General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is His reign focused mainly on consolidation and prosperity of the Gupta realm..

Key Points

• Kumaragupta I, who adopted the title Mahendraditya, ruled the Gupta Empire for approximately 40 years between 415 CE and 455 CE.
• Inheriting a vast and stable empire from his father, Chandragupta II, his rule is characterized by internal peace, administrative stability, and the preservation of inherited boundaries rather than aggressive expansion.
• The Bilsad Inscription and the Mandsaur Inscription provide evidence of a flourishing society where religious tolerance and public welfare were prioritized.
• His reign marked the zenith of the Gupta Golden Age, supported by a robust monetary system as evidenced by the discovery of numerous gold and silver coins across the empire.
• The performance of the Ashvamedha (horse sacrifice) during his reign was a symbolic assertion of his imperial sovereignty and the undisturbed prosperity of the realm.

 Additional Information

• Cultural Contributions:
• Historical records attribute the founding of the prestigious Nalanda University in Bihar to Kumaragupta I, highlighting his role as a patron of learning and academia.
• He was a devotee of Lord Kartikeya, a fact depicted on his peacock-style coins, which distinguishes his numismatics from the Garuda-style coins of his predecessors.
• Evaluation of Challenges:
• The Pushyabhuti dynasty mentioned in Option 3 did not emerge as a significant force until the 6^th century CE under Prabhakaravardhana; therefore, they were not a factor during Kumaragupta I’s era.
• The actual military challenges at the end of his reign involved the Pushyamitras and the initial waves of Huna invasions, which were successfully repelled by his son, Skandagupta.
• Administrative Units:
• Under his rule, the empire was divided into provinces called Bhuktis, governed by Uparikas, and districts called Vishayas, managed by Vishayapatis, ensuring systematic revenue collection and judicial administration.

The correct answer is MS Word.

Key Points

• The .docx extension is the standard file format used by Microsoft Word, specifically introduced with the release of Microsoft Office 2007 to replace the older .doc binary format.
• The x in the extension stands for XML (Extensible Markup Language), as the file is essentially a compressed ZIP archive containing XML files that define the document structure, text, and formatting.
• MS Word is a robust word processing software that allows users to create professional documents, reports, and letters, supporting advanced features like mail merge, macros, and embedded objects.
• Because it is based on the Open XML standard, .docx files are generally smaller in size and more resistant to data corruption compared to legacy document formats.

 Additional Information

• MS Paint:
• It is a raster graphics editor included with Microsoft Windows.
• It typically creates and saves images in formats such as .png, .jpg, .bmp, and .gif.
• Notepad:
• A basic plain text editor that does not support advanced text formatting like bold or italics.
• It exclusively creates files with the .txt extension.
• Other MS Office Extensions:
• .xlsx: Used by Microsoft Excel for spreadsheet workbooks.
• .pptx: Used by Microsoft PowerPoint for presentation slides.
• .accdb: Used by Microsoft Access for database management.

The correct answer is Statue of Unity.

Key Points

• The Statue of Unity is the world's tallest statue, reaching a monumental height of 182 meters (597 feet). It was specifically designed to be twice the height of the Statue of Liberty.
• The statue is dedicated to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, a visionary leader who played a pivotal role in the political integration of 562 princely states into the Union of India.
• It is situated on Sadhu Bet island, facing the Narmada Dam (Sardar Sarovar Dam) in the Narmada district of Gujarat.
• The project was announced in 2010 and the statue was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on October 31, 2018, which coincided with the 143^rd birth anniversary of Patel.
• The statue was designed by the acclaimed Indian sculptor Ram V. Sutar and constructed by the Indian infrastructure giant Larsen & Toubro (L&T) at a cost of approximately 2,989 crore rupees.

 Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• He is widely known as the Iron Man of India and the Bismarck of India for his resolute leadership.
• He served as the first Home Minister and the first Deputy Prime Minister of independent India.
• His birth anniversary, October 31, is celebrated annually as Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day).
• Statue of Equality:
• This is a 216-foot tall statue located in Muchintal, Hyderabad, dedicated to the 11^th-century Bhakti saint Sri Ramanujacharya.
• Statue of Liberty:
• Located on Liberty Island in New York Harbor, USA, this colossal copper statue was a gift from the people of France to the United States.
• Statue of Equity:
• This refers to the 19-foot tall statue of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the architect of the Indian Constitution, which was inaugurated in Maryland, USA, in 2023.

The correct answer is Any person or authority or government.

Key Points

• Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers the High Courts to issue directions, orders, or writs, including writs in the nature of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.
• The power under this article is exercisable by a High Court throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction to issue such orders to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government within those territories.
• The scope of Article 226 is significantly broader than Article 32 because it allows High Courts to issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Part III) but also for any other purpose, which includes the enforcement of ordinary legal rights.
• The expression any other purpose refers to the enforcement of any legal right that is not a fundamental right, making the High Court's writ jurisdiction more expansive in subject matter than that of the Supreme Court.
• A High Court can also issue writs to a government or authority located outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises, wholly or in part, within its own territories.

 Additional Information

• Comparison between Article 32 and Article 226:
• Article 32 is a Fundamental Right in itself, meaning the Supreme Court cannot refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. In contrast, Article 226 is a discretionary power of the High Court.
• While the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the High Court can issue them for both Fundamental Rights and common legal rights.
• The territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to the entire country, whereas the High Court is limited to its specific state or union territory.
• The Five Types of Writs:
• Habeas Corpus: To produce a person who has been detained or imprisoned and examine the legality of the detention.
• Mandamus: A command issued to a public official or authority to perform a statutory duty they have failed to do.
• Certiorari: Issued to a lower court or tribunal to quash an order already passed due to lack of jurisdiction or error of law.
• Prohibition: Issued to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to natural justice.
• Quo Warranto: To enquire into the legality of the claim which a person asserts to a public office.

The correct answer is British dominance increased as French military influence collapsed permanently..

Key Points

• The Battle of Wandiwash was a decisive battle fought on January 22, 1760, during the Third Carnatic War (1758−1763), which was the Indian theatre of the global Seven Years' War.
• The British East India Company forces, led by Sir Eyre Coote, faced the French East India Company forces under the command of Comte de Lally.
• The battle resulted in a crushing defeat for the French, leading to the capture of their key general, Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau, and the eventual surrender of the French stronghold of Pondicherry in 1761.
• This victory effectively ended the French military challenge to British power in India, as the French lost almost all their possessions in the Carnatic region.
• The outcome established the British East India Company as the undisputed European power in India, allowing them to shift their focus towards territorial expansion in Bengal and Southern India without foreign interference.

 Additional Information

• Treaty of Paris (1763):
• This treaty concluded the Seven Years' War and returned trading posts like Pondicherry and Chandernagore to the French.
• Crucially, the treaty stipulated that these posts were for commercial purposes only, and the French were forbidden from fortifying them or maintaining large standing armies in India.
• Causes of French Failure:
• The French government's lack of consistent support and the relative poverty of the French East India Company compared to the wealthy British East India Company.
• The British Navy maintained superior control over the sea routes, preventing reinforcements from reaching the French forces in the Deccan.
• Disagreements between French commanders like Lally and Bussy undermined their military strategies against the cohesive British leadership.

The correct answer is British colonial education and printing technology.

Key Points

• The introduction of the printing press in the 19^th century acted as a catalyst for the growth of vernacular literature by enabling the mass production of books and journals at an affordable cost.
• British colonial education policies, such as the Wood’s Despatch of 1854, recommended the use of regional languages for primary education, which created a literate middle class capable of consuming and producing vernacular content.
• The establishment of Fort William College in 1800 at Calcutta was pivotal for the development of modern vernacular prose, as it required standardized textbooks in languages like Hindi, Bengali, and Urdu for training British officials.
• Exposure to Western literature through colonial schooling introduced Indian writers to new literary genres like the novel, short story, and essay, which were successfully adapted into local languages.
• The shift from Sanskrit and Persian, the traditional elite languages, to regional dialects allowed for a more democratic distribution of knowledge and a broader cultural awakening.

 Additional Information

• Serampore Mission Press:
• Founded in 1800 by William Carey, it was one of the earliest institutions to develop movable type for several Indian scripts, facilitating the translation of religious and educational texts.
• It printed the first major vernacular newspapers, which played a crucial role in forming public opinion during the Indian Renaissance.
• Social Reform Movements:
• Reformers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy used the power of the press to advocate for social change through publications like Sambad Kaumudi in Bengali.
• These movements relied heavily on vernacular languages to reach the common people, thereby institutionalizing regional scripts for intellectual discourse.

The correct answer is Daman & Diu.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, the Union Territory of Daman & Diu recorded the lowest sex ratio in India at 618 females per 1000 males.
• The Sex Ratio is a demographic metric defined as the number of females per 1000 males in a population; the national average in 2011 was 943.
• The stark gender imbalance in Daman & Diu is primarily attributed to a massive influx of male migrant workers who move to the region for industrial and manufacturing employment.
• The Census 2011 was the 15^th National Census of India and the 7^th since Independence, conducted under the Census Act 1948.

 Additional Information

• Haryana:
• Among all Indian states, Haryana recorded the lowest sex ratio at 879 females per 1000 males.
• Chandigarh:
• This Union Territory registered a sex ratio of 818, which is higher than Daman & Diu but lower than the national average.
• Delhi:
• The National Capital Territory of Delhi recorded a sex ratio of 868 as per the 2011 data.
• Kerala and Puducherry:
• Kerala recorded the highest sex ratio in India at 1084, while Puducherry recorded the highest sex ratio among Union Territories at 1037.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• According to the Ministry of Coal Annual Report 2024-25, the total geological resources of lignite in India were estimated at 47,295.61 million tonnes as of April 1, 2024.
• Tamil Nadu holds the highest proportion of these reserves, with 37,523.65 million tonnes, which accounts for approximately 79.34% of the country's total.
• The state's massive lignite deposits are largely concentrated in the Neyveli and Mannargudi lignite fields.
• These resources in Tamil Nadu are categorized into Measured (5,476.00 MT), Indicated (21,412.16 MT), and Inferred (10,635.49 MT) categories.

 Additional Information

• Jharkhand:
• It holds the largest reserves of coking coal (Gondwana coal) in India, particularly in the Jharia coalfield, but has negligible lignite resources.
• Rajasthan:
• It ranks second in lignite reserves with 6,586.24 million tonnes (approximately 13.93% share), found mainly in Barmer and Bikaner districts.
• Gujarat:
• It ranks third with 2,722.05 million tonnes (around 5.76% share), with major deposits located in the Kutch and Surat regions.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line that is located at an angle of 23.50 degrees North of the Equator. It represents the northernmost circle of latitude on Earth at which the Sun can be directly overhead.
• In India, this latitudinal line passes through a total of 8 states. Moving from West to East, these states are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• Odisha is a coastal state located on the eastern side of India. Geographically, it lies between 17.49 degrees North and 22.34 degrees North latitudes. Since the Tropic of Cancer sits at approximately 23.5 degrees North, it remains entirely north of the state of Odisha.
• Among the given options, Gujarat is the entry point of the line from the west, Madhya Pradesh contains the longest stretch of the line, and it also crosses through the heart of West Bengal before entering Bangladesh.

 Additional Information

• Geographical Characteristics:
• The Mahi River is the only river in India that cuts the Tropic of Cancer twice, first in Madhya Pradesh and then in Gujarat.
• The city of Udaipur in Tripura is considered the city closest to the Tropic of Cancer in India.
• While the line passes through 8 states, Madhya Pradesh has the maximum length of the line, while Rajasthan has the minimum length.
• The Standard Meridian of India (82.5 degrees East) and the Tropic of Cancer intersect each other at Koriya district in Chhattisgarh.

The correct answer is Algeria.

Key Points

• Algeria was officially authorized to join the New Development Bank (NDB), also known as the BRICS Bank, following an announcement by the bank's President, Dilma Rousseff, in August 2024.
• The decision was finalized during the 9^th Annual Meeting of the NDB Board of Governors held in Cape Town, South Africa.
• With this induction, Algeria becomes the 9^th member of the institution, joining the original five founding BRICS nations and the three countries that joined in the first expansion wave (Bangladesh, United Arab Emirates, and Egypt).
• The NDB was established in July 2014 at the 6^th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development in emerging markets.
• Algeria's membership is a strategic move to diversify its economy and gain access to new sources of infrastructure financing, given its status as a major global natural gas exporter and its robust macroeconomic performance.

 Additional Information

• Structure and History of NDB:
• Headquarters: The bank is located in Shanghai, China, and operates as a multilateral development bank.
• Founding Members: The original members are Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• Expansion Timeline: In 2021, the NDB admitted Bangladesh, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), and Egypt as new members. Uruguay was also admitted as a prospective member, but its final integration process is often counted separately from active full members like Algeria.
• Leadership: The current President of the NDB is Dilma Rousseff, who previously served as the President of Brazil.
• Authorized Capital: The bank was established with an initial authorized capital of 100 billion USD.
• Geopolitical Context: While the BRICS alliance expanded its core political membership in January 2024 (including countries like Iran and Ethiopia), the NDB operates as a separate financial entity with its own independent membership process.

The correct answer is Operating System.

Key Points

• An Operating System is classified as System Software, which acts as the fundamental interface between the computer hardware and the user.
• Unlike Application Software, which is designed to perform specific tasks for the end-user, system software manages the internal operations of the computer, such as memory management, process scheduling, and file storage.
• The Operating System provides a platform upon which application programs run; without an OS, software like word processors or web browsers cannot function because they lack direct access to CPU resources and input/output devices.
• Major examples of operating systems include Microsoft Windows, macOS, Linux, and mobile platforms like Android and iOS.
• Application software is typically installed on top of the Operating System to execute high-level functions, whereas the OS remains responsible for hardware abstraction and system security.

 Additional Information

• Microsoft Publisher
• It is an entry-level desktop publishing application that differs from Microsoft Word by focusing more on page layout and design.
• Users utilize it for creating marketing materials, brochures, and calendars.
• Microsoft Excel
• This is a spreadsheet application used for data organization, mathematical calculations, and graphing tools.
• It is a core component of the Microsoft Office productivity suite.
• Adobe Photoshop
• It is a professional raster graphics editor used for image manipulation, photo retouching, and digital art.
• It is considered the industry standard for graphic design and visual media production.

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji, widely known as the Grand Old Man of India, was the first person in pre-independence India to scientifically estimate the poverty line and discuss it in detail.
• In his seminal work titled Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, published in 1901, he highlighted the extreme economic distress and exploitation of the Indian population under the colonial administration.
• He formulated the famous Drain of Wealth theory, asserting that Britain was systematically siphoning off India's resources, capital, and wealth, which led to widespread famine and poverty.
• To quantify poverty, Naoroji used the jail cost of living as a proxy for the minimum subsistence level, arguing that even the diet provided to prisoners should be considered the baseline for survival.
• His calculations for the period 1867-68 suggested a poverty line ranging from Rs 16 to Rs 35 per capita per year, based on the prices of essential commodities like rice, flour, dal, ghee, and salt.
• He arrived at this figure by calculating the food requirements of an adult and adjusting it for the total population, including children, through a weighted average method.

 Additional Information

• Methodology of Estimation:
• Naoroji divided the population into two categories: producers (adults) and non-producers (children).
• He assumed children constituted one-third of the population and consumed very little, while the remaining two-thirds were adults who consumed the full jail diet.
• By taking the average of these groups, he derived the subsistence level required for a person to remain above the poverty line.
• Historical Context of Options:
• Mahatma Gandhi: Focused on the concept of Gram Swaraj and rural empowerment but did not formulate a statistical poverty line in a published book format like Naoroji.
• Jawaharlal Nehru: Chaired the National Planning Committee in 1938, which later worked on defining basic minimum standards of living, but this was decades after Naoroji's initial work.
• Rabindranath Tagore: While he contributed significantly to rural reconstruction through Sriniketan, his work was primarily social and philosophical rather than statistical economic analysis.
• Political Legacy:
• Naoroji was a co-founder of the Indian National Congress and served as its President in 1886, 1893, and 1906.
• He was also the first Indian to be elected as a member of the British House of Commons, representing the Liberal Party.

The correct answer is Proceedings are informal, flexible, and less technical.

Key Points

• In a Lok Adalat, legal representation is not a strict necessity as the forum encourages parties to interact directly with the presiding officers to reach a compromise. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Lok Adalat is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which allows it to bypass formal courtroom rigmarole and technical evidence rules. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The essence of a People’s Court lies in its informal, flexible, and less technical nature, which ensures that disputes are settled through a friendly dialogue and conciliation rather than adversarial litigation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• While Supreme Court judges can preside, sessions are usually led by sitting or retired judicial officers of various ranks, including District Judges and High Court judges, assisted by social workers and advocates. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Statutory Framework:
• Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
• The award passed by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court.
• Finality of Decision:
• The decision made by the Lok Adalat is final and binding on all parties involved.
• There is no provision for an appeal against the award in any higher court, as the settlement is based on mutual consent.
• Jurisdiction and Cost:
• They handle both cases pending in courts and those at the pre-litigation stage, such as marital disputes, land acquisition, and compoundable criminal offenses.
• There is no court fee involved; if a case is already in court and then settled in Lok Adalat, the original court fee paid is refunded to the parties.

The correct answer is Delhi Stock Exchange Ltd..

Key Points

• The Delhi Stock Exchange (DSE) was established in 1947 and was historically one of the premier stock exchanges in Northern India.
• On November 19, 2014, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) withdrew its recognition of the Delhi Stock Exchange Ltd., marking its exit from the stock trading business.
• The derecognition occurred because the exchange failed to comply with the Corporatization and Demutualization Scheme and failed to achieve the mandatory net worth and turnover criteria required for continuous operation.
• Under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, exchanges are required to maintain specific regulatory standards to protect investor interests; DSE was found non-compliant with these statutory requirements.
• Following its derecognition, the exchange was directed to provide an exit option to its shareholders and settle its administrative and financial liabilities.
• Consequently, the Delhi Stock Exchange Ltd., which is the fourth option provided, is no longer a functional stock exchange in the country.

 Additional Information

• National Stock Exchange of India Ltd. (NSE):
• Founded in 1992 and headquartered in Mumbai, it is the leading stock exchange in India and the world's largest derivatives exchange by volume.
• National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange Ltd. (NCDEX):
• An online multi-commodity exchange established in 2003, primarily focusing on the trading of agricultural commodities.
• Multi Commodity Exchange of India Ltd. (MCX):
• India's first listed exchange and the largest commodity derivatives exchange, facilitating the trading of energy, bullion, and base metals.

The correct answer is Spiti Valley.

Key Points

• Spiti Valley, located in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh, serves as the primary geographic area for the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, which attained international recognition under the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) in 2025.
• This biosphere reserve spans an extensive area of approximately 7,770 square kilometers and encompasses critical ecological zones including Pin Valley National Park, Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary, Sarchu, and the high-altitude wetland of Chandertal.
• The region is classified under the Trans-Himalayan biogeographic zone, characterized by extreme temperatures ranging from −30°C in winter to 20°C in summer, and receives negligible rainfall, making it a unique high-altitude cold desert ecosystem.
• It acts as a vital sanctuary for the conservation of the Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia), supporting a robust population alongside other rare species such as the Tibetan Wolf, Himalayan Ibex, Bharal (Blue Sheep), and the Snow Partridge.
• The UNESCO designation in 2025 highlights the valley's importance in balancing biodiversity conservation with the sustainable development of local Tibetan Buddhist communities who have coexisted with the wildlife for centuries.

 Additional Information

• Ladakh Wildlife Division:
• Manages the Hemis National Park, which is the largest national park in India and a major global site for Snow Leopard research.
• Focuses on the protection of the Tibetan Wild Ass (Kiang) and the Black-necked Crane in the high-altitude plateaus.
• Nubra Valley Reserve:
• Located in the Union Territory of Ladakh, it is famous for its unique cold desert sand dunes and the Shyok River.
• It is the natural habitat for the Bactrian Camels (double-humped camels), which are remnants of the ancient Silk Road trade era.
• Kargil Wildlife Sanctuary:
• Situated near the Line of Control (LoC), this area is critical for the survival of the Himalayan Brown Bear and the Long-tailed Marmot.
• It serves as a migratory corridor for various high-altitude avian species and rare medicinal plants like Aconitum.

The correct answer is Multitasking and reliability.

Key Points

• Multitasking is the capability of a computer system, particularly a Server, to process multiple tasks or user requests concurrently. In a computer lab, the server utilizes Time-Sharing techniques to switch between login processes so rapidly that it appears to handle all students at the same time.
• Reliability refers to the ability of the hardware and Operating System to perform consistently without failure. Handling requests without confusion signifies that the system maintains high accuracy and data integrity, ensuring that student A is not logged into student B's account.
• The scenario highlights the Multi-user nature of server environments where the Central Processing Unit (CPU) manages resource allocation across various network nodes efficiently.
• Servers are specifically designed with Redundancy and high Fault Tolerance to ensure that the influx of simultaneous data packets does not lead to a system crash or logic errors.

 Additional Information

• Versatility
• This refers to the computer's capacity to perform a wide variety of different jobs, such as Scientific Calculations, Multimedia playback, and Database Management, but it does not specifically define the simultaneous management of users.
• Portability
• This relates to the ease of moving a computing device from one location to another. While Laptops and Tablets are highly portable, lab servers are typically stationary Rack-mounted systems.
• Lack of memory
• This is a technical limitation or a deficit. To handle many logins effectively, a server requires substantial Random Access Memory (RAM) and Cache memory to store temporary session data for every active user.

The correct answer is It carries huge quantities of sediment from the Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Kosi River, an antecedent river originating in the high Himalayas (Tibet and Nepal), drains one of the most geologically unstable and erosion-prone mountain ranges in the world.
• Due to the steep mountain gradients and fragile lithology of its catchment area, the river carries an exceptionally high sediment load consisting of silt, sand, and boulders.
• When the river emerges from the foothills and enters the flat Indo-Gangetic plains of North Bihar, its flow velocity decreases drastically due to the sudden reduction in the slope.
• The reduced energy of the water makes it unable to transport the heavy debris, leading to massive sedimentation and the continuous rising of the riverbed, a process known as aggradation.
• As the riverbed becomes choked with silt, the river is forced to breach its natural levees and seek a new path with a lower elevation, resulting in frequent lateral channel shifts or avulsions.
• Historically, the Kosi has shifted its course westward by approximately 120 kilometers over the last 250 years, creating a massive alluvial fan known as the Kosi Mega-fan.

 Additional Information

• Sorrow of Bihar:
• The river is notorious for catastrophic flooding and unpredictable behavior, earning it the title Sorrow of Bihar because of the massive displacement of people and destruction of crops.
• Its major tributaries include the Sun Kosi, Arun, and Tamur, which join at the Triveni in Nepal to form the Saptakoshi.
• Tectonic and Climatic Factors:
• Unlike the Narmada and Tapi, which flow through tectonic rift valleys, the Kosi flows over a deep alluvial basin where shifting is primarily a function of siltation rather than structural rifts.
• While the Southwest Monsoon provides nearly 80 percent of the annual water discharge, the sediment dynamics remain the fundamental cause of the channel instability.
• The Kosi Barrage at Birpur was constructed to regulate flow and manage irrigation, but the high siltation rates continue to pose a major challenge to flood management infrastructure.

The correct answer is Sachin Tendulkar.

Key Points

• Playing It My Way is the official autobiography of the former Indian cricketer Sachin Ramesh Tendulkar, who is widely considered one of the greatest batsmen in the history of the sport.
• The book was released on 5 November 2014 and was co-authored by Boria Majumdar, a well-known Indian sports historian and journalist.
• It provides a detailed account of Tendulkar's twenty-four-year long international career, covering his childhood, his debut at the age of 16, and his journey to becoming the only player to score 100 international centuries.
• The autobiography covers significant milestones, including India's victory in the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup and his final retirement after his 200^th Test match against the West Indies at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai.
• The publication set a record in the Limca Book of Records for being the best-selling adult hardback in both fiction and non-fiction categories within the first few days of its release.

 Additional Information

• Mohammed Shahid:
• He was a legendary Indian Field Hockey player renowned for his exceptional dribbling skills and agility on the field.
• He was a vital member of the Indian team that secured the Gold Medal at the 1980 Moscow Olympics and was awarded the Arjuna Award and Padma Shri.
• Subhadra Pradhan:
• She is a former Indian Hockey player who played as a midfielder for the national women's team.
• She represented India in several prestigious international events, including the Commonwealth Games and the Asia Cup, earning the Player of the Tournament title at the 2009 Asia Cup.
• Debashish Mishra:
• He is a former First-Class cricketer from Odisha who played as a wicket-keeper batsman in the Ranji Trophy during the 1990s.

The correct answer is Dark-coloured surface.

Key Points

• A dark-coloured surface is highly efficient at absorbing thermal radiation. When sunlight or radiant heat hits a dark object, the surface absorbs a vast majority of the electromagnetic waves, converting them into heat energy rather than reflecting them.
• The process of absorption increases the kinetic energy of the molecules within the material, which results in a measurable rise in temperature. This physical property is why dark objects feel hotter to the touch when exposed to the sun.
• During winters, the ambient environment is cold, and the human body requires external heat to maintain homeostasis. Wearing clothes with a dark-coloured surface helps in trapping maximum solar energy, providing a natural warming effect.
• According to Kirchhoffs Law of thermal radiation, a good absorber of a particular wavelength is also a good emitter of that wavelength. However, the high rate of solar gain during daylight hours makes dark surfaces the optimal choice for staying warm in cold weather.

 Additional Information

• White surface:
• A white or light-coloured surface has a very high albedo, meaning it reflects most of the incident visible light and infrared radiation.
• Because these surfaces absorb minimal heat, they are preferred during summers to keep the body or buildings cool by preventing thermal gain.
• Shiny surface:
• Shiny surfaces, such as polished metals, act as excellent reflectors of radiant heat and have low emissivity.
• These are often used in vacuum flasks or emergency blankets to minimize heat transfer through radiation, effectively keeping hot things hot and cold things cold.
• Radiation:
• This is a mode of heat transfer that does not require a material medium for propagation, allowing solar energy to travel through the vacuum of space to reach the Earth.
• The colour and texture of a surface are the primary factors determining its efficiency in radiant heat exchange.

The correct answer is New Zealand.

Key Points

• Suzie Bates is a legendary opening batter and former captain of the New Zealand women's national cricket team, famously known as the White Ferns.
• She created history during the 2025 Women’s ODI World Cup by becoming the first woman cricketer to reach the milestone of 350 international matches, encompassing appearances across Tests, One Day Internationals (ODIs), and T20 Internationals (T20Is).
• Bates made her international debut for New Zealand in 2006 and has since established herself as one of the most durable and prolific players in the history of the sport.
• She holds the record for the highest number of runs scored in Women's T20 Internationals (WT20Is) and was named the ICC Women's ODI and T20I Cricketer of the Year in 2016.
• Beyond cricket, she is a dual-international athlete who represented New Zealand in basketball at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.

 Additional Information

• New Zealand (White Ferns):
• The team secured their first-ever ICC Women's T20 World Cup title in October 2024.
• They previously won the ICC Women's Cricket World Cup (ODI) in 2000.
• Australia:
• Home to iconic players like Ellyse Perry, who is also among the most-capped players globally.
• Australia remains the most successful team in women's cricket history with multiple World Cup trophies.
• England:
• England hosted and won the first-ever Women's World Cup in 1973.
• Key veteran players include Heather Knight and Danni Wyatt-Hockley.
• South Africa:
• Known as the Proteas, the team reached the finals of the 2023 T20 World Cup and the 2024 T20 World Cup.