RRB Group D · Topic Collection

General Science PYQs

Core physics, chemistry, biology, human health, diseases, environmental science, and everyday scientific observations.

2600 Total Questions104 Official PapersYears: 2018–2026Search in General Science
Showing questions 61–80 of 2600Page 4 of 100
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 61

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

When substituting numerical values for the distances (u, v, f) into the Mirror Formula to solve problems, which prerequisite must be strictly followed?

  1. AOption (a)

    All measurements must be taken from the centre of curvature

  2. BOption (b)

    The New Cartesian Sign Convention must be used

  3. COption (c)

    The focal length (f) must always be taken as positive

  4. DOption (d)

    All values must be converted to metres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The New Cartesian Sign Convention must be used

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The New Cartesian Sign Convention must be used.

Key Points

  • The Mirror Formula is a mathematical relationship between the object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) of a spherical mirror, expressed as 1/v + 1/u = 1/f.
  • When substituting numerical values into this formula, it is mandatory to use the New Cartesian Sign Convention to distinguish between the directions and positions of the object and image. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • All distances are measured from the Pole (P) of the mirror, which is treated as the origin of the coordinate system, rather than the centre of curvature. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The focal length (f) is not always positive; it is negative for a concave mirror and positive for a convex mirror according to the convention. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • While it is necessary to maintain consistency in units (e.g., all values in cm or all in mm) to ensure the calculation is correct, it is not a strict prerequisite that they must only be in metres. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Rules of New Cartesian Sign Convention:
  • The object is always placed to the left of the mirror, meaning light is incident from the left side.
  • Distances measured in the direction of incident light (to the right of the pole) are taken as positive.
  • Distances measured against the direction of incident light (to the left of the pole) are taken as negative.
  • Heights measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken as positive, while those measured downward are negative.
  • Concave Mirror:
  • Commonly known as a converging mirror.
  • The focal length (f) and radius of curvature (R) are always negative because the focus lies in front of the mirror.
  • It can form both real and virtual images depending on the object distance (u).
  • Convex Mirror:
  • Commonly known as a diverging mirror.
  • The focal length (f) and radius of curvature (R) are always positive because the focus lies behind the mirror.
  • It always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image.
  • Linear Magnification (m):
  • It is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object, also expressed as m = -v/u.
  • A negative sign in magnification indicates a real image, while a positive sign indicates a virtual image.

Important Points

  • The relationship between radius of curvature (R) and focal length (f) is given by R = 2f. This is applicable for spherical mirrors with small apertures.
  • For a real object, the object distance (u) is always negative because it is placed to the left of the pole.
  • The Mirror Formula is applicable to all types of spherical mirrors (concave and convex) for all positions of the object.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 62

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Identify the product in the reaction given below.

\( CH_3-CH_2OH \xrightarrow[\text{Alkaline } KMnO_4 + \text{Heat}]{\text{or acidified } K_2Cr_2O_7 + \text{Heat}} \text{Product} \)

  1. AOption (a)

    Propanone

  2. BOption (b)

    Ethanoic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Propanal

  4. DOption (d)

    Ethanal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ethanoic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ethanoic acid.

Key Points

  • The reaction given is the oxidation of Ethanol (CH3-CH2OH). Ethanol is a primary alcohol characterized by the presence of one hydroxyl (-OH) group attached to a carbon atom that is bonded to only one other carbon.
  • Alkaline Potassium Permanganate (KMnO4) and Acidified Potassium Dichromate (K2Cr2O7) are both classified as strong oxidizing agents. They are capable of donating oxygen or removing hydrogen from organic substrates.
  • When Ethanol is treated with these reagents and subjected to Heat, it undergoes a two-step oxidation process. It first forms Ethanal (an aldehyde), which is then rapidly oxidized further because of the strength of the reagents.
  • The final product of this complete oxidation is Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH). In this transformation, the carbon chain length remains constant; since the starting alcohol has two carbon atoms, the resulting carboxylic acid also has two carbon atoms. Hence, the product is Ethanoic acid.
  • The reaction can be summarized as: CH3-CH2OH + 2[O] → CH3COOH + H2O. This chemical change involves the conversion of the primary alcoholic group into a carboxylic acid group.

Additional Information

  • Ethanoic Acid (Acetic Acid):
  • Ethanoic acid is the second member of the homologous series of carboxylic acids. It has the chemical formula CH3COOH.
  • A 5% to 8% solution of Ethanoic acid in water is commonly known as Vinegar, which is widely used as a preservative in pickles and in various culinary applications.
  • Pure Ethanoic acid is called Glacial Acetic Acid because its melting point is 290 K, and it often freezes during winter in cold climates, looking like ice.
  • Role of Oxidizing Agents:
  • KMnO4 is a purple colored compound that acts as a strong oxidant in alkaline medium. During the reaction, the purple color disappears, indicating that Ethanol has been oxidized.
  • Acidified K2Cr2O7 is orange in color. When it oxidizes alcohol, the Chromium ions are reduced from Cr(+6) to Cr(+3), causing the solution to turn green.
  • Differentiation of Products:
  • Ethanal (CH3CHO) is the intermediate product. To obtain Ethanal as the final product, a mild oxidizing agent like PCC (Pyridinium Chlorochromate) would be required to prevent over-oxidation to the acid.
  • Propanone (CH3COCH3) is a ketone with three carbons. It is typically formed by the oxidation of a secondary alcohol (like Propan-2-ol), not a primary alcohol like ethanol.
  • Propanal (CH3CH2CHO) is an aldehyde with three carbons. It cannot be formed from ethanol because ethanol only contains two carbon atoms.

Important Points

  • The reaction is categorized as a Combustion/Oxidation reaction in organic chemistry. Unlike combustion, which breaks the carbon chain to release CO2, controlled oxidation preserves the carbon skeleton.
  • Alcohols can be identified through this reaction by observing the color change of the reagents. This is often used as a qualitative test in laboratories.
  • Primary alcohols produce carboxylic acids, secondary alcohols produce ketones, and tertiary alcohols generally do not undergo oxidation under these standard conditions because they lack a hydrogen atom on the alpha-carbon.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 63

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Megaphone, horn and stethoscope are the devices used to __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Block sound

  2. BOption (b)

    Produce, transmit, and amplify sound

  3. COption (c)

    Change pitch

  4. DOption (d)

    Control amplitude of sound

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Produce, transmit, and amplify sound

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Produce, transmit, and amplify sound.

Key Points

  • Megaphones, horns, and stethoscopes are instruments designed to produce, transmit, and amplify sound signals using the physical principle of multiple reflection of sound.
  • In these devices, a tube or a conical shape is used to reflect sound waves repeatedly in such a way that the waves are guided in a specific direction toward the audience or the listener's ear. Hence, the statement regarding their use to produce, transmit, and amplify sound is correct.
  • A megaphone or speaking-trumpet consists of a conical opening that prevents the sound energy from spreading out in all directions, effectively amplifying the sound intensity in the forward direction.
  • A stethoscope is a medical instrument used by doctors to listen to sounds produced within the body, primarily the heart and lungs. It works by transmitting the sound from the chest piece to the earpieces through multiple reflections inside the connecting rubber or plastic tubes.
  • The primary function of these devices is not to block sound or change its pitch, but to ensure that the amplitude and clarity of the sound reaching the observer are significantly increased.

Additional Information

  • Reflection of Sound: Just like light, sound reflects off surfaces. The laws of reflection apply here, where the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection, and all three rays lie in the same plane.
  • Echoes: An echo is the sensation of sound persisting in our brain for about 0.1 seconds. To hear a distinct echo, the minimum distance of the reflecting surface from the source of sound must be 17.2 meters at a temperature of 22 degrees Celsius.
  • Reverberation: This refers to the persistence of sound due to repeated reflections in a large hall or auditorium. Excessive reverberation is usually reduced by using sound-absorbent materials like compressed fiberboards or rough plaster.
  • Pitch vs. Loudness: Pitch depends on the frequency of the sound wave, while loudness or amplification depends on the amplitude. The devices mentioned in the question primarily affect the loudness and direction rather than the frequency (pitch).

Important Points

  • Stethoscope Invention: The stethoscope was invented in 1816 by the French physician named René Laennec. Its modern version helps in diagnosing conditions of the respiratory and cardiovascular systems.
  • Design of Concert Halls: The ceilings of concert halls, conference halls, and cinema halls are often curved so that sound, after reflection, reaches all corners of the hall uniformly.
  • Sound Boards: Sometimes, a curved soundboard is placed behind the speaker in a large hall so that the sound, after reflecting from the soundboard, spreads evenly across the width of the hall.
  • Applications of Multiple Reflection: Apart from medical and public speaking tools, the principle of multiple reflection is also utilized in ultrasonography and SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) technologies used for underwater communication and detection.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 64

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which multicellular organism shows fragmentation as a common mode of asexual reproduction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Spirogyra

  2. BOption (b)

    Bryophyllum

  3. COption (c)

    Jasmine

  4. DOption (d)

    Orange

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Spirogyra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Spirogyra.

Key Points

  • Fragmentation is a form of asexual reproduction where a multicellular organism breaks into several pieces, and each piece grows into a new, complete individual.
  • Spirogyra, which is a filamentous green alga found in freshwater, commonly reproduces through this method. Upon reaching maturity, the long filament simply breaks into smaller fragments. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • This process does not involve the fusion of gametes, making it a simple and rapid way for the organism to colonize a habitat.
  • In Spirogyra, the body design is relatively simple, allowing these broken fragments to undergo mitotic cell division to form a full-length filament again.
  • Unlike regeneration, which is often a defense mechanism or a way to repair damaged parts, fragmentation in these organisms is a standard reproductive strategy.

Additional Information

  • Bryophyllum:
  • This plant is well-known for vegetative propagation through its leaves.
  • Small buds (adventitious buds) develop along the notches of the leaf margins. When these leaves fall on moist soil, the buds develop into independent plantlets. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Jasmine:
  • Jasmine plants are typically propagated through vegetative methods such as layering or stem cutting.
  • In layering, a branch of the plant is bent to the ground and covered with soil while still attached to the parent, eventually growing its own roots. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Orange:
  • Orange trees can reproduce sexually through seeds or via artificial vegetative propagation like grafting.
  • Grafting is a technique where tissues of plants are joined so as to continue their growth together, commonly used in horticulture to ensure consistent fruit quality. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Other Modes of Asexual Reproduction:
  • Budding: Observed in Yeast and Hydra, where an outgrowth or bud develops into a new individual.
  • Fission: Common in unicellular organisms like Amoeba (binary fission) and Plasmodium (multiple fission).
  • Spore Formation: Used by fungi like Rhizopus (bread mould) to survive unfavorable conditions and disperse.

Important Points

  • Spirogyra belongs to the kingdom Plantae and the group Thallophyta.
  • The name Spirogyra is derived from the spiral arrangement of its chloroplasts, which is a distinguishing cellular feature.
  • It is often referred to as "water silk" or "pond scum" due to its slimy texture and appearance in stagnant water bodies.
  • While fragmentation is the common asexual route, Spirogyra can also undergo sexual reproduction through a process called conjugation, where genetic material is exchanged between two filaments.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 65

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is a micronutrient?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manganese

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Phosphorous

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Manganese

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manganese.

Key Points

  • Essential elements for plant growth are divided into two categories based on their quantitative requirements: Macronutrients and Micronutrients.
  • Micronutrients or trace elements are needed in very small amounts, generally less than 10 mmole kg⁻¹ of dry matter.
  • Manganese (Mn) is a key micronutrient absorbed by plants in the form of manganous ions (Mn²⁺). It is essential for the photolysis of water to liberate oxygen during the process of photosynthesis. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It also plays a crucial role in activating several enzymes involved in respiration and nitrogen metabolism.
  • While Manganese is vital, its toxicity can occur if absorbed in excess, often characterized by the appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins.

Additional Information

  • Nitrogen (N):
  • It is a macronutrient required by plants in the greatest amount. It is absorbed mainly as nitrate (NO₃⁻), though some is taken up as nitrite (NO₂⁻) or ammonium (NH₄⁺).
  • It is a major constituent of proteins, nucleic acids, vitamins, and hormones. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Phosphorous (P):
  • It is a macronutrient absorbed by plants from the soil in the form of phosphate ions.
  • It is a constituent of cell membranes, certain proteins, all nucleic acids, and nucleotides, and is required for all phosphorylation reactions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Magnesium (Mg):
  • It is a macronutrient absorbed as divalent Mg²⁺.
  • It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis and is a central constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll. It also helps in maintaining the ribosome structure. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

  • There are 17 essential elements required for plant growth and metabolism.
  • Macronutrients (9): These include Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), Oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N), Phosphorous (P), Potassium (K), Calcium (Ca), Magnesium (Mg), and Sulphur (S).
  • Micronutrients (8): These include Iron (Fe), Manganese (Mn), Copper (Cu), Molybdenum (Mo), Zinc (Zn), Boron (B), Chlorine (Cl), and Nickel (Ni).
  • Criteria for Essentiality: An element is considered essential if the plant cannot complete its life cycle without it, and the element is directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.
  • Nutrients like Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen are mainly obtained from CO₂ and H₂O, while others are absorbed from the soil as minerals.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 66

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

When brakes are applied to a moving car, the car slows down but the passengers inside tend to move forward. This happens because ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    the air inside the car pushes the passengers forward

  2. BOption (b)

    the passengers have inertia and continue in their state of motion

  3. COption (c)

    the passengers are pulled forward by gravity

  4. DOption (d)

    the brakes apply a forward force on the passengers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the passengers have inertia and continue in their state of motion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the passengers have inertia and continue in their state of motion.

Key Points

  • According to Newton’s First Law of Motion, an object will continue in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change that state by an external force applied to it.
  • When a car is in motion, the passengers sitting inside it are also moving at the same velocity as the car.
  • When the brakes are applied suddenly, the car comes to a halt or slows down due to the frictional force between the tires and the road, but this force is not directly applied to the upper body of the passengers.
  • Due to the property of Inertia of Motion, the passengers' bodies tend to maintain their original state of motion (moving forward), while the car (and the lower part of the passenger's body in contact with the seat) slows down.
  • The air inside the car does not have enough mass or pressure change to push passengers forward significantly during braking. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The tendency to move forward is a direct result of the body's inertia resisting the change in velocity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Gravity acts vertically downward and does not pull passengers forward horizontally when brakes are applied. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Brakes apply a backward force (deceleration) on the car, not a forward force on the passengers. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Types of Inertia:
  • Inertia of Rest: The tendency of a body to remain at rest. For example, when a stationary bus starts suddenly, passengers fall backward because their lower body moves with the bus, but the upper body tries to stay at rest.
  • Inertia of Motion: The tendency of a body to remain in uniform motion. The car braking scenario is a classic example of this.
  • Inertia of Direction: The tendency of a body to resist a change in its direction of motion. For example, when a car takes a sharp curve, passengers are thrown toward the outside of the curve.
  • Mass and Inertia:
  • The inertia of an object is measured by its mass. An object with a larger mass (like a truck) has more inertia and is harder to stop or start than an object with a smaller mass (like a bicycle).
  • The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg).
  • Applications in Safety:
  • Seatbelts are designed to provide the necessary external force to stop the passenger's body from moving forward due to inertia, preventing them from hitting the windshield or dashboard.
  • Airbags provide a cushion to increase the time of impact, thereby reducing the force exerted on the passenger during a sudden stop.

Important Points

  • The concept of Inertia was first proposed by Galileo Galilei through his experiments with inclined planes and was later incorporated by Sir Isaac Newton as the First Law of Motion.
  • Newton published these laws in his famous book "Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica" in the year 1687.
  • It is important to note that Inertia is not a force but a property of matter.
  • The Net External Force acting on an object is zero if the object is moving at a constant velocity or is at rest.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 67

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A sodium chloride crystal contains sodium and chloride ions in a 1:1 ratio. To calculate the formula unit mass of sodium chloride, which process would you use?

  1. AOption (a)

    Add the atomic mass of sodium and the atomic mass of chlorine

  2. BOption (b)

    Divide the atomic mass of sodium by that of chlorine

  3. COption (c)

    Subtract the atomic mass of chlorine from that of sodium

  4. DOption (d)

    Multiply the atomic mass of sodium and the atomic mass of chlorine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Add the atomic mass of sodium and the atomic mass of chlorine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Add the atomic mass of sodium and the atomic mass of chlorine.

Key Points

  • The formula unit mass of a substance is defined as the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms present in a formula unit of a compound.
  • In the case of Sodium Chloride (NaCl), the crystal lattice consists of Sodium (Na+) and Chloride (Cl-) ions arranged in a 1:1 ratio.
  • To calculate the formula unit mass, one must identify the atomic mass of each constituent element from the Periodic Table and add them together based on their proportions in the chemical formula. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Mathematical operations like division, subtraction, or multiplication of atomic masses do not represent the physical reality of combining masses in a chemical compound. Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
  • For NaCl, the atomic mass of Sodium (Na) is approximately 23.0 u and the atomic mass of Chlorine (Cl) is approximately 35.5 u.
  • The calculation is: 23.0 u + 35.5 u = 58.5 u. This total represents the mass of one formula unit of the ionic compound.

Additional Information

  • Formula Unit Mass vs. Molecular Mass:
  • The term molecular mass is used for substances that exist as discrete molecules (like H2O or CO2).
  • The term formula unit mass is specifically used for ionic compounds (like NaCl, CaCl2, or KNO3) because they exist as continuous three-dimensional crystal lattices rather than individual molecules.
  • Unified Atomic Mass Unit (u):
  • Atomic masses are measured in u, where 1 u is exactly 1/12th of the mass of one atom of Carbon-12.
  • This unit was previously known as amu (atomic mass unit).
  • Structure of NaCl:
  • Sodium Chloride, also known as Common Salt or Halite, crystallizes in a Face-Centered Cubic (FCC) structure.
  • In this arrangement, each Na+ ion is surrounded by 6 Cl- ions, and vice versa, maintaining a coordination number of 6.
  • Molar Mass:
  • When the formula unit mass is expressed in grams per mole (g/mol), it is called the molar mass.
  • The molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g/mol, meaning 6.022 x 10^23 formula units of NaCl weigh 58.5 grams.

Important Points

  • Calculating Multiple Atoms: If an ionic compound has a subscript in its formula (e.g., Calcium Chloride, CaCl2), the atomic mass of the element with the subscript must be multiplied by that number before adding.
  • For CaCl2: (Mass of Ca) + 2 × (Mass of Cl) = 40.0 u + (2 × 35.5 u) = 111.0 u.
  • Law of Conservation of Mass: The calculation of formula mass relies on the principle that the mass of a compound is the sum of the masses of its constituent atoms, as proposed by John Dalton in his Atomic Theory.
  • Physical State: NaCl is a solid at room temperature with a high melting point of approximately 801°C (1,474°F) due to strong electrostatic forces between the oppositely charged ions.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 68

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The SI unit of the universal gravitational constant \( G \) is _____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    \( kg/m^3 \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( N \cdot m2/kg2 \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( N/m2 \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( N-Kg2/m2 \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

\( N \cdot m2/kg2 \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is N m2/kg2.

Key Points

  • Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation states that the force of attraction between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
  • The mathematical expression for this law is F = G (m1 m2 / r2), where F represents the gravitational force, m1 and m2 are the masses of the two objects, r is the distance between them, and G is the Universal Gravitational Constant.
  • To find the SI unit of G, we rearrange the formula: G = F r2 / (m1 m2).
  • By substituting the standard units—Newton (N) for force, meter (m) for distance, and kilogram (kg) for mass—we derive the unit as N m2 / kg2. Hence, the correct answer is N m2/kg2.
  • The accepted numerical value of the gravitational constant G is approximately 6.674 x 10^-11 N m2/kg2.

Additional Information

  • Discovery and Measurement: The value of the Universal Gravitational Constant was first measured with high precision by the British scientist Henry Cavendish in the year 1798 using a torsion balance experiment.
  • Dimensional Formula: The dimensions of G are represented as [M-1 L3 T-2], derived from the base units of force, length, and mass.
  • Nature of G: It is a scalar quantity, meaning it only has magnitude and does not depend on direction. It is called a "universal" constant because its value is believed to be the same everywhere in the universe.
  • Comparison with 'g': It is important to distinguish G from g (acceleration due to gravity). While G is a constant, the value of g (approximately 9.8 m/s2 on Earth) changes depending on the location, such as altitude or the celestial body one is standing on.
  • Other Units in Options:
  • kg/m3 is the SI unit of density, representing mass per unit volume.
  • N/m2 is the SI unit of pressure, also known as the Pascal (Pa).

Important Points

  • Independence of Properties: The value of G does not depend on the medium between the two bodies, the temperature, or the chemical composition of the objects.
  • Role in Physics: The gravitational constant is a fundamental component in Einstein's Field Equations of General Relativity and is essential for calculating the orbital mechanics of planets, moons, and satellites.
  • Weak Force: Gravity is the weakest of the four fundamental forces of nature (the others being electromagnetism, strong nuclear force, and weak nuclear force), which is why the value of G is so small (on the order of 10^-11).
  • Calculation Applications: Using the value of G, scientists can determine the mass of the Earth (approx 5.97 x 10^24 kg) and other planets by observing the gravitational influence they exert on other objects.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 69

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

For a body moving with uniform velocity, the acceleration is:

  1. AOption (a)

    constant

  2. BOption (b)

    zero

  3. COption (c)

    decreasing

  4. DOption (d)

    increasing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

zero

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is zero.

Key Points

  • Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. In physics, it is a vector quantity that describes how quickly an object's velocity is changing.
  • A body is said to be moving with uniform velocity when it covers equal displacements in equal intervals of time, meaning both its magnitude (speed) and direction remain constant over time.
  • The mathematical formula for acceleration (a) is given by a = (v - u) / t, where v represents the final velocity, u represents the initial velocity, and t is the time interval.
  • In the case of uniform velocity, the initial velocity is exactly equal to the final velocity (u = v). Therefore, the change in velocity (v - u) is 0.
  • Because the change in velocity is 0, the result of the acceleration formula becomes 0 / t, which equals zero. Hence, for a body moving with uniform velocity, the acceleration is always zero.

Additional Information

  • Velocity vs. Speed: While speed is a scalar quantity (only magnitude), velocity is a vector quantity. A change in either the speed or the direction of motion will result in a change in velocity, thereby producing acceleration.
  • Uniform Circular Motion: This is a unique case where an object moves at a constant speed but its velocity is constantly changing because its direction is changing at every point. In this scenario, the acceleration is not zero; it is called centripetal acceleration.
  • Graphical Representation:
  • In a Velocity-Time (v-t) graph, uniform velocity is represented by a horizontal straight line parallel to the time axis. The slope of a v-t graph represents acceleration; since the slope of a horizontal line is 0, the acceleration is zero.
  • In a Position-Time (s-t) graph, uniform velocity is represented by a straight line with a constant slope. The slope of this graph represents the velocity of the object.
  • Types of Acceleration:
  • Positive Acceleration: Occurs when the velocity of an object increases over time.
  • Negative Acceleration (Retardation/Deceleration): Occurs when the velocity of an object decreases over time.
  • Zero Acceleration: Occurs when the object is at rest or moving with uniform velocity.

Important Points

  • Newton's First Law of Motion: Also known as the Law of Inertia, it states that an object will remain in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change 그 state by an external force. This implies that if acceleration is zero, the net external force acting on the body is also zero.
  • Newton's Second Law: Defined by the equation F = ma (Force = mass x acceleration). This relationship confirms that if acceleration (a) is 0, the resultant force (F) must be 0, regardless of the object's mass.
  • Units and Dimensions: The S.I. unit of acceleration is m/s² (meters per second squared). Its dimensional formula is [M⁰ L¹ T⁻²].
  • Instantaneous Acceleration: This refers to the acceleration of an object at a specific instant of time, calculated by taking the derivative of velocity with respect to time (dv/dt). For uniform velocity, this derivative is always 0.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 70

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following molecules is split apart by higher energy ultraviolet for formation of ozone?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zinc

  2. BOption (b)

    Iron

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxygen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Oxygen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oxygen.

Key Points

  • Ozone (O3) is a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms. It is formed naturally in the upper atmosphere through a photochemical process.
  • The formation of Ozone begins when higher-energy ultraviolet (UV) radiation, specifically UV-C rays from the sun, strike an Oxygen molecule (O2).
  • This high-energy radiation has enough energy to break the chemical bond holding the Oxygen molecule together, splitting it into two individual Oxygen atoms (O + O). This process is known as photolysis or photodissociation.
  • These freed, highly reactive Oxygen atoms then quickly collide and combine with another intact Oxygen molecule (O2) to form Ozone (O3).
  • The presence of a third body (usually Nitrogen or another Oxygen molecule) is often required in the collision to absorb excess energy and stabilize the newly formed Ozone molecule.
  • Other options like Zinc, Iron, and Sodium are metallic elements that do not exist as gaseous diatomic molecules in the Earth's atmosphere to participate in this specific UV-driven ozone formation cycle.

Additional Information

  • The Chapman Cycle: This is the set of four reactions, first proposed by Sydney Chapman in 1930, that describes how Ozone is continuously regenerated in the Earth's stratosphere.
  • Location of Ozone: About 90% of the Earth's ozone is found in the Stratosphere (the atmospheric layer between 10 km and 50 km above the Earth's surface). This region is commonly called the Ozone Layer.
  • Functions of the Ozone Layer: It acts as a protective shield by absorbing 97% to 99% of the sun's medium-frequency ultraviolet light (from about 200 nm to 315 nm wavelength), which otherwise would potentially damage exposed life forms on Earth.
  • Types of UV Radiation:
  • UV-A (315–400 nm): Not absorbed by Ozone; reaches the surface.
  • UV-B (280–315 nm): Partially absorbed by Ozone; causes sunburn and skin cancer.
  • UV-C (100–280 nm): Completely absorbed by Oxygen and Ozone in the upper atmosphere; it is the most energetic and dangerous type.

Important Points

  • Measurement: The concentration of Ozone in the atmosphere is measured in Dobson Units (DU). A typical baseline value is approximately 300 DU.
  • Ozone Hole: This refers to the thinning of the Ozone layer, primarily over Antarctica, caused by Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS) like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and carbon tetrachloride.
  • Montreal Protocol: An international treaty signed in 1987 (effective from 1989) designed to protect the Ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
  • World Ozone Day: Observed every year on September 16th to commemorate the date of the signing of the Montreal Protocol.
  • Ground-level Ozone: While stratospheric ozone is "good" for protection, tropospheric ozone (ground-level) is a "bad" pollutant and a key constituent of smog, formed by the reaction of NOx and VOCs in the presence of sunlight.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 71

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following rays is NOT used to locate the image formed by a spherical mirror?

  1. AOption (a)

    A ray passing through the focus that reflects parallel to the principal axis

  2. BOption (b)

    A ray passing through the center of curvature that reflects back along the same path

  3. COption (c)

    A ray perpendicular to the principal axis that reflects through the focus

  4. DOption (d)

    A ray parallel to the principal axis that reflects through the focus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A ray perpendicular to the principal axis that reflects through the focus

Why this answer is correct

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is A ray perpendicular to the principal axis that reflects through the focus.

 

Key Points

  • To locate the image formed by a spherical mirror, certain specific rays are used because their paths after reflection are predictable based on the laws of reflection.
  • Ray 1 (Parallel Ray): A ray that is parallel to the principal axis will, after reflection, pass through the principal focus in a concave mirror or appear to diverge from the focus in a convex mirror. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • Ray 2 (Ray through Focus): A ray passing through the principal focus of a concave mirror (or directed towards the focus of a convex mirror) will emerge parallel to the principal axis after reflection. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Ray 3 (Ray through Center of Curvature): A ray passing through the center of curvature (C) of a spherical mirror reflects back along the same path. This happens because the ray strikes the mirror surface normally (at an angle of incidence of 0 degrees). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Incorrect Ray: A ray perpendicular to the principal axis is a vertical ray that does not follow the standard geometric path to reflect through the focus. For a ray to reflect through the focus, it must be parallel to the principal axis, not perpendicular. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect and is the ray NOT used.
  • Hence, the correct answer is A ray perpendicular to the principal axis that reflects through the focus.

Additional Information

  • Components of Spherical Mirrors:
  • Pole (P): The center of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called the pole. It lies on the surface of the mirror.
  • Center of Curvature (C): The reflecting surface forms a part of a sphere. The center of this sphere is the center of curvature. For a concave mirror, it lies in front, while for a convex mirror, it lies behind the mirror.
  • Principal Axis: An imaginary straight line passing through the pole and the center of curvature.
  • Focal Length (f): The distance between the pole and the principal focus. It is exactly half of the radius of curvature (R), represented as f = R/2.
  • Types of Spherical Mirrors:
  • Concave Mirror: Also known as a converging mirror. It can form both real and virtual images depending on the object's position. Used in shaving mirrors, headlights, and by dentists.
  • Convex Mirror: Also known as a diverging mirror. It always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image. Used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles to provide a wider field of view.
  • Sign Convention:
  • According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the object is always placed to the left of the mirror. Distances measured in the direction of incident light are positive, and those opposite are negative.
  • The focal length of a concave mirror is always negative, whereas the focal length of a convex mirror is always positive.

Important Points

  • Laws of Reflection:
  • The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection (i = r).
  • The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
  • Image Formation:
  • To construct a ray diagram, at least two rays whose paths are known after reflection are required. The intersection of these reflected rays gives the position of the image of the point object.
  • If the rays actually meet, the image is real and inverted. If they appear to meet when produced backwards, the image is virtual and erect.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 72

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which condition is essential for a dispersed seed to successfully undergo germination and develop into a seedling?

  1. AOption (a)

    Physical separation from the parent flower

  2. BOption (b)

    Presence of appropriate environmental conditions

  3. COption (c)

    Exposure to sunlight only

  4. DOption (d)

    Complete decay of the fruit enclosing the seed only.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Presence of appropriate environmental conditions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Presence of appropriate environmental conditions.

Key Points

  • Seed Germination is the biological process by which a plant grows from a seed after a period of dormancy. For this process to begin, the internal embryo must be activated by external triggers.
  • The Presence of appropriate environmental conditions is the most critical requirement. These conditions primarily include moisture (water), oxygen, and a suitable temperature. Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
  • Physical separation from the parent flower or plant is part of the seed dispersal mechanism, which helps reduce competition for resources. However, separation alone does not guarantee the biological start of growth if the soil or climate is unfavorable. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • While Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis once the seedling develops leaves, many seeds actually germinate best in darkness (under the soil). Only specific "light-sensitive" seeds require exposure to light to break dormancy. Using the word "only" makes the statement scientifically inaccurate. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The decay of the fruit may help release the seed or provide some initial organic matter, but it is not a standalone essential condition for the physiological process of germination. Many seeds can germinate even if the fruit is manually removed or eaten by animals. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Essential Factors for Germination:
  • Water: Germination begins with imbibition, where the seed rapidly absorbs water. This swells the seed, ruptures the seed coat, and activates hydrolytic enzymes that break down stored food.
  • Oxygen: Early germination requires aerobic respiration. The seed needs energy to power cell division and growth, which it obtains by oxidizing stored nutrients using oxygen found in soil pores.
  • Temperature: Every seed species has an optimum temperature range for germination, typically between 25°C and 30°C for many tropical plants. Extreme cold or heat can inhibit enzymatic activity.
  • Seed Structure:
  • The Radicle is the first part of the embryo to emerge, developing into the primary root to anchor the plant and absorb water.
  • The Plumule is the embryonic shoot that eventually grows above the ground to form the stem and leaves.
  • Cotyledons or the Endosperm serve as the primary food storage units that nourish the growing seedling until it can perform photosynthesis.

Important Points

  • Seed Dormancy: This is a state where seeds do not germinate even when environmental conditions are favorable. It is a survival strategy to ensure seeds germinate only during the correct season.
  • Scarification: This involves breaking or softening the seed coat (mechanically or via acid in animal guts) to allow water and oxygen to enter.
  • Stratification: Some seeds require a period of cold treatment (simulating winter) before they are physiologically ready to germinate in the spring.
  • Epigeal vs. Hypogeal Germination: In Epigeal germination, the cotyledons are pushed above the ground (e.g., bean seeds), whereas in Hypogeal germination, the cotyledons remain below the soil (e.g., pea seeds or maize).
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 73

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which type of blood vessel has thick, elastic walls to withstand high pressure?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vein

  2. BOption (b)

    Venule

  3. COption (c)

    Artery

  4. DOption (d)

    Capillary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Artery

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Artery.

Key Points

  • Arteries are the blood vessels responsible for carrying blood away from the heart to various tissues and organs throughout the body.
  • Because the heart pumps blood into the arteries with significant force, the blood inside them flows under high pressure.
  • To accommodate this high pressure, arteries have thick, muscular, and elastic walls. These walls consist of three distinct layers: the tunica intima, the tunica media (which is notably thick in arteries), and the tunica externa.
  • The elasticity of the arterial walls allows them to expand during systole (heart contraction) and recoil during diastole (heart relaxation), which helps in maintaining a continuous flow of blood even when the heart is not beating.
  • Unlike veins, most arteries do not have valves (except for the semilunar valves at the base of the aorta and the pulmonary artery) because the high pressure of the blood prevents it from flowing backward.

Additional Information

  • Veins:
  • Veins carry blood toward the heart from various parts of the body.
  • Since the blood in veins is no longer under the direct pumping pressure of the heart, it flows at a lower pressure compared to arteries.
  • Consequently, veins have thinner walls and a larger lumen (internal space). They are equipped with valves to ensure blood flows in only one direction, preventing backflow due to gravity.
  • Capillaries:
  • Capillaries are the smallest and thinnest blood vessels, connecting arterioles (small arteries) and venules (small veins).
  • Their walls are extremely thin, usually only one cell thick (endothelium), which allows for the diffusion and exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluid.
  • Venules:
  • Venules are very small blood vessels in the microcirculation that allow blood to return from capillary beds to drain into the larger veins.
  • Pulmonary Exceptions:
  • While most arteries carry oxygenated blood, the Pulmonary Artery is the exception, carrying deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.
  • Similarly, the Pulmonary Vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart.

Important Points

  • The Aorta is the largest artery in the human body, originating from the left ventricle and distributing blood to the entire systemic circulation.
  • The elasticity of arteries decreases with age or due to certain health conditions like atherosclerosis, which can lead to increased blood pressure (hypertension).
  • In a healthy adult, the typical systolic blood pressure measured in the arteries is about 120 mmHg, while the diastolic pressure is about 80 mmHg.
  • The smooth muscle in the tunica media of arteries allows them to perform vasoconstriction and vasodilation, which are essential for regulating blood flow and body temperature.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 74

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A wire of length ‘L’, area of cross-section ‘A’ and resistivity ‘P’ has a resistance ‘R’. What will be the new resistance of this wire if its area of cross-section is tripled? (Keep all the other parameters the same)

  1. AOption (a)

    \( R/9 \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( 3R \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( R \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( R/3 \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

\( R/3 \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is R/3.

Key Points

  • The resistance of a conductor is the property by virtue of which it opposes the flow of electric current through it. It is mathematically defined by the formula R = P × (L / A), where R is the resistance, P is the resistivity of the material, L is the length of the wire, and A is the area of cross-section.
  • According to the formula, resistance (R) is directly proportional to the length (L) of the wire and inversely proportional to the area of cross-section (A). This means if the area increases, the resistance decreases, provided the length and material (resistivity) remain unchanged.
  • In this specific case, the initial resistance is R = P(L / A). The problem states that the area of cross-section is tripled, meaning the new area A′ = 3A, while the length (L) and resistivity (P) are kept the same.
  • Substituting the new area into the formula, the new resistance R′ = P × (L / 3A). This can be rewritten as R′ = (1/3) × [P × (L / A)]. Since the term in the brackets is the original resistance R, the new resistance becomes R′ = R/3.
  • Therefore, when the area of cross-section of a wire is increased by three times, its resistance is reduced to one-third of its original value.

Additional Information

  • Ohm’s Law: Discovered by Georg Simon Ohm in 1827, it states that the current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference (V) across its ends, provided temperature remains constant (V = IR). The SI unit of resistance is the Ohm (Ω).
  • Resistivity (P): Also known as specific resistance, it is a characteristic property of the material of the wire. Unlike resistance, it does not change with the length or area of the wire but depends on the nature of the material and its temperature. Its SI unit is Ohm-meter (Ω·m).
  • Effect of Length: If the length (L) of the wire were doubled while keeping the area constant, the resistance would also double (2R) because of the direct proportionality.
  • Conductivity: This is the reciprocal of resistivity and measures a material's ability to conduct electricity. Materials like Silver and Copper have very low resistivity and high conductivity, making them excellent choices for electrical wiring.

Important Points

  • Temperature Factor: For most metallic conductors, the resistance increases with an increase in temperature. This is due to the increased vibration of atoms, which causes more frequent collisions with the flowing electrons.
  • Volume Conservation: It is important to note that the question specifies "keep all other parameters the same." If a wire is stretched to triple its area (which is physically impossible without changing length), the volume (V = A × L) would remain constant. However, in this theoretical problem, only area is modified while length is held constant, leading directly to the R/3 result.
  • Practical Application: Thicker wires (greater area A) are used in high-power appliances because they offer lower resistance, which minimizes heat loss (calculated by H = I²Rt) and allows higher current (I) to flow safely.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 75

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A porter lifts a luggage of mass 25 kg from the ground to a height of 2.0 m. What is the work done by him on the luggage? (Take \( g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2 \))

  1. AOption (a)

    100 J

  2. BOption (b)

    500 J

  3. COption (c)

    250 J

  4. DOption (d)

    50 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

500 J

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 500 J.

Key Points

  • The work done by an object when it is lifted against the force of gravity is calculated using the formula for gravitational potential energy, which is W = m * g * h.
  • In this formula, m represents the mass of the object, g represents the acceleration due to gravity, and h represents the height or displacement.
  • According to the question, the mass (m) of the luggage is 25 kg and the height (h) to which it is lifted is 2.0 m.
  • The value for acceleration due to gravity (g) is provided as 10 m/s².
  • By substituting the values into the formula: Work Done = 25 kg * 10 m/s² * 2.0 m.
  • The calculation results in 500 Joules (J). Hence, the correct answer is 500 J.

Additional Information

  • Definition of Work:
  • In physics, work is defined as the product of the force applied to an object and the displacement caused by that force in the direction of the force.
  • The mathematical expression is W = F * d * cos(θ), where θ is the angle between the force and the displacement vector.
  • When lifting an object vertically, the angle θ is 0 degrees, and since cos(0) = 1, the work is simply Force * Displacement.
  • Energy Transformation:
  • The work done by the porter is not "lost" but is transferred to the luggage in the form of Potential Energy.
  • Potential Energy is the energy held by an object because of its position relative to other objects, stresses within itself, its electric charge, or other factors.
  • The specific type of energy here is Gravitational Potential Energy, which increases as the height of the object increases from the ground.
  • Units and Measurements:
  • The SI unit of work and energy is the Joule (J).
  • 1 Joule is equal to the work done by a force of 1 Newton acting through a distance of 1 meter.
  • In base units, 1 J = 1 kg·m²/s².

Important Points

  • Scalar Nature: Work is a scalar quantity, meaning it has only magnitude and no specific direction, unlike force or velocity.
  • Zero Work Condition: If the porter were to carry the luggage and walk on a horizontal platform, the work done by the force of gravity would be zero because the force (downward) and displacement (horizontal) are perpendicular (90 degrees).
  • Acceleration due to Gravity: While the standard value of g on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s², it is common in competitive exams to use 10 m/s² for ease of calculation.
  • Mass vs Weight: It is important to distinguish between mass (25 kg) and weight. Weight is a force calculated as mass * gravity, which in this case is 250 Newtons. Work is then Weight * Height.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 76

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In a toaster, the heating wire glows red because __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    It has zero resistance.

  2. BOption (b)

    It has low melting point.

  3. COption (c)

    The current is very high.

  4. DOption (d)

    It resists the current and gets hot.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It resists the current and gets hot.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It resists the current and gets hot.

Key Points

  • The heating wire in a toaster glows red due to the Heating Effect of Electric Current, also known as Joule Heating. This phenomenon occurs when an electric current passes through a conductor with significant resistance, converting electrical energy into thermal energy.
  • Resistance is the property of a material that opposes the flow of electrons. When electrons collide with the ions/atoms of the conductor (the heating wire), they transfer kinetic energy, which manifests as heat. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • If the wire had zero resistance, it would be a superconductor. In such a case, no heat would be generated because there is no opposition to the current flow (H = I²Rt, where R=0 leads to H=0). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Heating elements must have a high melting point to ensure they do not melt or deform while operating at temperatures high enough to glow red (typically above 500°C to 1000°C). A low melting point is a characteristic of a fuse wire, not a heating element. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • While the current flowing through the toaster is substantial, the "glowing red" is specifically the result of that current meeting high resistance. High current alone in a low-resistance thick copper wire would not cause it to glow red under normal household conditions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Nichrome: The most common material used for heating wires in toasters and space heaters is Nichrome, which is an alloy consisting of approximately 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium.
  • High Resistivity: Nichrome is chosen because it has relatively high electrical resistivity compared to copper or aluminum, allowing it to generate significant heat in a compact space.
  • Oxidation Resistance: When heated to high temperatures, Nichrome forms a protective layer of chromium oxide on its surface, which prevents the wire from further oxidation and breaking down in the open air.
  • Incandescence: The "red glow" is a form of incandescence. As the temperature of the wire increases, it begins to emit electromagnetic radiation in the visible spectrum, starting with long-wavelength red light.
  • Applications: Apart from toasters, this principle is utilized in electric irons, geysers, hair dryers, and room heaters.

Important Points

  • Joule's Law of Heating: The heat produced (H) in a conductor is directly proportional to the square of the current (I²), the resistance (R), and the time (t) for which the current flows. The formula is expressed as H = I²Rt.
  • Material Comparison:
  • Heating Element: High resistance and High melting point (e.g., Nichrome, melting point ~1400°C).
  • Fuse Wire: High resistance and Low melting point (e.g., Tin-Lead alloy, melting point ~183°C to 230°C) to protect circuits by melting during a power surge.
  • Bulb Filament: Extremely high melting point (e.g., Tungsten, melting point ~3422°C) to withstand temperatures high enough to emit white light.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 77

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A sealed syringe containing air is pressed from one end while keeping the other end closed. What is the most likely outcome of this action in terms of the state of air inside the syringe?

  1. AOption (a)

    The temperature of air inside drops significantly

  2. BOption (b)

    The air escapes completely from the syringe

  3. COption (c)

    The volume of air increases and pressure decreases

  4. DOption (d)

    The volume of air decreases and its pressure increases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The volume of air decreases and its pressure increases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The volume of air decreases and its pressure increases.

Key Points

  • When a sealed syringe is pressed, the plunger moves inward, which directly reduces the physical space available for the air trapped inside. This results in a decrease in volume.
  • According to Boyle's Law, discovered by Robert Boyle in 1662, for a fixed amount of gas at a constant temperature, the pressure and volume are inversely proportional. This means as the volume decreases, the pressure increases simultaneously. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • Air is a mixture of gases, and gases possess high compressibility because of the large intermolecular spaces between their particles. In a sealed system, pressing the plunger forces these particles closer together.
  • The temperature of the air would not drop significantly; in fact, if compressed rapidly, the temperature might increase slightly due to the work done on the gas molecules. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
  • Because the syringe is closed at the other end and properly sealed, the mass of the air remains constant, and it cannot escape the container. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • The action of pressing the plunger is a physical reduction of the container's size, which contradicts the idea of an increase in volume. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Kinetic Molecular Theory: This theory explains that gas pressure is caused by the frequent collisions of gas molecules against the walls of their container. When the volume is reduced, the molecules have less space to travel and hit the walls more often, thus increasing the measured pressure.
  • States of Matter: Unlike solids and liquids, which have fixed volumes and are almost incompressible, gases do not have a fixed shape or volume and can be easily compressed into smaller containers.
  • Applications: This principle is utilized in various pneumatic systems, bicycle pumps, medical syringes, and even in the functioning of internal combustion engines where the air-fuel mixture is compressed by a piston before ignition.
  • Isothermal vs. Adiabatic: If the compression happens slowly enough for heat to exchange with the surroundings, it is an isothermal process (constant temperature). If it happens very fast, it is an adiabatic process, where the internal energy and temperature of the air increase.

Important Points

  • Ideal Gas Law: The relationship between these variables is summarized by the formula PV = nRT, where P is pressure, V is volume, n is the number of moles, R is the universal gas constant, and T is temperature.
  • Direct and Inverse Proportions: In science, it is vital to distinguish between these. In a syringe, the inverse proportion between P and V is a fundamental concept taught in General Science and Physics to explain the behavior of matter.
  • Standard Units: Pressure is often measured in Pascals (Pa) or Atmospheres (atm), while volume in the context of a syringe is usually measured in milliliters (ml) or cubic centimeters (cm³).
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 78

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following symbols is used for the element phosphorus as per the rules for atomic symbols?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ph

  2. BOption (b)

    P

  3. COption (c)

    Ps

  4. DOption (d)

    Pr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is P.

Key Points

  • The chemical symbol for the element Phosphorus is P. It is derived from the first letter of its name, following the standard IUPAC (International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry) nomenclature where symbols for many elements consist of a single capitalized letter.
  • Phosphorus is a chemical element with the atomic number 15. It belongs to Group 15 of the periodic table, which is also known as the Pnictogens.
  • The name phosphorus originates from the Greek word phosphoros, which means "bringing light" or "light-bearer." This name was given due to its property of glowing in the dark when exposed to oxygen.
  • In its elemental form, it is highly reactive and is never found as a free element on Earth. It is essential for life, appearing in DNA, RNA, ATP, and the phospholipids that form all cell membranes.
  • The correct symbol is not Ph, Ps, or Pr. While Pr is a valid atomic symbol, it represents Praseodymium, not phosphorus. Ph is frequently used in organic chemistry as a shorthand for the phenyl group, but it is not an atomic symbol for a single element.

Additional Information

  • Discovery and History:
  • Phosphorus was discovered by the German alchemist Hennig Brand in the year 1669. He isolated it from human urine, making it the first element to be discovered that was not known since ancient times.
  • Allotropes of Phosphorus:
  • White Phosphorus: A waxy, dangerous solid that is highly flammable and toxic. It glows in the dark (chemiluminescence).
  • Red Phosphorus: More stable than white phosphorus and is used in the striking surface of matchboxes. It is non-toxic compared to the white variety.
  • Black Phosphorus: The most stable form and is produced by heating white phosphorus under high pressure. It resembles graphite in its structure and properties.
  • Physical and Chemical Characteristics:
  • Atomic Mass: Approximately 30.974 u.
  • Location: It is situated in Period 3 and p-block of the Periodic Table.
  • State at Room Temperature: It exists as a solid.
  • Industrial and Biological Uses:
  • The largest industrial use of phosphorus compounds is in the production of fertilizers (such as phosphates) to replace the phosphorus that plants remove from the soil.
  • It is also used in the manufacture of detergents, pesticides, steel, and safety matches.

Important Points

  • Rules for Atomic Symbols:
  • According to the Dalton’s and later Berzelius's suggestions, symbols of elements are represented by the first letter (in Uppercase) or the first and second letter (second being lowercase) of the element's name in English, Latin, or Greek.
  • Examples: Hydrogen (H), Carbon (C), Oxygen (O), and Iron (Fe from Latin Ferrum).
  • Comparison of the Options:
  • Ph: Not an element symbol; used for Phenyl functional groups.
  • P: Correct symbol for Phosphorus.
  • Ps: Not a standard atomic symbol for a naturally occurring element.
  • Pr: Symbol for Praseodymium, a rare earth metal with atomic number 59.
  • Phosphate Cycle: In the environment, phosphorus is most commonly found as the phosphate ion (PO4³⁻). It is a critical limiting nutrient in many ecosystems, especially aquatic ones.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 79

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which connective tissue is known for supporting internal organs?

  1. AOption (a)

    Squamous epithelium

  2. BOption (b)

    Tendon

  3. COption (c)

    Ligament

  4. DOption (d)

    Areolar tissue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Areolar tissue

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Areolar tissue.

Key Points

  • Areolar tissue is the most widely distributed connective tissue in the animal body. It acts as a supporting and packing tissue between most of the organs.
  • It is found located between the skin and muscles, around blood vessels and nerves, and in the bone marrow.
  • The primary functions of areolar tissue include filling the space inside the organs, providing support to internal organs, and assisting in the repair of tissues after injury. Hence, the correct answer is Areolar tissue.
  • This tissue consists of a semifluid ground substance (matrix) that contains three types of cells: fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells.
  • It also contains two types of protein fibers: white collagen fibers, which provide tensile strength, and yellow elastic fibers (elastin), which allow for flexibility and recoil.

Additional Information

  • Squamous epithelium:
  • Unlike areolar tissue, this is an epithelial tissue, not a connective tissue. It is composed of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
  • It is primarily found in the walls of blood vessels and the alveoli (air sacs) of the lungs.
  • Its main function is to form a diffusion boundary for the exchange of gases and nutrients.
  • Tendon:
  • Tendons are a type of dense regular connective tissue characterized by great strength but limited flexibility.
  • Their specific function is to connect skeletal muscles to bones, facilitating movement of the skeleton when muscles contract.
  • Ligament:
  • Ligaments are also dense connective tissues, but they are highly elastic and possess significant strength.
  • They contain very little matrix and serve the crucial role of connecting one bone to another bone at joints, maintaining structural stability.
  • Adipose Tissue:
  • This is another type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin and between internal organs.
  • The cells of this tissue (adipocytes) are specialized to store fats, which acts as an insulator and an energy reservoir for the body.

Important Points

  • Connective Tissues are categorized into three main types: Loose connective tissue (e.g., Areolar and Adipose), Dense connective tissue (e.g., Tendons and Ligaments), and Specialized connective tissue (e.g., Cartilage, Bone, and Blood).
  • The matrix is a non-living material secreted by the cells of the connective tissue, which can be fluid, jelly-like, or solid depending on the tissue's function.
  • In Areolar tissue, the loose arrangement of fibers allows the tissue to be flexible yet strong enough to bind different tissue types together, such as connecting the epithelial tissue to the underlying structures.
  • Fibroblasts within the areolar tissue are the cells responsible for secreting the fibers (collagen and elastin) and the polysaccharides that make up the ground substance.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 09 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 80

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

How does the space between particles change from solid to gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Solids and gases always have equal spacing

  2. BOption (b)

    The space remains unchanged during the change in states of matter

  3. COption (c)

    The space increases as matter changes from solid to gas

  4. DOption (d)

    The space decreases as matter changes from solid to gas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The space increases as matter changes from solid to gas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The space increases as matter changes from solid to gas.

Key Points

  • According to the Kinetic Molecular Theory, all matter is made of particles that are in constant motion, and the space between these particles determines the state of matter.
  • In a solid, particles are tightly packed in a fixed, regular lattice structure with very little intermolecular space between them.
  • As a substance transitions to a liquid state, the particles gain energy and move further apart, creating moderate gaps that allow them to slide past each other.
  • In the gaseous state, particles have high kinetic energy and are widely separated, occupying much larger volumes compared to their solid or liquid forms.
  • The intermolecular distance is greatest in gases and smallest in solids. Hence, the statement that the space increases as matter changes from solid to gas is correct.
  • Statement 1: Solids and gases always have equal spacing. This statement is incorrect as gases have significantly more void space than solids.
  • Statement 2: The space remains unchanged during the change in states of matter. This statement is incorrect because phase changes (like melting or evaporation) are fundamentally defined by the change in particle arrangement and distance.
  • Statement 4: The space decreases as matter changes from solid to gas. This statement is incorrect as this describes condensation or freezing (gas to liquid/solid), not the transition to a gas.

Additional Information

  • Intermolecular Forces: These are the attractive forces between molecules. They are strongest in solids, keeping the particles in fixed positions, and weakest (almost negligible) in gases, allowing particles to move independently.
  • Kinetic Energy and Temperature: The transition from solid to gas usually occurs by increasing temperature. Adding heat increases the kinetic energy of the particles, allowing them to overcome intermolecular attractions and increase their separation.
  • Compressibility: Because gases have large intermolecular spaces, they are highly compressible. Solids have very little empty space, making them virtually incompressible.
  • Density: For most substances, density is highest in the solid phase and lowest in the gas phase because the same mass occupies a much larger volume in the gaseous state due to increased particle spacing.
  • Shape and Volume: Solids have a definite shape and fixed volume due to lack of space between particles. Gases have no definite shape or volume, expanding to fill the entire container they occupy.

Important Points

  • Sublimation: This is the direct transition of a substance from solid to gas without passing through the liquid phase (e.g., dry ice or naphthalene), which results in a massive and rapid increase in intermolecular space.
  • Thermal Expansion: Even within a single state, increasing temperature generally causes a slight increase in intermolecular distance, leading to the expansion of the material.
  • Pressure Effects: Increasing pressure on a gas reduces the space between particles, which can eventually force a phase change back into a liquid state through liquefaction.

How should I prepare for General Science in RRB Group D?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.