• It is the SI unit of power, named after James Watt.
• One Watt is defined as the consumption of one Joule of energy per second (1 W = 1 J/s).
• Joule (J):
• The standard unit of energy in the International System of Units.
• 1 Watt-second is exactly equal to 1 Joule; thus, 1 kWh is also 3.6 × 10⁶ Joules or 3.6 Megajoules (MJ).
• Electric Power:
• Defined as the rate at which electrical work is done or the rate at which electrical energy is transferred by an electric circuit.
• Commonly calculated using the product of Voltage (V) and Current (I), represented as P = V × I.

The correct answer is Remove barriers to trade and industry.

Key Points

• Liberalisation in the context of the 1991 Economic Reforms refers to the relaxation of government restrictions on economic activities to provide more freedom to private enterprises.
• A primary objective was the dismantling of the License Raj, a system of elaborate licenses and regulations that hindered the entry and growth of businesses in India.
• The reforms aimed to integrate the Indian economy with the global market by reducing import duties, removing quantitative restrictions (quotas) on trade, and simplifying foreign exchange regulations.
• By removing these barriers, the government sought to encourage competition, improve industrial efficiency, and attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to modernize the domestic production base.
• The policy shift was triggered by a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis in 1991, necessitating a move away from the inward-looking, protectionist policies of the previous decades.

 Additional Information

• The New Economic Policy (NEP) was built on the pillars of Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG):
• Privatisation: Involved reducing the role of the Public Sector by selling government equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), contrary to the pre-1991 goal of public sector dominance.
• Globalisation: Focused on increasing the international reach of the economy, which included encouraging rather than banning foreign companies.
• Deregulation: The MRTP Act (Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act) was amended to remove the requirement for large companies to seek prior government approval for expansion, thereby decreasing government control.
• Key Figures: These historic reforms were initiated under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and then Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.

The correct answer is Decreasing ionization energy and increasing atomic size.

Key Points

• Metallic character represents the level of reactivity of a metal and its ability to lose valence electrons to form positive ions (cations).
• As we move down a group in the modern periodic table, the number of energy shells increases progressively with each period.
• This addition of shells leads to a significant increase in atomic size (atomic radius), which places the outermost electrons further away from the positively charged nucleus.
• The shielding effect of inner-shell electrons also increases down the group, further reducing the effective nuclear charge exerted on the valence electrons.
• Due to the increased distance and reduced attraction, the ionization energy—the energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron—decreases down the group.
• Since electrons are lost more easily when ionization energy is low, the tendency to exhibit electropositive behavior grows, resulting in an increase in metallic character.

 Additional Information

• Trends across a Period:
• Across a period from left to right, the metallic character decreases because the atomic size decreases and the nuclear charge increases, making it harder to lose electrons.
• Elements on the extreme left of the periodic table (Alkali Metals) possess the highest metallic character in their respective periods.
• Electronegativity:
• Metals generally have low electronegativity and low electron affinity compared to non-metals.
• The increase in metallic character is accompanied by a decrease in non-metallic character and oxidizing power.
• Chemical Reactivity:
• For metals, chemical reactivity increases down a group as it becomes easier to form ions, whereas for non-metals, reactivity typically decreases down a group.

The correct answer is (i) True, (ii) False.

Key Points

• Statement

(i) explains the structural dependency of software. Application Software is designed to perform specific tasks for the user but lacks the low-level instructions to manage hardware components directly. It relies on System Software, specifically the Operating System (OS), to act as an intermediary for resource allocation, memory management, and hardware communication. ***Hence, statement

(i) is correct.***

• Statement

(ii) discusses the robustness of modern computing environments. Modern Operating Systems implement Process Isolation and Protected Memory architectures.

Each application runs in a separate memory space, which prevents the failure or crash of a single application from affecting the OS Kernel or other active processes. Users can typically close the failed application without rebooting the entire system. ***Hence, statement

(ii) is incorrect.***

 Additional Information

• Application Software
• Function: Performs specific end-user tasks such as document creation, data analysis, or entertainment.
• Types: Includes General Purpose (Word Processors), Specialized (Accounting Software), and Custom-built solutions.
• Examples: Microsoft Office, Adobe Photoshop, and Web Browsers like Chrome or Firefox.
• System Software
• Function: Coordinates hardware operations and provides a platform for application execution.
• Components: Includes the Operating System, BIOS/UEFI, Device Drivers, and Utility Programs.
• Key Roles: Responsible for Process Management, File System control, and ensuring System Security.

The correct answer is Coniferous Forests.

Key Points

• Coniferous Forests are found in the higher latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere (typically between 50°N to 70°N) and are also known by the Russian term Taiga, which means pure or untouched.
• These forests consist of tall, softwood evergreen trees that are highly valued for their commercial utility.
• The wood from these trees is extensively used for manufacturing pulp, which is the primary raw material for making paper and newsprint.
• Common species found in this biome include Chir, Pine, and Cedar, which are also used for making matchboxes and packing boxes.
• The typical wildlife found in the Taiga region includes animals like the Silver fox, Mink, and Polar bear.

 Additional Information

• Mediterranean Vegetation:
• Found mostly in the areas around the Mediterranean Sea, as well as parts of California and South Africa.
• Famous for citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives, and grapes due to hot dry summers and mild rainy winters.
• Tropical Grasslands:
• Also known as Savannahs, these occur on either side of the equator and extend to the tropics.
• The grass can grow very tall, reaching about 3 to 4 meters in height.
• Temperate Deciduous Forests:
• Found in higher latitudes like the USA, China, New Zealand, and Chile.
• Trees shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve moisture, and common species include Oak, Ash, and Beech.

The correct answer is 10^th.

Key Points

• India has been ranked 10^th in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025, which was released in November 2024 during the COP29 climate summit held in Baku, Azerbaijan.
• The index is published annually by Germanwatch, the New Climate Institute, and the Climate Action Network (CAN) International to track the climate protection performance of 63 countries and the European Union.
• India's performance is categorized as 'High', although it dropped three positions from its previous rank of 7^th in the 2024 report.
• The ranking is based on four key categories: Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Emissions (40% weightage), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%).
• India maintains its position as one of the top performers among the G20 nations, second only to the United Kingdom (ranked 6^th) within the group.
• The report highlights that India’s per capita emissions remain relatively low compared to other major economies, contributing significantly to its overall high score.

 Additional Information

• Structure of CCPI 2025:
• The first three ranks (1^st, 2^nd, and 3^rd) remain vacant because no country has performed well enough across all categories to be consistent with the 1.5°C global warming limit.
• Denmark secured the 4^th position, making it the highest-ranked country, followed by the Netherlands at 5^th and the United Kingdom at 6^th.
• Countries like the United States, Russia, and Saudi Arabia were among the lowest-performing nations in the index.
• India's specific category performance:
• GHG Emissions: Ranked High.
• Energy Use: Ranked High.
• Renewable Energy: Ranked Medium.
• Climate Policy: Ranked Medium.
• The CCPI serves as an important tool for enhancing transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.

The correct answer is To examine allegations of abuse of authority during the Emergency.

Key Points

• The Janata Party government, which came to power after the landmark 1977 General Elections, appointed the Shah Commission of Inquiry on May 28, 1977.
• The commission was headed by Justice J.C. Shah, a retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India, to ensures an independent and judicial investigation.
• The primary objective of the commission was to inquire into several aspects of excesses, malpractices, and the abuse of authority committed by the government and various individuals during the National Emergency (1975−1977).
• It was mandated to investigate the specific circumstances that led to the declaration of the Emergency, the subsequent censorship of the press, and the mass preventive detentions conducted under the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA).
• The commission extensively documented testimonies regarding police atrocities, the demolition of houses in areas like Turkman Gate, and the implementation of aggressive sterilization programs.

 Additional Information

• Reports of the Shah Commission:
• The commission submitted three detailed reports that outlined the breakdown of constitutional governance and the rise of extra-constitutional authorities.
• It highlighted how state machinery and intelligence agencies were misused for political ends and to silence opposition voices.
• Constitutional Impact:
• The findings of the commission were instrumental in the drafting of the 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, which aimed to prevent such future occurrences.
• This amendment introduced the term armed rebellion to replace internal disturbance and mandated that a proclamation of Emergency could only be issued on the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
• It also ensured that the right to life and liberty under Article 21 could not be suspended even during an Emergency.

The correct answer is Switzerland, Singapore, Hong Kong.

Key Points

• The IMD World Competitiveness Ranking 2025, released in June 2025, evaluates global economies based on their capacity to foster an environment that sustains enterprise competitiveness.
• Switzerland reclaimed the first rank globally, benefiting from unparalleled institutional stability, high-quality Infrastructure, and superior Government Efficiency.
• Singapore secured the second position, demonstrating immense strength in Business Efficiency, a robust healthcare system, and highly competitive labor market dynamics.
• Hong Kong SAR achieved the third position, highlighting its recovery as a leading financial hub with advancements in International Investment and favorable Tax Policy.
• The 2025 edition assessed 69 global economies, reflecting a landscape defined by digital readiness and geopolitical agility.

 Additional Information

• Four Pillars of IMD Ranking:
• Economic Performance: Assesses domestic economy, international trade, international investment, employment, and cost/price indices.
• Government Efficiency: Evaluates public finance, tax policy, regulatory frameworks, business legislation, and societal stability.
• Business Efficiency: Measures overall productivity, labor market flexibility, financial sector quality, management practices, and values.
• Infrastructure: Quantifies basic, technological, scientific, environmental, health, and education infrastructure.
• Performance of Key Economies in 2025:
• India was ranked 41^st globally in 2025, experiencing a minor decline from 39^th in 2024 due to challenges in infrastructure and governance.
• The USA and China ranked outside the top ten, while countries like Canada and Germany showed noteworthy improvements in the top 20.
• The IMD World Competitiveness Center, based in Lausanne, Switzerland, has published this annual report since 1989.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri, are a continuous mountain range that runs parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula, spanning approximately 1,600 kilometers.
• A primary geographical feature of the Western Ghats is that their average elevation increases significantly from the north towards the south.
• The highest peak of the entire Western Ghats (and all of South India) is Anamudi, which reaches an altitude of 2,695 meters (8,842 feet) above sea level.
• Anamudi is located in the Idukki district of Kerala, specifically within the Eravikulam National Park in the Anamalai Hills.
• Because the highest massifs and the absolute highest peak of the range are situated within its borders, Kerala is the region where the Western Ghats are at their highest elevation.

 Additional Information

• Karnataka:
• The highest peak in this state is Mullayanagiri, located in the Chikkamagaluru district.
• It has an elevation of approximately 1,930 meters, making it the highest point in Karnataka but significantly lower than the peaks in Kerala.
• Tamil Nadu:
• This region is home to the Nilgiri Mountains, where the highest peak is Doddabetta at 2,637 meters.
• While it is the second-highest peak in the Western Ghats, it does not surpass the elevation found in the Kerala section of the range.
• Goa:
• The Western Ghats in Goa are part of the Sahyadri range but are much lower in height compared to the southern states.
• The highest point is Sonsogor, which stands at an elevation of about 1,027 meters.
• Ecological Importance:
• The Western Ghats are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and are recognized as one of the world's eight biodiversity hotspots.
• They play a crucial role in the Indian monsoon system by acting as a barrier to the moisture-laden Southwest Monsoon winds.

The correct answer is 5 years.

Key Points

• As per Article 172 of the Constitution of India, the normal tenure of the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) of every state is 5 years.
• The duration of this five-year term is calculated from the date appointed for the first meeting of the assembly after the general elections are concluded.
• An MLA (Member of the Legislative Assembly) is a representative directly elected by the adult voters of a specific electoral constituency to represent them in the state legislature.
• The Legislative Assembly stands automatically dissolved at the end of the five-year period; however, the Governor of the state has the executive power to dissolve the assembly prematurely under specific constitutional circumstances, such as a No-Confidence Motion or a breakdown of constitutional machinery.
• During this term, MLAs participate in the legislative process, including the introduction and passage of bills, and they hold the executive accountable through various parliamentary devices.

 Additional Information

• Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad):
• In states with a Bicameral Legislature, the Legislative Council serves as the upper house and is a permanent body that is not subject to dissolution.
• The term of an individual member of the Legislative Council (MLC) is 6 years, with one-third of its members retiring every second year.
• Constitutional Amendments:
• The 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, passed during the Emergency, briefly increased the term of the State Legislative Assemblies to 6 years.
• The 44^th Amendment Act, 1978, subsequently repealed this change and restored the original duration of 5 years.
• Extension during Emergency:
• Under Article 352, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in effect, Parliament may extend the term of the Legislative Assembly by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time.
• This extension cannot, in any case, continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency proclamation has ceased to operate.
• Qualifications for MLA:
• According to Article 173, a person must be a citizen of India and at least 25 years of age to be eligible for election as an MLA.

The correct answer is Boyle's Law.

Key Points

• Boyle's Law, named after the physicist Robert Boyle who published it in 1662, describes the isothermal relationship in gases.
• It states that the absolute pressure exerted by a given mass of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to the volume it occupies, provided the temperature and amount of gas remain constant within a closed system.
• Mathematically, the law is expressed as P ∝ 1/V, which means the product of pressure (P) and volume (V) is a constant (k): PV = k.
• When comparing a gas under two different sets of conditions at the same temperature, the formula P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ is utilized to calculate unknown variables.
• According to the kinetic molecular theory, as volume decreases, the gas molecules are crowded into a smaller space, increasing the frequency of collisions with the container walls, which results in higher pressure.
• A graphical representation of this law on a pressure-volume graph produces a curve known as an isotherm, which is a rectangular hyperbola.

 Additional Information

• Charles's Law:
• Formulated by Jacques Charles, it states that the volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (in Kelvin) when the pressure is kept constant.
• The mathematical relation is V/T = k or V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂.
• Gay-Lussac's Law:
• Developed by Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac, it establishes that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature when the volume remains constant.
• The formula is P/T = k or P₁/T₁ = P₂/T₂.
• Avogadro's Law:
• Proposed by Amedeo Avogadro, it states that equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain the same number of molecules (or moles).
• This indicates that the volume is directly proportional to the number of moles (n), expressed as V/n = k.

The correct answer is Mondo Duplantis.

Key Points

• Mondo Duplantis, the Swedish-American pole vault sensation, was honored with the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year Award in 2025.
• The award recognized his unparalleled dominance during the 2024 season, where he successfully defended his Olympic Gold Medal at the Paris 2024 Games.
• During the eligibility period, Duplantis broke the world record multiple times, including a historic clearance of 6.26 meters at the Silesia Diamond League in August 2024.
• The Laureus World Sports Awards are prestigious international honors established in 1999 to celebrate the greatest sporting achievements of the previous year.
• By winning this accolade, Duplantis joined an elite group of athletes, highlighting the global impact of track and field on the world stage.

 Additional Information

• Novak Djokovic:
• A legendary Serbian tennis player who previously won the Laureus Sportsman of the Year in 2024.
• He holds the record for the most Grand Slam titles in men's tennis history and has spent the most weeks as the world No. 1.
• Serena Williams:
• An American former professional tennis player who has won 23 Grand Slam singles titles.
• She has been a multiple-time recipient of the Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year award throughout her illustrious career.
• Tom Pidcock:
• A versatile British cyclist known for competing in road racing, mountain biking, and cyclo-cross.
• He secured back-to-back Olympic Gold Medals in the mountain bike event at Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024.

The correct answer is Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

Key Points

• The Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 was enacted by the Parliament of India to prescribe punishments for the practice of untouchability, fulfilling the mandate of Article 17 of the Constitution.
• In 1976, based on the recommendations of the Elayaperumal Committee (1965), the act was comprehensively amended to make its provisions more stringent and effective.
• The amendment officially changed the title of the legislation to the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, shifting the focus from merely penalizing offences to actively protecting the civil rights of marginalized communities.
• Under this act, Civil Right is defined as any right accruing to a person by reason of the abolition of untouchability by Article 17 of the Constitution of India.
• The act is applicable to the whole of India and covers discriminatory practices in public places such as temples, hotels, hospitals, and educational institutions.

 Additional Information

• Article 17 of the Indian Constitution:
• It explicitly abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
• The enforcement of any disability arising out of Untouchability is considered an offence punishable in accordance with the law.
• Article 35:
• This article empowers the Parliament (and not the State Legislatures) to make laws that prescribe punishment for acts declared as offences under the Fundamental Rights chapter.
• Nature of Offences:
• Offences under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are cognizable and non-compoundable.
• A person convicted under this act becomes ineligible for election to the Parliament or the State Legislature under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

The correct answer is 1961 Census of India.

Key Points

• The 1961 Census of India was conducted under the leadership of Asok Mitra, the then Registrar General and Census Commissioner. He is widely credited with broadening the horizon of the census from a mere head-count to a massive socio-economic and cultural document.
• Under this census, the Census Organisation was transformed into a Cultural Repository by undertaking extensive village surveys (over 500 villages), documenting nearly 300 traditional crafts, and creating detailed inventories of fairs and festivals across India.
• This operation involved meticulous ethnographic surveys of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, which provided critical scientific data on tribal social structures and community life, filling a gap that had existed since pre-independence era reports.
• The 1961 Census marked a significant technological shift in Indian demographic history by introducing mechanical tabulation equipment. This included the use of key punches, sorters, and tabulators (such as IBM 101 electronic statistical machines) to handle and process the vast data of the growing population.
• It also emphasized housing data by introducing a separate Houselist and Housing Census, which became a permanent feature of subsequent census operations.

 Additional Information

• 1951 Census of India
• This was the first census of independent India and was conducted under the Census Act of 1948.
• Its primary focus was on assessing the demographic changes caused by the Partition of India and the resulting mass migration of people.
• 1971 Census of India
• Known as the Centenary Census, it celebrated 100 years of systematic census-taking in the country.
• It introduced the Individual Slip for data collection and introduced a clearer distinction between Main Workers and Marginal Workers to better measure economic activity.
• 1981 Census of India
• Marked the adoption of advanced computer systems like the Sperry Univac for data processing, significantly speeding up the release of reports compared to previous decades.

The correct answer is Arch and dome construction technique.

Key Points

• The arrival of the Delhi Sultanate in the 13^th century introduced the Arcuate style of architecture, which prominently featured the Arch and dome construction technique.
• Prior to this period, Indian architecture primarily followed the Trabeate style, which relied on horizontal beams supported by vertical columns (slab-and-beam).
• The true arch was a major structural innovation that utilized a central keystone to distribute the weight of the roof outwards and downwards to the pillars, rather than relying on the strength of a single horizontal stone.
• The Dome allowed for the creation of massive, column-free internal spaces, which were aesthetically grand and functional for congregational prayers in mosques.
• These large-scale constructions were supported by the introduction of high-quality lime mortar as a binding agent, which offered superior strength and durability compared to the mud or dry masonry used in earlier periods.

 Additional Information

• Slab-and-beam roofing:
• This is also known as the Trabeate style and was the traditional method for constructing Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain temples.
• It was limited by the tensile strength of the materials, meaning large rooms required many supporting pillars.
• Key Architectural Examples:
• The Alai Darwaza, built by Alauddin Khilji in 1311 AD, is the first building in India to employ the true arch and scientific dome principles perfectly.
• The Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque and the Qutub Minar complex showcase the transition from corbelled arches (made by local craftsmen using older techniques) to the fully developed Arcuate forms.
• Other features introduced during this period include the use of minarets, calligraphy for decoration, and arabesque patterns.

The correct answer is Four times.

Key Points

• The relationship between the heat generated in a conductor and the electric current flowing through it is defined by Joule's Law of Heating.
• According to this physical law, the heat produced (H) in a resistor is directly proportional to the square of the electric current (I) passing through it, provided the resistance (R) and time (t) remain constant.
• The fundamental formula for calculating the thermal energy is H = I²Rt.
• When the electric current is doubled, the new current (I') becomes 2I.
• Substituting the value of the new current into the formula gives the new heat output (H') as: H' = (2I)² × R × t.
• Simplifying the expression results in H' = 4 × I²Rt, which indicates that the heat produced is exactly four times the initial amount.

 Additional Information

• Core Factors of Joule Heating:
• Resistance (R): Measured in Ohms, it represents the opposition to electron flow. Increasing resistance while keeping current constant results in a linear increase in heat.
• Current (I): Measured in Amperes, it has the most significant impact on heat because of the squared relationship in the formula.
• Time (t): Measured in seconds, the total thermal energy is directly proportional to the duration of the current flow.
• Industrial and Domestic Applications:
• Heating Elements: Devices like electric heaters and geysers use high-resistance alloys like Nichrome to maximize heat production.
• Safety Mechanisms: An electric fuse is designed to melt and break the circuit if the current becomes dangerously high, preventing fires caused by excessive heating.
• Incandescent Bulbs: The Tungsten filament is heated to a very high temperature to emit light, demonstrating the practical conversion of electrical energy into thermal and radiant energy.

The correct answer is 66½degree N.

Key Points

• The June solstice, also known as the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, occurs around June 21 each year when the Earth's North Pole is tilted at its maximum angle of approximately 23.5 degrees toward the Sun.
• During this event, the Sun's rays are perpendicular to the Tropic of Cancer (23½degree N), resulting in the longest day of the year for the Northern Hemisphere.
• The duration of daylight increases as one moves further north from the Equator during the June solstice; while the Equator receives about 12 hours of light, latitudes further north experience significantly longer periods.
• At the Arctic Circle, located at 66½degree N, the Sun does not set at all for a full 24-hour period, a phenomenon famously known as the Midnight Sun.
• Consequently, among the given options, the latitude at 66½degree N experiences the maximum possible daylight duration (24 hours), making it the longest compared to lower northern latitudes or any southern latitudes.

 Additional Information

• Equator (0 degree):
• Experiences nearly equal day and night (approximately 12 hours each) throughout the year regardless of the solstice.
• Tropic of Cancer (23½degree N):
• Receives overhead sunlight at noon during the June solstice.
• Daylight lasts approximately 13.5 hours, which is long but significantly less than the 24 hours at the Arctic Circle.
• Tropic of Capricorn (23½degree S):
• Experiences the Winter Solstice during June.
• It has the shortest day of the year in the Southern Hemisphere, with daylight lasting roughly 10.5 hours.

The correct answer is 1955.

Key Points

• The Citizenship Act, 1955 was enacted by the Indian Parliament to provide for the acquisition and determination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
• While Articles 5 to 10 of the Constitution of India dealt with citizenship at the time of its commencement, Article 11 specifically empowered the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
• The Act outlines five distinct methods to acquire Indian citizenship: By Birth, By Descent, By Registration, By Naturalization, and By Incorporation of Territory (e.g., when Pondicherry became part of India).
• It also defines three specific ways through which citizenship can be lost: Renunciation (voluntary giving up), Termination (automatic loss upon acquiring another country's citizenship), and Deprivation (compulsory termination by the government for fraud or disloyalty).

 Additional Information

• The Constitution of India does not provide for Dual Citizenship; it only recognizes Single Citizenship for the entire country to promote national integration.
• The Citizenship Act, 1955 has undergone several significant amendments to adapt to evolving socio-political requirements:
• Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1986: Implemented stricter criteria for citizenship by birth to curb illegal immigration, particularly in Assam.
• Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003: Introduced the concept of Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) for Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) in certain countries and defined 'illegal migrants'.
• Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019: Provided a pathway to Indian citizenship for persecuted religious minorities (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians) from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
• Citizenship falls under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, meaning only the Central Government (Ministry of Home Affairs) has the jurisdiction to legislate on it.

The correct answer is PSLV payload module from TDF.

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully demonstrated a high-performance Green Propulsion System during the PSLV-C58 mission launched on January 1, 2024.
• The testing was conducted on the POEM-3 (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3), which utilized the spent fourth stage (PS4) of the launch vehicle as an orbital platform for hosted payloads.
• This environmentally friendly propulsion technology was developed by the Bengaluru-based startup Bellatrix Aerospace, which was supported and mentored through the Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• The system uses a non-toxic, high-performance propellant, specifically a monopropellant based on Hydroxylammonium Nitrate (HAN), which is safer to handle compared to traditional hazardous fuels.
• The in-orbit demonstration involved the successful firing of a 1N (Newton) Thruster, validating the propellant storage, thermal management, and feed system in the vacuum of space.

 Additional Information

• Green Propulsion Technology:
• Traditional space propellants, particularly Hydrazine, are highly toxic, corrosive, and carcinogenic, requiring rigorous safety protocols and expensive handling.
• Green propellants offer reduced environmental impact and higher specific impulse, potentially increasing the efficiency and lifespan of satellite missions.
• POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module):
• This is a unique cost-effective platform developed by ISRO that converts the spent PS4 stage of the PSLV into a stabilized orbital laboratory.
• It features its own Navigation, Guidance, and Control (NGC) system and generates power via solar panels and a Li-ion battery.
• DRDO TDF (Technology Development Fund):
• Managed by the Ministry of Defence, it aims to encourage MSMEs and startups to develop niche technologies for the Indian Armed Forces and Space sector.

The correct answer is Registers.

Key Points

• Registers are the smallest and fastest storage units in a computer system, directly integrated into the Central Processing Unit (CPU).
• They operate at the same speed as the processor clock, providing near-instantaneous access to data for arithmetic, logical, and control operations.
• Located inside the CPU core, they hold specific items like the Program Counter (PC), Instruction Register (IR), and Accumulator, facilitating the fetch-decode-execute cycle.
• Because they are part of the internal ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) and Control Unit circuitry, they have the lowest latency of any memory type in the memory hierarchy.

 Additional Information

• Hard Disk:
• It is a secondary storage device used for high-capacity, non-volatile data storage.
• It is significantly slower than internal CPU memory because it connects via external interfaces like SATA and may involve mechanical movement.
• Cache L3:
• Level 3 (L3) Cache is a specialized high-speed memory that acts as a buffer between RAM and L1/L2 caches.
• While it is typically located on the CPU die, it is shared across multiple cores and is slower than the dedicated Registers and L1 Cache.
• RAM (Random Access Memory):
• Commonly known as main memory, it is a volatile storage area that holds the OS and active applications.
• It is located on the motherboard and communicates with the CPU via the Memory Controller and System Bus, resulting in higher latency than on-chip caches or registers.