RRB Group D · Topic Collection

General Science PYQs

Core physics, chemistry, biology, human health, diseases, environmental science, and everyday scientific observations.

2600 Total Questions104 Official PapersYears: 2018–2026Search in General Science
Showing questions 101–120 of 2600Page 6 of 100
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 101

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is an example of addition reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chlorination of methane

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogenation of ethene

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrolysis of acetic acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Dehydration of alcohol

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hydrogenation of ethene

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogenation of ethene.

Key Points

  • An addition reaction is a type of organic reaction where two or more molecules combine to form a single larger molecule, typically occurring in compounds with multiple bonds (double or triple bonds).
  • Hydrogenation of ethene involves the addition of Hydrogen (H2) across the double bond of Ethene (C2H4) to form Ethane (C2H6) in the presence of a catalyst such as Nickel (Ni) or Palladium (Pd). Hence, the statement is correct.
  • Chlorination of methane is a classic example of a substitution reaction, where a hydrogen atom in the Methane (CH4) molecule is replaced by a Chlorine (Cl) atom. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
  • Dehydration of alcohol (e.g., ethanol to ethene) is an elimination reaction, where a molecule of water is removed from the substrate to form an alkene. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
  • Hydrolysis of acetic acid (or reaction with water) generally refers to its dissociation into ions or its formation from an ester, but it does not represent a standard addition reaction across a carbon-carbon double bond. Hence, the statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Unsaturated Hydrocarbons: Compounds like alkenes and alkynes are classified as unsaturated because they contain double or triple bonds. These bonds serve as active sites for addition reactions.
  • Saturated Hydrocarbons: Alkanes like methane and propane are saturated because they contain only single bonds. They typically undergo substitution reactions because there is no space to "add" more atoms without removing existing ones.
  • Industrial Application: The hydrogenation process is widely used in the food industry to convert liquid vegetable oils (which are unsaturated) into solid fats (which are saturated), such as Vanaspati ghee.
  • Role of Catalysts: Transition metals like Nickel, Platinum (Pt), and Palladium are essential in hydrogenation as they provide a surface for hydrogen gas to adsorb and react with the hydrocarbon, lowering the activation energy of the reaction.

Important Points

  • Reaction Mechanism: The addition reaction specifically converts a pi bond into sigma bonds. In the case of ethene, the pi bond between the two carbon atoms breaks to accommodate two new Hydrogen atoms.
  • Chlorination Conditions: For substitution to occur in methane, the presence of sunlight or ultraviolet (UV) light is usually required to break the Chlorine-Chlorine bond into free radicals.
  • Health Context: While hydrogenation is useful for food stability, the process can sometimes lead to the formation of trans-fats, which are associated with health risks such as heart disease.
  • Bromine Water Test: An addition reaction is often used to test for unsaturation. When bromine water is added to an alkene, the reddish-brown color disappears (decolorizes) as the bromine adds to the double bond.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 102

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is NOT caused by atmospheric refraction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sun appearing higher in sky than its actual geometric position

  2. BOption (b)

    Reddish colour of sun at sunrise / sunset

  3. COption (c)

    Twinkling of stars

  4. DOption (d)

    Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Reddish colour of sun at sunrise / sunset

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reddish colour of sun at sunrise / sunset.

Key Points

  • Atmospheric Refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light as it passes through the layers of the earth's atmosphere which have different optical densities.
  • Sun appearing higher in the sky: Due to atmospheric refraction, when the sun is near the horizon, the rays of light coming from it have to pass through layers of air with increasing refractive index. This causes the light to bend towards the normal, making the sun appear at a higher position than its actual geometric position. Hence, statement 1 is caused by atmospheric refraction.
  • Reddish colour of the sun at sunrise/sunset: This phenomenon occurs due to the Scattering of Light (specifically Rayleigh Scattering). During sunrise and sunset, sunlight travels a longer distance through the atmosphere. The shorter wavelengths (blue and violet) are scattered away by the air molecules, while the longer wavelengths (red and orange) reach our eyes. Hence, statement 2 is NOT caused by atmospheric refraction.
  • Twinkling of stars: Stars act as point sources of light located very far away. As the light enters the atmosphere, it undergoes continuous refraction due to changing temperature and density of air layers. This causes the apparent position and brightness of the star to fluctuate rapidly, creating the twinkling effect. Hence, statement 3 is caused by atmospheric refraction.
  • Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset: The sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise and 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of the bending of light. When the sun is slightly below the horizon, the atmosphere refracts the light downward toward the earth, allowing us to see the sun. Hence, statement 4 is caused by atmospheric refraction.

Additional Information

  • Scattering of Light: This is the process where light rays are deviated from their straight path upon striking obstacles like dust particles, water droplets, or gas molecules in the atmosphere.
  • Tyndall Effect: This is the scattering of light by colloidal particles. It explains why the path of a light beam becomes visible when passing through smoke or fog.
  • Blue Color of Sky: During the day, the fine particles in the atmosphere scatter the blue light (shorter wavelength) more strongly than red light, which is why the sky appears blue to an observer on Earth.
  • Refractive Index: It is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced inside a medium. In the atmosphere, the refractive index increases as we move from the rarer upper layers to the denser lower layers near the Earth's surface.

Important Points

  • Speed of Light: Light travels at approximately 3 × 10&sup8; m/s in a vacuum, but its speed decreases when it enters the Earth's atmosphere, causing it to refract.
  • Mirage: Another famous example of atmospheric refraction (combined with Total Internal Reflection) is a mirage, commonly seen in deserts or on hot tar roads during summer.
  • Visible Spectrum: The human eye can perceive wavelengths between approximately 400 nm (Violet) and 700 nm (Red). Red light has the longest wavelength and is scattered the least, which is why it is used for danger signals.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 103

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The distance between the pole and focus of a concave mirror is \( 30 \text{ cm} \). A real and inverted image is formed by this mirror on a screen at \( 40 \text{ cm} \) from the pole of this mirror. What will be the object distance?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( + 120/7 \text{ cm} \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( - 120/7 \text{ cm} \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( + 120 \text{ cm} \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( - 120 \text{ cm} \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

\( - 120 \text{ cm} \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 120 cm.

Key Points

  • According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the focal length (f) of a concave mirror is always considered negative. In this problem, the distance between the pole and focus is given as 30 cm, so f = -30 cm.
  • A real and inverted image is formed on a screen, which means the image is formed in front of the mirror. Therefore, the image distance (v) is also negative. Given the image is at 40 cm, we have v = -40 cm.
  • The Mirror Formula relates the focal length, image distance, and object distance: 1/f = 1/v + 1/u. Hence, the formula application is essential for this calculation.
  • Substituting the known values into the formula: 1/(-30) = 1/(-40) + 1/u. Rearranging for the object distance (u), we get 1/u = -1/30 - (-1/40), which simplifies to 1/u = -1/30 + 1/40.
  • Finding the common denominator (120): 1/u = (-4 + 3) / 120 = -1 / 120. Therefore, u = -120 cm. The negative sign indicates that the object is placed 120 cm in front of the mirror. Hence, the statement regarding the object distance being -120 cm is correct.

Additional Information

  • Concave Mirror: A concave mirror, or converging mirror, has a reflecting surface that is recessed inward. It reflects light inward to one focal point. These mirrors are used to focus light and are common in telescopes, shaving mirrors, and headlights.
  • Nature of Images:
  • If the object is placed beyond the Center of Curvature (C), the image is real, inverted, and diminished.
  • If the object is between C and Focus (F), the image is real, inverted, and magnified.
  • If the object is placed between the Pole (P) and F, the image is virtual, erect, and magnified.
  • Cartesian Sign Convention:
  • The object is always placed to the left of the mirror, making u always negative.
  • Distances measured in the direction of incident light are positive, and those opposite are negative.
  • The height measured upwards from the principal axis is positive, while downwards is negative.

Important Points

  • Magnification (m): It is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object. It is also given by the formula m = -v/u. For real images, m is negative, and for virtual images, m is positive.
  • Radius of Curvature (R): The distance from the pole to the center of curvature. There is a specific relationship where R = 2f. In this problem, the radius of curvature would be 60 cm.
  • Real vs Virtual Image: A real image can be obtained on a screen because the light rays actually intersect. A virtual image cannot be obtained on a screen as the light rays only appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror.
  • The unit of measurement must remain consistent throughout the calculation. Since the focal length and image distance were in cm, the result for the object distance is also in cm.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 104

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In which state of matter is the space between particles maximum ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Liquid

  2. BOption (b)

    Gas

  3. COption (c)

    All have equal space

  4. DOption (d)

    Solid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gas.

Key Points

  • In the gaseous state, the intermolecular space between the particles is maximum. This is because the intermolecular forces of attraction between the particles are very weak or almost negligible compared to solids and liquids.
  • Particles in a gas possess very high kinetic energy, which causes them to move randomly at high speeds in all directions. This rapid motion constantly pushes the particles away from each other, resulting in large empty spaces.
  • Due to these maximum spaces, gases do not have a definite shape or a definite volume; they expand to fill whatever container they are placed in.
  • The large distance between particles also makes gases highly compressible. For example, LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) and CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) are stored by compressing large volumes of gas into small cylinders. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • In contrast, the space between particles is minimum in solids because of very strong cohesive forces that hold the particles in fixed positions. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
  • In liquids, the space between particles is intermediate—more than solids but significantly less than gases. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Solid State:
  • Particles are arranged in a closely packed manner, often in a regular crystal lattice.
  • They have a definite shape, distinct boundaries, and fixed volumes.
  • The diffusion rate in solids is extremely low due to the lack of space for particle movement.
  • Liquid State:
  • Particles have more freedom of movement than in solids, allowing liquids to flow and change shape.
  • They have a fixed volume but take the shape of the container they occupy.
  • The intermolecular force is strong enough to keep the particles together but not strong enough to keep them in a fixed position.
  • Kinetic Theory of Matter:
  • This theory states that all matter is made up of tiny particles that are in constant motion.
  • As the temperature increases, the kinetic energy of the particles increases, which can lead to a change in the state of matter (e.g., melting or evaporation) by increasing the space between particles.
  • Other States of Matter:
  • Plasma: Often considered the fourth state of matter, it consists of super energetic and super excited particles in the form of ionized gases. It is found in stars and fluorescent tubes.
  • Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC): The fifth state of matter, formed by cooling a gas of extremely low density to super-low temperatures (near Absolute Zero).

Important Points

  • Density: Usually, the density of a substance is maximum in its solid state and minimum in its gaseous state because density is inversely proportional to the volume occupied by the particles.
  • Diffusion: The rate of diffusion is highest in gases because the particles move rapidly and there is a lot of space between them to mix with other particles.
  • Brownian Motion: This refers to the zig-zag motion of particles, which is most observable in gases and liquids due to the available space for movement.
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Question 105

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What is the most important condition for successful fragmentation reproduction in Spirogyra?

  1. AOption (a)

    Presence of reproductive organs in each fragment

  2. BOption (b)

    The ability of fragments to form seeds

  3. COption (c)

    Each fragment possessing the capability to perform basic life functions

  4. DOption (d)

    Availability of a fully developed vascular system

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Each fragment possessing the capability to perform basic life functions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Each fragment possessing the capability to perform basic life functions.

Key Points

  • Spirogyra is a genus of filamentous green algae belonging to the order Zygnematales. It is widely known for its characteristic spiral or helical arrangement of chloroplasts.
  • In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction occurs primarily through a process known as fragmentation. In this process, the vegetative body (filament) simply breaks into smaller pieces or fragments upon reaching maturity.
  • The fundamental condition for successful fragmentation is that each fragment must contain the necessary cellular machinery to sustain itself. Because Spirogyra is a simple multicellular organism, each cell within the filament is relatively autonomous and capable of performing metabolism, growth, and cell division.
  • Once a fragment is separated, it undergoes repeated mitotic cell divisions to develop into a full-sized, new filament. This allows the organism to multiply rapidly in favorable environmental conditions.
  • Unlike higher plants, Spirogyra does not require specialized reproductive organs like flowers or seeds for this type of reproduction. As a member of the Thallophyta group, it also lacks a vascular system (xylem and phloem).

Additional Information

  • Morphology and Structure: Spirogyra is often called "water silk" or "pond scum" due to its bright green, slimy appearance. The slipperiness is due to a thick mucilage coating on the outer cell wall, which protects the filament from epiphytes and pathogens.
  • Habitat: It is typically found in freshwater environments such as ponds, lakes, and slow-moving streams. It thrives in clear, stagnant water where sunlight is abundant for photosynthesis.
  • Sexual Reproduction: While fragmentation is the common asexual method, Spirogyra also reproduces sexually through a process called conjugation. This involves the fusion of two non-flagellated gametes (isogamy), resulting in the formation of a thick-walled zygospore that can survive harsh conditions.
  • Chloroplasts and Pyrenoids: The chloroplasts are ribbon-shaped and contain small round bodies called pyrenoids. These pyrenoids are responsible for the storage of starch and the synthesis of proteins.
  • Cell Wall Composition: The cell wall is composed of two distinct layers: an inner layer made of cellulose and an outer layer made of pectose. The pectose layer eventually turns into pectin and dissolves in water to form the slimy sheath.

Important Points

  • Classification: It belongs to the Kingdom Plantae and the division Thallophyta. The name is derived from the Greek words "spira" (spiral) and "gyros" (circle).
  • Regeneration Capability: The success of fragmentation is a testament to the high regenerative capacity of simple multicellular organisms. As long as a fragment contains at least one healthy cell with a nucleus and cytoplasm, it can regenerate an entire organism.
  • Ecological Role: As a primary producer, Spirogyra plays a vital role in aquatic ecosystems by producing oxygen through photosynthesis and serving as a food source for various aquatic insects and small fish.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 106

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which cells in xylem are primarily responsible for the vertical transport of water and minerals in plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Xylem fibres

  2. BOption (b)

    Companion cells

  3. COption (c)

    Tracheids and vessels

  4. DOption (d)

    Sieve tubes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tracheids and vessels

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tracheids and vessels.

Key Points

  • Xylem is a complex permanent tissue in vascular plants primarily responsible for the conduction of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
  • Tracheids and vessels are the two main types of conducting elements in the xylem. They are both dead cells at maturity and lack protoplasm, creating a hollow path for efficient liquid movement. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Tracheids are elongated, tube-like cells with thick, lignified walls and tapering ends. Water moves between tracheids through pits in their cell walls. They are found in all vascular plants, including Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms.
  • Vessels are long, cylindrical structures that result from the fusion of several cells called vessel members. These members are interconnected through perforation plates in their common walls, allowing for a more streamlined and high-volume vertical transport compared to tracheids.
  • While Tracheids provide a degree of mechanical support, their primary function, alongside Vessels, is the ascent of sap. Most Angiosperms (flowering plants) possess both, whereas vessels are typically absent in most gymnosperms.

Additional Information

  • Xylem Fibres: These cells have highly thickened walls and obliterated central lumens. Their primary function is to provide mechanical strength and structural support to the plant body, rather than active transport. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
  • Xylem Parenchyma: These are the only living cells in the xylem tissue. They are thin-walled and primarily involved in the storage of food materials like starch and fats, and the radial conduction of water.
  • Sieve Tubes: These are the main conducting elements of the Phloem. They are long, tube-like structures arranged longitudinally, responsible for the transport of organic nutrients (food) from leaves to other parts. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
  • Companion Cells: These are specialized parenchymatous cells associated with sieve tube elements in the phloem. They help maintain the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes for food transport. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.

Important Points

  • Lignification: The cell walls of tracheids and vessels are heavily impregnated with lignin, a complex polymer that provides rigidity and prevents the cells from collapsing under the negative pressure (tension) created by transpiration.
  • Unidirectional Flow: Unlike the phloem, where transport can be multidirectional, the transport of water and minerals in the xylem is strictly unidirectional, moving from roots to shoots.
  • Ascent of Sap: The movement of water through tracheids and vessels is driven by physical forces such as transpiration pull, capillary action, and root pressure. Transpiration pull is the primary driver in tall trees, pulling water upward through the continuous xylem columns.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 107

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The heating effect of electric current is least in _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Copper

  2. BOption (b)

    Iron

  3. COption (c)

    Nichrome

  4. DOption (d)

    Tungsten

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Copper

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Copper.

Key Points

  • The heating effect of electric current, also known as Joule heating, is governed by the formula H = I^2Rt, where H is the heat produced, I is the current, R is the resistance, and t is the time for which the current flows.
  • According to this law, the amount of heat generated in a conductor is directly proportional to its electrical resistance. Therefore, a material with lower resistance will produce less heat when the same amount of current passes through it.
  • Copper is known for having very low electrical resistivity (approximately 1.68 x 10^-8 Ohm-m at 20 degrees Celsius), which makes it an excellent conductor of electricity. Because its resistance is minimal, the heating effect is least in copper compared to the other options provided. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Iron has a significantly higher resistivity (about 1.0 x 10^-7 Ohm-m) than copper. This means an iron wire will offer more resistance to the flow of electrons and consequently generate more heat than a copper wire of the same dimensions. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Nichrome is an alloy of Nickel and Chromium designed specifically to have high resistance and a high melting point. It is used in heating elements like toasters and room heaters because it produces a large amount of heat. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Tungsten has a resistivity of approximately 5.6 x 10^-8 Ohm-m. While it is a good conductor, its resistance is still higher than that of copper, and it is famously used in incandescent bulb filaments because it can withstand high temperatures while producing light and heat. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Electrical Resistivity: This is a fundamental property of a material that quantifies how strongly it resists or conducts electric current. It is denoted by the Greek letter rho (ρ). Metals like Silver and Copper have the lowest resistivity, making them the best conductors.
  • Applications of Copper: Due to its high conductivity and low heat dissipation, copper is the primary material used in domestic electrical wiring, power cables, and printed circuit boards (PCBs). Using copper ensures that energy loss in the form of heat is minimized during transmission.
  • Heating Elements (Nichrome): In appliances where heat is the desired output, materials with high resistivity are preferred. Nichrome is ideal for this because it does not oxidize easily at high temperatures, allowing it to remain functional even when glowing red hot in a heater.
  • Tungsten in Bulbs: Tungsten is chosen for light bulb filaments not because it has the least heating effect, but because of its extremely high melting point (about 3422 degrees Celsius). This allows the filament to reach temperatures high enough to emit visible light without melting.
  • Factors Influencing Resistance: The resistance of a conductor depends on its length, area of cross-section, the nature of the material, and temperature. For most metals, resistance increases as the temperature rises.

Important Points

  • Silver is actually the best conductor of electricity, with even lower resistivity than copper. however, Copper is more widely used in electrical applications because it is much more cost-effective and abundant.
  • The Joule effect is utilized in safety devices like Electric Fuses. A fuse wire is made of an alloy with a low melting point; when the current exceeds a safe limit, the heat produced melts the wire and breaks the circuit to prevent fire or damage.
  • Power Loss: In large-scale power distribution, the heat generated in wires (I^2R loss) is a major concern. To reduce this, electricity is transmitted at high voltages and low currents over long distances using transformers.
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Question 108

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A race car starting from rest accelerates uniformly. If the car covers 22.5 m in the 5th second of its motion, what is the total distance covered at the end of 10 seconds?

  1. AOption (a)

    450 m

  2. BOption (b)

    250 m

  3. COption (c)

    375 m

  4. DOption (d)

    300 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

250 m

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 250 m.

Key Points

  • To find the total distance, we first need to determine the acceleration of the race car using the formula for distance covered in the nth second of motion.
  • The formula for the distance covered in the nth second is given by: Sn = u + a/2 (2n - 1), where u is the initial velocity, a is the uniform acceleration, and n is the time in seconds.
  • Given that the car starts from rest, the initial velocity (u) is 0 m/s. The car covers 22.5 m in the 5th second (n = 5). Substituting these values: 22.5 = 0 + a/2 (2 * 5 - 1).
  • Solving for acceleration: 22.5 = a/2 (9), which simplifies to 22.5 = 4.5a. Therefore, the acceleration (a) is 5 m/s².
  • Now, to find the total distance covered at the end of 10 seconds, we use the second equation of motion: S = ut + 1/2 at².
  • Substituting the known values (u = 0, a = 5, t = 10): S = (0 * 10) + 1/2 * 5 * (10)². This results in S = 1/2 * 5 * 100, which equals 250 m. Hence, the correct answer is 250 m.

Additional Information

  • Equations of Motion:
  • These equations describe the behavior of a physical system in terms of its motion as a function of time. They are valid only when the acceleration is constant (uniform).
  • The three primary equations are: v = u + at, S = ut + 1/2 at², and v² = u² + 2aS.
  • Uniform Acceleration:
  • This occurs when the velocity of an object changes by an equal amount in every equal time interval. In this problem, the race car's acceleration remains 5 m/s² throughout the 10 seconds.
  • Initial Velocity (u):
  • In physics problems, the phrase "starting from rest" is a key indicator that the initial velocity is 0. If an object comes to a stop, the final velocity (v) becomes 0.
  • Displacement vs. Distance:
  • While often used interchangeably in straight-line motion without a change in direction, displacement is a vector quantity (shortest path), whereas distance is a scalar quantity (total path covered).

Important Points

  • Nth second calculation: It is important to distinguish between the distance covered "in 10 seconds" and the distance covered "in the 10th second". The former is the cumulative sum from 0 to 10, while the latter is only the movement between second 9 and second 10.
  • Units: Always ensure that the units are consistent. In this problem, distance is in meters (m) and time is in seconds (s), so the resulting acceleration is in meters per second squared (m/s²).
  • Linear Relationship: For an object starting from rest with uniform acceleration, the total distance covered is directly proportional to the square of the time (S ∝ t²).
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Question 109

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What is the typical oxide used along with aluminium in a thermite reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnesium oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper oxide

  3. COption (c)

    Zinc oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Iron (III) oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Iron (III) oxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iron (III) oxide.

Key Points

  • A thermite reaction is a highly exothermic chemical reaction between a metal powder and a metal oxide. The most common and typical version involves Aluminium powder and Iron (III) oxide (Fe2O3).
  • In this process, Aluminium acts as a strong reducing agent because it has a higher affinity for oxygen than iron. It reduces the Iron (III) oxide to produce molten iron and Aluminium oxide (Al2O3).
  • The reaction is represented by the chemical equation: Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe + Heat. The heat generated is so intense that the iron produced is in a liquid (molten) state.
  • Because of the production of molten iron, this reaction is extensively used for welding broken railway tracks and heavy machinery parts on-site where traditional welding is difficult.
  • While other metal oxides like Copper oxide or Chromium oxide can technically undergo similar reactions with aluminium, Iron (III) oxide is the standard "thermite" component used in industrial and civil engineering applications. Hence, the correct answer is Iron (III) oxide.

Additional Information

  • History and Discovery: The thermite process was discovered and patented by the German chemist Hans Goldschmidt in the year 1893. It is often referred to as the Goldschmidt reaction or the aluminothermic process.
  • Temperature: The reaction can reach temperatures of approximately 2500°C (4500°F), which is sufficient to melt almost any metal.
  • Ignition: Thermite is stable at room temperature and requires a very high activation energy to start. Typically, a Magnesium ribbon or a mixture of Potassium Permanganate and Glycerin is used as a fuse to provide the initial heat required for ignition.
  • Applications:
  • Railway Industry: Used for Thermite Welding (or Exothermic Welding) to join rails together, ensuring a smooth surface for trains.
  • Military: Used in incendiary weapons and grenades to destroy enemy equipment, as the molten iron can melt through thick armor or engine blocks.
  • Metallurgy: Employed in the reduction of ores for metals that are difficult to extract using carbon, such as Chromium and Manganese.

Important Points

  • Redox Nature: The thermite reaction is a classic example of a Redox (Reduction-Oxidation) reaction and a displacement reaction, where a more reactive metal (Aluminium) displaces a less reactive metal (Iron) from its oxide.
  • Reactivity Series: The success of the reaction depends on Aluminium being positioned higher than Iron in the reactivity series of metals.
  • Safety: Due to the extreme temperatures and the fact that it is nearly impossible to extinguish once started (as it carries its own supply of oxygen within the metal oxide), it poses significant fire hazards and requires specialized safety protocols.
  • States of Matter: The reactants are usually in powdered form to increase the surface area, ensuring a faster and more consistent reaction rate upon ignition.
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Question 110

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following types of ore is pyrite?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nitrate

  2. BOption (b)

    Sulphide

  3. COption (c)

    Halide

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sulphide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sulphide.

Key Points

  • Pyrite, chemically known as iron disulfide with the formula FeS2, is the most common mineral in the sulfide group. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • It is widely distributed across various geological environments, including sedimentary, metamorphic, and igneous rocks.
  • The mineral is characterized by its metallic luster and a pale brass-yellow color, which often leads to it being mistaken for gold.
  • Due to this resemblance and its deceptive appearance, it is famously nicknamed Fool's Gold.
  • The name is derived from the Greek word "pyrites lithos", which means "stone which strikes fire", referring to the sparks it produces when hit against steel or iron.
  • Pyrite typically crystallizes in the isometric (cubic) system, frequently forming distinct cubic crystals with striated faces.

Additional Information

  • Nitrate Ores:
  • These are minerals where nitrogen and oxygen form the NO3 ion. Because they are highly water-soluble, they are rarely found in large deposits except in arid regions.
  • An example is Chile Saltpeter (Sodium Nitrate, NaNO3), found in the Atacama Desert. Pyrite does not contain nitrate groups. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Halide Ores:
  • These minerals are defined by the presence of halogen elements such as fluorine, chlorine, bromine, or iodine as the primary anions.
  • Examples include Halite (Rock Salt, NaCl), Fluorite (CaF2), and Cryolite (Na3AlF6). Pyrite is not a halide mineral. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Oxide Ores:
  • In these ores, oxygen is the main anion combined with one or more metals.
  • Common examples include Hematite (Fe2O3), Magnetite (Fe3O4), and Bauxite (Al2O3.nH2O). Although Pyrite contains iron, its primary anion is sulfur, not oxygen. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

  • Industrial Uses: Despite being an iron mineral, pyrite is not used as a primary source of iron for steel production because the sulfur content is difficult and expensive to remove. It is primarily used for the commercial production of sulfuric acid (H2SO4).
  • Physical Properties: Pyrite has a Mohs hardness of 6 to 6.5, whereas real gold is much softer with a hardness of 2.5 to 3. Its streak is greenish-black to brownish-black, unlike gold's golden-yellow streak.
  • Environmental Impact: When pyrite is exposed to air and water during mining, it reacts to form sulfuric acid and ferric hydroxide, leading to a phenomenon known as Acid Mine Drainage (AMD), which can severely pollute local waterways.
  • Detection: In mineralogy, pyrite is often used as a pathfinder mineral in the exploration of gold, copper, and zinc deposits.
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Question 111

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

If the velocity of a car increases from 20 m/s to 40 m/s in 4 seconds, the acceleration of the car is _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    5 m/s²

  3. COption (c)

    5 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    10 m/s²

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5 m/s²

Why this answer is correct

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is 5 m/s².

 

Key Points

  • Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity of an object with respect to time.
  • To find the acceleration in this problem, we use the standard formula: a = (v - u) / t, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, and t is the time taken.
  • Based on the question, the Initial Velocity (u) is 20 m/s and the Final Velocity (v) is 40 m/s.
  • The Time interval (t) given for this change is 4 seconds.
  • Substituting the values into the formula: a = (40 - 20) / 4. This results in 20 / 4, which equals 5.
  • The unit of velocity is m/s and time is s, therefore the SI unit for acceleration is m/s² (meters per second squared). Hence, the correct answer is 5 m/s².

Additional Information

  • Concept of Acceleration:
  • Acceleration is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction.
  • If the velocity of an object increases, the acceleration is positive and acts in the direction of motion.
  • If the velocity of an object decreases, it is known as deceleration or retardation, and the value is negative.
  • In uniform circular motion, even if the speed is constant, the object is accelerating because its direction is constantly changing.
  • Velocity and Speed:
  • Velocity is the displacement of an object per unit time. It is different from speed because speed is a scalar quantity and does not account for direction.
  • The average velocity can be calculated by dividing the total displacement by the total time taken.
  • Newton's Second Law of Motion:
  • The force (F) acting on an object is equal to the mass (m) of that object times its acceleration (a). The formula is written as F = ma.
  • This law highlights that acceleration is directly proportional to the net force and inversely proportional to the mass.

Important Points

  • Units of Measurement:
  • It is crucial to distinguish between m/s (unit of velocity/speed) and m/s² (unit of acceleration).
  • Option 3 mentions 5 m/s, which is a velocity value, not an acceleration value. Always check the numerical value along with its unit.
  • Equations of Motion:
  • The formula used (v = u + at) is the first equation of motion for objects moving with uniform acceleration.
  • Other equations include s = ut + 1/2 at² (for distance) and v² = u² + 2as (relating velocity, acceleration, and distance).
  • These equations were formulated to describe the kinematics of particles moving in a straight line.
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Question 112

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which statement best defines a combination reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two or more reactants combine to form a single product.

  2. BOption (b)

    One element displaces another element from its compound.

  3. COption (c)

    Two compounds exchange ions to form new compounds.

  4. DOption (d)

    Two reactants break down into simpler products.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Two or more reactants combine to form a single product.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Two or more reactants combine to form a single product.

Key Points

  • A combination reaction, which is also frequently referred to as a synthesis reaction, is a fundamental chemical process where two or more simple substances (either elements or compounds) react together to generate a single, more complex product. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The general symbolic representation for a combination reaction is A + B → AB, where the reactants A and B merge their atomic or molecular structures to form the new substance AB.
  • A well-known example of this reaction is the burning of coal in the presence of oxygen. When carbon (C) reacts with oxygen (O2), it produces carbon dioxide (CO2) as the sole product.
  • Another classic demonstration involves magnesium ribbon. When magnesium (Mg) is heated in air, it combines with oxygen to form a white powder known as magnesium oxide (MgO).
  • The reaction between quicklime (calcium oxide, CaO) and water (H2O) to form slaked lime (calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2) is a vigorous combination reaction that releases a significant amount of thermal energy.

Additional Information

  • Exothermic Nature: A significant number of combination reactions are exothermic in nature, meaning they involve the evolution of heat. This happens because the energy released during the formation of new bonds in the product is greater than the energy required to break the bonds in the reactants.
  • Displacement Reaction: This occurs when a more reactive element removes or displaces a less reactive element from its compound. For example, when iron (Fe) is placed in a copper sulfate (CuSO4) solution, it displaces copper. Hence, statement 2 describes a displacement reaction and is incorrect for this context.
  • Double Displacement Reaction: This type of reaction involves an exchange of ions between two different compounds to form two new compounds. These often result in the formation of an insoluble solid called a precipitate. Hence, statement 3 describes a double displacement reaction and is incorrect for this context.
  • Decomposition Reaction: This is essentially the reverse of a combination reaction. In a decomposition reaction, a single reactant breaks down into two or more simpler substances, usually requiring energy in the form of heat, light, or electricity. Hence, statement 4 relates to a decomposition process and is incorrect for this context.

Important Points

  • Classification of Combination Reactions:
  • Between two elements: For instance, hydrogen (H2) gas combining with chlorine (Cl2) gas to form hydrogen chloride (HCl).
  • Between two compounds: For example, the reaction between ammonia (NH3) and hydrogen chloride (HCl) to form ammonium chloride (NH4Cl).
  • Between an element and a compound: Such as carbon monoxide (CO) reacting with oxygen (O2) to produce carbon dioxide (CO2).
  • Industrial Significance: Combination reactions are the backbone of many industrial processes, such as the Haber Process for the synthesis of ammonia (NH3) from nitrogen and hydrogen, which is vital for fertilizer production.
  • Bond Formation: In these reactions, the chemical potential energy of the system typically decreases as the atoms achieve a more stable configuration in the single product formed.
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Question 113

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Imagine a country continues to use CFCs despite the global agreement. What could be the consequences for that country and the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    No effect, as other countries have stopped using CFCs

  2. BOption (b)

    Environmental harm and global criticism

  3. COption (c)

    Faster industrial development

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase in rainfall

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Environmental harm and global criticism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Environmental harm and global criticism.

Key Points

  • The continued use of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) leads to the severe depletion of the Ozone Layer located in the stratosphere. This layer acts as a shield, absorbing the majority of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Hence, the statement regarding environmental harm is correct.
  • The Montreal Protocol, an international treaty signed in September 1987, mandates the phase-out of Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS). Any country that continues to use CFCs violates this global consensus, leading to diplomatic isolation and global criticism. Hence, the statement regarding global criticism is correct.
  • Exposure to increased UV-B radiation due to ozone thinning is linked to higher incidences of skin cancer, cataracts, and weakened immune systems in humans.
  • CFCs are also highly potent greenhouse gases. Their continued emission would accelerate global warming, as they have a Global Warming Potential (GWP) thousands of times higher than carbon dioxide (CO2).
  • Non-compliance with the Montreal Protocol can result in trade sanctions and the loss of financial assistance from the Multilateral Fund, which helps developing nations transition to ozone-friendly technologies.

Additional Information

  • Chemical Composition of CFCs:
  • CFCs are organic compounds that contain carbon, chlorine, and fluorine. They were widely used as refrigerants, propellants in aerosol cans, and solvents.
  • Because they are non-flammable and non-toxic at the ground level, they were considered "miracle chemicals" until their impact on the stratosphere was discovered.
  • The Ozone Hole:
  • The most significant depletion of ozone occurs over Antarctica during the spring, leading to what is commonly known as the Ozone Hole.
  • In 1985, scientists from the British Antarctic Survey first reported the dramatic thinning of the ozone layer, which spurred the creation of the Vienna Convention.
  • Mechanism of Destruction:
  • When CFCs reach the stratosphere, UV radiation breaks them down, releasing chlorine atoms.
  • A single chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 ozone molecules (O3) before it is removed from the atmosphere.
  • Alternatives to CFCs:
  • Initial replacements were Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), which also deplete ozone but to a lesser extent.
  • The current industry standard involves Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs); however, while they do not deplete ozone, they are strong greenhouse gases. This led to the Kigali Amendment in 2016 to phase down HFCs.

Important Points

  • Atmospheric Lifetime: CFCs are extremely stable and can remain in the atmosphere for 50 to 100 years, meaning the damage caused today will persist for several generations.
  • Ecological Impact: Increased UV radiation harms phytoplankton, the foundation of the marine food chain, and reduces the yield of sensitive crops like rice, wheat, and soybeans.
  • Vienna Convention (1985): This was the first international framework for the protection of the ozone layer, which later led to the legally binding Montreal Protocol.
  • World Ozone Day: Celebrated annually on September 16 to commemorate the date of the signing of the Montreal Protocol and to spread awareness about ozone preservation.
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Question 114

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for work to be done according to science?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only the object moves, even if no force is applied.

  2. BOption (b)

    A force must act on an object, and the object must be displaced.

  3. COption (c)

    Only a force is applied, even if the object does not move.

  4. DOption (d)

    The object is at rest, and a force is applied.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A force must act on an object, and the object must be displaced.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A force must act on an object, and the object must be displaced.

Key Points

  • In the field of Physics, the term Work describes a specific process where energy is transferred. For work to be scientifically recognized as "done," two essential conditions must be simultaneously satisfied: an external Force must be applied, and the object must undergo Displacement in the direction of the force.
  • A force must act on an object to initiate or change its state of motion. If there is no force, no scientific work can be attributed to an agent. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The object must move through a certain distance, known as displacement. If an individual exerts a massive amount of force against a stationary wall and the wall does not move, the displacement is zero, and thus no work is done. Hence, statement 3 and statement 4 are incorrect.
  • The correct scientific condition requires both the presence of an acting force and a resulting displacement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Furthermore, for work to be non-zero, the force must have a component that is not perpendicular to the direction of motion. If the force is applied at 90 degrees to the displacement, the work done is zero.

Additional Information

  • Mathematical Formula: The amount of work done is calculated using the formula W = Fs cos θ, where W is work, F is the magnitude of the force, s is the displacement, and θ is the angle between the force and the displacement vectors.
  • SI Unit: The standard unit of work is the Joule (J). One Joule is defined as the work done when a force of one Newton (N) displaces an object by one meter (m).
  • Nature of Quantity: Work is a scalar quantity. While both force and displacement are vector quantities, their dot product (work) only has magnitude and no direction.
  • Types of Work:
  • Positive Work: When the force and displacement are in the same direction (angle 0°), such as an object falling under gravity.
  • Negative Work: When the force acts opposite to the direction of motion (angle 180°), such as the force of friction acting on a moving vehicle.
  • Zero Work: When there is no displacement, or when the force is perpendicular to the displacement (angle 90°), such as a satellite orbiting Earth in a circular path.

Important Points

  • Work-Energy Theorem: This principle states that the net work done on an object is equal to the change in its Kinetic Energy. This establishes a direct link between motion and the work performed by forces.
  • CGS Unit: In the Centimetre-Gram-Second system, the unit of work is the Erg. One Joule is equivalent to 10^7 Ergs.
  • Historical Context: The concept of work was developed by mathematicians and physicists like Gaspard-Gustave de Coriolis in the 1820s to describe the "weight lifted through a height."
  • Examples in Daily Life: Pulling a trolley, lifting a book from the floor, or stretching a spring are all examples where work is done because a force results in displacement. However, standing still while holding a heavy suitcase is not considered work in physics because the displacement is zero.
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Question 115

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What role does the placenta play during the development of the embryo in the human female reproductive system?

  1. AOption (a)

    It facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between mother and embryo.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is the location where fertilisation of egg and sperm occurs.

  3. COption (c)

    It unites the two oviducts into the uterus.

  4. DOption (d)

    It produces eggs needed for fertilisation.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between mother and embryo.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between mother and embryo.

Key Points

  • The placenta is a specialized, temporary organ that develops in the uterus of a human female during pregnancy. It acts as a structural and functional unit between the developing embryo (fetus) and the maternal body.
  • Its primary function is to facilitate the exchange of essential substances; it provides oxygen and nutrients such as glucose and amino acids from the mother to the embryo. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The placenta is also responsible for the removal of carbon dioxide and excretory waste materials produced by the embryo, ensuring a healthy internal environment for growth.
  • Structurally, it contains villi on the embryonic side, which are surrounded by blood spaces on the maternal side. This configuration provides a massive surface area for the diffusion of nutrients and waste.
  • The placenta is connected to the embryo through the umbilical cord, which helps in the transport of substances to and from the embryo.

Additional Information

  • Fertilisation Site:
  • Fertilisation, the fusion of egg and sperm, occurs in the Fallopian tube (also known as the oviduct), specifically in the ampullary region. The placenta does not play a role in the fertilisation process itself. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Uterus Structure:
  • The uterus is the muscular organ where the embryo is implanted and developed for 9 months. While the uterus receives the two oviducts, the placenta is an organ attached to the uterine wall and not the structure that unites the oviducts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Production of Gametes:
  • The ovaries are the primary reproductive organs responsible for producing eggs (ova) and hormones like estrogen and progesterone. The placenta does not produce eggs. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Endocrine Function:
  • The placenta also functions as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), Human Placental Lactogen (hPL), estrogens, and progestogens, which are essential for maintaining the pregnancy.

Important Points

  • The gestation period in humans is approximately 280 days or 40 weeks.
  • During the first trimester, the placenta becomes the main source of progesterone, taking over the role from the corpus luteum in the ovary.
  • The umbilical cord typically contains three blood vessels: two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein.
  • Antibodies (specifically IgG) can cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus, providing passive immunity to the newborn.
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Question 116

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

An object is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 20 m. What was the velocity with which the object was thrown? (Take \( g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 \)).

  1. AOption (a)

    40 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    30 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    10 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    20 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

20 m/s

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 20 m/s.

Key Points

  • To find the initial velocity of the object, we use the equations of motion under uniform acceleration. In this case, the acceleration is the acceleration due to gravity (g).
  • Given data from the problem:
  • The maximum height (s) reached by the object is 20 m.
  • The final velocity (v) at the maximum height is 0 m/s (since the object momentarily stops before falling back).
  • The acceleration (a) is equal to -g because the object is moving upwards against gravity. Given g = 10 m/s², so a = -10 m/s².
  • We use the Third Equation of Motion: v² = u² + 2as.
  • Substituting the values: 0² = u² + 2(-10)(20).
  • 0 = u² - 400.
  • u² = 400.
  • u = √400 = 20 m/s.
  • Therefore, the initial velocity (u) with which the object was thrown is 20 m/s. Hence, the calculation confirms option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Equations of Motion:
  • These equations describe the relationship between velocity, displacement, acceleration, and time for an object moving with constant acceleration.
  • First Equation: v = u + at (Relates velocity and time).
  • Second Equation: s = ut + ½at² (Relates displacement and time).
  • Third Equation: v² = u² + 2as (Relates velocity and displacement).
  • Acceleration due to Gravity:
  • The standard value of gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s², but for competitive exams and ease of calculation, it is often taken as 10 m/s².
  • It is a vector quantity directed towards the center of the Earth.
  • Sign Convention in Kinematics:
  • When an object is thrown vertically upwards, the direction of motion is positive, but gravity acts downwards, making acceleration negative.
  • When an object falls downwards, both the displacement and acceleration can be considered in the same direction (usually taken as positive or negative depending on the chosen frame of reference).

Important Points

  • Time of Ascent: The time taken to reach the maximum height can be calculated using the formula t = u / g. For this problem, t = 20 / 10 = 2 seconds.
  • Maximum Height Formula: A shortcut formula derived from the third equation is H = u² / 2g.
  • By plugging in the values: 20 = u² / (2 × 10) leads to u² = 400, which gives u = 20 m/s.
  • Symmetry of Motion: In the absence of air resistance, the time of ascent is equal to the time of descent, and the object will hit the ground with the same speed it was thrown with (20 m/s).
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Question 117

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Baking soda releases which gas on heating?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( \text{CO}_2 \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( \text{H}_2 \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( \text{N}_2 \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( \text{O}_2 \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

\( \text{CO}_2 \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CO2.

Key Points

  • Baking soda is chemically known as Sodium Bicarbonate or Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate, represented by the chemical formula NaHCO3.
  • When Sodium Bicarbonate is subjected to heating, it undergoes a process called thermal decomposition. This reaction typically becomes significant at temperatures above 50 degrees Celsius (122 degrees Fahrenheit).
  • The thermal decomposition reaction of baking soda produces three distinct products: Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3), Water vapor (H2O), and Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
  • The chemical equation for this process is: 2 NaHCO3 + heat → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2.
  • The release of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) gas is the fundamental reason baking soda is used as a leavening agent in the food industry. As the gas is released during baking, it gets trapped in the dough or batter, causing it to expand and rise, resulting in a fluffy and porous texture.

Additional Information

  • Physical Properties: Sodium Bicarbonate is a white crystalline solid, though it usually appears as a fine powder. It has a slightly alkaline, bitter taste and is monoclinic in its crystalline form.
  • Industrial Production: The Solvay process is the primary industrial method for producing Sodium Bicarbonate. This process, established in the 1860s, involves the reaction of sodium chloride, ammonia, and carbon dioxide in water to precipitate NaHCO3.
  • Medical Applications: It is widely used as an antacid to treat acidosis and heartburn. When ingested, it reacts with Hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach to neutralize pH levels, producing NaCl, H2O, and CO2.
  • Fire Extinguishers: Baking soda is a common component in dry chemical fire extinguishers (BC rated). When discharged onto a fire, the heat of the flames triggers the release of CO2, which acts to displace oxygen and smother the fire.
  • Cleaning and Deodorizing: Due to its mild abrasive nature and ability to neutralize odors, it is used extensively in household cleaning, laundry, and even in personal care products like toothpaste and deodorants.

Important Points

  • pH and Nature: Sodium Bicarbonate is amphoteric, meaning it can react with both acids and bases. However, in an aqueous solution, it is mildly basic with a pH of approximately 8.3.
  • Reaction with Acids: In addition to heat, baking soda releases CO2 instantly when it comes into contact with acids like acetic acid (vinegar) or citric acid (lemon juice). This is a popular experiment used to demonstrate chemical reactions in science education.
  • Baking Soda vs. Baking Powder: Baking soda requires an acidic ingredient (like yogurt, buttermilk, or molasses) to activate its leavening power at room temperature. In contrast, baking powder contains both sodium bicarbonate and a dry acidic salt (like cream of tartar), requiring only moisture and heat to react.
  • Environmental and Safety: It is considered environmentally friendly and non-toxic. For storage, it should be kept in a cool, dry place, as humidity can cause it to lose its potency over time by initiating slow decomposition.
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Question 118

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A flexible support to developing plant parts is provided by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Chlorenchyma

  2. BOption (b)

    Phloem

  3. COption (c)

    Collenchyma

  4. DOption (d)

    Xylem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Collenchyma

Why this answer is correct

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is Collenchyma.

 

Key Points

  • Collenchyma is a specialized simple permanent tissue that provides mechanical support and flexibility (elasticity) to various developing plant parts such as the young stem and petiole of a leaf.
  • The cells of collenchyma are living, elongated, and characteristically thickened at the corners due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin.
  • Its primary function is to allow easy bending in various parts of a plant (like tendrils and stems of climbers) without breaking. Hence, the correct answer is Collenchyma.
  • This tissue is generally absent in monocotyledonous plants and is typically found in the hypodermis of dicotyledonous stems.
  • The intercellular spaces in collenchyma tissue are either very small or totally absent because of the heavy pectic deposits at the cell corners.

Additional Information

  • Parenchyma and Chlorenchyma:
  • Parenchyma is the most common simple permanent tissue consisting of relatively unspecialized cells with thin cell walls.
  • When parenchyma contains chlorophyll and performs photosynthesis, it is called Chlorenchyma. In aquatic plants, large air cavities are present in parenchyma to help them float, known as aerenchyma.
  • Sclerenchyma:
  • Unlike collenchyma, sclerenchyma is a dead tissue at maturity. It makes the plant hard and stiff.
  • The walls of sclerenchyma cells are thickened due to lignin, a chemical substance which acts as cement and hardens them. It is found in husks of coconuts and vascular bundles.
  • Complex Permanent Tissues (Xylem and Phloem):
  • Xylem and Phloem are examples of complex tissues because they consist of more than one type of cell working together as a unit.
  • Xylem is responsible for the conduction of water and minerals from roots to leaves. It also provides mechanical strength to the plant body.
  • Phloem transports food materials (sucrose) prepared in the leaves to other parts of the plant. Unlike xylem, materials can move in both directions in phloem.

Important Points

  • Types of Collenchyma:
  • Based on the pattern of pectin deposition, it can be classified into Angular collenchyma (thickening at corners), Lacunar collenchyma (thickening around intercellular spaces), and Lamellar collenchyma (thickening in tangential walls).
  • Difference between Support Tissues:
  • Collenchyma provides flexible support to living and growing regions.
  • Sclerenchyma provides rigid support to non-growing or mature plant parts.
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Question 119

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What is a colloidal solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uniform mixture with large particles

  2. BOption (b)

    Transparent mixture with gases only

  3. COption (c)

    Mixture in which particles fully dissolve and settle

  4. DOption (d)

    Heterogeneous mixture with fine particles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Heterogeneous mixture with fine particles

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Heterogeneous mixture with fine particles.

Key Points

  • A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture in which one substance consisting of microscopically dispersed insoluble particles (the dispersed phase) is suspended throughout another substance (the dispersion medium).
  • The particle size in a colloidal solution is intermediate between a true solution and a suspension, generally ranging from 1 nanometer to 1000 nanometers. These fine particles are small enough that they do not settle out upon standing but large enough to scatter light. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • In a suspension, the particles are large (typically greater than 1000 nm) and will eventually settle due to gravity. Colloids do not settle, which distinguishes them from suspensions. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
  • A colloidal solution is usually translucent or opaque because the particles are large enough to scatter light (the Tyndall effect). It is not a transparent mixture limited only to gases; it can involve solids and liquids as well. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • In a true solution, the solute particles fully dissolve and are molecular or ionic in size (less than 1 nm). Because colloidal particles are insoluble and stay suspended without settling, they do not follow the behavior of a true solution or a settling suspension. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • The Tyndall Effect: This is a defining feature of colloidal solutions where a beam of light becomes visible as it passes through the mixture. The fine particles scatter the light rays, a phenomenon not seen in true solutions because their particles are too small.
  • Brownian Motion: Colloidal particles exhibit a continuous, random, zig-zag motion known as Brownian motion. This motion is caused by the constant bombardment of the dispersed particles by the molecules of the dispersion medium, which helps keep the particles in suspension and prevents them from settling.
  • Classification of Colloids: Colloids are categorized based on the state of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium:
  • Aerosol: Liquid or solid in gas (e.g., fog, mist, smoke).
  • Emulsion: Liquid in liquid (e.g., milk, face cream, butter).
  • Sol: Solid in liquid (e.g., mud, paints, milk of magnesia).
  • Gel: Liquid in solid (e.g., jelly, cheese, curd).
  • Foam: Gas in liquid (e.g., shaving cream, whipped cream).
  • Historical Context: The term "colloid" was first coined by the Scottish scientist Thomas Graham in 1861. He derived the name from the Greek word "kolla," meaning glue, as many early colloids studied had glue-like properties.
  • Stability and Charge: Colloidal particles often carry an electric charge (either positive or negative), which is uniform across all particles in a specific colloid. This like-charge creates repulsion between particles, preventing them from aggregating and contributing to the stability of the solution.

Important Points

  • Filtration: Unlike suspensions, colloidal particles cannot be separated from the mixture by ordinary filtration because they are small enough to pass through the pores of filter paper. However, they can be separated using ultra-filtration or centrifugation.
  • Applications: Colloids are vital in various industries and biological processes. For example, the blood in our bodies is a colloidal system. They are also used in the purification of water (using alum to coagulate impurities), the tanning of leather, and the manufacture of medicines and cosmetics.
  • Blue Color of the Sky: The blue appearance of the sky is actually a result of the scattering of light by colloidal dust particles and water molecules present in the atmosphere, illustrating the Tyndall effect on a massive scale.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 120

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following organisms shows the phenomenon of regeneration?

  1. AOption (a)

    House fly

  2. BOption (b)

    Honey bee

  3. COption (c)

    Mosquito

  4. DOption (d)

    Planaria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Planaria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Planaria.

Key Points

  • Regeneration is a type of asexual reproduction in which an organism has the ability to give rise to a new individual from its body parts. If the individual is somehow cut or broken into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals.
  • Planaria is a genus of flatworms belonging to the phylum Platyhelminthes. They are widely cited in biological studies for their remarkable ability to regenerate lost body parts. Hence, the option Planaria is correct.
  • This phenomenon is carried out by specialized cells called neoblasts. These are pluripotent stem cells that have the capacity to proliferate and differentiate into any of the 30 to 40 different cell types found in a planarian's body.
  • In Planaria, even a tiny fragment (as small as 1/279th of the original worm) can regenerate into a complete, well-proportioned organism within a span of roughly one to two weeks.
  • Unlike many other animals, Planaria maintain a large population of these stem cells throughout their adult life, which allows them to constantly renew their tissues and organs.

Additional Information

  • Insects (House fly, Honey bee, Mosquito):
  • These organisms belong to the phylum Arthropoda and class Insecta. While they undergo metamorphosis (either complete or incomplete), their regenerative capacity is extremely limited compared to Planaria.
  • In insects like the House fly or Mosquito, regeneration is usually restricted to the repair of specific tissues or, in some species, the regrowth of limbs during larval stages or nymphal stages. However, an adult insect cannot regenerate its entire body from a fragment. Hence, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.
  • Hydra:
  • Similar to Planaria, Hydra (phylum Cnidaria) also exhibits a high degree of regeneration. It uses regenerative cells for reproduction through budding and can regrow from small pieces of its body.
  • Types of Regeneration:
  • Morphallaxis: This involves the reorganization of existing tissues into new structures. It is primarily seen in Hydra.
  • Epimorphosis: This involves the proliferation of new cells (blastema formation) to replace lost parts, commonly seen in the regeneration of a Salamander's limb or a Lizard's tail.
  • Evolutionary Significance:
  • Regeneration is an important survival mechanism. While simple organisms like Planaria and sponges show extensive regeneration, higher vertebrates have largely lost this ability, focusing instead on wound healing and tissue repair.

Important Points

  • Platyhelminthes: Also known as flatworms, these are acoelomate, triploblastic, and bilaterally symmetrical organisms. Planaria is often used as a model organism in genetics and developmental biology.
  • Stem Cell Research: The study of Planaria regeneration provides vital insights into human regenerative medicine, as scientists attempt to understand how stem cells can be triggered to repair human organs or spinal cord injuries.
  • Asexual Reproduction: In addition to regeneration following injury, some Planaria species use binary fission (splitting themselves in half) as a natural method of population growth.

How should I prepare for General Science in RRB Group D?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.