General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 125 days.

Key Points

• The Viksit Bharat - Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, 2025 provides a statutory guarantee of 125 days of wage employment per financial year to every eligible rural household.
• This legislation is a significant enhancement over the previous framework, which provided a guarantee of 100 days under the MGNREGA.
• The Act aims to secure the right to work for adult members of rural households who volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
• It is designed to align rural development with the national vision of Viksit Bharat @2047, focusing on the creation of durable assets and sustainable livelihoods.
• The mission emphasizes saturation-based delivery, ensuring that no eligible rural worker remains without work when demanded.

 Additional Information

• Legislative Transition:
• The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 received the Presidential assent on December 21, 2025, and officially came into force on July 1, 2026.
• Upon its commencement, the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005, stood repealed.
• Financial and Wage Structure:
• The Act mandates a minimum base wage of ₹300 across all states, with the national average notified wage rising to ₹327.4 per day.
• It operates as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a funding ratio of 60:40 between the Centre and States (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan States).
• Implementation and Transparency:
• Planning is conducted at the Gram Panchayat level through the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan.
• The Act utilizes the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack for digitally integrated planning and biometric verification for transparency.
• If work is not provided within 15 days of application, the household is entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.

The correct answer is Varnam.

Key Points

• Dhrupad is the oldest and most traditional form of Hindustani classical music, characterized by its spiritual nature, austere structure, and use of the Pakhawaj. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Tappa is a style of Hindustani semi-classical music that features quick, complex, and rolling melodic patterns, originally derived from the folk songs of camel riders in the Punjab region. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Khyal is the modern and most popular genre of Hindustani vocal music, allowing for significant improvisational freedom and ornamentation within its Gharana traditions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Varnam is a foundational and complex musical form belonging exclusively to Carnatic music, the classical music tradition of South India, and is typically performed at the start of a concert. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Dhrupad:
• It reached its zenith in the court of Emperor Akbar with legendary musicians like Tansen.
• The performance usually begins with a long, slow Alap followed by rhythmic sections called Jor and Jhala.
• Khyal:
• The term originates from Persian, meaning imagination or thought.
• It is categorized into Bada Khyal (slow tempo) and Chhota Khyal (fast tempo), focusing on the Gayaki of specific Gharanas like Gwalior and Kirana.
• Tappa:
• It was refined and popularized by Shori Mian in the late 18^th century.
• The style is known for its Zamzama or rapid clusters of notes that require immense vocal control.
• Varnam:
• It acts as a complete guide to a Raga, containing its essential movements and phrases.
• Structural parts include the Pallavi, Anupallavi, Mukthayi Swara, and Charanam.

The correct answer is Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU).

Key Points

• The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is the primary subsystem of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) that performs all fundamental mathematical calculations and logical evaluations.
• Arithmetic operations handled by the ALU include addition, subtraction, multiplication (×), and division, which are processed using complex circuits like binary adders and accumulators.
• Logical operations involve Boolean logic and comparisons such as AND, OR, NOT, and XOR, as well as relational operations like equal to, greater than, or less than to facilitate branching in programming.
• The ALU operates on data retrieved from Internal Registers, and its output is typically stored back into an accumulator or general-purpose register before being sent to Main Memory.
• Functionally, the ALU uses a series of logic gates (transistors) to manipulate binary digits (bits) at nanosecond speeds, allowing modern processors to perform billions of operations per second (FLOPS).

 Additional Information

• Control Unit (CU):
• Serves as the manager of the processor, directing the timing and sequence of operations.
• It performs the Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle, retrieving instructions from memory and signaling the ALU on which operation to perform.
• Register:
• A high-speed, on-chip storage location that holds tiny amounts of data, such as instruction pointers or intermediate calculation results.
• Common types include the Program Counter (PC), Instruction Register (IR), and Memory Address Register (MAR).
• Main Memory (RAM):
• Known as Random Access Memory, it is a volatile storage medium located outside the CPU die.
• It stores the operating system, active software applications, and data currently required by the system, acting as a bridge between the Hard Drive and the CPU cache.

The correct answer is Policy challenges and opportunities for emerging markets in a shifting economic landscape.

Key Points

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) AlUla Conference on Emerging Market Economies, scheduled for 2025, is organized in collaboration with the Ministry of Finance of Saudi Arabia. It serves as a premier platform for global policymakers, central bank governors, and financial experts to discuss the unique economic position of Emerging Market Economies (EMEs).
• The central theme focuses on navigating the shifting economic landscape, which is characterized by geoeconomic fragmentation, volatile commodity prices, and the transition toward a decarbonized global economy.
• The conference addresses critical policy challenges such as maintaining fiscal sustainability, managing external debt, and calibrating monetary policy to combat inflation while supporting growth in a high-interest-rate environment.
• It also highlights opportunities for EMEs to harness digital transformation, improve labor productivity, and attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) through robust structural reforms.

 Additional Information

• International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
• Its core mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system, facilitate international trade, and provide financial assistance to member countries facing balance-of-payments problems.
• AlUla and Saudi Vision 2030
• Hosting such high-level dialogues in AlUla aligns with Saudi Arabia’s Vision 2030, which aims to diversify the kingdom’s economy and establish it as a global hub for investment and culture.
• AlUla is a historic UNESCO World Heritage site, symbolizing the bridge between ancient trade routes and modern economic cooperation.
• Emerging Market Economies (EMEs)
• EMEs are nations that are transitioning from developing to developed status, often characterized by rapid industrialization and high GDP growth rates.
• Key members of this group include nations from the G20, such as India, Brazil, Indonesia, and South Africa, which are increasingly influential in global governance.

The correct answer is Mridangam.

Key Points

• The Mridangam is a double-headed percussion instrument of ancient origin, widely regarded as the primary rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic classical music.
• It is classified under the Avanaddha Vadya category (membranophones) according to the Natya Shastra, which includes instruments where sound is produced by striking a stretched membrane.
• The body of the instrument is traditionally carved from a single block of jackfruit wood, and its two rhythmic heads are made of layers of skin connected by leather thongs.
• A unique feature of the Mridangam is the Soru (or Karanai), a permanent black paste applied to the center of the right head, which allows for the production of distinct harmonic overtones and precise pitching.
• In Indian mythology, the Mridangam is often depicted as the instrument of choice for Lord Ganesha and Nandi, the bull of Lord Shiva.

 Additional Information

• Flute:
• It is a Sushira Vadya (wind instrument) made from bamboo.
• In Indian music, it is known as the Bansuri in the Hindustani tradition and the Venu in the Carnatic tradition.
• Sound is generated by the vibration of air within the hollow tube when the player blows across the embouchure hole.
• Santoor:
• It is a Tata Vadya (string instrument), specifically a hammered dulcimer.
• Originating from Kashmir, it typically features 72 to 100 strings stretched over a trapezoidal wooden box.
• The player strikes the strings using a pair of lightweight wooden mallets known as Kalam.
• Veena:
• It is a prominent Tata Vadya (plucked string instrument) with several variations such as the Saraswati Veena and Rudra Veena.
• It is one of the oldest Indian instruments and is iconographically associated with Saraswati, the goddess of arts and knowledge.

The correct answer is 90 : 10.

Key Points

• The Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) is a flagship centrally sponsored scheme launched in 2015 to promote organic farming across India.
• It is implemented as a sub-component of the Soil Health Management (SHM) project under the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
• The funding pattern for the scheme is structured based on regional classification: for North-eastern States and the Himalayan States (including Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir), the financial assistance is shared in a ratio of 90 : 10 between the Central Government and the State Government.
• The scheme adopts a cluster-based approach to encourage farmers to adopt organic practices.

Each cluster comprises 50 or more farmers possessing a minimum of 50 acres of land.

• Under PKVY, farmers are provided financial assistance of 50,000 rupees per hectare for a 3-year period. A significant portion of this (31,000 rupees) is dedicated to organic inputs such as seeds, bio-fertilizers, and bio-pesticides through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
• The primary objective of the program is to produce chemical-free agricultural products by eliminating the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, thereby improving soil health and long-term sustainability.

 Additional Information

• 60 : 40 Funding Ratio:
• For all other states in India (General Category States), the financial assistance for PKVY is shared between the Center and the State in a 60 : 40 ratio.
• This follows the general fiscal sharing mechanism for Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• Participatory Guarantee System (PGS):
• Certification of organic products under PKVY is handled through the PGS-India system, which is a decentralized organic quality assurance tool.
• It involves peer-group certification, making it cost-effective for small and marginal farmers compared to expensive third-party export certifications.
• Union Territories:
• In the case of Union Territories (without legislature), the Government of India provides 100% financial assistance to ensure the complete adoption of organic agricultural techniques.

The correct answer is Restricting non-English publications to prevent criticism of British political actions.

Key Points

• The Vernacular Press Act was enacted in 1878 under the administration of Viceroy Lord Lytton to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language press.
• The primary objective of this act was to suppress the growing anti-colonial sentiment and nationalist propaganda that was being published in regional languages (vernaculars) across India.
• The British Government was particularly concerned about the harsh criticism regarding its handling of the Great Famine of 1876-1878 and the heavy expenditures incurred during the Second Anglo-Afghan War.
• The law empowered District Magistrates to require publishers to sign a bond promising not to publish anything likely to incite disaffection against the government or cause communal disharmony.
• This legislation was highly discriminatory as it provided no provision for judicial appeal and specifically exempted English-language newspapers from its stringent censorship requirements.

 Additional Information

• Lord Lytton (1876–1880):
• Apart from the Press Act, he passed the Indian Arms Act (1878), which made it a criminal offense for Indians to carry arms without a license.
• His tenure is often associated with reactionary policies that accelerated the Indian National Movement.
• Amrita Bazar Patrika:
• To escape the draconian provisions of the Act, this Bengali newspaper famously converted into an English weekly overnight.
• Repeal by Lord Ripon:
• The Act was eventually repealed in 1882 by Lord Ripon, who is remembered as a more liberal Viceroy who supported freedom of the press and local self-government.

The correct answer is Space and Meteorology.

Key Points

• Meteorology is the branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere, where supercomputers are indispensable for weather forecasting by processing massive datasets from satellites and weather stations.
• Computers in this field utilize Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) models, which solve complex mathematical equations based on physics and fluid dynamics to predict changes in the atmosphere.
• In the Space sector, high-performance computing systems are used for orbital mechanics, controlling satellite operations, and conducting simulations for spacecraft landings and atmospheric re-entry.
• Scientific research in these domains relies on High-Performance Computing (HPC) to analyze astronomical data, model the formation of galaxies, and study long-term climate change patterns.
• Simulation techniques allow scientists to create digital twins of environmental systems, enabling the prediction of natural disasters like cyclones, hurricanes, and floods with high accuracy.

 Additional Information

• Agriculture:
• Uses computers for Precision Farming, monitoring soil health via IoT sensors, and utilizing Geographic Information Systems (GIS) for crop yield mapping.
• Entertainment:
• Focuses on the use of computers for Visual Effects (VFX), 3D animation, digital gaming, and high-speed video streaming platforms.
• Sports Training:
• Employs computing technology for biomechanical analysis, tracking player performance using wearable technology, and strategic data analytics for match preparation.

The correct answer is Keshav Prasad Maurya.

Key Points

• Following the conclusion of the 2025 Bihar Legislative Assembly Elections, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) high command initiated the protocol to elect the leader of its legislative party in the state.
• Keshav Prasad Maurya, the Deputy Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, was officially appointed as the Central Observer for Bihar in November 2025 to facilitate this transition.
• The BJP Parliamentary Board designated him to oversee the meeting of newly elected MLAs and ensure a consensus-based selection for the position of Legislative Party Leader and potential Deputy Chief Ministerial candidates.
• As a senior OBC (Other Backward Classes) leader with extensive organizational experience, Keshav Prasad Maurya was chosen to represent the central leadership and manage the regional political dynamics between Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• The process involved detailed consultations with the state unit to align the Bihar leadership with the national BJP strategy, maintaining stability within the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) coalition.

 Additional Information

• Arjun Ram Meghwal:
• He is a senior leader from Rajasthan and serves as the Union Minister of Law and Justice in the Government of India.
• In November 2025, he was appointed as the Co-observer alongside Keshav Prasad Maurya to assist in the Bihar legislative party leader selection process.
• Yogi Adityanath:
• He is the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh and a member of the powerful BJP Parliamentary Board.
• While he was a Star Campaigner during the election, his role was focused on electoral mobilization rather than the administrative role of a central observer for the post-poll meeting.
• Sadhvi Niranjan Jyoti:
• She is a prominent BJP leader and former Union Minister who represents the Nishad community.
• Her political influence is primarily concentrated in the Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh, and she did not serve as an observer for the 2025 Bihar leadership selection.

The correct answer is To provide opportunities for education to a child or ward between ages six and fourteen.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties are incorporated in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution under Article 51A, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• The 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, introduced a significant change by adding the 11^th Fundamental Duty to the existing ten duties established earlier.
• This specific duty, listed under Article 51A(k), mandates that a parent or guardian must provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years.
• This amendment was a pivotal legislative step that coincided with the insertion of Article 21A, which transformed the Right to Education into a Fundamental Right for children in the same age group.

 Additional Information

• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
• This act originally added ten Fundamental Duties to the Constitution during the period of National Emergency.
• Scientific Temper: Under Article 51A(h), citizens are encouraged to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• Composite Culture: Article 51A(f) requires citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of the nation’s composite culture.
• Natural Environment: Article 51A(g) mandates the protection and improvement of the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.

The correct answer is Intangible Cultural Heritage.

Key Points

• Chhau dance is a vibrant tradition from Eastern India that was officially inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010.
• It is predominantly practiced in three distinct sub-styles named after their geographic origins: Seraikella Chhau in Jharkhand, Purulia Chhau in West Bengal, and Mayurbhanj Chhau in Odisha.
• The dance is a unique blend of martial arts, acrobatics, and storytelling, often depicting episodes from great Indian epics such as the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, as well as abstract themes like the cycle of seasons.
• While the Seraikella and Purulia styles are known for the use of elaborate masks that represent the characters, the Mayurbhanj style is performed without masks, relying instead on facial expressions and body movements.
• The performance is traditionally accompanied by rhythmic music played on folk instruments such as the Mohuri (reed instrument) and various drums like the Dhol, Dhumsa, and Nagada.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Cultural Recognitions
• Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH):
• This category refers to the practices, representations, expressions, knowledge, and skills that communities recognize as part of their cultural heritage.
• It was established by the UNESCO 2003 Convention to safeguard living heritage such as Vedic Chanting, Kumbh Mela, and Yoga.
• World Heritage Sites:
• Governed by the 1972 Convention, this category recognizes tangible locations like monuments, buildings, or natural sites of outstanding universal value.
• Examples include the Ajanta Caves, Sun Temple Konark, and Western Ghats.
• Cultural Landscape Heritage:
• A sub-classification under World Heritage Sites that focuses on the human-nature interaction and the evolution of human society under the influence of physical constraints or opportunities of their natural environment.

The correct answer is LVM3.

Key Points

• The LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3), formerly known as GSLV Mk III, is the heaviest and most powerful launch vehicle in the ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) fleet.
• On 2^nd November 2025, the LVM3 was utilized to successfully place the CMS-03 communication satellite into its designated Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• CMS-03 is a dedicated communication satellite designed to provide services in the extended C-band of the frequency spectrum, covering the Indian mainland and island territories.
• The LVM3 is a three-stage vehicle consisting of two S200 solid strap-on motors, an L110 liquid core stage, and a C25 cryogenic upper stage, enabling it to carry payloads up to 4,000 kg to GTO.
• This mission represents a critical step in strengthening India's self-reliance in launching heavy communication satellites, reducing dependence on foreign launch providers like Arianespace.

 Additional Information

• PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle):
• Often referred to as the Workhorse of ISRO, it is primarily used for launching Earth Observation and Remote Sensing satellites into Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits.
• While it launched CMS-01, it generally lacks the lift capacity for the heavier satellites in the CMS series designed for high-altitude orbits.
• GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle):
• A three-stage vehicle designed for placing medium-weight satellites into GTO, utilizing an indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS).
• Although capable of GTO missions, the LVM3 is preferred for the CMS-03 class of satellites due to its higher reliability and superior payload capacity.
• Agni:
• Agni is a family of medium to intercontinental-range Ballistic Missiles developed by DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
• It is a weapon system for national defense and is not used for civilian satellite launches or commercial space missions.

The correct answer is Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta.

Key Points

• The Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta, also known as the Ganges Delta or the Bengal Delta, is the largest river delta in the world, spanning approximately 105,000 square kilometers.
• It is formed by the confluence of three major rivers: the Ganges (known as the Padma in Bangladesh), the Brahmaputra (known as the Jamuna), and the Meghna, which empty into the Bay of Bengal.
• The delta is composed of highly fertile alluvial soil. Annual monsoon flooding deposits nutrient-rich silt across the plains, creating some of the most productive agricultural land on Earth.
• This immense agricultural productivity, particularly for rice and jute, provides the food security necessary to support Bangladesh’s extreme population density, which exceeds 1,200 persons per square kilometer.
• Approximately two-thirds of the delta lies within Bangladesh, making the country almost entirely dependent on this river system for its economy, transport, and water supply.

 Additional Information

• Nile River Valley:
• Located in Northeast Africa, it supports the majority of Egypt’s population.
• While it historically facilitated high population concentrations, it is geologically distinct and unrelated to the geography of South Asia.
• Amazon River Basin:
• Located in South America, it is the largest drainage basin in the world by discharge volume.
• Despite its size, it remains one of the most sparsely populated regions due to the dense Amazon Rainforest and leached, acidic soils.
• Mississippi River Plain:
• Located in the United States, it serves as a critical agricultural hub for North America.
• It utilizes high-tech industrial farming rather than the high-density subsistence and intensive labor farming seen in the Ganges Delta.

The correct answer is 74.04%.

Key Points

• According to the official data released by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner for the 2011 Census, the overall literacy rate in India stood at 74.04%.
• This marked a notable growth from the previous 2001 Census, which recorded a literacy rate of 64.83%.
• For the purpose of the Census, a person aged seven years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is counted as literate.

 Additional Information

• Gender-wise Literacy Breakdown:
• The male literacy rate was recorded at 82.14%.
• The female literacy rate was recorded at 65.46%.
• The gender gap in literacy narrowed from 21.59 percentage points in 2001 to 16.68 percentage points in 2011.
• State-wise Distribution:
• Kerala maintained its position as the state with the highest literacy rate in India at 94.00%, followed by the Union Territory of Lakshadweep at 91.85%.
• Bihar registered the lowest literacy rate at 61.80%, preceded by Arunachal Pradesh at 65.38% and Rajasthan at 66.11%.
• Historical Background:
• During the first census of independent India in 1951, the overall literacy rate was a mere 18.33%, indicating significant strides in educational progress over successive decades.

The correct answer is Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the fourth issue of its specialized publication titled 'Children in India 2025' on 25 September 2025.
• This publication is meticulously compiled by the Social Statistics Division (SSD) of the National Statistical Office (NSO), which functions as the primary statistical wing of MoSPI.
• The report provides a multi-dimensional perspective on the status of children in the country, focusing on four core thematic areas: Survival, Development, Protection, and Participation, aligning with the National Policy for Children (NPC) 2013.
• It serves as a comprehensive data repository, integrating statistics from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS), Sample Registration System (SRS), and various National Sample Surveys (NSS) to assist policymakers in monitoring child-centric indicators.
• The 2025 edition specifically evaluates India's progress toward achieving the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being) and SDG 4 (Quality Education), as they relate to the younger population.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD):
• It is the nodal ministry for formulating plans, policies, and programs for the development of women and children.
• Key initiatives include Mission Vatsalya for child protection and the POSHAN Abhiyaan to improve nutritional outcomes.
• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW):
• Responsible for healthcare delivery, including child immunization under Mission Indradhanush and monitoring the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR).
• It manages the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram.
• Ministry of Education:
• Focuses on improving the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) and learning outcomes through the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
• It is the implementing body for the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the PM POSHAN (Mid-Day Meal) scheme.

The correct answer is Dharmasthiya and Kantakashodhana.

Key Points

• The Arthashastra, written by Kautilya (Chanakya), provides a detailed blueprint of the Mauryan administration, including a specialized two-tier judicial system.
• Dharmasthiya courts were essentially civil courts that adjudicated disputes related to Vyavahara (legal procedures), covering matters like marriage, inheritance, debt, deposits, and labor disputes among citizens.
• The Kantakashodhana courts, meaning removal of thorns, functioned as criminal and administrative courts to protect the state and society from anti-social elements and bureaucratic corruption.
• The Dharmasthiya courts were presided over by three Dharmasthas (experts in sacred law), while Kantakashodhana courts were managed by three Pradeshtris (commissioners) who dealt with crimes such as theft, murder, and treason.
• These courts were established at various administrative levels, including the Sangrahana, Dronamukha, Sthaniya, and Janapada Sandhi, ensuring justice was accessible throughout the Mauryan Empire.

 Additional Information

• Sabha and Samiti:
• These were representative assemblies of the Vedic Period. The Sabha was an elite council of elders, while the Samiti was a broader assembly of the common people (Vis).
• Sangha and Gana:
• These terms refer to republican or oligarchic polities (Gana-Sanghas) that existed in ancient India, such as the Vrijji or Shakyas, where governance was shared among multiple chiefs.
• Mantriparishad:
• This was the Council of Ministers in the Mauryan state, which assisted the King in executive duties and policy implementation, as specified in Kautilya's administrative structure.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.

The correct answer is 2017.

Key Points

• India officially became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) on 9 June 2017.
• The induction took place during the Astana Summit held in Kazakhstan, where both India and Pakistan were admitted as the seventh and eighth full members of the group.
• Before becoming a full member, India maintained an observer status within the organization for 12 years, starting from the 2005 Astana Summit.
• The SCO is a significant Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance, and India’s membership was aimed at enhancing its strategic reach in Central Asia and addressing regional security concerns like terrorism.

 Additional Information

• Origins and Foundation:
• The SCO was founded on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai, China.
• The founding members included China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• It evolved from the Shanghai Five mechanism, which was established in 1996 to resolve border disputes between China and its neighbors.
• Core Objectives and Organs:
• The organization focuses on the Three Evils: terrorism, separatism, and extremism.
• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), based in Tashkent, is a permanent organ dedicated to security cooperation.
• The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the highest decision-making body that meets annually to discuss organizational priorities.
• Recent Expansions:
• Following the 2017 expansion, Iran became the ninth full member in July 2023 under India’s presidency.
• Belarus recently joined as the tenth full member during the 2024 Astana Summit.

The correct answer is Rock Edict XIII.

Key Points

• Rock Edict XIII is considered the most significant and the longest of the fourteen Major Rock Edicts issued by Emperor Ashoka of the Maurya Dynasty.
• This edict provides a detailed account of the Kalinga War, which occurred in the 8^th year of Ashoka's coronation, approximately in 261 BCE.
• It records the profound remorse (anutapa) and repentance felt by the Emperor after witnessing the massive scale of destruction, where 100,000 people were killed and 150,000 were deported.
• The inscription describes how the suffering of Brahmins, Shramanas, and householders moved Ashoka to abandon Sastra-vijaya (conquest by force) in favor of Dhamma-vijaya (conquest by righteousness).
• It is historically vital as it mentions five Greek (Yona) kings: Antiochus II of Syria, Ptolemy II of Egypt, Antigonus Gonatas of Macedonia, Magas of Cyrene, and Alexander of Epirus, confirming the international reach of Ashoka's Dhamma.
• The edict concludes with an appeal to his successors to forgo further military conquests and instead focus on the spread of moral conduct and piety.

 Additional Information

• Other Major Edicts:
• Rock Edict I: Primarily focuses on the prohibition of animal sacrifices and festive gatherings; it mentions that the slaughter of animals in the royal kitchen was significantly reduced.
• Rock Edict VII: Emphasizes religious tolerance and harmony among all sects, stating that all religions desire self-control and purity of mind.
• Pillar Edict V: Also known as the Delhi-Topra Pillar Edict, it provides a comprehensive list of animals, birds, and fish that were granted protection from killing on specific days.

The correct answer is 1858.

Key Points

• Rani Lakshmi Bai, originally named Manikarnika Tambe, was the queen of the Maratha-ruled princely state of Jhansi.
• She became a legendary figure in Indian history for her pivotal role in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, resisting British colonial rule.
• The conflict between the Rani and the British intensified after the death of her husband, Maharaja Gangadhar Rao, when the British refused to recognize her adopted son, Damodar Rao, as the legitimate heir.
• Following the siege of Jhansi Fort by British forces in early 1858, she made a daring escape and joined forces with other rebel leaders, including Tatya Tope.
• The Rani and her troops successfully captured the Gwalior Fort from the Scindias, who were British allies, making it a major stronghold for the rebels.
• She was killed in battle on June 18, 1858, while fighting the British 8^th Hussars at Kotah-ki-Serai near Gwalior.
• The British commander, Sir Hugh Rose, who led the campaign against her, remarkably praised her as the 'bravest and best military leader' of the rebellion.

 Additional Information

• Doctrine of Lapse:
• An annexation policy devised by Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India between 1848 and 1856.
• Under this policy, any princely state under the direct or indirect (paramount) control of the British East India Company where the ruler did not have a legal male heir would be annexed by the company.
• Sir Hugh Rose:
• The senior British Army officer who commanded the Central India Field Force.
• He was responsible for the suppression of the revolt in central India, including the capture of Jhansi and Gwalior.
• Gwalior Campaign:
• The final major phase of the 1857 Revolt in Central India where the Rani died, leading to the eventual restoration of British control over the region.

The correct answer is To examine bills and policies in detail.

Key Points

• Parliamentary Committees are established because the Indian Parliament is a large body with a vast workload and limited time, making it impossible to discuss every Bill or Policy in exhaustive detail on the floor of the House.
• These committees function as 'mini-parliaments' where members from different political parties deliberate in a non-partisan environment to provide Legislative Oversight over the Executive.
• The primary purpose is to undertake a technical and detailed scrutiny of legislative proposals, budgetary allocations, and departmental expenditures to ensure efficiency and accountability.
• They derive their authority from Article 105 (privileges of members) and Article 118 (power of each House to make rules for regulating its procedure) of the Constitution of India.
• Committees have the power to summon Government Officials, experts, and stakeholders to gather evidence, which helps in refining Public Policy before it is finalized.

 Additional Information

• Types of Committees:
• Standing Committees: These are permanent committees constituted annually. Examples include Financial Committees like the Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings.
• Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs): There are 24 such committees (16 for Lok Sabha and 8 for Rajya Sabha) that examine the Demands for Grants of various ministries.
• Ad-hoc Committees: Temporary committees created for a specific task, such as a Select Committee or a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), which dissolve after submitting their report.
• Election Supervision: This is the mandate of the Election Commission of India, an independent constitutional body established under Article 324, not a parliamentary committee.
• Ministerial Appointments: Ministers are appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister under Article 75; committees play no role in executive appointments.
• Constitutional Amendments: The power to amend the Constitution lies with the Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) through the process defined in Article 368, requiring specific majorities.