General Awareness PYQs

p>The correct answer is Southern Command.

Key Points

• In December 2025, the Indian Army successfully conducted a combat launch of the BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile from a test range located in the Bay of Bengal.
• The successful launch was executed by the Southern Command of the Indian Army, demonstrating the high state of operational readiness and the precision strike capabilities of the missile system.
• The missile followed a pre-defined trajectory and successfully hit its designated target ship with pinpoint accuracy, validating the tactical procedures for long-range engagement.
• This test was part of a series of training exercises aimed at ensuring that the Indian Army remains prepared for multi-domain warfare and maritime security challenges.
• The Southern Command, which oversees a vast geographical area, plays a critical role in integrating such advanced missile systems into its combat strategy to safeguard India's interests. Hence, the correct answer is Southern Command.

Additional Information

• BrahMos Missile Overview:
• The BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between India’s DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya (NPOM).
• It is named after the rivers Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia.
• The missile operates on a "Fire and Forget" principle and is capable of reaching speeds of up to Mach 2.8 to Mach 3.0, making it one of the fastest cruise missiles in the world.
• Propulsion and Launch Platforms:
• It utilizes a two-stage propulsion system: a solid propellant booster for the initial phase and a liquid ramjet for the sustained supersonic cruise phase.
• BrahMos is highly versatile and can be launched from land-based mobile launchers, ships, submarines, and Su-30 MKI fighter aircraft.
• Southern Command of Indian Army:
• The Southern Command is the largest command of the Indian Army in terms of territory, with its headquarters located in Pune, Maharashtra.
• It was formed in 1895 and covers several states including Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana.

Important Points

• Range and Enhancements: While the initial versions had a range limited to 290 km (due to MTCR guidelines), newer variants with extended ranges exceeding 450 km to 800 km are being developed and tested.
• Strategic Significance: The integration of the BrahMos system into the Indian Army (since 2007), Indian Navy (since 2005), and Indian Air Force (since 2020) provides India with a credible "stand-off" range capability.
• Export Potential: In January 2022, India signed its first major export deal for the BrahMos missile with the Philippines, marking a significant milestone in India's defense exports and the "Make in India" initiative.

The correct answer is Valueattics Reinsurance.

Key Points

• In March 2025, Valueattics Reinsurance officially entered the Indian market after receiving the final R3 license from the regulator.
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) granted the registration, making it one of the few private domestic reinsurers to operate in the country.
• The entry of Valueattics Reinsurance is seen as a strategic move to boost the reinsurance capacity within India and provide local insurers with more options for risk transfer.
• This development marks a significant shift in the Indian insurance landscape, which has traditionally been dominated by the state-owned GIC Re and various Foreign Reinsurance Branches (FRBs).
• The company aims to leverage advanced technology and data analytics to offer specialized reinsurance products tailored for the Indian market.

Additional Information

• Reinsurance Fundamentals:
• Reinsurance is essentially "insurance for insurance companies." It allows primary insurers to protect themselves against catastrophic losses by passing a portion of the risk to a reinsurer.
• It helps in capital management, as it reduces the amount of capital an insurance company must hold to cover potential claims.
• IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India):
• It is the statutory body established under the IRDAI Act, 1999, tasked with regulating and developing the insurance industry in India.
• Headquartered in Hyderabad, it ensures the financial soundness of companies and protects the interests of policyholders.
• Market Structure in India:
• GIC Re (General Insurance Corporation of India) is the National Reinsurer and remains the largest player in the Indian market.
• Apart from domestic players, several global giants like Munich Re, Swiss Re, and Hannover Re operate in India through their Foreign Reinsurance Branches (FRBs).
• Licensing Stages:
• Any entity wanting to start a reinsurance business in India must go through three levels of approval: R1 (requisition for registration), R2 (detailed scrutiny), and R3 (final certificate of registration).

Important Points

• Economic Impact: The entry of private reinsurers like Valueattics Reinsurance helps in retaining more premium income within India, thereby preventing the outflow of foreign exchange.
• Capital Requirements: Under Indian law, a reinsurer is typically required to have a minimum paid-up equity capital of Rs. 200 Crore to commence operations.
• Vision 2047: The IRDAI has set a goal of "Insurance for All by 2047," and increasing the number of reinsurers is a vital component of achieving the necessary underwriting capacity for the nation.
• Role of Technology: New-age reinsurers are increasingly using Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning to better predict risk patterns related to climate change and health indices in India.

The correct answer is Rekha Gupta.

Key Points

• Following the Delhi Legislative Assembly Elections held in February 2025, Rekha Gupta was sworn in as the Chief Minister of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
• She represents the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), which secured a majority in the 70-member assembly by winning more than the required 36 seats.
• The oath of office and secrecy was administered to her by the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi at a ceremony held at Raj Niwas (or potentially a public venue like Ramlila Maidan).
• Her appointment followed the conclusion of the term of the previous assembly, where the transition of power occurred from the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) to the BJP. Hence, the statement regarding her swearing-in is correct.
• Rekha Gupta is a seasoned politician who has previously served as a Corporator and held significant positions within the Delhi University Students' Union (DUSU) in the mid-1990s.

Additional Information

• Delhi's Governance Framework:
• The governance of Delhi is unique as it is a Union Territory with its own legislature, established under the 69^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991.
• Article 239AA of the Constitution of India grants special status to Delhi, allowing it to have an elected Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers.
• The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the President of India (not the Governor/LG directly), and other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister.
• The Role of the Lieutenant Governor (LG):
• The Lieutenant Governor acts as the Administrator of Delhi and represents the Union Government.
• While the elected government has the power to legislate on matters in the State List and Concurrent List, three subjects—Police, Public Order, and Land—remain under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Central Government via the LG.
• Other Political Figures Mentioned:
• Atishi Marlena: A prominent leader of the Aam Aadmi Party who served as the Chief Minister briefly in 2024-2025 and held multiple portfolios including Education and Finance. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect in the context of the 2025 swearing-in winner.
• Manish Sisodia: The former Deputy Chief Minister of Delhi, known for his role in the Delhi Education Revolution. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Arvind Kejriwal: The founder of AAP and a three-time Chief Minister of Delhi, who resigned in late 2024. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

• Eligibility for Chief Minister: To become the Chief Minister of Delhi, a person must be a citizen of India, have attained the age of 25 years, and must be a member of the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
• Cabinet Strength: According to Article 239AA, the size of the Council of Ministers in Delhi is limited to 10% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, which means Delhi can have a maximum of 7 ministers including the Chief Minister.
• Legislative Term: The Delhi Legislative Assembly has a normal tenure of 5 years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier by the President.
• Historical Context: The first Chief Minister of Delhi was Chaudhary Brahm Brahm Prakash in 1952, and after a long hiatus where the post was abolished, it was reinstated in 1993 with Madan Lal Khurana.

The correct answer is World Test Championship.

Key Points

• South Africa secured a historic victory in the World Test Championship, effectively ending a 27-year wait for a major International Cricket Council (ICC) trophy.
• The last time the South African national team, known as the Proteas, won a premier global cricket tournament was the ICC KnockOut Trophy (now known as the Champions Trophy) held in 1998.
• The World Test Championship is a league competition for Test cricket run by the ICC, which began its first cycle in 2019 to determine the ultimate world champion in the longest format of the game.
• Winning this title is a significant milestone for South African cricket, as the team had previously reached multiple semi-finals in various formats but failed to cross the final hurdle until this WTC triumph.
• The victory signifies South Africa's dominance in the red-ball format over a two-year cycle, involving rigorous series against other top-ranked nations like Australia, India, and England.

Additional Information

• ICC Champions Trophy 1998:
• The inaugural edition of the ICC KnockOut Trophy was held in Bangladesh in October 1998.
• South Africa emerged as the champions after defeating the West Indies in the final match in Dhaka, with Hansie Cronje leading the side.
• World Test Championship (WTC) Format:
• The WTC was introduced to bring more relevance to Test cricket. The competition features the top nine Test-playing nations.
• Points are awarded for each match, and the two teams with the highest percentage of points at the end of the cycle compete in a one-off final at a neutral venue, often in England at Lord's or The Oval.
• South Africa's Cricket Legacy:
• The country was banned from international cricket between 1970 and 1991 due to the apartheid policy.
• Since their return in 1991, they have produced legendary players such as Jacques Kallis, AB de Villiers, Dale Steyn, and Hashim Amla.
• Despite their individual brilliance, the "chokers" tag haunted them for decades due to heartbreaking losses in the 1992, 1999, and 2015 World Cup knockouts.
• Other ICC Tournaments:
• The ICC Cricket World Cup (50-over format) and the ICC T20 World Cup are the other major trophies that South Africa has competed for over the years.
• Winning the World Test Championship is often considered the most prestigious achievement in modern cricket due to the endurance and skill required over five-day matches.

The correct answer is World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).

Key Points

• The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is the primary international body responsible for regulating and monitoring the fight against drugs in sports. In July 2025, India introduced critical amendments to its National Anti-Doping Act following concerns raised by WADA regarding compliance with the World Anti-Doping Code.
• The amendments aimed to ensure that India's legal framework for sports remains consistent with international standards, specifically addressing the independence of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) and the National Anti-Doping Laboratory (NDTL).
• The World Anti-Doping Code is a document that harmonizes anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations within sport organizations and among public authorities around the world. Failure to comply with this code can lead to sanctions, including the suspension of a country's ability to host international sporting events. Hence, the statement regarding WADA raising concerns is correct.
• In the context of the 2025 legislative update, the focus was on enhancing data protection for athletes and streamlining the results management process to prevent delays in adjudicating doping cases.
• The National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) of India, established in 2005, is mandated to implement anti-doping programs in the country in accordance with WADA guidelines.

Additional Information

• World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
• WADA was established on November 10, 1999, in Lausanne, Switzerland, following the Declaration of Lausanne. Its current headquarters are located in Montreal, Canada.
• It is a foundation initiated by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to promote, coordinate, and monitor the fight against doping in sports in all its forms.
• UNESCO’s Role:
• The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) adopted the International Convention against Doping in Sport in 2005.
• This convention is the legal instrument through which governments formally commit to the WADA Code, as WADA is a private non-governmental organization.
• International Olympic Committee (IOC):
• While the IOC works closely with WADA, its primary function is the organization and governance of the Olympic Games and the promotion of Olympism worldwide.
• The IOC provides significant funding to WADA, but the agency operates as an independent international body.
• National Anti-Doping Bill, 2022:
• Before the 2025 amendments, India passed the National Anti-Doping Bill in 2022, which provided statutory backing to NADA and established the National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports.
• This legislative framework is essential for maintaining the National Anti-Doping Laboratory (NDTL)’s WADA accreditation, which is necessary for the international validity of test results.

Important Points

• Banned Substances: WADA maintains an annual Prohibited List, which identifies substances and methods prohibited at all times, in-competition only, and in specific sports (e.g., anabolic agents, peptide hormones, and masking agents).
• Whereabouts Requirements: Athletes in a Registered Testing Pool (RTP) must provide accurate information about their daily location to facilitate out-of-competition testing without prior notice.
• Therapeutic Use Exemptions (TUE): Athletes may have illnesses or conditions that require them to take particular medications. If the medication falls under the Prohibited List, a TUE may give the athlete the authorization to take the needed medicine.
• Sanctions: Violations of anti-doping rules can lead to disqualification of results, forfeiture of medals, and period of ineligibility (bans) ranging from a few months to a lifetime.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• According to the IMF World Economic Outlook (WEO) projections for 2025, India is expected to remain the fastest-growing major economy in the world.
• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has projected India’s GDP growth to be 6.5% for the year 2025, driven by strong domestic demand and a burgeoning working-age population. Hence, the correct option is India.
• In comparison, China's economic growth is projected to slow down to approximately 4.1% in 2025, primarily due to the ongoing property sector crisis and subdued consumer confidence.
• The United States of America is projected to experience a growth rate of 1.9%, reflecting a cooling labor market and the delayed effects of monetary policy tightening.
• Japan is expected to see a growth rate of about 1.1%, as the economy continues to grapple with demographic challenges and modest private consumption.

Additional Information

• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• It is a major financial agency of the United Nations, headquartered in Washington, D.C., and was established in 1944 during the Bretton Woods Conference.
• Currently, it consists of 190 member countries working to foster global monetary cooperation and secure financial stability.
• The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a comprehensive report published twice a year (April and October) that provides analysis and forecasts for the global economy.
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product):
• It is the total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period, serving as a scorecard of a country's economic health.
• India’s GDP surpassed the $3.5 trillion mark recently, making it the fifth-largest economy in the world by nominal GDP.
• Global Growth Projections:
• The IMF projects steady but slow global growth at approximately 3.2% for 2025, as central banks worldwide navigate inflation targets.
• Growth in Emerging Market and Developing Economies (EMDEs) continues to outpace Advanced Economies, with Asia remaining the main engine of global expansion.

Important Points

• Growth Drivers for India: Significant public investment in infrastructure, the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, and the Digital India initiative have been pivotal in maintaining high growth trajectories.
• Monetary Policy: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) maintains an inflation target of 4% (with a margin of +/- 2%), which helps in stabilizing the macroeconomic environment for sustained growth.
• Key Figures: Kristalina Georgieva serves as the Managing Director of the IMF, while Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas is the Chief Economist responsible for the WEO reports.
• Fiscal Consolidation: The Indian government aims to reduce the fiscal deficit to below 4.5% of GDP by 2025-26, which is a key factor monitored by global rating agencies$.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) sanctioned a significant financial package of $2.3 billion to Pakistan in May 2025 to help the country navigate its ongoing economic challenges.
• This funding was approved under the Extended Fund Facility (EFF), aiming to provide Pakistan with the necessary liquidity to stabilize its balance of payments and bolster its foreign exchange reserves.
• The approval came after Pakistan demonstrated a commitment to stringent structural reforms, including measures to increase tax revenue, adjust energy tariffs, and maintain a market-determined exchange rate.
• The $2.3 billion disbursement is part of a larger multi-year program designed to bring macroeconomic stability and promote sustainable growth in the South Asian nation.
• The IMF Executive Board emphasized the importance of fiscal discipline and social safety nets to protect the most vulnerable segments of the Pakistani population during the reform process.

Additional Information

• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• The IMF is a global organization headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 member countries.
• It was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference and began formal operations in 1945.
• Its primary mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system, facilitate international trade, and provide loans to countries facing financial crises.
• Extended Fund Facility (EFF):
• The EFF is a service provided by the IMF that offers assistance to countries facing serious medium-term balance of payments problems because of structural weaknesses.
• These programs are typically longer than standard Stand-By Arrangements, usually lasting 3 to 4 years, to allow for deep-seated economic reforms.
• Pakistan's Economic Context:
• Pakistan has a long history with the IMF, having entered into more than 20 programs since joining the organization in 1950.
• The country has frequently struggled with high inflation, fiscal deficits, and circular debt in the energy sector, necessitating periodic international bailouts.

Important Points

• Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): The IMF uses SDRs as an international reserve asset. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five major currencies: the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and British Pound Sterling.
• Conditionality: IMF loans are often "conditional," meaning the borrowing country must implement specific policies—such as austerity measures or privatization—to receive the funds.
• Managing Director: The IMF is traditionally headed by a European, while the World Bank is headed by an American. As of the current period, the leadership focuses on climate-resilient financing and debt restructuring for developing nations.
• Impact of Sanction: A **$2.3 billion** influx is critical for **Pakistan** to avoid **sovereign default** and to restore confidence among **international investors** and **bilateral lenders** like **China**, **Saudi Arabia**, and the **UAE**$.

The correct answer is Cloud-seeding to induce artificial rain.

Key Points

• In October 2025, the Delhi government collaborated with researchers from IIT Kanpur to implement cloud-seeding as an emergency measure to mitigate the hazardous smog and air pollution levels in the city.
• The project aimed to induce artificial rain to facilitate the washout effect, which effectively removes suspended particulate matter like PM2.5 and PM10 from the atmosphere.
• The attempt eventually proved unsuccessful because the implementation of cloud-seeding requires specific meteorological conditions, including a minimum of 40% to 50% atmospheric moisture and the presence of rain-bearing clouds.
• During the specified period in October 2025, the humidity levels were too low and the sky lacked the necessary cumulus cloud formations, rendering the chemical dispersal from aircraft ineffective. Hence, the correct answer is Cloud-seeding to induce artificial rain.

Additional Information

• Cloud Seeding Technology:
• It is a weather modification technique where substances such as silver iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice are dispersed into the air to serve as cloud condensation nuclei.
• In India, IIT Kanpur has developed a specialized flaring attachment for aircraft to carry out this process, which was previously tested in 2023.
• Delhi's Pollution Dynamics:
• The National Capital Region (NCR) experiences a seasonal spike in AQI (Air Quality Index) during October and November due to stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana, combined with firecracker emissions and calm wind conditions.
• A phenomenon known as temperature inversion traps pollutants close to the ground, creating a thick layer of smog that poses severe health risks to the 30 million residents of the region.
• Other Mitigation Measures:
• The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is the primary regulatory framework used in Delhi, which involves restricting construction, banning diesel generators, and implementing the odd-even vehicle scheme.
• The government has also installed smog towers at Connaught Place and Anand Vihar, though their effectiveness is limited to a very small radius of 1 km.

Important Points

• Environmental Constraints: Artificial rain is not a permanent solution for air pollution; it is a temporary relief mechanism that is highly dependent on unpredictable weather patterns and wind direction.
• Technical Collaboration: The Delhi government offered to fund the entire cost of the IIT Kanpur project, estimated at several crores of rupees, provided the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and Ministry of Defence provided the necessary airspace clearances.
• Health Impact: Persistent smog in 2025 led to a 20% increase in respiratory ailments among children and the elderly, necessitating the exploration of high-tech solutions like cloud-seeding.

The correct answer is Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) & Safran Electronics and Defence (SED).

Key Points

• In November 2025, Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Safran Electronics and Defence (SED) signed a Joint Venture Cooperation Agreement (JVCA) aimed at the production of HAMMER smart precision-guided Air-to-Ground weapons in India.
• The partnership focuses on the indigenous manufacturing of the AASM HAMMER (Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range) to support the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative in the defence sector.
• The JVCA outlines the transfer of technology and the establishment of a domestic supply chain for these advanced munitions, ensuring long-term sustenance and maintenance, repair, and overhaul (MRO) services within the country.
• This collaboration significantly strengthens the strategic partnership between India and France, focusing on high-end aerospace technology and local production capabilities.
• The HAMMER system is designed to be integrated into various fighter aircraft, providing the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a versatile and highly accurate strike capability against a variety of land-based targets.

Additional Information

• Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL):
• BEL is a Navratna Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.
• Founded in 1954 and headquartered in Bengaluru, it specializes in advanced electronic products for the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
• The company plays a vital role in the indigenization of radar systems, missile systems, and communication equipment.
• Safran Electronics and Defence (SED):
• Safran is a French multinational company that operates globally in the aviation, defence, and space markets.
• It is a world leader in optronics, avionics, and navigation systems, providing critical technology for modern warfare.
• AASM HAMMER Weapon System:
• The HAMMER is a modular Air-to-Ground weapon that consists of a guidance kit and a range extension kit fitted to standard bombs.
• It features multiple guidance options, including Satellite/Inertial, Infrared, and Laser seekers, allowing for high precision in all weather conditions.
• It has been successfully integrated into the Rafale fighter jets and is planned for integration with the LCA Tejas to enhance the IAF's combat edge.

Important Points

• The HAMMER munitions were initially procured by the IAF through emergency procurement routes following the 2020 border stand-offs.
• The production in India under the JVCA will reduce import dependency and lower the life-cycle costs of the weapon system for the Indian military.
• The agreement aligns with the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020, which prioritizes Buy (Indian-IDDM) and Make in India categories for defence hardware.
• This joint venture is expected to create high-tech employment opportunities and boost the defence industrial ecosystem in India.

The correct answer is Leh.

Key Points

• In November 2024, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched India’s inaugural analog space mission in Leh, Ladakh.
• The mission is a collaborative effort involving ISRO’s Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC), Aakaar Space, the University of Ladakh, IIT Bombay, and the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC).
• The primary objective of this mission is to simulate interplanetary habitat conditions, providing a controlled environment to study the challenges of living on the Moon or Mars.
• The mission aims to explore the feasibility of establishing a sustainable base station beyond Earth by testing life support systems, resource management, and communication protocols.
• Leh was selected as the site for this mission because its geographical and climatic features—including high altitude, low oxygen levels, extreme cold, and barren landscape—closely mimic the lunar and martian environments.

Additional Information

• Analog Space Missions:
• These are field tests conducted in locations on Earth that have physical similarities to extreme space environments.
• They are used to test robotics, habitats, spacesuits, and human psychology in isolation before actual spaceflight.
• International agencies like NASA and ESA conduct similar missions in locations like Antarctica and the Atacama Desert.
• Significance of Ladakh for Space Research:
• Known as a cold desert, Ladakh offers unique geological analogs for Mars, specifically its volcanic rocks and permafrost.
• The low atmospheric pressure and low humidity in Leh provide an ideal setting to test the durability of spacecraft materials.
• ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation):
• Founded on August 15, 1969, and headquartered in Bengaluru.
• ISRO is currently working on the Gaganyaan mission, which is India’s first human spaceflight program.
• The organisation has also planned the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (Indian Space Station), targeted for completion by 2035.

Important Points

• In-Situ Resource Utilization (ISRU): One of the mission's focuses is ISRU, which involves learning how to use local materials (like lunar regolith) to construct structures or produce oxygen and water.
• Human Factors: The mission tracks the circadian rhythms, mental health, and physical health of participants living in a confined analog habitat.
• Future Prospects: Successful data from the Leh analog mission will contribute to the design of the habitat modules for India's future missions to the Moon under the Chandrayaan program.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• A state-of-the-art Skill Development Centre was inaugurated in the state of Kerala in July 2025 to enhance the employability of the local youth under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK).
• The Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs across India to provide better socio-economic infrastructure.
• The inauguration in Kerala specifically targets the creation of specialized infrastructure for vocational training, ensuring that students and workers from minority communities have access to modern industrial skills. Hence, the correct answer is Kerala.
• This initiative is designed to address the development deficits in identified areas by providing facilities for education, skill development, and healthcare.
• The Skill Development Centre is expected to offer courses aligned with the National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF), focusing on sectors like Information Technology, Electronics, and Healthcare.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram (PMJVK):
• The scheme was restructured and renamed from the Multi-sectoral Development Programme (MsDP) in May 2018 to provide a sharper focus on the development of Minority Concentration Areas (MCAs).
• It aims to improve the quality of life of people and reduce imbalances in Minority Concentration Areas through the creation of community assets.
• The Ministry of Minority Affairs is the nodal agency responsible for the planning and execution of projects under this Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
• Projects are approved based on the proposals submitted by State Governments and Union Territory administrations, ensuring a bottom-up approach to development.
• Funding and Coverage:
• The funding pattern for PMJVK generally follows a 60:40 ratio between the Centre and the State, while for North-Eastern and Himalayan States, it is 90:10.
• The scheme covers all districts of the country, focusing on blocks, towns, and clusters of villages where the minority population is 25% or more, along with backwardness in socio-economic parameters.
• Identified minority communities include Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jains, and Zoroastrians (Parsis) as notified under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.

Important Points

• Strategic Objectives:
• One of the primary objectives is to ensure inclusive growth by providing Skill Development hubs that reduce the unemployment rate among marginalized sections.
• The scheme supports the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-Reliant India) mission by fostering entrepreneurship and providing technical training at the grassroots level.
• In Kerala, the focus of such centers often includes nursing, paramedical sciences, and digital literacy, reflecting the state's high demand for skilled professionals in these sectors.
• July 2025 marks a significant timeline for the completion of several PMJVK projects sanctioned during the previous fiscal years to ensure last-mile delivery of government services.

The correct answer is Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve.

Key Points

• The annual elephant rejuvenation camp, often referred to as the Hathi Mahotsav, was successfully organized in September 2025 at the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve located in Madhya Pradesh.
• This 7-day long event is a traditional ritual designed to provide a much-needed break and health boost to the captive elephants that serve the Forest Department throughout the year.
• During this period, the elephants are exempted from their regular duties, such as wildlife monitoring, rescue operations, and anti-poaching patrolling in the dense terrains of the reserve.
• The rejuvenation process involves a specialized nutritious diet prepared for each elephant, which includes a mix of jaggery, coconuts, sugarcane, bananas, apples, and bajra khichdi mixed with vitamins and minerals.
• Expert veterinarians conduct comprehensive health check-ups, while the mahouts (elephant handlers) perform daily oil massages and give the animals luxurious baths in the local water bodies to ensure their physical and mental well-being.

Additional Information

• Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve:
• Located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh, it was declared a National Park in 1968 and became a Tiger Reserve in 1993.
• It is famous for having one of the highest densities of Royal Bengal Tigers in the world and is historically significant as the home of the first White Tiger discovered in the wild, named Mohan.
• Madhya Pradesh - The Tiger State:
• Madhya Pradesh retained its status as the Tiger State of India according to the All India Tiger Estimation 2022 report, which recorded a population of 785 tigers in the state.
• Apart from Bandhavgarh, the state is home to other prominent reserves including Kanha Tiger Reserve, Pench Tiger Reserve, Satpura Tiger Reserve, Panna Tiger Reserve, and Sanjay-Dubri Tiger Reserve.
• Significance of Captive Elephants:
• Captive elephants are vital for tiger conservation because they allow forest guards to navigate areas where motor vehicles cannot reach.
• They are also used in tranquilizing and relocating tigers or other animals during human-wildlife conflict situations.
• Other Tiger Reserves mentioned:
• Kanha Tiger Reserve is the largest in the state and the first in India to introduce an official mascot, Bhoorsingh the Barasingha.
• Satpura Tiger Reserve, located in the Narmadapuram district, is known for its unique biodiversity and was part of the UNESCO World Heritage tentative list.
• Sanjay Tiger Reserve is situated in the Sidhi district and forms a critical corridor for wildlife movement between Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

Important Points

• The rejuvenation camp is usually held during the monsoon season or immediately after, as the forest tracks are often inaccessible for routine patrolling, allowing the Forest Department to focus on the health of their animal workforce.
• Project Tiger, launched in 1973, remains the overarching framework under which these reserves are managed to ensure the survival of the Bengal Tiger in its natural habitat.
• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is the statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change that oversees the management of these camps and reserves across India.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The historic first-ever Kho Kho World Cup was hosted in New Delhi, India, from 13 to 19 January 2025.
• The tournament took place at the iconic Indira Gandhi Arena (Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium), which is known for hosting major international sporting events.
• The event was jointly organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI) and the International Kho Kho Federation to elevate the traditional Indian sport to a global platform.
• A total of 24 countries from six continents participated in the competition, featuring 16 men's teams and 16 women's teams in their respective categories.
• The tournament aimed to promote the indigenous sport of India internationally, showcasing the speed, agility, and strategy inherent in Kho Kho.

Additional Information

• Origin of Kho Kho:
• Kho Kho is one of the oldest traditional tag sports in India, with its modern origins traced back to the state of Maharashtra.
• Historically, it was played on 'raths' or chariots and was known as Rathera.
• Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI):
• The KKFI was established in the year 1955 to standardize the rules and promote the sport across the country.
• The current President of the Kho Kho Federation of India is Sudhanshu Mittal, who has been instrumental in organizing the inaugural World Cup.
• International Kho Kho Federation:
• This body oversees the global development of the sport and works towards its inclusion in multi-sport events like the Asian Games and eventually the Olympics.
• Tournament Theme:
• The slogan for the 2025 World Cup was "Lakhon Dil, Ek Dhadkan" (Millions of hearts, one heartbeat), emphasizing the emotional connection of the Indian populace with this native sport.

Important Points

• Government Support: The Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, under the Government of India, provided extensive support for the event as part of the initiative to promote indigenous games.
• Technical Evolution: The transition from playing on mud surfaces to synthetic mats has been a significant factor in making the sport more professional and visually appealing for international broadcasting.
• Ultimate Kho Kho (UKK): The success of the professional league, Ultimate Kho Kho, which launched its first season in 2022, played a pivotal role in building the momentum and viewership required to host a World Cup in 2025.
• Global Reach: Apart from India, nations like England, South Africa, Nepal, Bhutan, and Malaysia have emerged as strong contenders, indicating the growing popularity of the sport outside South Asia.

The correct answer is Sandhya Shantaram.

Key Points

• The veteran Indian actress and dancer Sandhya Shantaram, widely recognized for her prolific work in Marathi and Hindi cinema, passed away in October 2025.
• She was particularly celebrated for her lead roles in cinematic masterpieces directed by the legendary filmmaker V. Shantaram, such as the musical Navrang (1959) and the tragic drama Pinjra (1972).
• Born as Vijaya Deshmukh, she was discovered by V. Shantaram and cast in the film Amar Bhoopali in 1951, marking the beginning of a legendary career spanning several decades.
• She was known for her exceptional classical dance abilities, which were showcased extensively in films like Jhalak and Do Aankhen Barah Haath (1957).
• Her performance in Pinjra is considered a milestone in Marathi cinema, where she played the role of a Tamasha dancer who challenges the moral fiber of a village teacher. Hence, the correct answer is Sandhya Shantaram.

Additional Information

• Significant Films:
• Navrang (1959): This film is famous for its vibrant Holi sequences and the iconic song "Tu Chhupi Hai Kahan". Sandhya played a dual role (real-life wife and the protagonist's muse), showcasing her versatility as an actor and kathak dancer.
• Pinjra (1972): It was the first Marathi film to be produced in color. The film explored themes of morality, social fall, and the Lavani folk dance culture of Maharashtra.
• Do Aankhen Barah Haath (1957): In this socially relevant film about prison reform, she played the role of a toy seller, contributing to a project that won the Silver Bear at the Berlin International Film Festival.
• Association with Rajkamal Kalamandir:
• Most of her work was produced under the banner of Rajkamal Kalamandir, one of India's most prestigious film studios located in Mumbai.
• She married V. Shantaram in the 1950s and remained a core part of his creative vision until his death in 1990.
• Legacy in Dance:
• Unlike many actors of her era, Sandhya performed high-intensity classical and folk dance sequences without the use of body doubles, often undergoing rigorous training for months to perfect her movements for the big screen.

Important Points

• V. Shantaram: A pioneer of Indian Cinema, he was a recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1985. His films often focused on social reform and humanism.
• Other Options:
• Jyoti Chandekar: A well-known Marathi stage and film actress, known for her powerful character roles, but she is not the lead associated with Navrang.
• Sulakshana Pandit: An actress and playback singer prominent in the 1970s and 1980s, known for her roles in Bollywood but not primarily for Shantaram's early classics.
• Madhumati: A famous dancer and actress in Hindi cinema known for her item numbers and character roles during the Golden Era of the 1960s.

The correct answer is Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).

Key Points

• In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) entered into a strategic collaboration to tackle the growing menace of spam calls and SMS related to unsolicited loan offers and credit card services.
• The primary objective of this partnership is to safeguard consumers from financial fraud and harassment caused by unregistered telemarketers who bypass standard regulatory protocols.
• As part of the initiative, the RBI issued directives to all Scheduled Commercial Banks and NBFCs to ensure that their third-party agents strictly adhere to TRAI’s guidelines regarding Unsolicited Commercial Communications (UCC).
• The collaboration involves the implementation of AI-driven filters and blockchain-based Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT) to monitor and block headers and templates used by scammers to impersonate legitimate financial institutions.
• This move follows a significant rise in complaints regarding digital lending apps and spam calls that often lead to phishing attacks and unauthorized data harvesting.

Additional Information

• Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI):
• Established on February 20, 1997, under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services in India.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and functions as a statutory body to ensure transparency and healthy competition in the telecom sector.
• TRAI introduced the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR) in 2018 to provide a framework for controlling spam and protecting subscriber privacy.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• The RBI was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• As the Central Bank of the country, it regulates the monetary policy and oversees the banking system to maintain financial stability.
• In recent years, the RBI has introduced Digital Lending Guidelines (2022) to protect borrowers from predatory lending practices and illegal loan apps.
• Unsolicited Commercial Communication (UCC):
• This refers to any commercial communication that a subscriber receives without their explicit consent.
• The DND (Do Not Disturb) registry, managed by TRAI, allows users to opt-out of receiving such communications.

Important Points

• The Joint Working Group formed by RBI and TRAI focuses on technical solutions like Calling Name Presentation (CNAP), which helps users identify the caller’s identity before answering.
• The Sanchar Saathi portal, launched by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), also plays a crucial role in reporting fraudulent mobile connections and spam.
• Financial institutions found violating these norms face heavy penalties under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and TRAI regulations.
• This initiative is a critical step toward the Digital India vision, ensuring a secure digital ecosystem for online banking and financial transactions.

The correct answer is Nitin Gadkari.

Key Points

• The book titled ‘Sanghatil Manavi Vyavasthapan’ is authored by the senior Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) leader and Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways, Nitin Gadkari.
• The publication, released in May 2025, provides unique insights into the organizational culture and human resource management strategies of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS).
• The title ‘Sanghatil Manavi Vyavasthapan’ translates to "Human Management in Organization," highlighting Nitin Gadkari's perspective on how the RSS builds and maintains its vast network of volunteers through interpersonal relationships and disciplined management.
• In this book, the author explores the methodology of the Sangh in nurturing leadership and fostering a sense of national service among its members. Hence, the correct answer is Nitin Gadkari.
• The work is considered significant as it bridges the gap between traditional RSS values and modern management principles, written by a person who has been an active member of the organization for decades.

Additional Information

• Nitin Jairam Gadkari:
• He was born on May 27, 1957, in Nagpur, Maharashtra. Nagpur is also the global headquarters of the RSS.
• He served as the National President of the BJP from 2009 to 2013 and is known for his administrative efficiency and infrastructure development projects in India.
• Nitin Gadkari has a long-standing association with the RSS, which has deeply influenced his political and social philosophy.
• Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS):
• The RSS was founded on September 27, 1925, by Keshav Baliram Hedgewar in Nagpur.
• It is a right-wing, Hindu nationalist volunteer organization that focuses on character building and nation-building through a network of local branches known as Shakhas.
• The management style of the RSS is often studied for its decentralized structure and the ability to mobilize millions of volunteers without a conventional corporate hierarchy.
• Other Options Context:
• Amit Shah is the Union Home Minister and has been a key strategist for the BJP, but he is not the author of this specific management-focused book on the RSS.
• Yogi Adityanath is the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh and the head of the Gorakhnath Math, primarily known for his administrative reforms in the state.
• Shashi Tharoor is an Indian National Congress politician and a prolific author known for books like ‘The Paradoxical Prime Minister’ and ‘Why I Am a Hindu’, but his writings usually offer a different ideological perspective compared to the Sangh's management insights.

Important Points

• The book ‘Sanghatil Manavi Vyavasthapan’ emphasizes the concept of "Antyodaya" (uplifting the last person), which is a core philosophy of both the RSS and the BJP.
• It discusses the evolution of the RSS from a small group in 1925 to one of the world's largest non-governmental organizations by the year 2025.
• The publication serves as a guide for young leaders to understand how organizational discipline and human empathy can coexist in large-scale social movements.
• Nitin Gadkari's writings often reflect his practical approach to economic development and social welfare, integrated with the cultural values he imbibed from the Sangh.

The correct answer is Jiang Yuyan.

Key Points

• Jiang Yuyan, a phenomenal para-swimmer from China, was officially named the Sportsperson of the Year with a Disability at the 2025 Laureus World Sports Awards.
• The award recognizes her historic and dominant performance during the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games, where she emerged as the most successful athlete of the entire event.
• During the Paris 2024 games, she won an incredible seven gold medals, competing in various individual and relay events within the S6 and S7 classifications.
• Her gold medal tally included victories in the 50m freestyle S6, 100m freestyle S7, 400m freestyle S6, and 50m butterfly S6, alongside multiple relay successes.
• At only 19 years old at the time of the games, she became a symbol of excellence and resilience, breaking several world records and Paralympic records in the process.

Additional Information

• Background of Jiang Yuyan:
• Born in 2004 in Shaoxing, Zhejiang province, China, she faced significant adversity early in life after losing her right arm and right leg in a car accident at the age of four.
• She is widely known by the nickname "Flying Fish" due to her extraordinary speed and technique in the swimming pool.
• She began her international career with a breakthrough at the 2019 World Para Swimming Championships in London, where she won three gold medals at the age of 14.
• The Laureus World Sports Awards:
• Established in 1999, these awards are often considered the "Oscars of Sport," honoring the greatest sporting achievements of the previous calendar year.
• The Sportsperson of the Year with a Disability category is one of the most prestigious honors in the Paralympic movement, highlighting athletes who overcome physical challenges to reach the pinnacle of sport.
• The winners are selected through a two-step process: a nominations panel of world media followed by a final vote by the Laureus World Sports Academy.

Important Points

• Paralympic Dominance: Jiang Yuyan’s seven gold medals in a single Paralympic Games is a rare feat that places her among the all-time greats, comparable to legendary swimmers like Michael Phelps in the Olympic context.
• Classification System: In para-swimming, S6 and S7 refer to physical impairment classifications. The lower the number, the more severe the activity limitation. Jiang's ability to break records across multiple classes showcases her versatility.
• Laureus Academy: The final voting body for these awards, the Laureus World Sports Academy, consists of 71 of the greatest living sporting legends, ensuring that the winners are recognized by their peers.
• China's Performance: Jiang's contributions were pivotal in helping China top the medal table at the Paris 2024 Paralympics with a total of 94 gold medals and 220 medals overall.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The government of Himachal Pradesh, during the presentation of its administrative goals in March 2025, announced a significant environmental target to bring 5,000 hectares of land under afforestation during the financial year 2025-2026.
• This initiative is part of the state's broader vision to enhance its green cover and mitigate the impacts of climate change in the fragile Himalayan ecosystem. Hence, the statement regarding the 5,000-hectare target is correct for Himachal Pradesh.
• The afforestation drive will focus on the plantation of broad-leaved trees and species that are resilient to forest fires, which is a major concern for the state during the summer months.
• The Himachal Pradesh Forest Department has been designated as the nodal agency to identify degraded forest lands and community lands for this massive plantation exercise.
• The project also aims to involve local communities and Panchayati Raj Institutions to ensure the survival rate of the saplings and to promote community-led conservation.

Additional Information

• Geographical and Forest Profile:
• Himachal Pradesh has a total geographical area of 55,673 sq km, out of which a significant portion is classified under recorded forest area.
• According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR), the state has been consistently working to increase its forest cover from the current levels to reach the national goal of 33%.
• The state is home to diverse flora, including Deodar (Cedrus deodara), Oak, Kail, and Chir Pine.
• Green State Vision:
• The Government of Himachal Pradesh has set an ambitious target to transform the state into a "Green Energy State" by March 31, 2026.
• The afforestation target of 5,000 hectares for 2025-2026 complements this vision by creating carbon sinks to offset emissions.
• Economic and Ecological Importance:
• Forests in Himachal Pradesh play a crucial role in watershed management, providing water to several downstream states in North India through rivers like the Beas, Ravi, and Sutlej.
• Eco-tourism is a major source of revenue for the state, which is directly dependent on the preservation of its natural landscapes and wildlife habitats.

Important Points

• Major Schemes:
• The state implements various schemes like "Ek Buta Beti Ke Naam," where saplings are planted to celebrate the birth of a girl child, linking social forestry with gender empowerment.
• The "Mukhyamantri Van Vistaar Yojana" is another key initiative focused on expanding greenery in barren and rocky terrains.
• Climate Resilience:
• The 2025-2026 plan emphasizes soil moisture conservation through the construction of check dams and ponds alongside afforestation to prevent soil erosion and landslides.
• The state has also been exploring carbon credit mechanisms to incentivize sustainable forest management.

The correct answer is Wahiajer Multi Sports Complex Stadium.

Key Points

• The 6^th edition of the Meghalaya Games was officially inaugurated by the Chief Minister of Meghalaya, Conrad K Sangma, in January 2025.
• The prestigious multi-sporting event was hosted at the Wahiajer Multi Sports Complex Stadium, which is located in Jowai within the West Jaintia Hills district.
• This event marks a significant step in the state government's policy to decentralize sports and host major tournaments in different districts to promote local talent and improve sports infrastructure.
• The 6^th Meghalaya Games involved the participation of approximately 3,000 athletes representing all the districts of the state, competing in various disciplines such as Athletics, Archery, Football, and Boxing.
• The inauguration ceremony was attended by several dignitaries, including the Sports and Youth Affairs Minister, highlighting the state's commitment to the "Sports Youth Policy".

Additional Information

• Meghalaya State Olympic Association (MSOA):
• The MSOA, in collaboration with the Department of Sports and Youth Affairs, is the primary body responsible for organizing the Meghalaya Games.
• The association aims to prepare state athletes for national-level competitions, including the National Games of India.
• Previous Editions:
• The 5^th edition of the Meghalaya Games was held in January 2024 in Tura, West Garo Hills, and was inaugurated by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu.
• Before 2022, the games were largely centered in the state capital, Shillong, but have since moved to different regions like Garo Hills and Jaintia Hills to ensure inclusive growth.
• Infrastructure Development:
• The Wahiajer Multi Sports Complex is a state-of-the-art facility featuring modern amenities for indoor and outdoor sports, funded as part of the state’s massive investment in sports facilities totaling over Rs. 500 crore in recent years.
• The government is focusing on creating synthetic tracks and astroturf football grounds across various blocks in Meghalaya.

Important Points

• STAR Talent Identification Program:
• During the games, the government utilizes the STAR program to scientifically test and identify young athletes with high potential for elite training.
• Meghalaya has successfully tested over 15,000 children under this initiative to build a robust sporting ecosystem.
• Significance of the Venue:
• The choice of Wahiajer in Jowai emphasizes the government's effort to reach the rural youth and provide them with a platform similar to that available in urban centers.
• The Meghalaya Games serves as a selection trial for athletes to represent the state in the North East Games and other national forums.
• Cultural Integration:
• The games are not just about sports but also showcase the rich cultural heritage of the Khasi, Garo, and Jaintia communities through various cultural performances during the opening and closing ceremonies.

The correct answer is Agricultural Science.

Key Points

• Dr. C Anandharamakrishnan has been conferred with the prestigious Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2024 in the Vigyan Shri category for his pioneering work in Agricultural Science.
• He currently serves as the Director of the CSIR-National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology (NIIST), located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
• The Vigyan Shri award specifically recognizes individuals who have made distinguished contributions to any field of science and technology.
• His research expertise spans several critical areas, including food engineering, 3D food printing, nanotechnology for food packaging, and engineered digestive systems.
• The 2024 awards ceremony was held on August 23, 2024, which coincided with the first-ever National Space Day in India.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP):
• This national award was instituted in 2023 by the Government of India to simplify and unify the diverse science awards previously given by various ministries.
• It is categorized into four levels: Vigyan Ratna (Lifetime Achievement), Vigyan Shri (Distinguished Contribution), Vigyan Yuva-SSB (Young Scientists), and Vigyan Team.
• The awards are open to persons of Indian origin (PIO) and non-resident Indians (NRI), in addition to citizens of India.
• Dr. C Anandharamakrishnan's Career:
• Before his tenure at CSIR-NIIST, he served as the Director of the National Institute of Food Technology, Entrepreneurship and Management (NIFTEM), Thanjavur.
• He holds a Doctoral degree from Loughborough University, United Kingdom, and has been instrumental in developing spray drying and electrospraying techniques for nutrient delivery.
• He is a Fellow of the National Academy of Sciences (NASI) and the Royal Society of Chemistry.
• Significance of the 2024 Awards:
• The 2024 edition marked the inaugural distribution of these unified national science awards.
• A total of 33 awards were announced across various disciplines like Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, and Mathematics.

Important Points

• Award Selection: The final recipients are selected by a high-level committee chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
• Date of Announcement: The names of the awardees are officially announced on May 11 every year, which is celebrated as National Technology Day.
• National Space Day: The President of India, Droupadi Murmu, presented the awards at Rashtrapati Bhavan on August 23, celebrating the anniversary of the Chandrayaan-3 mission's success.
• Scientific Impact: In the field of Agricultural Science, Dr. Anandharamakrishnan’s work helps in addressing food security and improving the shelf-life of agricultural produce through advanced bioprocessing.