RRB Group D · Topic Collection

General Science PYQs

Core physics, chemistry, biology, human health, diseases, environmental science, and everyday scientific observations.

2600 Total Questions104 Official PapersYears: 2018–2026Search in General Science
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RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 81

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A constant force acts on an object of mass \( 4 \text{ kg} \) for a duration of \( 2 \text{ s} \), increasing its velocity from \( 2 \text{ m/s} \) to \( 8 \text{ m/s} \). If the same force is applied for a duration of \( 4 \text{ s} \), then what would be the final velocity of the object?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( 20 \text{ m/s} \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( 12 \text{ m/s} \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( 10 \text{ m/s} \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( 14 \text{ m/s} \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

\( 14 \text{ m/s} \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 14 m/s.

Key Points

  • The problem involves Newton's Second Law of Motion and the Equations of Motion to determine how a constant force affects an object's velocity over time.
  • In the first scenario, an object of mass 4 kg has an initial velocity (u) of 2 m/s and reaches a final velocity (v) of 8 m/s in a time duration (t) of 2 s.
  • We first calculate the acceleration (a) using the formula: a = (v - u) / t. Plugging in the values: a = (8 m/s - 2 m/s) / 2 s = 6 / 2 = 3 m/s². This means the constant force produces a steady acceleration of 3 m/s².
  • The magnitude of the force (F) can be found using F = m * a. Thus, F = 4 kg * 3 m/s² = 12 N.
  • In the second scenario, the same force is applied for a duration of 4 s. Assuming it starts from the same initial velocity of 2 m/s, we calculate the new final velocity using v = u + at.
  • Calculation: v = 2 m/s + (3 m/s² * 4 s) = 2 + 12 = 14 m/s. Hence, the final velocity is 14 m/s.

Additional Information

  • Newton's Second Law of Motion: This law states that the acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object. The formula is F = ma.
  • Force: It is defined as a push or pull upon an object resulting from the object's interaction with another object. The SI unit of force is the Newton (N), named after Sir Isaac Newton. One Newton is equal to 1 kg.m/s².
  • Acceleration: This is a vector quantity that is defined as the rate at which an object changes its velocity. An object is accelerating if it is changing its velocity. The SI unit for acceleration is m/s².
  • Equations of Motion: These equations relate the displacement, velocity, acceleration, and time of a moving object. The three primary equations for constant acceleration are v = u + at, s = ut + 0.5at², and v² = u² + 2as.

Important Points

  • Constant Force: When a constant force acts on a body of constant mass, it results in a constant acceleration. This allows for the use of the linear equations of motion.
  • Mass vs. Weight: Mass is a fundamental property of an object (measured in kg) and does not change based on location, while weight is the force of gravity acting on that mass. In this problem, the mass is 4 kg.
  • Initial and Final Velocity: Initial velocity is the velocity at which motion begins (at t = 0), and final velocity is the velocity after a specific time interval has elapsed.
  • Relationship with Time: If the acceleration is constant, the change in velocity is directly proportional to the time for which the force is applied. Doubling the time from 2 s to 4 s (if starting from rest) would double the velocity change, but since there is an initial velocity, we must add it to the total change.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 82

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In plants, food made in leaves is transported to other parts by the complex tissue called __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Xylem

  2. BOption (b)

    Collenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    Phloem

  4. DOption (d)

    Sclerenchyma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Phloem

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Phloem.

Key Points

  • Phloem is a complex permanent tissue in plants that acts as the primary conduction system for organic nutrients, especially sucrose, which is produced during photosynthesis.
  • The transport of food in plants is known as translocation. This process occurs from the source (usually the leaves) to the sink (areas of growth or storage like roots, stems, and fruits).
  • Unlike xylem, the movement of food through phloem is bidirectional, meaning it can move both upwards and downwards to reach all parts of the plant depending on the seasonal or metabolic needs.
  • Phloem is composed of four distinct types of cells: sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma, and phloem fibers. Out of these, only phloem fibers are dead cells at maturity, while the others are living cells.
  • The process of translocation in phloem is an active process that requires energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) to load sucrose into the sieve tubes, creating an osmotic pressure that facilitates the flow of materials.

Additional Information

  • Xylem:
  • It is the complex tissue responsible for the conduction of water and minerals from the soil through the roots to the rest of the plant.
  • The flow of water in xylem is unidirectional (only upwards). It consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers. Most of the cells in xylem (except parenchyma) are dead at maturity to facilitate efficient water transport.
  • Collenchyma:
  • This is a simple permanent tissue made of living cells. It provides mechanical support and flexibility to the plant, allowing parts like petioles (leaf stalks) and young stems to bend without breaking.
  • The cells are characterized by irregularly thickened walls at the corners due to the deposition of cellulose and pectin.
  • Sclerenchyma:
  • It is a simple permanent tissue composed of dead cells with extremely thickened secondary walls containing lignin.
  • Its primary function is to provide strength, stiffness, and structural rigidity to the plant. It is found in the husk of coconut, the hard shells of nuts, and the grit in fruits like pear (sclereids).
  • Vascular Bundles:
  • In higher plants, xylem and phloem are grouped together to form vascular bundles. These tissues are essential for the survival of terrestrial plants, allowing them to grow tall by facilitating the transport of nutrients and water over long distances.

Important Points

  • Sieve Tubes: These are tubular cells with perforated walls called sieve plates. Although they are living, they lack a nucleus at maturity and rely on companion cells for metabolic functions.
  • Companion Cells: These are specialized parenchyma cells that are closely associated with sieve tubes and help in regulating the pressure gradient during translocation.
  • Lignin: A complex polymer found in sclerenchyma and xylem that acts as a cementing material, making the cell walls waterproof and extremely strong.
  • Difference between Simple and Complex Tissue: Simple tissues (like Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma) consist of only one type of cell, whereas complex tissues (like Xylem and Phloem) are made of more than one type of cell working together as a unit.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 83

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A scientist observed a multicellular organism undergoing reproduction. Which of the following methods would the plant NOT be using?

  1. AOption (a)

    Budding

  2. BOption (b)

    Fragmentation

  3. COption (c)

    Vegetative Propagation

  4. DOption (d)

    Binary Fission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Binary Fission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Binary Fission.

Key Points

  • Binary Fission is a primary method of asexual reproduction typically observed in unicellular organisms, where a single cell divides into two approximately equal and genetically identical daughter cells.
  • Since the scientist is observing a multicellular organism, it possesses complex structures and specialized tissues that cannot simply split into two through cellular fission to reproduce the entire organism. Hence, the statement that the organism would NOT use binary fission is correct.
  • Multicellular organisms, particularly plants, utilize more complex mechanisms for asexual reproduction such as budding, fragmentation, and vegetative propagation, which involve the growth of new tissues from specialized regions.
  • In Binary Fission, the genetic material (DNA) replicates and the cytoplasm divides, a process common in prokaryotes like bacteria and some eukaryotic protists like Amoeba.
  • The other options—Budding, Fragmentation, and Vegetative Propagation—are all viable methods for various multicellular plants and simple multicellular animals.

Additional Information

  • Budding:
  • In this process, a small outgrowth or bud develops on the parent body due to repeated cell division at one specific site.
  • These buds develop into tiny individuals and, when fully mature, detach from the parent body to become new independent individuals.
  • Examples include Hydra (a multicellular animal) and Yeast (a unicellular fungus).
  • Fragmentation:
  • This occurs when a multicellular organism simply breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation.
  • Each piece, or fragment, grows into a new complete individual through regeneration of missing parts.
  • Examples include filamentous algae like Spirogyra and some flatworms like Planaria.
  • Vegetative Propagation:
  • This is a form of asexual reproduction in plants where new plants are produced from vegetative parts such as roots, stems, and leaves rather than seeds.
  • Methods include tubers (potato), runners (strawberry), and leaf notches (Bryophyllum).
  • It allows for the rapid production of genetically uniform offspring and is widely used in horticulture.
  • Binary Fission Details:
  • It is the simplest form of reproduction. In Amoeba, the division can take place in any plane, whereas in Leishmania (which causes Kala-azar), it occurs in a definite orientation in relation to whip-like structures.
  • Because it involves the division of a single cell into two, it is biologically impossible for a complex multicellular plant to undergo this process as a whole.

Important Points

  • Complexity and Reproduction: As organisms become more complex (multicellular), their reproductive strategies shift from simple cell division to processes involving specialized reproductive cells or tissues.
  • Asexual vs. Sexual: All methods mentioned in the options are types of asexual reproduction, meaning they do not involve the fusion of gametes and result in offspring that are clones of the parent.
  • Environmental Adaptation: Vegetative propagation and fragmentation are often advantageous in stable environments where the parent's traits are already well-suited for survival.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 84

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What is the general name of the reaction between an acid and a base?

  1. AOption (a)

    Decomposition

  2. BOption (b)

    Combustion

  3. COption (c)

    Oxidation

  4. DOption (d)

    Neutralisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neutralisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neutralisation.

Key Points

  • A Neutralisation reaction is a specific type of chemical reaction where an acid and a base react with each other to produce salt and water.
  • In aqueous solutions, this reaction occurs when H+ ions (hydrogen ions) from the acid combine with OH- ions (hydroxyl ions) from the base to form H2O (water) molecules.
  • The general chemical equation representing this process is: Acid + Base → Salt + Water. For example, the reaction between Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) produces Sodium chloride (NaCl) and water.
  • Neutralisation reactions are generally exothermic in nature, meaning they involve the evolution of heat during the process.
  • The resulting pH of the solution depends on the strength of the reactants; a reaction between a strong acid and a strong base typically results in a solution with a pH of 7 (neutral). Hence, the correct answer is Neutralisation.

Additional Information

  • Decomposition Reaction:
  • This is a chemical reaction in which a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances or elements.
  • It usually requires an external energy source such as heat (thermal decomposition), light (photolysis), or electricity (electrolysis) to break the chemical bonds.
  • An example is the decomposition of Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3) into Calcium Oxide (CaO) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2) upon heating. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
  • Combustion Reaction:
  • Combustion is a high-temperature exothermic reaction between a fuel and an oxidant (usually atmospheric oxygen).
  • This reaction typically produces smoke, heat, and light, along with oxidized gaseous products like Carbon dioxide and Water vapor.
  • The burning of methane (CH4) in the presence of oxygen is a classic example of a combustion reaction. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • Oxidation Reaction:
  • In classical chemistry, Oxidation refers to the addition of oxygen to a substance or the removal of hydrogen.
  • In modern electronic terms, it is defined as the process where an atom, ion, or molecule loses electrons during a reaction.
  • It is always accompanied by reduction (gain of electrons) in what is collectively known as a Redox reaction. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

Important Points

  • Practical Applications of Neutralisation:
  • Indigestion: Human stomachs produce Hydrochloric acid to help digest food, but excess acid causes pain. This is treated with antacids like Milk of Magnesia (Magnesium Hydroxide), which is a mild base that neutralizes the acid.
  • Soil Treatment: Plants do not grow well if the soil is too acidic or too basic. If soil is acidic, it is treated with bases like quick lime (Calcium Oxide) or slaked lime (Calcium Hydroxide).
  • Ant Stings: When an ant bites, it injects formic acid into the skin. The effect of the sting can be neutralized by rubbing moist baking soda (Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate) or calamine solution (containing Zinc Carbonate).
  • Factory Waste: The waste of many factories contains acids. If allowed to flow into water bodies, they kill fish. These wastes are neutralized by adding basic substances before disposal.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 85

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A boy lifts an object above his head by exerting a force. Which of the following works is negative?

  1. AOption (a)

    Work done by the force of gravity

  2. BOption (b)

    Work done by the applied force

  3. COption (c)

    Work done by the object

  4. DOption (d)

    Work done by the boy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Work done by the force of gravity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Work done by the force of gravity.

Key Points

  • Work is defined in physics as the product of the force applied to an object and the displacement of the object in the direction of that force. The formula is W = F d cos(theta), where theta is the angle between the force and displacement vectors.
  • When a boy lifts an object above his head, the displacement of the object is in the upward direction.
  • The force of gravity (weight) acts on the object vertically downward toward the center of the Earth.
  • Because the displacement is upward and the force of gravity is downward, the angle theta between them is 180 degrees.
  • The value of cos(180) is -1; therefore, the work done by the force of gravity is negative. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
  • Conversely, the applied force exerted by the boy is in the upward direction, the same as the displacement. This means the angle is 0 degrees, and since cos(0) is 1, the work done by the boy is positive.

Additional Information

  • Positive Work: This occurs when the force and the displacement are in the same direction (angle between 0 and 90 degrees). A common example is a horse pulling a cart or a person pushing a car forward.
  • Zero Work: Work is zero if the force is perpendicular to the displacement (90 degrees) or if there is no displacement. For example, a person holding a heavy box stationary or a satellite moving in a circular orbit (where centripetal force is perpendicular to velocity) does no work.
  • SI Unit of Work: The standard unit is the Joule (J). One Joule is the work done when a force of 1 Newton moves an object through a distance of 1 meter.
  • Nature of Work: Work is a scalar quantity, meaning it only has magnitude and no specific direction in space, even though force and displacement are vectors.
  • Dimensions: The dimensional formula for work is [M1 L2 T-2], which is the same as the dimensions of energy.

Important Points

  • Work-Energy Theorem: This theorem states that the net work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy. When gravity does negative work, it often results in an increase in the object's potential energy.
  • Power: Related to work, power is the rate at which work is done. It is measured in Watts (W), where 1 Watt = 1 Joule per second.
  • Conservative Forces: Gravity is a conservative force, meaning the work done by it depends only on the initial and final positions of the object, not the path taken.
  • Mechanical Energy: In the absence of friction, the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy remains constant. In this lifting scenario, the positive work from the boy is stored as gravitational potential energy because gravity is "resisting" the motion with negative work.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 86

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

During a nerve impulse transmission, neurotransmitters are released from one neuron and received by another.

Which part of neurons are primarily involved in this chemical communication?

  1. AOption (a)

    Axon → Myelin sheath of nerve

  2. BOption (b)

    Dendrite → Axon terminal of same neuron

  3. COption (c)

    Axon terminal → Dendrite of another neuron

  4. DOption (d)

    Cell body → Axon of same neuron

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Axon terminal → Dendrite of another neuron

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Axon terminal → Dendrite of another neuron.

Key Points

  • A synapse is the specialized junction through which neurons signal to each other or to non-neuronal cells such as those in muscles or glands. In a chemical synapse, the process involves the transmission of neurotransmitters.
  • The transmission begins when an electrical impulse (action potential) reaches the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron. This terminal contains synaptic vesicles filled with chemical messengers.
  • Upon reaching the end of the axon, the nerve impulse triggers the release of these neurotransmitters into a fluid-filled gap known as the synaptic cleft, which is typically 20 to 50 nanometers wide.
  • The neurotransmitters diffuse across the gap and bind to specific protein receptors located on the dendrite or the cell body of the postsynaptic neuron. This binding action generates a new electrical signal in the receiving neuron. Hence, the primary chemical communication occurs from the Axon terminal to the Dendrite of another neuron.
  • The options describing communication within the same neuron or involving the myelin sheath do not represent the standard mechanism of intercellular chemical signaling. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Structural Components of a Neuron:
  • Cell Body (Soma): Contains the nucleus and cytoplasm; it serves as the metabolic center of the cell.
  • Dendrites: These are highly branched, short fibers that receive incoming signals from other neurons and carry them toward the cell body.
  • Axon: A single, long, cylindrical fiber that transmits impulses away from the cell body toward other neurons or effectors.
  • Myelin Sheath and Conduction:
  • Many axons are covered by a fatty insulating layer called the myelin sheath, produced by Schwann cells in the PNS and oligodendrocytes in the CNS.
  • It facilitates saltatory conduction, where the impulse "jumps" between Nodes of Ranvier, significantly increasing the speed of transmission.
  • Common Neurotransmitters:
  • Acetylcholine (ACh): Essential for muscle stimulation and memory.
  • Dopamine: Associated with the reward system, motivation, and motor control.
  • Serotonin: Plays a key role in mood regulation, sleep, and digestion.
  • Types of Synapses:
  • Chemical Synapse: Uses chemicals to bridge the gap; it is the most common type and allows for complex signal modulation.
  • Electrical Synapse: Neurons are connected by gap junctions, allowing ions to flow directly between cells, resulting in faster, near-instantaneous transmission.

Important Points

  • Unidirectional Flow: Nerve impulses in a chemical synapse travel in only one direction because neurotransmitter receptors are located only on the postsynaptic side (dendrites), while vesicles are on the presynaptic side (axon terminals).
  • Synaptic Delay: There is a brief time interval (approx 0.3 to 0.5 milliseconds) required for the neurotransmitter to be released, cross the cleft, and bind to receptors.
  • Exocytosis: The specific biological process where synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane to dump neurotransmitters into the extracellular space.
  • Reuptake: After signaling, neurotransmitters are often cleared from the synaptic cleft through enzymatic degradation or reuptake back into the presynaptic neuron to terminate the signal.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 87

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option.

Assertion (A): Keeping oily food in airtight containers prevents rancidity.

Reason (R): Airtight containers slow down the oxidation of fats and oils.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false, but R is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A) states that keeping oily food in airtight containers prevents rancidity. This is based on the principle of limiting the exposure of food items to atmospheric oxygen. Hence, statement A is correct.
  • Reason (R) explains that airtight containers slow down the oxidation of fats and oils. Since the supply of oxygen is restricted within a sealed environment, the chemical reaction between oxygen and the fat molecules occurs much more slowly. Hence, statement R is correct.
  • Rancidity is the process of aerial oxidation of unsaturated fats and oils present in food materials, which results in an unpleasant smell and taste.
  • The primary cause of oxidative rancidity is the reaction of oxygen with the double bonds of fatty acid chains. By using an airtight container, the volume of oxygen available for this reaction is significantly reduced.
  • Because the mechanism described in the reason (slowing down oxidation) directly leads to the effect described in the assertion (prevention of rancidity), Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • Hence, the correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Additional Information

  • Types of Rancidity:
  • Oxidative Rancidity: This occurs when oxygen damages the food by breaking the long-chain fatty acids into smaller compounds like aldehydes and ketones.
  • Hydrolytic Rancidity: This happens when water (moisture) splits fatty acid chains away from the glycerol backbone in triglycerides, often catalyzed by enzymes like lipase.
  • Microbial Rancidity: This is caused by microorganisms such as bacteria or molds that use enzymes to break down chemical structures in fats.
  • Methods to Prevent Rancidity:
  • Antioxidants: Chemicals such as Butylated Hydroxyanisole (BHA) and Butylated Hydroxytoluene (BHT) are often added to fat-containing foods to inhibit oxidation.
  • Nitrogen Flushing: Manufacturers of potato chips and other snacks flush the bags with Nitrogen gas (an inert gas) to displace oxygen and prevent the chips from turning rancid.
  • Vacuum Packaging: Removing all air from the packaging before sealing effectively stops the oxidation process.
  • Refrigeration: Storing food at low temperatures reduces the rate of chemical reactions, including oxidation and microbial growth.
  • Light Protection: Storing oily food in dark places or opaque containers helps because Ultraviolet (UV) light can act as a catalyst for the oxidation process.

Important Points

  • Chemical Reaction: The process of rancidity is a redox reaction (specifically oxidation) where the fatty acids lose electrons to oxygen.
  • Impact on Health: Consuming rancid food is not only unpleasant due to the off-flavor but can also lead to the formation of free radicals, which are linked to various health issues and cellular damage.
  • Detection: Rancidity is typically detected through sensory evaluation (smell and taste) or chemical tests like the Peroxide Value (PV) test, which measures the extent of primary oxidation.
  • Saturated vs. Unsaturated Fats: Unsaturated fats (like vegetable oils) are much more susceptible to rancidity than saturated fats (like butter or lard) because of the presence of carbon-carbon double bonds that react easily with oxygen.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 88

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which property enables carbon to form long chains?

  1. AOption (a)

    Isomerism

  2. BOption (b)

    Polymerisation

  3. COption (c)

    Catenation

  4. DOption (d)

    Tetravalency

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Catenation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Catenation.

Key Points

  • Catenation is the unique property of an element to form covalent bonds with other atoms of the same element, resulting in the formation of long chains, branched structures, or rings.
  • Among all known elements, Carbon exhibits the maximum tendency for catenation due to the high strength and stability of the Carbon-Carbon (C-C) bond.
  • This property allows carbon to form an almost infinite variety of molecules, ranging from simple hydrocarbons to complex biological macromolecules like DNA and proteins.
  • The ability to form single, double, and triple bonds between carbon atoms further enhances the structural diversity enabled by catenation.
  • It is because of catenation and tetravalency that carbon forms such a large number of compounds, leading to the dedicated branch of science known as Organic Chemistry.

Additional Information

  • Tetravalency:
  • Carbon has four valence electrons in its outermost shell, allowing it to form four covalent bonds with other atoms.
  • This characteristic enables carbon to link with a wide variety of other elements like hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur, as well as other carbon atoms.
  • Isomerism:
  • This is the phenomenon where compounds have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements or spatial orientations.
  • Since catenation allows for different chain lengths and branching, isomers are very common in organic compounds, contributing to their vast chemical variety.
  • Polymerisation:
  • This is a chemical process in which small units called monomers join together to form a very large molecule called a polymer.
  • While catenation is the inherent atomic property, polymerisation is the process used to create materials like plastics (polyethene), rubber, and nylon.
  • Comparison with Silicon:
  • Silicon also shows catenation properties but to a much lesser extent than carbon.
  • Silicon can form chains with hydrogen (silanes) up to about 7 or 8 atoms, but these compounds are highly reactive and unstable because the Si-Si bond is significantly weaker than the C-C bond.

Important Points

  • Bond Energy: The stability of carbon chains is attributed to the high bond enthalpy of the C-C bond, which is approximately 348 kJ/mol. In contrast, the Si-Si bond energy is only about 222 kJ/mol.
  • Atomic Size: Carbon is a small-sized atom, which allows the nucleus to hold the shared pair of electrons in the covalent bond more tightly, leading to a strong and stable bond.
  • Allotropes of Carbon: Catenation is also responsible for the different forms of carbon, such as Diamond (3D network), Graphite (layered hexagonal sheets), and Fullerenes (spherical cages like C60).
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 89

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The complex tissue that transports food in plants is called __________, and it consists of living cells like sieve tubes and __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Phloem, companion cells

  2. BOption (b)

    Collenchyma, sclerenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    Xylem, tracheids

  4. DOption (d)

    Xylem, xylem fibres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Phloem, companion cells

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Phloem, companion cells.

Key Points

  • Phloem is a complex permanent tissue in vascular plants responsible for the translocation of food (mainly sucrose) from the leaves, where it is produced during photosynthesis, to other parts of the plant like roots, fruits, and storage organs.
  • It consists of four main components: sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem parenchyma, and phloem fibers. Out of these, only the phloem fibers are dead cells, while the rest are living cells.
  • Sieve tubes are long, tubular structures with perforated end walls known as sieve plates. Interestingly, while they are living cells at maturity, they lack a nucleus, ribosomes, and vacuoles to allow for the efficient flow of nutrients.
  • Companion cells are specialized parenchyma cells that are closely associated with sieve tube elements. They possess a dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus, which regulates the metabolic activities of the enucleated sieve tubes.
  • The relationship between sieve tubes and companion cells is vital; they are connected by plasmodesmata, and the companion cells help in the loading and unloading of sugars into the sieve tube elements. Hence, the first option is correct.

Additional Information

  • Xylem:
  • This is another complex tissue primarily responsible for the unidirectional transport of water and minerals from the roots to the aerial parts of the plant.
  • It consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers. In xylem, only the xylem parenchyma is a living cell, while the others are dead at maturity. Hence, options 3 and 4 are incorrect.
  • Simple Plant Tissues:
  • Collenchyma: Provides mechanical support and flexibility to young plant parts like the petiole of a leaf. It consists of living cells with localized cellulose thickening at corners.
  • Sclerenchyma: Composed of dead cells with highly thickened, lignified walls, providing structural rigidity and strength to the plant. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • Bidirectional Transport: Unlike the xylem, which moves water only upwards, the phloem facilitates bidirectional movement. This ensures that food can move both downwards to the roots and upwards to developing buds or fruits.

Important Points

  • Vascular Bundles: The xylem and phloem together form vascular bundles. In dicotyledonous stems, there is a layer of cambium between them, allowing for secondary growth (increase in girth).
  • Sugar Source and Sink: The "source" is usually the leaves (where food is synthesized), and the "sink" is the part that needs or stores the food. The phloem transport is driven by a pressure gradient created by the active loading of solutes.
  • Evolutionary Context: The development of vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) was a critical adaptation that allowed Tracheophytes (vascular plants) to colonize land and grow to significant heights, unlike non-vascular plants like mosses.
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Question 90

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is the correct unit of average speed in SI system?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( \text{km/h}^2 \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( \text{m/s}^2 \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( \text{s/m}^2 \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( \text{m/s} \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

\( \text{m/s} \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is m/s.

Key Points

  • Average speed is defined as the total distance traveled by an object divided by the total time taken to cover that distance.
  • In the International System of Units (SI), which was established in 1960, the standard unit for length (distance) is the meter (m) and the standard unit for time is the second (s).
  • By using the formula Speed = Distance / Time, the derived SI unit becomes meters per second, mathematically expressed as m/s or m s⁻¹.
  • Option 1 (km/h²): This is not a recognized standard unit for speed or average speed in the SI system, though km/h is a common metric unit for speed. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Option 2 (m/s²): This is the SI unit of acceleration, which measures the rate of change of velocity over time. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Option 3 (s/m²): This unit does not represent any standard physical quantity in classical mechanics. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Option 4 (m/s): This is the correct SI unit for both instantaneous speed and average speed. Hence, this statement is correct.

Additional Information

  • Scalar vs Vector: Speed is a scalar quantity because it possesses only magnitude and no direction. Velocity, which is the displacement divided by time, is a vector quantity as it includes both magnitude and direction.
  • Measuring Instruments: In automobiles, the speedometer is used to measure the instantaneous speed of the vehicle at any given moment, while the odometer records the total distance traveled.
  • Unit Conversion: In daily life, speed is often expressed in kilometers per hour (km/h). To convert 1 km/h to m/s, we multiply by 5/18 (since 1000m / 3600s = 5/18). For example, 36 km/h is equal to 10 m/s.
  • Dimensional Formula: The dimensional formula for speed is [M⁰ L¹ T⁻¹], indicating it is independent of mass (M) and depends on length (L) and time (T).
  • Types of Speed: Apart from average speed, there is Uniform speed (covering equal distances in equal intervals of time) and Variable speed (covering unequal distances in equal intervals of time).

Important Points

  • CGS System: In the Centimetre-Gram-Second (CGS) system of units, the unit of speed is centimeter per second (cm/s).
  • FPS System: In the Foot-Pound-Second (FPS) system, speed is measured in feet per second (ft/s).
  • Speed of Light: The ultimate speed limit in the universe is the speed of light in a vacuum, which is approximately 299,792,458 m/s (often rounded to 3 x 10⁸ m/s).
  • Supersonic Speeds: Speeds exceeding the speed of sound (approx. 343 m/s in air) are referred to as supersonic and are often measured using Mach numbers.
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Question 91

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A real and inverted image is formed at a distance of \( 30 \text{ cm} \) from a concave mirror when the object is placed \( 40 \text{ cm} \) from the mirror. What will be the magnification produced by the mirror?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( + 3/4 \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( - 4/3 \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( - 3/4 \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( + 4/3 \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

\( - 3/4 \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 3/4.

Key Points

  • Magnification (m) produced by a spherical mirror gives the relative extent to which the image of an object is magnified with respect to the object size.
  • It is expressed as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object. It is also related to the object distance (u) and image distance (v) by the formula: m = -v / u.
  • According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the object distance (u) is always negative. In this case, u = - 40 cm.
  • Since the image is real and inverted and formed in front of the concave mirror, the image distance (v) is also negative. Here, v = - 30 cm.
  • Substituting the values into the formula: m = - (- 30) / (- 40). This simplifies to m = 30 / (- 40), which equals - 3/4.
  • The negative sign in the result signifies that the image is real and inverted. Hence, the correct answer is - 3/4.

Additional Information

  • Concave Mirror: A spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved inwards (towards the center of the sphere). It is also known as a converging mirror because it converges light rays at a single point called the focus.
  • Sign Convention Rules:
  • The Pole (P) is taken as the origin.
  • Distances measured in the direction of incident light are positive.
  • Distances measured opposite to the direction of incident light are negative.
  • Heights measured upwards and perpendicular to the principal axis are positive, while those measured downwards are negative.
  • Nature of Magnification:
  • If m is negative, the image is real and inverted.
  • If m is positive, the image is virtual and erect.
  • If |m| > 1, the image is magnified (larger than the object).
  • If |m| < 1, the image is diminished (smaller than the object).

Important Points

  • Mirror Formula: The relationship between focal length (f), object distance (u), and image distance (v) is given by 1/f = 1/v + 1/u.
  • In this specific question, since |m| = 3/4 (0.75), which is less than 1, the image is diminished.
  • For a concave mirror, real images are always inverted, and virtual images (formed when the object is between the Focus and Pole) are always erect and magnified.
  • The radius of curvature (R) is twice the focal length (f), denoted as R = 2f.
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Question 92

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A sound wave has a speed of \( 320 \text{ m/s} \). If the wavelength of the wave is \( 0.4 \text{ m} \), what is the frequency of this wave?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( 800 \text{ Hz} \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( 1280 \text{ Hz} \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( 80 \text{ Hz} \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( 128 \text{ Hz} \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

\( 800 \text{ Hz} \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 800 Hz.

Key Points

  • The relationship between the speed, frequency, and wavelength of a wave is governed by the universal wave equation: Speed (v) = Frequency (f) × Wavelength (λ).
  • In the given problem, the speed of the sound wave (v) is 320 m/s and the wavelength (λ) is 0.4 m.
  • To calculate the frequency (f), the formula is rearranged as f = v / λ.
  • By substituting the provided numerical values into the equation: f = 320 / 0.4.
  • The calculation 320 / 0.4 equals 800. Thus, the frequency of the sound wave is 800 Hz. Hence, the correct answer is 800 Hz.

Additional Information

  • Frequency:
  • Frequency refers to the number of complete oscillations or wave cycles that pass a fixed point in one second.
  • The SI unit of frequency is the Hertz (Hz), named after the physicist Heinrich Hertz. One Hertz is equivalent to one cycle per second.
  • Wavelength:
  • Wavelength is the spatial period of a periodic wave—the distance over which the wave's shape repeats.
  • In longitudinal waves like sound, it is the distance between the centers of two consecutive compressions or two consecutive rarefactions. It is measured in meters (m).
  • Nature of Sound Waves:
  • Sound is a mechanical wave, meaning it requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel. It cannot propagate through a vacuum.
  • It is also a longitudinal wave, where the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of energy transport.

Important Points

  • Human Audibility: The standard audible range for humans is between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). Since 800 Hz falls within this range, it is an audible sound to the human ear.
  • Pitch and Frequency: The pitch of a sound is directly proportional to its frequency. A wave with a higher frequency is perceived as having a higher pitch (shrill), while a lower frequency is perceived as a lower pitch (grave).
  • Speed of Sound in Air: The speed of sound is not constant; it varies with temperature and humidity. For example, at 0 degrees Celsius, the speed is approximately 331 m/s, whereas at 20 degrees Celsius, it increases to about 343 m/s.
  • Medium Density: Sound travels fastest in solids (due to high elasticity and density), slower in liquids, and slowest in gases. In steel, the speed can reach approximately 5960 m/s.
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Question 93

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

During the birth, the ovaries of a girl child contain ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only immature eggs

  2. BOption (b)

    Both mature and immature eggs

  3. COption (c)

    No eggs

  4. DOption (d)

    Only mature eggs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only immature eggs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only immature eggs.

Key Points

  • At the time of birth, the ovaries of a human female child already contain all the eggs she will ever have throughout her lifetime.
  • These eggs are in an immature state and are scientifically referred to as primary oocytes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Unlike the male reproductive system, which produces sperm continuously after puberty, the female reproductive system does not produce any new eggs after the birth of the child.
  • The process of egg maturation does not begin until the girl reaches puberty, which typically occurs between the ages of 10 and 14 years. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Because the ovaries are fully formed and populated with follicles during fetal development, it is false to say they contain no eggs at birth. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Since the maturation process is triggered by hormonal changes later in life, a newborn cannot possess mature eggs (secondary oocytes) ready for fertilization. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Oogenesis:
  • This is the biological process of the formation of a mature female gamete or ovum.
  • It begins during the embryonic development stage when a couple of million gamete mother cells (oogonia) are formed within each fetal ovary.
  • These cells start cell division and enter into prophase-I of the meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocytes.
  • Puberty and Ovulation:
  • Upon reaching puberty, the hypothalamus releases Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland.
  • The pituitary gland secretes Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH), which trigger the maturation of a few immature eggs each month.
  • Usually, only one follicle matures fully to release a mature egg during the menstrual cycle, a process known as ovulation.
  • Menopause:
  • The supply of eggs decreases over time due to a process called atresia.
  • When the store of oocytes is eventually exhausted, usually around the age of 45 to 55, the female reaches menopause, marking the end of reproductive capability.

Important Points

  • Numerical Data: A female child is born with approximately 1 to 2 million immature eggs. By the time she reaches puberty, only about 300,000 to 400,000 remain.
  • During a woman's entire reproductive life, only about 400 to 500 of these eggs will actually mature and be released during ovulation.
  • Cellular Stage: The immature eggs are specifically arrested in the diplotene stage of Prophase I of Meiosis I. Completion of the first meiotic division occurs just before ovulation.
  • Location: These eggs are housed within structures called ovarian follicles located in the cortex of the ovaries.
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Question 94

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Based on the reactivity series, which of the following metals is the least reactive?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ca (calcium)

  2. BOption (b)

    Fe (iron)

  3. COption (c)

    Au (gold)

  4. DOption (d)

    K (potassium)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Au (gold)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Au (gold).

Key Points

  • The reactivity series is a sequence of metals arranged in the decreasing order of their chemical reactivity. It helps in predicting how metals will behave in displacement reactions and their interaction with water, oxygen, and acids.
  • Gold (Au) is located at the very bottom of the reactivity series. This indicates that it is the most stable and the least reactive metal among the given options. Because of its inert nature, gold does not react with oxygen or water even at high temperatures.
  • Potassium (K) is placed at the top of the reactivity series. It is an alkali metal that reacts violently with cold water to produce hydrogen gas and heat. It is so reactive that it must be stored under kerosene oil to prevent reaction with atmospheric moisture.
  • Calcium (Ca) is also a highly reactive metal, although less so than potassium. It reacts readily with cold water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen bubbles, which often cause the metal to float.
  • Iron (Fe) is a moderately reactive metal found in the middle of the series. It does not react with cold water but reacts with steam to form iron oxide. It also reacts slowly with oxygen and moisture to form rust (hydrated ferric oxide).
  • Comparing the positions, Potassium (K) > Calcium (Ca) > Iron (Fe) > Gold (Au). Hence, Gold (Au) is the least reactive metal.

Additional Information

  • Concept of Reactivity: The reactivity of a metal is determined by its tendency to lose electrons and form positive ions (cations). Metals like Potassium and Sodium have one electron in their outermost shell, which they lose very easily, making them highly electropositive.
  • Noble Metals: Metals like Gold (Au), Silver (Ag), and Platinum (Pt) are often referred to as noble metals. Because they are least reactive, they are found in nature in their native state (free state) rather than in combined forms like oxides or sulfides. This property makes them ideal for jewelry and electronic components as they do not corrode.
  • Displacement Reactions: A metal higher in the reactivity series can displace a metal lower in the series from its salt solution. For example, Iron (Fe) can displace Copper (Cu) from a copper sulfate solution, but Gold (Au) cannot displace any of the metals mentioned in the options.
  • Extraction Methods: The position in the reactivity series dictates the method of extraction. Highly reactive metals (K, Na, Ca, Mg, Al) are extracted through electrolysis of their molten chlorides or oxides. Moderately reactive metals (Zn, Fe, Pb) are reduced using Carbon (C). The least reactive metals (Au, Ag) are found in their pure form and require only physical separation.
  • Reaction with Acids: Metals above Hydrogen (H) in the series can displace hydrogen from dilute acids (like HCl or H2SO4). Gold, being below hydrogen, does not react with dilute acids and can only be dissolved in Aqua Regia (a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and hydrochloric acid in a 1:3 ratio).
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Question 95

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which structure in Rhizopus is directly involved in the process of reproduction through spore formation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hyphae

  2. BOption (b)

    Sporangia

  3. COption (c)

    Mycelium

  4. DOption (d)

    Rhizoids

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sporangia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sporangia.

Key Points

  • Rhizopus is a genus of saprophytic fungi, commonly known as bread mold, which belongs to the phylum Zygomycota.
  • The Sporangia (singular: sporangium) are the spherical, sac-like structures specifically responsible for asexual reproduction through the production of spores. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • These structures develop at the tips of specialized upright hyphae known as sporangiophores.
  • Inside the sporangium, the protoplasm undergoes cleavage to form thousands of minute, multinucleate, and non-motile sporangiospores.
  • When the spores mature, the outer wall of the sporangium ruptures due to internal pressure or environmental factors, dispersing the spores into the air to colonize new substrates.

Additional Information

  • Hyphae:
  • These are the individual, thread-like filaments that make up the body of the fungus. In Rhizopus, the hyphae are coenocytic, meaning they are continuous tubes filled with multinucleated cytoplasm without septa (cross-walls).
  • While they form the structural basis, they are not the direct site of spore formation. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Mycelium:
  • The mycelium refers to the entire collective network or mass of hyphae that constitutes the vegetative part of the fungus.
  • It is responsible for nutrient absorption and spreading across the substrate (like bread or fruit). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Rhizoids:
  • Rhizoids are root-like, branching hyphae that grow downward into the food source.
  • Their primary functions include anchoring the fungus to the substrate and secreting digestive enzymes to absorb organic nutrients. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Stolons:
  • These are horizontal hyphae that grow along the surface of the substrate, connecting different clusters of rhizoids and sporangiophores.

Important Points

  • Asexual Reproduction: This is the most common method of reproduction in Rhizopus, occurring rapidly under favorable conditions of moisture and temperature (typically 25°C to 30°C).
  • Sexual Reproduction: While sporangia handle asexual cycles, Rhizopus can also undergo sexual reproduction through the fusion of two compatible gametangia, leading to the formation of a thick-walled zygospore.
  • Columella: This is the central sterile portion found inside the sporangium. It plays a role in nutrient exchange for the developing spores.
  • Economic Importance: Some species like Rhizopus stolonifer cause food spoilage, while others like Rhizopus oryzae are used in the industrial production of lactic acid and cortisone.
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Question 96

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements is true about weight and mass?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both mass and weight change on the Moon

  2. BOption (b)

    Only mass changes on the Moon

  3. COption (c)

    Neither mass nor weight changes on the Moon

  4. DOption (d)

    Only weight changes on the Moon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only weight changes on the Moon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only weight changes on the Moon.

Key Points

  • Mass is defined as the total quantity of matter contained in an object. It is an intrinsic property of the body and remains constant regardless of the location in the universe, whether on Earth, the Moon, or in deep space.
  • Weight is the gravitational force exerted on an object by a celestial body. It is calculated using the formula W = m × g, where m is mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
  • The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is approximately 1.62 m/s², which is about 1/6th (or 16.6%) of the gravity on Earth (9.8 m/s²). Since g changes, the weight of an object will change when moved to the Moon.
  • The statement "Both mass and weight change on the Moon" is incorrect because mass is a scalar quantity that does not depend on gravity. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The statement "Only mass changes on the Moon" is incorrect because mass remains invariant, while weight is the property that actually fluctuates. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The statement "Neither mass nor weight changes on the Moon" is incorrect because while mass is constant, the gravitational pull of the Moon is significantly weaker than Earth's, causing weight to decrease. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The statement "Only weight changes on the Moon" is correct because an object's matter stays the same, but the force of gravity acting upon it decreases to 1/6th of its Earth value. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Detailed Comparison of Mass and Weight:
  • Measurement Units: The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg), whereas the SI unit of weight is the Newton (N), as it is a measure of force.
  • Nature of Quantity: Mass is a scalar quantity (it has only magnitude), while weight is a vector quantity because it acts in a specific direction (towards the center of the gravity source).
  • Measuring Instruments: Mass is typically measured using a physical balance or beam balance, while weight is measured using a spring balance.
  • Gravity on Different Celestial Bodies:
  • On Jupiter, which has a much higher mass than Earth, the acceleration due to gravity is about 24.79 m/s². Consequently, an object's weight would increase by more than 2.5 times, even though its mass remains exactly the same.
  • In a state of free fall or in outer space far from any planet, an object can become weightless (Weight = 0), but it will still possess its original mass.
  • Practical Example:
  • If a person has a mass of 60 kg on Earth, their weight on Earth would be 60 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 588 Newtons.
  • On the Moon, that same person’s mass remains 60 kg, but their weight becomes 60 kg × 1.62 m/s² ≈ 98 Newtons.

Important Points

  • Inertia: Mass is often described as a measure of inertia, which is the resistance of an object to any change in its state of motion. The higher the mass, the higher the inertia.
  • Variation of 'g' on Earth: Even on Earth, weight can vary slightly because the Earth is an oblate spheroid. Gravity is slightly stronger at the poles (where you are closer to the center) and slightly weaker at the equator.
  • Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation: This law states that every point mass attracts every other point mass by a force acting along the line intersecting both points. This force is what we perceive as weight.
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Question 97

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is NOT an olfactory indicator?

  1. AOption (a)

    Clove oil

  2. BOption (b)

    Onion

  3. COption (c)

    Vanilla

  4. DOption (d)

    Litmus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Litmus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Litmus.

Key Points

  • Olfactory indicators are substances whose odor or smell changes depending on whether they are mixed with an acidic or basic solution.
  • Onion is a well-known olfactory indicator. When treated with a base like sodium hydroxide (NaOH), the characteristic sharp smell of onion cannot be detected. however, its smell does not vanish when treated with an acid. Hence, it is an olfactory indicator.
  • Vanilla essence has a characteristic pleasant smell. If we add a few drops of dilute Hydrochloric acid (HCl), the smell persists, but if we add dilute NaOH, the smell of vanilla vanishes. Hence, it is an olfactory indicator.
  • Clove oil also acts as an olfactory indicator. Its distinct smell changes or disappears in the presence of a base, while it remains detectable in acidic conditions. Hence, it is an olfactory indicator.
  • Litmus is a natural indicator but it is a visual indicator rather than an olfactory one. It changes its color in different media; it turns red in acidic solutions and blue in basic solutions. It does not rely on a change in smell for detection. Hence, it is NOT an olfactory indicator and is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Natural Indicators:
  • These are indicators obtained from natural sources like plants.
  • Litmus is extracted from Lichens (a symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi). It is the most commonly used indicator in laboratories.
  • Turmeric is another natural indicator. It remains yellow in acidic solutions but turns reddish-brown in basic solutions (often seen when soap, which is basic, touches a turmeric stain).
  • Synthetic Indicators:
  • These are laboratory-synthesized chemical indicators used to test acidity or alkalinity.
  • Phenolphthalein is a popular synthetic indicator that remains colorless in acidic solutions and turns pink in basic solutions.
  • Methyl Orange turns red in acidic media and yellow in basic media.
  • Significance of Olfactory Indicators:
  • Olfactory indicators are particularly useful for visually impaired students in chemistry laboratories, as they can identify the nature of a substance (acid or base) through the sense of smell rather than sight.
  • pH Scale:
  • The pH scale was introduced by S.P.L. Sorensen in 1909 to measure the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
  • The scale ranges from 0 to 14, where 7 is neutral, values below 7 are acidic, and values above 7 are basic or alkaline.
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Question 98

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A student shows a concave lens forming a diminished real image on the screen. The mistake is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Concave lens does not refract light

  2. BOption (b)

    Concave lens cannot form a magnified image

  3. COption (c)

    Concave lens always converges light

  4. DOption (d)

    Concave lens cannot form a real image

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Concave lens cannot form a real image

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Concave lens cannot form a real image.

Key Points

  • A concave lens is also known as a diverging lens because it diverges the parallel rays of light incident on it after refraction.
  • For any position of a real object, a concave lens always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image.
  • A virtual image is formed when light rays appear to meet at a point but do not actually intersect; therefore, such images cannot be obtained on a screen. Hence, the student's claim of forming an image on a screen is a fundamental mistake.
  • While a concave lens does indeed form diminished images, the impossibility of it being real (and thus projectable on a screen) is the primary error in the student's observation. Hence, statement 4 is the correct identification of the mistake.
  • The image in a concave lens is always formed between the Optical Centre (O) and the Principal Focus (F1) on the same side as the object.

Additional Information

  • Lens Formula and Sign Convention:
  • The relationship between object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) is given by 1/v - 1/u = 1/f.
  • For a concave lens, the focal length (f) is always taken as negative according to the Cartesian sign convention.
  • Magnification (m):
  • It is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object (h'/h) or v/u.
  • For a concave lens, the magnification is always positive (indicating an erect image) and less than 1 (indicating a diminished image).
  • Applications of Concave Lenses:
  • They are primarily used in spectacles to correct Myopia (near-sightedness), as they help shift the image back onto the retina.
  • They are also used in peepholes of house doors, flashlights, and telescopes to provide a wider field of view or to manipulate light beams.
  • Comparison with Convex Lenses:
  • A convex lens is a converging lens that can form both real and virtual images depending on the object's position.
  • A real, diminished image can be formed by a convex lens when the object is placed beyond 2F1.

Important Points

  • The Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters (P = 1/f). The SI unit of power is Dioptre (D).
  • Since the focal length of a concave lens is negative, its power is also always negative.
  • Light passing through the optical centre of any lens emerges without any deviation.
  • The refractive index of the material and the curvature of the lens surfaces determine the focal length of the lens.
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Question 99

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The disease-causing pathogens in plants can be transmitted through______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Soil

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Soil and Air

  3. COption (c)

    Air

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither Soil nor Air

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both Soil and Air

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Soil and Air.

Key Points

  • Plant pathogens are biological agents such as fungi, bacteria, viruses, and nematodes that cause diseases in plants, leading to significant agricultural loss worldwide.
  • Soil transmission occurs when pathogens reside in the soil and infect plant roots or the base of the stem. Soil-borne pathogens can survive for long periods in the absence of a host by forming dormant structures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Air transmission involves the movement of pathogen propagules, primarily spores, through wind currents. These spores can travel short distances within a field or thousands of miles across continents. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The transmission of diseases is a complex process where pathogens utilize multiple media, including water (rain splash/irrigation), insect vectors, and contaminated seeds, but soil and air remain the primary environmental pathways for dispersal.
  • Because pathogens can utilize both the subterranean environment (soil) and the atmosphere (air) to find new hosts, the disease spread is categorized as both soil-borne and air-borne. Hence, the correct answer is Both Soil and Air.

Additional Information

  • Soil-borne Diseases:
  • These diseases are often caused by fungi like Fusarium, Rhizoctonia, and Pythium.
  • They typically cause root rot, damping-off, and vascular wilts.
  • Pathogens in the soil can remain viable for 5 to 10 years or more in the form of chlamydospores or sclerotia.
  • Prevention: Techniques like crop rotation and soil solarization are used to manage these pathogens.
  • Air-borne Diseases:
  • Fungal rusts, smuts, and mildews are classic examples of air-borne plant diseases.
  • Puccinia graminis (Wheat Rust) is a famous air-borne pathogen that produces millions of urediniospores that are carried by the wind.
  • Environmental factors like relative humidity and wind velocity play a crucial role in the successful dispersal and germination of air-borne spores.
  • Late Blight of Potato, caused by Phytophthora infestans, spread rapidly across Ireland in the 1840s due to air-borne and water-borne transmission.
  • Other Transmission Modes:
  • Vector-borne: Many plant viruses (e.g., Tobacco Mosaic Virus) are transmitted by insects like aphids, whiteflies, and leafhoppers.
  • Seed-borne: Pathogens can be carried on the surface of or inside seeds, ensuring the disease is present when the plant begins to grow.

Important Points

  • Disease Triangle: For a plant disease to occur, three factors must coincide: a susceptible host, a virulent pathogen, and a favorable environment.
  • Impact on Economy: It is estimated that plant diseases reduce global crop yields by approximately 10% to 16% annually, affecting food security.
  • Modern Detection: Farmers now use spore traps and remote sensing to monitor air-borne pathogens and DNA-based soil testing to identify soil-borne threats before planting.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 100

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The filament of a light bulb is made up of tungsten, because of its ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    High resistance and high melting point

  2. BOption (b)

    High resistance and low melting point

  3. COption (c)

    Low resistance and low melting point

  4. DOption (d)

    Low resistance and high melting point

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

High resistance and high melting point

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is High resistance and high melting point.

Key Points

  • The filament of an incandescent light bulb is made of Tungsten (chemical symbol W) because it possesses a high melting point and high resistance.
  • High Melting Point: Tungsten has the highest melting point of all metallic elements, recorded at approximately 3422°C (6192°F). This characteristic is crucial because the filament must reach temperatures above 2000°C to emit visible light through incandescence without melting or deforming.
  • High Resistivity: Tungsten provides significant electrical resistance. When an electric current passes through the thin tungsten wire, the Joule heating effect (expressed as Heat = I²Rt) converts electrical energy into intense thermal energy, causing the filament to glow.
  • Low Vapor Pressure: At elevated temperatures, tungsten exhibits a very low vapor pressure, which minimizes the rate of sublimation. This prevents the filament from thinning too quickly and reduces the darkening of the glass bulb caused by metal deposits.
  • Ductility and Strength: Tungsten is highly ductile, meaning it can be drawn into very fine wires. It also maintains great tensile strength even at high temperatures, which is necessary for the stability of the coiled filament structure.
  • Hence, the correct answer is High resistance and high melting point.

Additional Information

  • Composition of a Light Bulb:
  • A standard incandescent bulb consists of a glass envelope, a tungsten filament, and contact wires.
  • The bulb is typically filled with an inert gas such as Argon or Nitrogen (sometimes Krypton) to prevent the oxidation of the tungsten filament, which would otherwise burn up instantly in the presence of oxygen.
  • Historical Context:
  • Early light bulbs used carbon filaments, but they had a lower melting point and shorter lifespan. Tungsten filaments were introduced around 1904-1906, revolutionizing the lighting industry due to their superior durability and brightness.
  • The transition to tungsten was significantly advanced by William Coolidge in 1910, who developed a method to make tungsten more ductile.
  • Energy Efficiency:
  • Incandescent bulbs are relatively inefficient compared to modern LED (Light Emitting Diode) or CFL (Compact Fluorescent Lamp) technology.
  • Approximately 90% to 95% of the energy consumed by a tungsten bulb is released as heat, while only 5% to 10% is converted into visible light.

Important Points

  • Tungsten Properties: It has an atomic number of 74 and is found in minerals like Wolframite and Scheelite. Its name "Tungsten" is derived from the Swedish words for heavy stone.
  • Resistance and Temperature: The electrical resistance of tungsten increases as the temperature rises. When the bulb is first switched on, the "cold" resistance is low, leading to a brief inrush current before the filament heats up and the resistance stabilizes.
  • Evaporation and Life Span: Over time, even with inert gas, tungsten atoms slowly evaporate from the filament. This leads to "hot spots" where the wire becomes thinner, has higher resistance, gets even hotter, and eventually breaks, which is why a bulb "burns out."
  • Halogen Bulbs: In a Halogen lamp, a small amount of halogen gas (like Iodine or Bromine) is added. This triggers a chemical reaction that returns evaporated tungsten back to the filament, allowing it to operate at higher temperatures and last longer than standard bulbs.

How should I prepare for General Science in RRB Group D?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.