RRB Group D · Topic Collection

General Science PYQs

Core physics, chemistry, biology, human health, diseases, environmental science, and everyday scientific observations.

2600 Total Questions104 Official PapersYears: 2018–2026Search in General Science
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RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 21

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The molecular mass of a compound is 63 u. If it contains one hydrogen atom and three oxygen atoms, the atomic mass of the remaining element is :

  1. AOption (a)

    32 u

  2. BOption (b)

    14 u

  3. COption (c)

    16 u

  4. DOption (d)

    12 u

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

14 u

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 14 u.

Key Points

  • The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a molecule of that substance. It is therefore the relative mass of a molecule expressed in atomic mass units (u).
  • In the given problem, the total molecular mass of the compound is 63 u. The compound consists of one hydrogen atom, three oxygen atoms, and one unknown element.
  • The atomic mass of Hydrogen (H) is 1 u. Since there is one hydrogen atom, its contribution to the total mass is 1 u.
  • The atomic mass of Oxygen (O) is 16 u. Since the compound contains three oxygen atoms, their total contribution is calculated as 3 x 16 u = 48 u.
  • To find the atomic mass of the remaining element, we subtract the masses of the known components from the total molecular mass: 63 u - (1 u + 48 u) = 63 u - 49 u = 14 u. Hence, the calculated mass is 14 u.
  • The element that possesses an atomic mass of 14 u is Nitrogen (N). Therefore, the compound is Nitric Acid, which has the chemical formula HNO3. Hence, the correct option is 14 u.

Additional Information

  • Nitric Acid (HNO3):
  • It is a highly corrosive mineral acid, also known as aqua fortis or the spirit of niter.
  • In its pure form, it is colorless, but older samples tend to acquire a yellow cast due to decomposition into oxides of nitrogen and water.
  • It is widely used in the manufacture of fertilizers (like ammonium nitrate), explosives (like TNT and nitroglycerin), and in metal refining.
  • Atomic Mass Unit (u):
  • The atomic mass unit is defined as a mass exactly equal to one-twelfth (1/12th) of the mass of one carbon-12 atom.
  • The unified atomic mass unit (u) has replaced the older amu designation in modern scientific literature.
  • It allows chemists to calculate formula mass and molar mass, facilitating the study of stoichiometry in chemical reactions.
  • Characteristics of constituent elements:
  • Hydrogen: The lightest element in the periodic table with atomic number 1. It usually exists as a diatomic gas (H2).
  • Oxygen: A highly reactive nonmetal and oxidizing agent. It is the third-most abundant element in the universe by mass.
  • Nitrogen: A colorless, odorless gas that makes up about 78% of Earth's atmosphere. It is essential for life as a component of amino acids and DNA.

Important Points

  • Calculation Summary:
  • Total Mass: 63
  • Mass of H: 1
  • Mass of 3 O: 48 (3 x 16)
  • Equation: 1 + X + 48 = 63
  • Result: X = 14
  • Comparison with other options:
  • 32 u is the atomic mass of Sulfur (S). If the element were sulfur, the molecular mass would have been 81 u (HSO3 - hypothetical radical).
  • 16 u is the atomic mass of Oxygen (O).
  • 12 u is the atomic mass of Carbon (C). For a compound like HCO3 (Bicarbonate), the mass would be 61 u.
  • Date of Discovery: Nitric acid was first synthesized by the alchemist Jabir ibn Hayyan around 800 AD. Its composition was accurately determined by Henry Cavendish in 1785.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 22

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

An object is placed at 80 cm on the left of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm. Where should a screen be placed to right of the lens so that the image formed is real, inverted and same sized?

  1. AOption (a)

    The screen should be placed 80 cm from the lens.

  2. BOption (b)

    The screen should be placed anywhere between 40 cm and 80 cm from the lens.

  3. COption (c)

    The screen should be placed at 40 cm from the lens.

  4. DOption (d)

    The screen should be placed anywhere between 20 cm and 40 cm from the lens.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The screen should be placed 80 cm from the lens.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The screen should be placed 80 cm from the lens.

Key Points

  • A convex lens is a converging lens. According to the lens formula, 1/v - 1/u = 1/f, where f is the focal length, u is the object distance, and v is the image distance.
  • In the given problem, the focal length (f) of the convex lens is +40 cm and the object distance (u) is -80 cm (since the object is placed to the left of the lens).
  • By substituting these values into the lens formula: 1/v - 1/(-80) = 1/40, which simplifies to 1/v + 1/80 = 1/40. Solving for v, we get 1/v = 1/40 - 1/80, which equals 1/80. Thus, v = +80 cm.
  • The positive sign indicates that the image is formed on the right side of the lens at a distance of 80 cm. This is exactly where the screen should be placed to capture the image. Hence, the statement that the screen should be placed 80 cm from the lens is correct.
  • The magnification (m) is given by the ratio v/u. Here, m = 80 / (-80) = -1. A magnification of -1 signifies that the image is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object.
  • This specific condition occurs when the object is placed at 2f (twice the focal length). Since f = 40 cm, 2f = 80 cm. When an object is at 2f, the image is always formed at 2f on the opposite side.

Additional Information

  • Nature of Convex Lens:
  • A convex lens is thicker at the center than at the edges. It converges parallel rays of light passing through it to a point called the principal focus.
  • The power of a convex lens is positive, measured in Diopters (D), and is calculated as the reciprocal of the focal length in meters (P = 1/f).
  • Image Formation Rules for Convex Lenses:
  • If the object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus (F), and it is highly diminished and real.
  • If the object is beyond 2F, the image is formed between F and 2F on the other side, and it is diminished, real, and inverted.
  • If the object is at 2F, the image is formed at 2F on the other side, and it is the same size, real, and inverted.
  • If the object is between F and 2F, the image is formed beyond 2F, and it is magnified, real, and inverted.
  • If the object is at F, the image is formed at infinity.
  • If the object is between the optical center and F, the image is virtual, erect, and magnified on the same side as the object.

Important Points

  • Sign Convention: According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, distances measured in the direction of incident light (to the right of the optical center) are taken as positive, while distances measured against the direction of incident light (to the left) are negative.
  • Real vs Virtual Image: A real image is formed when light rays actually intersect and can be projected onto a screen. An inverted image always accompanies a real image in single-lens systems.
  • Applications: Convex lenses are used in eyeglasses to correct hypermetropia (farsightedness), in cameras, microscopes, and telescopes to magnify or focus images.
  • Focal Length Fact: For the same material, a lens with more curvature (thicker) has a shorter focal length and higher optical power compared to a flatter lens.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 23

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

If a conductor has a potential difference of 1 volt across its ends and a current of 1 ampere flows through it, what is its resistance?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 ohm

  2. BOption (b)

    2 ohm

  3. COption (c)

    0.5 ohm

  4. DOption (d)

    10 ohm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 ohm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 ohm.

Key Points

  • The relationship between voltage, current, and resistance in an electrical circuit is defined by Ohm's Law, which states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference applied across its ends, provided physical conditions like temperature remain constant.
  • Mathematically, Ohm's Law is expressed as V = IR, where V is the potential difference, I is the current, and R is the resistance of the conductor.
  • In this specific problem, the given potential difference (V) is 1 volt and the electric current (I) is 1 ampere.
  • To calculate the resistance, we use the formula R = V / I. Substituting the values: R = 1 volt / 1 ampere.
  • The resulting calculation gives R = 1 ohm. This implies that 1 ohm is the resistance of a conductor when a potential difference of 1 volt results in a current of 1 ampere. Hence, the correct option is 1 ohm.

Additional Information

  • Electrical Resistance (R):
  • Resistance is the property of a conductor by virtue of which it opposes the flow of electric current through it.
  • The SI unit of resistance is the Ohm, represented by the Greek symbol Ω (omega).
  • The value of resistance depends on the length of the conductor, its area of cross-section, the nature of the material, and the temperature.
  • Georg Simon Ohm:
  • The law and the unit of resistance are named after the German physicist Georg Simon Ohm, who published his findings in 1827.
  • His work was fundamental in the development of the theory of electricity and circuits.
  • Potential Difference (V):
  • It is defined as the work done to move a unit charge from one point to another in an electric field. Its SI unit is the Volt.
  • A device used to measure potential difference is called a voltmeter, which is always connected in parallel across the points where the voltage is to be measured.
  • Electric Current (I):
  • It is the rate of flow of electric charges (usually electrons) through a conductor. The SI unit is the Ampere.
  • An ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit and is always connected in series.

Important Points

  • Ohmic and Non-Ohmic Conductors:
  • Ohmic Conductors: Materials that obey Ohm's Law (where V is proportional to I) are called ohmic. Examples include copper, silver, and aluminum. Their V-I graph is a straight line.
  • Non-Ohmic Conductors: Devices that do not follow Ohm's Law are non-ohmic. Examples include semiconductors, diodes, transistors, and vacuum tubes.
  • Resistivity (ρ):
  • While resistance changes with shape, resistivity is a characteristic property of the material. It is measured in ohm-meter (Ωm).
  • Insulators like glass and rubber have very high resistivity (10^12 to 10^17 Ωm), whereas metals have low resistivity (10^-8 to 10^-6 Ωm).
  • Effect of Temperature:
  • For pure metals, resistance increases with an increase in temperature. However, for semiconductors like silicon and germanium, resistance decreases as temperature increases.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 24

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

If several rays of light parallel to the principal axis are falling on a convex lens, which of the following statements is correct for the refracted ray?

  1. AOption (a)

    They pass without any deviation.

  2. BOption (b)

    They meet at the infinity.

  3. COption (c)

    They converge at a point on the opposite side of the lens.

  4. DOption (d)

    They diverge as if coming from the principal focus.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

They converge at a point on the opposite side of the lens.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They converge at a point on the opposite side of the lens.

  • A convex lens is also known as a converging lens because of its ability to bring parallel rays of light together after refraction.
  • When rays of light travel parallel to the principal axis and strike the surface of a convex lens, they are bent inward toward the center of the lens. This occurs because the lens is thicker at the middle than at the edges.
  • According to the laws of refraction, these parallel rays intersect at a single point on the principal axis on the opposite side of the lens. This specific point is known as the Principal Focus (F). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • If rays were to pass without any deviation, it would mean the lens has no refractive power or the ray is passing exactly through the optical center. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Rays meet at infinity only when the source of light is placed exactly at the focus of the lens, creating a parallel beam after refraction. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Rays diverge as if coming from the principal focus in the case of a concave lens, which is a diverging lens. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Structure of Convex Lens: A convex lens is usually made of glass or transparent plastic and is bounded by two spherical surfaces bulging outwards. It can be categorized into double convex (bi-convex), plano-convex, and concavo-convex lenses.
  • Image Formation: Depending on the position of the object, a convex lens can form both real and inverted images or virtual and erect images. For instance, when an object is placed beyond the focus, the image formed is real.
  • Focal Length: The distance between the optical center of the lens and the principal focus is called the focal length (f). For a convex lens, the focal length is traditionally taken as positive in the Cartesian sign convention.
  • Applications: Because of its converging properties, the convex lens is widely used in magnifying glasses, microscopes, telescopes, and camera lenses.
  • Medical Use: In ophthalmology, convex lenses are used in spectacles to correct Hypermetropia (long-sightedness), where the eye cannot focus on nearby objects because the image forms behind the retina.

Important Points

  • Power of a Lens: The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens is expressed as its Power (P). It is the reciprocal of the focal length (P = 1/f). The SI unit of power is the Dioptre (D).
  • Optical Center: This is the central point of the lens. Any ray of light passing through the optical center emerges without any deviation from its original path.
  • Refraction Basics: The phenomenon of bending light occurs due to the change in the speed of light when it moves from one medium (like air) to another (like glass). This is governed by Snell's Law.
  • Aperture: The effective diameter of the light-transmitting area of the lens is called the aperture. It determines the intensity of the light passing through and the brightness of the resulting image.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 25

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following changes can be regarded as part of sexual maturation in human males?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deposition of fat in hips

  2. BOption (b)

    Cracking of voice

  3. COption (c)

    Increase in weight

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase in height

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cracking of voice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cracking of voice.

Key Points

  • Sexual maturation in human males is primarily driven by the onset of puberty, typically occurring between the ages of 11 and 16 years.
  • One of the most distinct physical changes is the Cracking of voice. This happens because the Larynx (voice box) grows significantly larger during this period. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • As the Larynx grows, it begins to protrude at the front of the neck, forming what is commonly known as the Adam's apple.
  • During this transition, the Vocal Cords become longer and thicker. Before they fully adjust to the new size, the voice may "crack" or fluctuate between high and low pitches before settling into a deeper tone.
  • While an Increase in weight and Increase in height occur during the adolescent growth spurt, they are general developmental changes seen in both sexes and are not exclusive indicators of male sexual maturation. Hence, statements 3 and 4 are not the most specific answers for sexual maturation.
  • Deposition of fat in hips is a secondary sexual characteristic typically associated with female maturation to facilitate childbirth. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Testosterone: This is the primary androgen (male sex hormone) secreted by the Testes. It is responsible for the development of male Secondary Sexual Characteristics and the stimulation of Spermatogenesis (production of sperm).
  • Secondary Sexual Characteristics in Males: These include the appearance of facial hair (mustache and beard), pubic hair, axillary hair (underarm), and the broadening of the shoulders and chest.
  • Pituitary Gland: The process of maturation begins when the Pituitary Gland releases Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH), which signal the testes to produce testosterone.
  • Physical Composition: Unlike females, who experience fat deposition in the pelvic region, males typically experience an increase in Muscle Mass and a decrease in body fat percentage relative to muscle during puberty.
  • Primary vs. Secondary Characteristics: Primary characteristics are the reproductive organs themselves (testes, penis), while Secondary characteristics (like voice deepening) are the physical signs of sexual maturity that do not involve the reproductive tract directly.

Important Points

  • Timing: The onset of these changes can vary based on Genetics, Nutrition, and Environmental factors. In recent decades, studies have shown a slight trend toward earlier onset of puberty in some populations.
  • Growth Spurt: The Peak Height Velocity (PHV) in boys usually occurs about two years later than in girls. During this time, bones grow rapidly, and the Epiphyseal plates eventually close, marking the end of height growth.
  • Skin Changes: Increased activity of Sebaceous Glands (oil glands) often leads to Acne during the phase of sexual maturation due to hormonal fluctuations.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 26

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The principal focus of a concave mirror is the point where:

  1. AOption (a)

    Rays parallel to the principal axis appear to diverge after reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    The mirror surface intersects the principal axis

  3. COption (c)

    Rays parallel to the principal axis converge after reflection

  4. DOption (d)

    Rays passing through the center of curvature converge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rays parallel to the principal axis converge after reflection

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rays parallel to the principal axis converge after reflection.

Key Points

  • A concave mirror is a spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, facing towards the center of the sphere. It is also known as a converging mirror because it converges the light rays incident on it.
  • The Principal Focus (F) of a concave mirror is a specific point on its principal axis. When rays of light coming from infinity or a distant source are parallel to the principal axis, they strike the mirror and, after reflection, actually meet or converge at this point. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Unlike a convex mirror, the focus of a concave mirror is a real focus because the light rays actually pass through it. It is situated in front of the reflecting surface.
  • The distance from the pole (P) of the mirror to the principal focus (F) is called the focal length (f) of the mirror.
  • The principal axis is the straight line passing through the pole and the center of curvature of the spherical mirror.

Additional Information

  • Components of Spherical Mirrors:
  • Pole (P): The center of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror. The intersection of the mirror surface and the principal axis defines this point. Hence, statement 2 describes the pole and is incorrect.
  • Center of Curvature (C): The center of the hollow sphere of which the mirror is a part. For a concave mirror, it lies in front of it, while for a convex mirror, it lies behind it.
  • Radius of Curvature (R): The distance between the pole and the center of curvature.
  • Rules of Reflection:
  • A ray passing through the center of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back along the same path because it hits the mirror at an angle of incidence of 0 degrees (perpendicular to the surface). It does not converge at the focus upon reflection from C. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • In a convex mirror, rays parallel to the principal axis diverge after reflection and only appear to originate from the focus located behind the mirror. Hence, statement 1 describes a convex mirror and is incorrect.
  • Image Formation: Concave mirrors can form both real and virtual images, as well as magnified or diminished images, depending on the position of the object relative to the focus and center of curvature.

Important Points

  • Mathematical Relation: For spherical mirrors with small apertures, the radius of curvature (R) is exactly twice the focal length (f), represented by the formula R = 2f.
  • Uses of Concave Mirrors:
  • They are commonly used in torches, search-lights, and vehicle headlights to get powerful parallel beams of light.
  • They are used as shaving mirrors to see a larger image of the face.
  • Dentists use concave mirrors to see enlarged images of the teeth of patients.
  • Large concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar furnaces.
  • Sign Convention: According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the focal length of a concave mirror is always taken as negative, whereas for a convex mirror, it is positive.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 27

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

According to Bohr’s model of the atom, in which orbits can electrons revolve around the nucleus?

  1. AOption (a)

    Any arbitrary circular path

  2. BOption (b)

    Elliptical orbits of variable energy

  3. COption (c)

    Spiral paths continuously losing energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Certain fixed circular paths called discrete orbits

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Certain fixed circular paths called discrete orbits

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Certain fixed circular paths called discrete orbits.

Key Points

  • In 1913, Niels Bohr proposed a new model of the atom to overcome the limitations of the Rutherford model, specifically regarding the stability of atoms.
  • According to Bohr’s model, electrons do not revolve in any arbitrary path; instead, they revolve around the nucleus only in certain fixed circular paths called discrete orbits.
  • A crucial feature of these discrete orbits is that while electrons are revolving in them, they do not radiate energy. This prevents the electron from spiraling into the nucleus. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • These orbits are also known as energy levels or stationary shells. They represent regions where the energy of the electron is quantized.
  • The orbits or shells are represented by the letters K, L, M, N or the quantum numbers n = 1, 2, 3, 4, starting from the nucleus outwards.

Additional Information

  • Rutherford’s Model Comparison: Ernest Rutherford had suggested that electrons move in circular orbits like planets. However, Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory suggested that an accelerating charged particle (like an electron) must emit radiation, lose kinetic energy, and eventually collapse into the nucleus. Bohr resolved this by postulating discrete orbits.
  • Energy Transitions: Electrons can jump from one orbit to another. If an electron absorbs a photon of specific energy, it moves to a higher energy level (farther from the nucleus). When it drops to a lower energy level, it emits energy in the form of radiation.
  • Shell Capacity: The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in any shell is given by the Bohr-Bury formula, which is 2n^2. For the K shell (n=1), it is 2; for the L shell (n=2), it is 8.
  • Hydrogen Spectrum: The Bohr model was highly successful in explaining the spectral lines of the Hydrogen atom, providing a physical basis for the Rydberg formula.

Important Points

  • Quantization of Angular Momentum: Bohr postulated that the angular momentum (mvr) of an electron is an integral multiple of h / 2π, where h is Planck’s constant. This means mvr = nh / 2π.
  • Ground State: The lowest energy state of an atom is called its ground state (usually the n = 1 shell), where the electrons are closest to the nucleus.
  • Limitations: While the Bohr model was a milestone, it could not explain the spectra of multi-electron atoms or the fine structure of spectral lines. It also failed to account for the Zeeman effect (splitting of lines in a magnetic field) and the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle.
  • Successor Model: The Bohr model was eventually replaced by the Quantum Mechanical Model of the atom, which uses wave functions and orbitals (3D regions of probability) instead of precise circular orbits.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 28

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Select the statement regarding the cytoplasm of a cell that is INCORRECT.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cytoplasm is present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.

  2. BOption (b)

    Cytoplasm contains many cell organelles.

  3. COption (c)

    In a plant cell, cytoplasm is found between cell wall and plasma membrane.

  4. DOption (d)

    Cytoplasm is the fluid-filled region inside plasma membrane.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

In a plant cell, cytoplasm is found between cell wall and plasma membrane.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is In a plant cell, cytoplasm is found between cell wall and plasma membrane..

Key Points

  • Cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance that fills the interior of a cell. It is a fundamental component found in both prokaryotic cells (like bacteria) and eukaryotic cells (like plant and animal cells). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Within the cell, the cytoplasm acts as a medium that contains and supports numerous cell organelles, such as the mitochondria, ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus. These organelles perform specific functions necessary for the cell's survival. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The cytoplasm is specifically defined as the fluid-filled region located inside the plasma membrane. In eukaryotes, it specifically refers to the region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear envelope. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • In a plant cell, the cytoplasm is located internal to the plasma membrane. The cell wall is an outer rigid layer that surrounds the plasma membrane. Therefore, the cytoplasm is not found between the cell wall and the plasma membrane; rather, the plasma membrane separates the cytoplasm from the cell wall. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • ***Hence, the correct answer is *In a plant cell, cytoplasm is found between cell wall and plasma membrane.

Additional Information

  • Composition of Cytoplasm: The cytoplasm consists of about 80% water and is typically clear and colorless. It contains dissolved salts, nutrients, and enzymes that facilitate various biochemical reactions.
  • Metabolic Activities: The cytosol, which is the liquid portion of the cytoplasm, is the site of many vital metabolic processes. For example, glycolysis, the first step of cellular respiration where glucose is broken down, occurs entirely within the cytoplasm.
  • Cytoskeleton: The cytoplasm is not just a stagnant fluid; it is crisscrossed by a network of protein fibers known as the cytoskeleton. This structure provides mechanical support, maintains cell shape, and enables organelle movement.
  • Protoplasm vs. Cytoplasm: While often used interchangeably in casual conversation, protoplasm refers to the entire living content of a cell, including the nucleus and the cytoplasm. Cytoplasm specifically excludes the nucleus.
  • Prokaryotic Cytoplasm: In prokaryotes, which lack a membrane-bound nucleus, the cytoplasm contains the genetic material in a region called the nucleoid and is the site for almost all cellular activities.

Important Points

  • Discovery: The term cytoplasm was introduced by the Swiss biologist Rudolf von Kolliker in the year 1863.
  • Cytoplasmic Streaming: Also known as cyclosis, this is the active movement of the cytoplasm within a cell. In plant cells, this movement helps distribute chloroplasts to positions where they can best capture light for photosynthesis.
  • Vacuoles in Plants: In mature plant cells, a large central vacuole can take up to 90% of the cell's volume, often compressing the cytoplasm into a thin layer against the plasma membrane.
  • Buffer System: The cytoplasm acts as a buffer, protecting the genetic material of the cell and the organelles from damage caused by movement or collision with other cells.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 29

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction in plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    It always requires two plants of different species.

  2. BOption (b)

    It helps in producing seeds with genetic diversity.

  3. COption (c)

    It prevents fertilisation from occurring.

  4. DOption (d)

    It occurs only in root systems.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It helps in producing seeds with genetic diversity.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It helps in producing seeds with genetic diversity.

Key Points

  • Sexual reproduction in plants is the process of producing new offspring by the fusion of male and female gametes. This process typically occurs in the flower, which serves as the reproductive unit of angiosperms.
  • The primary advantage of sexual reproduction is the creation of genetic diversity. During the formation of gametes through meiosis, processes like crossing over and independent assortment ensure that each seed carries a unique combination of DNA from its parents. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Unlike asexual reproduction, which produces clones, sexual reproduction results in variation. This variation is essential for the survival of a species, as it allows plants to adapt to changing environmental conditions, such as climate change or new pathogens.
  • The statement that it requires two plants of different species is incorrect; sexual reproduction usually occurs between individuals of the same species to produce fertile offspring. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The claim that it prevents fertilisation is logically false, as fertilisation (the fusion of pollen and ovule) is the fundamental requirement for sexual reproduction to succeed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Sexual reproduction does not occur in root systems; it takes place in specialized organs like flowers (in angiosperms) or cones (in gymnosperms). Roots are typically associated with asexual vegetative propagation. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Process of Sexual Reproduction:
  • Pollination: This is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther (male part) to the stigma (female part). It can be self-pollination or cross-pollination mediated by wind, water, insects, or animals.
  • Fertilisation: Once the pollen reaches the stigma, it grows a pollen tube down to the ovary. The male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form a zygote.
  • Seed Formation: After fertilisation, the ovule develops into a seed, and the ovary often matures into a fruit. The seed contains the embryo and stored food (endosperm).
  • Asexual Reproduction Comparison:
  • In plants, asexual reproduction is also known as vegetative propagation. It involves parts like runners, tubers, bulbs, and rhizomes.
  • While asexual reproduction is faster and requires less energy, it lacks genetic variation, making the entire population vulnerable to the same diseases or environmental stresses.

Important Points

  • Evolutionary Significance: Genetic diversity is the "raw material" for natural selection. Sexual reproduction allows beneficial mutations to spread through a population more effectively than asexual methods.
  • Dormancy and Dispersal: Sexual reproduction produces seeds, which can remain dormant during unfavorable conditions (like winter or drought) and can be dispersed over long distances to colonize new habitats.
  • Components of a Flower: A typical flower consists of sepals, petals, stamens (male), and pistils/carpels (female). The stamen consists of the filament and anther, while the pistil consists of the stigma, style, and ovary.
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Question 30

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What does a blue, non-luminous flame indicate when a hydrocarbon is burnt?

  1. AOption (a)

    Complete combustion with high temperature

  2. BOption (b)

    Incomplete combustion and soot formation

  3. COption (c)

    Lack of oxygen

  4. DOption (d)

    Presence of unburnt carbon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Complete combustion with high temperature

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Complete combustion with high temperature.

Key Points

  • A blue, non-luminous flame is the characteristic result of complete combustion of a hydrocarbon. This occurs when the fuel reacts with a sufficient supply of oxygen. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • In complete combustion, the hydrocarbon is fully oxidized, producing only carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor (H2O) as chemical byproducts, along with a significant release of heat and light energy.
  • The blue color of the flame is primarily due to the emission from excited molecular fragments like CH and C2 radicals. Because there are no unburnt carbon particles (soot) present to glow, the flame does not appear yellow or luminous.
  • This type of flame indicates a high temperature, often reaching between 1400°C and 1650°C in a standard Bunsen burner setup. This efficiency makes it ideal for industrial heating and laboratory experiments.
  • Conversely, a yellow flame indicates incomplete combustion, which happens when oxygen is limited. This results in the formation of soot and carbon monoxide. Hence, statements 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect descriptions of a blue flame.

Additional Information

  • Luminous vs. Non-Luminous Flames:
  • Luminous Flame: These are typically yellow-orange and occur during incomplete combustion. The luminosity is caused by incandescence, where tiny particles of unburnt carbon (soot) are heated to a point where they emit visible light.
  • Non-Luminous Flame: These are blue and occur during complete combustion. They do not produce smoke or soot, making them "cleaner" for the environment and equipment.
  • Hydrocarbons: These are organic compounds consisting entirely of hydrogen and carbon. Common examples include Methane (CH4), Propane (C3H8), and Butane (C4H10). Saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) generally burn with a blue flame if oxygen is plenty, while unsaturated hydrocarbons (alkenes/alkynes) often burn with a sooty flame due to higher carbon percentages.
  • The Bunsen Burner: Developed by Robert Bunsen in 1855, this device allows for the adjustment of the air-to-gas ratio. By opening the air hole, more oxygen mixes with the gas, producing a roaring blue flame used for high-heat applications.
  • Chemical Equation: The general equation for the complete combustion of Methane is: CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 + 2H2O + Heat Energy. If oxygen is insufficient, the reaction might produce Carbon Monoxide (CO) or Solid Carbon (C).

Important Points

  • Soot Formation: Soot consists of fine black carbon particles. It is a major pollutant and can cause respiratory issues. Its presence in a flame is a clear indicator that the fuel is not being utilized efficiently.
  • Oxygen Supply: The oxygen-to-fuel ratio is the most critical factor determining flame type. In household LPG stoves, the burners are designed with small holes to ensure a steady supply of air, which is why they normally produce a blue flame. If the flame turns yellow, it usually indicates the air holes are blocked.
  • Temperature Zones: In a flame, the outermost zone (non-luminous) is the hottest part because it has direct access to atmospheric oxygen. The middle zone (luminous) is moderately hot, and the innermost zone (containing unburnt vapors) is the coolest.
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Question 31

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between mass and inertia?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mass is independent of inertia

  2. BOption (b)

    Mass is inversely proportional to inertia

  3. COption (c)

    Mass is directly proportional to the square of inertia

  4. DOption (d)

    Mass is directly proportional to inertia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mass is directly proportional to inertia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mass is directly proportional to inertia.

Key Points

  • Inertia is defined as the inherent property of a physical object to resist any change in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line.
  • The mass of an object is a quantitative measure of its inertia. It represents the amount of matter contained within an object and determines how much it will resist acceleration when a force is applied.
  • There is a linear and direct relationship between these two concepts. A body with a heavier mass possesses greater inertia, meaning it is harder to start moving if it is at rest, or harder to stop if it is already moving. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • According to Newton's First Law of Motion, also known as the Law of Inertia, an object will maintain its state of motion unless an external unbalanced force acts upon it.
  • Because inertia depends solely on the mass of the object, any increase in mass results in a corresponding and proportional increase in the object's resistance to changes in motion.

Additional Information

  • Types of Inertia:
  • Inertia of Rest: The inability of a body to change its state of rest by itself. For example, when a bus starts suddenly, the passengers tend to fall backward because their lower body moves with the bus while the upper body tries to remain at rest.
  • Inertia of Motion: The inability of a body to change its state of uniform motion by itself. For example, an athlete runs some distance before taking a long jump to gain momentum and overcome the tendency to stop.
  • Inertia of Direction: The inability of a body to change its direction of motion by itself. For instance, when a car rounds a curve sharply, the passengers are thrown toward the outside of the curve.
  • Newton's Second Law Connection:
  • The relationship is further clarified by Newton's Second Law (F = ma). Here, mass (m) acts as the proportionality constant between force (F) and acceleration (a). For a constant force, the larger the mass, the smaller the acceleration, illustrating the resistance provided by inertia.
  • SI Units and Measurement:
  • In the International System of Units (SI), mass is measured in kilograms (kg). Inertia does not have a separate unit of measurement; it is represented numerically by the object's mass value.

Important Points

  • **Analysis of Incorrect

Statements:

**

  • Mass is independent of inertia: This is incorrect because mass is fundamentally the measure of inertia. Without mass, there is no inertia in classical mechanics. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Mass is inversely proportional to inertia: This statement implies that as an object gets heavier, it becomes easier to move, which contradicts the fundamental laws of physics. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Mass is directly proportional to the square of inertia: There is no quadratic relationship ($m \propto I^2$) in the definition of these terms; the relationship is strictly linear. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Historical Context:
  • The concept of Inertia was first formulated by Galileo Galilei for horizontal motion on Earth and was later generalized by Isaac Newton in 1687 in his work "Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica".
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Question 32

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding 'changes of state of matter'?

A) A change of state of matter is a physical change.

B) A change of state of matter is an irreversible change.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only B

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither A nor B

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only A.

Key Points

  • Physical Change Definition: A physical change is a type of change in which the physical properties of a substance, such as its shape, size, color, or state, undergo a transformation without altering its chemical composition. No new chemical substance is formed during this process.
  • Statement A Analysis: When matter changes from one state to another (e.g., liquid water turning into water vapor), the molecular structure ($H_2O$) remains the same.

Only the kinetic energy and the arrangement of molecules change. Hence, statement A is correct.

  • Statement B Analysis: A change of state is typically a reversible change. This means the substance can return to its original state by reversing the external conditions such as temperature or pressure. For instance, ice can melt into water, and that water can be frozen back into ice. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
  • Conclusion: Since only the first statement accurately describes the scientific nature of phase transitions, the final answer must reflect the validity of statement A alone. Hence, the correct answer is Only A.

Additional Information

  • States of Matter:
  • Matter primarily exists in three states: Solid, Liquid, and Gas. Advanced states include Plasma and Bose-Einstein Condensate.
  • Solids have a definite shape and volume due to strong intermolecular forces.
  • Liquids have a definite volume but take the shape of the container.
  • Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume, filling all available space.
  • Processes of Phase Transition:
  • Melting (Fusion): The transition from a solid to a liquid state upon heating.
  • Freezing (Solidification): The transition from a liquid to a solid state upon cooling.
  • Vaporization (Boiling/Evaporation): The process where a liquid changes into a gas.
  • Condensation: The process where a gas or vapor changes back into a liquid.
  • Sublimation: A direct change from a solid to a gas without passing through the liquid phase (e.g., Camphor or Dry Ice).
  • Deposition: A direct change from a gas to a solid.
  • Role of Energy:
  • Changes of state are driven by the absorption or release of heat energy (often referred to as Latent Heat).
  • Latent Heat of Fusion is the heat required to change a substance from solid to liquid at its melting point.
  • Latent Heat of Vaporization is the energy needed to convert a liquid into a gas at its boiling point.

Important Points

  • Reversibility vs. Irreversibility: While physical changes (like melting) are usually reversible, chemical changes (like burning wood or rusting iron) are typically irreversible because they result in the formation of new products with different properties.
  • Effect of Pressure: While temperature is the most common factor, pressure also plays a critical role. For example, increasing pressure can liquefy certain gases (like LPG - Liquefied Petroleum Gas).
  • Constant Temperature: During a change of state, the temperature of the substance remains constant even though heat is being supplied, as the energy is used to overcome molecular attractions.
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Question 33

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Unsaturated hydrocarbons usually produce:

  1. AOption (a)

    yellow flame with black smoke

  2. BOption (b)

    clean blue flames

  3. COption (c)

    white flame with sparkles

  4. DOption (d)

    no flame at all

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

yellow flame with black smoke

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is yellow flame with black smoke.

Key Points

  • Unsaturated hydrocarbons are organic compounds that contain at least one double bond (alkenes) or triple bond (alkynes) between carbon atoms.
  • When unsaturated hydrocarbons are burnt in the presence of air, they typically undergo incomplete combustion. This happens because the proportion of carbon in these molecules is relatively high compared to saturated hydrocarbons.
  • The high carbon content prevents all the carbon atoms from being completely oxidized into carbon dioxide given the limited amount of oxygen available in the surrounding air.
  • As a result of this incomplete combustion, unburnt carbon particles are produced. These particles heat up and glow, giving the flame a characteristic yellow color.
  • The unburnt carbon particles that do not glow or are released from the flame manifest as soot or black smoke. Hence, the statement that they produce a yellow flame with black smoke is correct.

Additional Information

  • Saturated Hydrocarbons (Alkanes):
  • Unlike unsaturated ones, saturated hydrocarbons like methane or ethane generally burn with a clean blue flame in sufficient air.
  • This is because they have a lower carbon-to-hydrogen ratio, allowing for complete combustion where carbon is fully converted to CO2.
  • The Role of Oxygen:
  • The nature of the flame depends heavily on the oxygen supply. If an unsaturated hydrocarbon (like acetylene) is burnt in pure oxygen rather than air, it can undergo complete combustion and produce an extremely hot blue flame used in welding.
  • In a Bunsen burner, closing the air holes leads to incomplete combustion and a sooty yellow flame, regardless of the fuel type.
  • Incandescence:
  • The yellow light emitted by the flame is a result of incandescence, which is the emission of light by a solid (the unburnt carbon) caused by its high temperature.

Important Points

  • Alkenes: These are hydrocarbons with at least one C=C double bond. A common example is Ethene (C2H4).
  • Alkynes: These contain at least one C≡C triple bond. A common example is Ethyne (C2H2), also known as acetylene.
  • Soot (Carbon Black): The black smoke produced is essentially fine particles of amorphous carbon. It is industrially significant and used in the manufacturing of tires and printing inks.
  • Chemical Test: Saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons can be distinguished using the Bromine Water Test. Unsaturated hydrocarbons decolorize bromine water, whereas saturated ones do not react under normal conditions.
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Question 34

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which metal is placed highest in the reactivity series?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium

  2. BOption (b)

    Gold

  3. COption (c)

    Silver

  4. DOption (d)

    Copper

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sodium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sodium.

Key Points

  • The reactivity series (or activity series) is a list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing chemical reactivity. Metals at the top are most reactive, while those at the bottom are least reactive.
  • Among the options provided, Sodium is the most reactive metal. In the standard reactivity series, Potassium sits at the very top, followed immediately by Sodium. Hence, the option Sodium is the correct answer.
  • Sodium (symbol Na, atomic number 11) is an alkali metal. It reacts vigorously with both oxygen and water at room temperature, which is why it is never found in a free state in nature.
  • Copper (symbol Cu), Silver (symbol Ag), and Gold (symbol Au) are placed much lower in the series. Copper is located below Hydrogen, while Silver and Gold are near the very bottom, indicating they are highly unreactive.
  • A metal placed higher in the series can displace a metal placed lower in the series from its salt solution. This is known as a displacement reaction. Because Sodium is high in the series, it can displace almost any other metal listed below it.

Additional Information

  • The Reactivity Series Hierarchy:
  • The typical order of metals from highest to lowest reactivity is: Potassium (K) > Sodium (Na) > Calcium (Ca) > Magnesium (Mg) > Aluminium (Al) > Zinc (Zn) > Iron (Fe) > Lead (Pb) > Hydrogen (H) > Copper (Cu) > Mercury (Hg) > Silver (Ag) > Gold (Au).
  • Metals above Hydrogen can displace it from acids to produce hydrogen gas, whereas metals like Copper, Silver, and Gold cannot.
  • Noble Metals (Gold and Silver):
  • Gold and Silver are often referred to as noble metals because they do not react with moisture, air, or ordinary acids. This property makes Gold (located at the very bottom) ideal for jewelry and electronic components.
  • Silver is also highly unreactive but can tarnish over time when exposed to sulfur compounds in the air.
  • Transition Metal (Copper):
  • Copper is a transition metal used extensively in electrical wiring and plumbing due to its high conductivity and relatively low reactivity compared to alkali metals. It does not react with water or dilute hydrochloric acid.

Important Points

  • Storage of Sodium: Because Sodium reacts explosively with moisture in the air, it must be stored under kerosene or liquid paraffin to prevent accidental combustion.
  • Extraction Methods: The position in the reactivity series determines how a metal is extracted. Highly reactive metals like Sodium and Potassium are extracted via electrolysis of their molten chlorides, whereas less reactive metals like Iron are extracted by reduction with carbon.
  • Ionization Energy: Reactivity is closely linked to ionization energy. Metals at the top, such as Sodium, have low ionization energy, meaning they lose their valence electrons very easily to form positive ions (cations).
  • Reaction with Water: While Sodium reacts violently with cold water, metals like Magnesium react only with hot water, and Iron reacts only with steam, further demonstrating the gradient of the reactivity series.
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Question 35

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What does it mean when magnetic field lines are drawn closer together in a diagram?

  1. AOption (a)

    The magnetic field is stronger in that region

  2. BOption (b)

    The magnetic field is weaker in that area

  3. COption (c)

    There is no magnetic field present

  4. DOption (d)

    The direction of the magnetic field has changed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The magnetic field is stronger in that region

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The magnetic field is stronger in that region.

Key Points

  • The degree of closeness of the magnetic field lines (also known as magnetic lines of force) determines the relative strength of the magnetic field in a given area.
  • In a diagram, when the lines are drawn closer together or crowded, it signifies that the magnetic field is stronger in that specific region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Conversely, where the field lines are widely separated or spread out, the magnetic field is weaker. This visual representation allows for the mapping of magnetic flux density. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The magnetic field is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude (represented by the density of the lines) and direction (indicated by arrows on the lines).
  • The strength of the field is maximum at the poles of a magnet (both North and South poles) because the field lines are most concentrated at these points.

Additional Information

  • Properties of Magnetic Field Lines:
  • Magnetic field lines are continuous closed loops. Outside the magnet, they emerge from the North Pole and enter at the South Pole. Inside the magnet, the direction is from the South Pole to the North Pole.
  • No two magnetic field lines can intersect each other. If they did, it would mean that at the point of intersection, the magnetic field has two different directions, which is physically impossible.
  • The tangent drawn at any point on a magnetic field line indicates the direction of the magnetic field (B-field) at that specific point.
  • Uniform vs. Non-Uniform Magnetic Fields:
  • In a uniform magnetic field, the field lines are parallel and equidistant from each other, indicating that the field strength and direction are the same at all points.
  • In a non-uniform field, like that around a bar magnet, the distance between the lines varies, showing that the magnetic field strength changes depending on the location.
  • Units and Concepts:
  • The SI unit of magnetic field strength (magnetic induction) is the Tesla (named after Nikola Tesla). Another common unit is the Gauss, where 1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss.
  • The concept of field lines was first introduced by Michael Faraday in the 19th century to visualize electromagnetic induction and magnetism.

Important Points

  • The magnetic field is strongest near the poles because magnetic flux is highly concentrated there; therefore, the lines are tightly packed.
  • When moving away from the magnet, the magnetic field strength decreases following an inverse-square law relationship in many contexts, which is why the lines appear farther apart at a distance.
  • The Earth also behaves like a giant dipole magnet with its own magnetic field lines emerging from the magnetic south pole (near geographic North) and entering at the magnetic north pole (near geographic South).
  • In a solenoid (a coil of wire), the magnetic field lines are nearly parallel inside the coil, indicating a very strong and uniform magnetic field within the center of the device.
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Question 36

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What do ‘check dams’ refer to?

  1. AOption (a)

    Earthen or concrete structures across flooded gullies

  2. BOption (b)

    Small huts near rivers

  3. COption (c)

    Dams built only for industrial water supply

  4. DOption (d)

    Crescent-shaped hills for farming

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Earthen or concrete structures across flooded gullies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Earthen or concrete structures across flooded gullies.

Key Points

  • Check dams are small, usually temporary or permanent barriers constructed across a swale, drainage ditch, or gully. They are primarily designed to counteract erosion by reducing the velocity of water flow during heavy rains or floods.
  • These structures can be built using various materials, most commonly earthen embankments, reinforced concrete, loose stones (gabions), or timber. The choice of material depends on the topography and the intensity of water flow in the region. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The main functional objective of a check dam is to trap sediment and allow surface runoff to seep into the ground, thereby facilitating groundwater recharge. This makes them a vital component of watershed management.
  • By slowing down the water, check dams prevent the deepening of gullies and the loss of fertile topsoil, which is crucial for agricultural productivity in arid and semi-arid regions.
  • Unlike large-scale dams, check dams are cost-effective, have a low environmental impact, and can often be constructed using local community labor and resources.

Additional Information

  • Rainwater Harvesting:
  • Check dams are a form of in-situ rainwater harvesting. They help in increasing the water table levels in nearby wells, providing a reliable source of water for irrigation during dry months.
  • In India, states like Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra extensively use check dams to combat drought conditions and manage water scarcity.
  • Ecological Impact:
  • By creating small pools of standing water, these structures support local biodiversity, providing hydration for livestock and wildlife.
  • They also help in pollutant filtration, as the slower water movement allows heavy metals and nutrients to settle with the sediment rather than flowing into larger river systems.
  • Comparison with Other Options:
  • Small huts near rivers usually refer to temporary dwellings or fishing shelters and have no relation to water engineering.
  • Industrial water supply dams are typically much larger, permanent reservoirs designed for high-volume storage rather than erosion control in gullies.
  • Crescent-shaped hills for farming are often related to contour bunding or terrace farming, which are soil conservation methods but are not "dams" themselves.

Important Points

  • Maintenance: One of the critical aspects of check dams is desiltation. Over time, the area behind the dam fills with silt and debris, reducing its capacity to slow water. Periodic removal of this silt (which is often rich in nutrients) can be used to improve farm soil.
  • Design Criteria: A well-designed check dam must have a spillway or a lower center section to allow excess water to pass over without eroding the flanks of the structure.
  • Government Initiatives: In India, schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) and MGNREGA provide funding and employment for the construction of check dams to ensure sustainable water management.
  • Geographical Location: They are most effective in hilly terrains or regions with undulating slopes where surface runoff is high and soil erosion is a significant threat.
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Question 37

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Please select the correct option for the assertion-reason statement.

Assertion: The ceiling conference halls are made curved.

Reason: Curved ceilings help the sound to spread evenly in the hall.

  1. AOption (a)

    Assertion is true but reason is false.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both assertion and reason are false.

  3. COption (c)

    Assertion is false and reason is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Key Points

  • The Assertion states that the ceilings of conference halls, auditoriums, and concert halls are typically curved. This is a common architectural practice in acoustics to manage how sound behaves within a large enclosed space. Hence, the assertion is correct.
  • The Reason explains that these curved ceilings are designed so that sound waves, after reflecting off the surface, are directed downward to spread evenly across the entire width of the hall. Hence, the reason is correct.
  • In a large hall, sound needs to reach the audience sitting at the back just as clearly as those at the front. A flat ceiling might reflect sound in a way that creates "dead spots" or sound shadows where the audio is faint.
  • By using a curved surface (acting similarly to a concave mirror), the reflected sound waves are distributed more uniformly. This ensures that the sound is audible and intelligible to every person in the audience.
  • Because the purpose of the curved design (the assertion) is specifically to achieve this even distribution of sound (the reason), the reason provides the correct logical explanation for the assertion. Hence, both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation.

Additional Information

  • Soundboards: In many large auditoriums, a curved soundboard is placed behind the speaker or the stage. This board reflects the sound toward the audience, ensuring that even a speaker with a low volume can be heard clearly at a distance.
  • Reflection of Sound: Just like light, sound follows the laws of reflection, where the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. This principle is utilized to design acoustic spaces.
  • Multiple Reflections: While curved ceilings help spread sound, multiple reflections can sometimes lead to reverberation. If the time interval between the original sound and reflected sound is too long, it can blur the clarity of speech.
  • Acoustic Materials: To balance reflection and absorption, modern halls use materials like compressed fiberboard, rough plaster, or draperies on walls to absorb excess sound and reduce echoes.
  • Applications: The principle of curved reflection is not limited to ceilings; it is also used in stethoscopes, megaphones, and horns to direct sound into a specific direction or focal point.

Important Points

  • Concave Surfaces: A curved ceiling acts as a concave surface. When sound waves hit this surface, they converge or spread in a controlled manner depending on the radius of curvature.
  • Auditory Uniformity: The primary goal of acoustic design in public buildings is to achieve uniformity in sound pressure levels throughout the seating area.
  • Historical Context: Even in ancient Greek theaters, the semi-circular architectural design was intended to amplify and project the voice of actors to the top rows of the amphitheater.
  • Sound Intensity: By reflecting sound that would otherwise be lost to the upper parts of the building back toward the listeners, the intensity of the sound perceived by the audience is significantly increased.
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Question 38

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which property of carbon allows it to form a large number of compounds by bonding with itself and other elements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Catenation

  2. BOption (b)

    Tetravalency

  3. COption (c)

    Combustion

  4. DOption (d)

    Isomerism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Catenation

Why this answer is correct

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is Catenation.

 

Key Points

  • Catenation is the unique property of carbon that allows it to form covalent bonds with other carbon atoms, leading to the formation of long, stable chains and structures.
  • This property results in the creation of straight chains, branched chains, and cyclic rings of various sizes. The Carbon-Carbon (C-C) bond is extremely strong and stable, which is a major reason why carbon can form such a vast number of compounds.
  • The small size of the carbon atom (atomic number 6) enables its nucleus to hold the shared pairs of electrons strongly, ensuring the stability of these long chains. Hence, the correct answer is Catenation.
  • While other elements like Silicon also exhibit catenation, they can typically only form chains of up to 7 or 8 atoms. These chains are highly reactive and unstable compared to the carbon chains found in organic chemistry.
  • The sheer variety of carbon compounds, numbering in the millions, is primarily attributed to the combined effects of catenation and tetravalency.

Additional Information

  • Tetravalency of Carbon:
  • Carbon has 4 valence electrons in its outermost shell. This means it can form four covalent bonds with other atoms of carbon or atoms of other monovalent elements like Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, and Sulphur.
  • This tetravalent nature allows carbon to create a diverse range of functional groups, which determine the chemical properties of the resulting organic molecules.
  • Isomerism:
  • Isomerism is a phenomenon where two or more compounds have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements or spatial orientations.
  • For example, Butane (C4H10) has two isomers: n-butane (straight chain) and isobutane (branched chain). This adds to the massive variety of carbon-based substances.
  • Combustion:
  • Combustion is a chemical process where a substance reacts rapidly with Oxygen and gives off heat. Carbon and its compounds are used as excellent fuels because they release a large amount of energy during combustion, typically producing CO2 and H2O.
  • Saturated and Unsaturated Carbon Compounds:
  • Carbon atoms can be linked by single, double, or triple bonds. Compounds with only single bonds are called Saturated (e.g., Alkanes), while those with double or triple bonds are called Unsaturated (e.g., Alkenes and Alkynes).

Important Points

  • Organic Chemistry: Due to catenation, a separate branch of chemistry called Organic Chemistry was developed to study carbon-containing compounds.
  • Allotropes of Carbon: Carbon exists in different physical forms in the same state, known as allotropes. The most famous include Diamond (3D network), Graphite (layers), and Buckminsterfullerene (C60) (spherical).
  • Bond Energy: The bond energy of a C-C bond is approximately 348 kJ/mol, which is significantly higher than Si-Si bonds (around 222 kJ/mol), explaining why carbon chains are more durable.
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Question 39

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The magnetic field due to a solenoid carrying 'I' current is 'B'. What will be the magnetic field due to this solenoid, when the current flowing through the solenoid is halved? (Keeping all the other parameters the same)

  1. AOption (a)

    B/2

  2. BOption (b)

    B/4

  3. COption (c)

    B

  4. DOption (d)

    2B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B/2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B/2.

Key Points

  • A solenoid is a type of electromagnet formed by a helical coil of wire whose length is substantially greater than its diameter. When an electric current passes through it, it creates a uniform magnetic field inside the coil.
  • The magnetic field (B) inside a long solenoid is mathematically expressed by the formula: B = μ₀nI. In this equation, μ₀ represents the permeability of free space, n represents the number of turns per unit length, and I is the current flowing through the coil.
  • From the formula, it is evident that the magnetic field is directly proportional to the current (I). This implies that any change in the magnitude of current will lead to a linear change in the magnetic field strength, provided other factors like turns and core material remain constant.
  • In the given scenario, the initial magnetic field is B for a current I. If the current is halved, the new current becomes I/2. Substituting this into the formula gives the new magnetic field as B' = μ₀n(I/2).
  • By simplification, B' = 1/2 (μ₀nI), which is equal to B/2. Therefore, when the current is halved, the magnetic field also becomes halved. Hence, the statement that the field becomes B/2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Properties of Solenoid Magnetic Fields:
  • The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are parallel straight lines, indicating that the magnetic field is uniform at all points inside.
  • The strength of the field can be increased by increasing the number of turns (N) or by using a soft iron core inside the coil.
  • Outside the solenoid, the magnetic field is very weak and is often considered zero in the case of an ideal solenoid.
  • Right-Hand Thumb Rule:
  • The direction of the magnetic field is determined by the Right-Hand Thumb Rule. If you wrap your fingers around the solenoid in the direction of the current, your thumb points toward the North Pole of the magnetic field.
  • Comparison with Bar Magnets:
  • A current-carrying solenoid behaves similarly to a bar magnet, with one end acting as a North Pole and the other as a South Pole. Unlike a permanent magnet, the polarity of a solenoid can be reversed by changing the direction of current.

Important Points

  • Permeability (μ₀): The constant μ₀ (permeability of free space) has a value of approximately 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A. If a medium other than vacuum is used, μ₀ is replaced by the absolute permeability (μ) of that medium.
  • Unit of Measurement: The SI unit for magnetic field (B) is the Tesla (T), named after Nikola Tesla. Another commonly used unit is the Gauss (G), where 1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss.
  • Numerical Relationship: Since B is proportional to I, if the current was doubled, the field would become 2B. If the current was quartered, the field would become B/4. In this specific question, the reduction to half results in B/2.
  • Applications: Solenoids are fundamental components in relays, fuel injectors, door locking mechanisms, and MRI scanners in hospitals.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 40

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which process best explains how water droplets form on the outer surface of a cold glass during a hot day?

  1. AOption (a)

    Freezing

  2. BOption (b)

    Sublimation

  3. COption (c)

    Condensation

  4. DOption (d)

    Evaporation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Condensation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Condensation.

Key Points

  • Condensation is the physical process by which water vapor (gas) in the air is converted into liquid water. This occurs when the air temperature drops to its dew point.
  • On a hot day, the air surrounding a cold glass contains invisible water vapor. When this warm, moist air comes into contact with the cold exterior surface of the glass, the air's temperature rapidly decreases.
  • As the temperature of the air near the glass falls, the water molecules lose kinetic energy and move more slowly. This reduction in energy causes the molecules to cluster together, transitioning from a gaseous state to form liquid droplets.
  • The appearance of these droplets is a direct result of the air reaching saturation at the colder temperature provided by the glass. Since cold air cannot hold as much moisture as warm air, the excess water vapor must transition into liquid form.
  • This process is the exact opposite of evaporation, where liquid water gains energy to become a gas. Hence, the correct answer is Condensation.

Additional Information

  • Evaporation:
  • This is the process by which liquid water turns into water vapor or gas. It occurs when water molecules at the surface gain enough thermal energy to break free from the attractive forces of other liquid molecules.
  • It is a cooling process because the higher-energy molecules leave the liquid, reducing the average temperature of the remaining substance. Common examples include sweat evaporating from skin or water drying from wet clothes.
  • Freezing:
  • Freezing is the phase transition in which a liquid turns into a solid. For pure water at standard atmospheric pressure, this occurs at 0 degrees Celsius (32 degrees Fahrenheit).
  • During this process, heat energy is released into the environment as the molecules lose energy and form a fixed crystalline structure (ice).
  • Sublimation:
  • This is a relatively rare phase change where a solid transforms directly into a gas without passing through the intermediate liquid state.
  • A well-known example is dry ice (solid carbon dioxide), which "smokes" as it turns into gas at room temperature. In nature, this can happen to snow or ice in extremely cold, dry, and windy conditions.
  • Deposition:
  • Deposition is the reverse of sublimation, where water vapor changes directly into solid ice.
  • This is responsible for the formation of frost on grass or windowpanes during cold winter nights when the surface temperature is below the freezing point.

Important Points

  • Humidity and Dew Point:
  • Relative Humidity is the ratio of the current water vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure at a given temperature. When it reaches 100%, the air is saturated.
  • The Dew Point is the specific temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated with water vapor. If the glass surface is below this temperature, condensation will inevitably occur.
  • Latent Heat:
  • During condensation, energy known as latent heat of condensation is released. This release of energy is a major driver of atmospheric phenomena, such as the development of thunderstorms and hurricanes.
  • In the case of the cold glass, the thermal energy from the water vapor is transferred to the glass and the liquid inside, which is why a cold drink warms up faster in humid environments.

How should I prepare for General Science in RRB Group D?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.