General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 34.

Key Points

• As of June 2025, the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports has notified a total of 34 Khelo India State Centres of Excellence (KISCEs) across 31 States and Union Territories in India.
• The KISCE initiative is a flagship program under the Khelo India Scheme, aimed at upgrading existing sports infrastructure in States and Union Territories to a world-class standard.
• Each center is tasked with focusing on specific Olympic sport disciplines to ensure concentrated development of talent and resources, helping India improve its standing in the Olympic Games.
• The selection of these 34 centers is based on the quality of existing infrastructure, coaching facilities, and the performance history of the State in particular sports.
• Financial assistance is provided by the Central Government to these centers to cover recurring and non-recurring costs, including sports science support, high-performance coaches, and technical equipment.

Additional Information

• The Khelo India Scheme:
• Launched in the financial year 2017-18, this umbrella scheme was introduced by the Government of India to revive the sports culture at the grassroots level.
• The scheme is divided into 12 verticals, ranging from infrastructure development to talent identification and community coaching.
• Strategic Objectives:
• The primary goal of KISCE is to create a robust ecosystem for athletes who have moved past the introductory stage and are ready for high-performance training.
• By June 2025, the integration of sports science (including nutrition, physiotherapy, and psychology) has become a mandatory component of these centers to ensure the holistic development of athletes.
• Identification of Talent:
• Athletes for these centers are often identified through national competitions such as the Khelo India Youth Games and Khelo India University Games.
• Selected athletes receive a scholarship and access to residential training facilities, aiming for peak performance in the 2028 and 2032 Olympic Games.
• Role of States and UTs:
• While the Central Government provides the funding and technical guidelines, the day-to-day management of these 34 centers remains with the respective State Governments or UT Administrations.
• This collaborative model ensures that the development of sports is not centralized but spread across the diverse geography of India.

Important Points

• The number of KISCEs has seen a steady increase since the first batch was announced, reflecting the government's commitment to reaching a target of at least one center of excellence in every State and UT.
• The Sports Authority of India (SAI) acts as the monitoring agency for these centers, ensuring that the quality of training meets international benchmarks.
• Prominent sports included in the KISCE focus list are Archery, Athletics, Boxing, Hockey, Shooting, and Weightlifting.

The correct answer is 131.

Key Points

• The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) is a long-term, time-bound, national-level strategy to tackle the air pollution problem across India in a comprehensive manner.
• By June 2025, the total number of cities covered under this flagship program is 131.
• These cities are primarily identified as non-attainment cities, which means they did not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for five consecutive years.
• The program initially started with 102 cities in 2019, which was later expanded to 122, and eventually to 131 cities to include those receiving grants under the XV Finance Commission for million-plus population cities.
• The primary objective of covering these 131 cities is to implement city-specific action plans to reduce the levels of Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) significantly.

Additional Information

• Launch and Governance:
• The NCAP was launched in January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• It represents the first such effort in India to frame a national framework for air quality management with a time-bound reduction target.
• Revised Targets:
• Initially, the goal was to achieve a 20% to 30% reduction in particulate matter concentration by 2024 (with 2017 as the base year).
• In September 2022, the Government of India updated the goal to a 40% reduction in particulate matter levels or achieving the National Ambient Air Quality Standards by 2025-26.
• PRANA Portal:
• To monitor the progress of the program in these 131 cities, the government launched PRANA (Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in Non-Attainment cities).
• This portal tracks the physical and financial status of city action plan implementation and disseminates information on air quality to the public.
• Funding Mechanisms:
• Funding for the program is funneled through the Control of Pollution scheme for 82 cities with a population below one million.
• For the remaining 49 cities (million-plus cities), funding is provided through the XV Finance Commission air quality grants.

Important Points

• Multi-Sectoral Approach: The NCAP focuses on various sources of pollution, including industrial emissions, vehicular exhaust, biomass burning, and construction dust.
• Institutional Framework: It involves collaboration between the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs), and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) to ensure ground-level execution of clean air plans.
• Monitoring Stations: As part of the program, there has been a significant increase in the number of Manual Monitoring Stations and Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Stations (CAAQMS) across the 131 identified cities to provide real-time data.
• Base Year: The base year for measuring the concentration of pollutants and calculating the percentage of reduction is 2017.

The correct answer is $3.00/day.

Key Points

• In June 2025, the World Bank officially updated the International Poverty Line (IPL) to $3.00 per day**, a significant increase from the previous standard of **$2.15 per day established in 2022.
• This revision is based on the latest Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) data, which accounts for changes in the global cost of living and inflation rates across different nations.
• For India, this update is particularly relevant as it serves as a benchmark for international organizations to assess the progress of poverty alleviation programs and economic growth.
• The $3.00/day threshold is used to define extreme poverty globally, ensuring that the metric reflects the minimum cost for basic food, clothing, and shelter in the current economic climate of 2025.
• The adjustment ensures that the poverty line remains consistent with the real value of the original "dollar-a-day" line introduced in the 1990s, updated periodically to maintain its relevance.

Additional Information

• Purchasing Power Parity (PPP): This is a fundamental economic theory used by the World Bank and IMF to compare the purchasing power of different currencies. It calculates how much of a specific "basket of goods" a currency can buy in its domestic market compared to another country, usually the United States.
• Evolution of the Poverty Line: The International Poverty Line has evolved over decades, moving from $1.00** (1985 prices) to **$1.08 (1993 prices), then $1.25** (2005 prices), **$1.90 (2011 prices), and $2.15 (2017 prices) before the June 2025 adjustment.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): The United Nations has set SDG 1 with the target to "End poverty in all its forms everywhere" by the year 2030. The $3.00/day metric is the primary tool used to track the progress of Target 1.1 (eradicating extreme poverty).
• Income Classifications: The World Bank also maintains higher poverty lines for different economic tiers: $3.65/day** for **Lower-Middle-Income** countries (like **India**) and **$6.85/day for Upper-Middle-Income countries, though the extreme poverty line is the universal base.
• Data Sourcing: Poverty estimates are derived from household surveys conducted by national statistical agencies, such as India's National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), which are then harmonized by the World Bank.

Important Points

• Impact of Inflation: The shift to $3.00** was necessitated by **global price increases** following the pandemic recovery and geopolitical shifts, which reduced the real purchasing power of the previous **$2.15 limit.
• Policy Implications: For the Government of India, while the National Poverty Line is used for domestic subsidies (like Antyodaya Anna Yojana), the World Bank line is a critical indicator for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and international credit ratings.
• Extreme vs. Relative Poverty: The IPL measures absolute poverty (survival needs), whereas many developed nations use relative poverty (income relative to the national median) to define their social safety nets.

The correct answer is Shri Sanjay Malhotra.

Key Points

• The 54^th meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was conducted over three days, specifically from 7 to 9 April 2025.
• The meeting was held under the Chairmanship of Shri Sanjay Malhotra, who serves as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) during this period.
• The primary objective of this MPC meeting was to deliberate on the prevailing macroeconomic situation and determine the Policy Repo Rate required to maintain price stability.
• The MPC is a statutory body responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rates in India, ensuring that inflation remains within the target range while supporting economic growth.
• Decisions within the committee are made through a majority vote among its six members, and the Governor holds the casting vote in the event of a tie.

Additional Information

• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) Framework:
• The MPC was established following an amendment to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, specifically under Section 45ZB, in the year 2016.
• It consists of six members: the Governor of the RBI (Chairperson, ex-officio), the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one officer of the RBI, and three external members appointed by the Central Government.
• The three external members are appointed for a non-renewable term of four years.
• Inflation Targeting:
• The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, sets a Flexible Inflation Target (FIT) every five years.
• The current target for Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation is 4%, with an upper tolerance limit of 6% and a lower tolerance limit of 2% (i.e., 4% +/- 2%).
• Frequency of Meetings:
• The MPC is legally required to meet at least four times a year.
• The quorum for a meeting is four members. After each meeting, the RBI publishes the resolution adopted by the committee.
• Monetary Policy Instruments:
• Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks.
• Reverse Repo Rate: The rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
• MSF (Marginal Standing Facility): A window for banks to borrow from the RBI in an emergency when inter-bank liquidity dries up.

Important Points

• Transparency and Accountability: The RBI must publish the minutes of every MPC meeting on the 14^th day after the meeting concludes. This document includes the voting pattern and the individual statements of each member explaining their stance.
• Failure to Meet Target: If the inflation remains outside the 2-6% range for three consecutive quarters, it is considered a failure. In such a case, the RBI must submit a report to the Central Government explaining the reasons and the proposed remedial actions.
• Monetary Policy Report: Every six months, the RBI publishes a report to explain the sources of inflation and the forecast for the next six to eighteen months.

The correct answer is Producers must meet EPR targets using scrapping facilities.

Key Points

• The Government of India, through the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), notified the End-of-Life Vehicles (ELV) Rules in February 2025, which are set to become effective from April 1, 2025.
• Under these rules, Producers (including manufacturers and importers) are required to fulfill Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) targets. This means they must ensure that a certain percentage of the vehicles they sell are eventually recycled or scrapped through authorized Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facilities (RVSF). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The rules apply to all vehicles that have reached the end of their life, including those sold through public auctions or salvaged. There is no broad exemption for public sold salvaged vehicles as the goal is to prevent unorganized scrapping. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The ELV Rules cover all categories of vehicles produced or used within the country, including domestic production. It is not limited to imported vehicles alone. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Vehicles are generally classified as End-of-Life based on specific criteria such as the expiry of the fitness certificate, damage beyond repair, or voluntary scrapping by the owner, rather than a mandatory recycling rule for every vehicle regardless of its age or condition. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is Producers must meet EPR targets using scrapping facilities.

Additional Information

• Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR):
• EPR is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility—financial and/or physical—for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.
• In the context of the ELV Rules 2025, this ensures that the automotive industry takes an active role in the circular economy by promoting recycling and resource recovery.
• Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facilities (RVSF):
• These are authorized centers that must follow strict environmental guidelines for dismantling and scrapping vehicles.
• The RVSF units are responsible for issuing a Certificate of Deposit to the vehicle owner, which may provide incentives for purchasing new vehicles.
• The use of these facilities ensures that hazardous materials like lead-acid batteries, fluids, and refrigerants are handled safely.

Important Points

• Regulatory Framework: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is expected to play a major role in monitoring the EPR certificates and ensuring compliance by producers.
• Objectives: The primary objective of the February 2025 notification is to reduce the carbon footprint of the transport sector and minimize soil and water pollution caused by old, leaking vehicles in the informal sector.
• Targets: The EPR targets are typically phased, increasing over the years to allow the automotive ecosystem to adapt to the new recycling infrastructure requirements.

The correct answer is May 15.

Key Points

• The International Day of Families is observed annually on May 15. In the year 2025, this observance continues its tradition of highlighting the importance of the family unit in the global community.
• The day was officially proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in 1993 under resolution A/RES/47/237. It reflects the significance that the international community attaches to families as basic units of society.
• The first official observance took place in 1994, which was also designated as the International Year of the Family. This initiative aims to promote awareness of issues relating to families and to increase knowledge of the social, economic, and demographic processes affecting them.
• Each year, the United Nations selects a specific theme for the day. These themes often focus on education, poverty alleviation, work-family balance, and social integration to strengthen family-centered policies.
• The 2025 observance serves as a platform for policy-makers and non-governmental organizations to discuss demographic trends, such as aging populations and migration, and their specific impacts on family structures worldwide.

Additional Information

• Global Day of Parents (June 1):
• Proclaimed by the UN General Assembly in 2012, this day is observed on June 1 to honor parents throughout the world for their selfless commitment to children. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
• World Population Day (July 11):
• Observed on July 11, this day seeks to focus attention on the urgency and importance of population issues. It was established by the Governing Council of the United Nations Development Programme in 1989. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• Families play a crucial role in achieving the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Objectives such as Goal 1 (No Poverty), Goal 3 (Good Health and Well-being), and Goal 4 (Quality Education) are heavily dependent on stable family environments and supportive government policies.
• Demographic Shifts:
• Recent data from the United Nations suggests that family sizes are shrinking globally, and the number of single-parent households is rising. The International Day of Families encourages member states to adapt their legal and social frameworks to these evolving dynamics.

Important Points

• The May 15 date remains constant every year, regardless of the day of the week. In 2025, the International Day of Families falls on a Thursday.
• The Division for Inclusive Social Development (DISD), part of the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA), is the primary body responsible for organizing activities and research related to this day.
• Governments often use this day to launch social security schemes, parental leave benefits, and childcare initiatives to support the well-being of their citizens.

The correct answer is Vaishno Devi.

Key Points

• The tragic landslide occurred on 26 August 2025 near the world-famous Vaishno Devi shrine, which is located in the Reasi district of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir.
• The incident took place on the track leading to the holy cave, specifically affecting the Himkoti route or the traditional Bhavan-Sanjichhat stretch, causing several casualties and leading to a high-level investigation ordered by the administration.
• The Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine Board (SMVDSB), which manages the pilgrimage, immediately suspended the Yatra for safety reasons and launched a massive rescue operation involving the NDRF, SDRF, and local police.
• Preliminary reports suggested that the landslide was triggered by heavy rainfall in the Trikuta Hills, highlighting the geological vulnerability of the Himalayan region during the monsoon and post-monsoon periods.
• The Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir, who serves as the Chairman of the Shrine Board, announced a committee to probe the causes of the slide and to review the disaster management protocols in place.

Additional Information

• Vaishno Devi Temple:
• Located at an altitude of approximately 5,200 feet, the shrine is situated in the Trikuta Mountains near Katra.
• It is one of the most visited pilgrimage sites in India, attracting millions of devotees annually. The base camp for the trek is Katra, located in the Reasi district.
• Geographical Context of Reasi:
• The Reasi district is home to significant landmarks including the Chenab Bridge, the world’s highest railway bridge, and the Shiv Khori cave.
• The region is characterized by steep slopes and sedimentary rock formations, making it susceptible to landslides and soil erosion during intense weather events.
• Other Pilgrimage Sites Mentioned:
• Amarnath Cave: Located in the Anantnag district of Jammu & Kashmir at a much higher altitude of 12,756 feet. It is famous for the natural Ice Lingam.
• Hemkund Sahib: A prominent Sikh pilgrimage site located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, dedicated to Guru Gobind Singh.
• Shankaracharya Temple: An ancient temple dedicated to Lord Shiva located on the Gopadari Hill in Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir.
• Safety and Mitigation Measures:
• The SMVDSB has previously installed wire mesh and retaining walls along the track to prevent falling stones.
• Advanced Weather Forecasting systems and CCTV monitoring are used to track real-time conditions on the 13 km trek from Katra to the Bhavan.

Important Points

• Disaster Response: The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is the specialized body constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, to deal with such emergencies in India.
• Investigation Scope: The high-level investigation typically involves geologists from the Geological Survey of India (GSI) to study the stability of the slopes and recommend long-term safety measures like slope stabilization and tunneling.
• Impact on Pilgrimage: The Vaishno Devi Yatra is a major economic driver for the Union Territory, supporting thousands of livelihoods in Katra and surrounding areas; hence, safety is a top priority for the Ministry of Home Affairs.

The correct answer is June 2025.

Key Points

• The Regional Climate Centre (RCC) Network Task Team Meeting is a significant international gathering scheduled to be hosted in India in June 2025.
• This meeting serves as a technical platform under the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) to streamline the operations of various climate centers across the globe.
• The primary objective of the meeting is to review the current status of the RCC Network and ensure that climate services are delivered efficiently to the National Meteorological and Hydrological Services (NMHSs) of member nations.
• Hosting this meeting in India underscores the nation's pivotal role in South Asian meteorology and its commitment to global climate monitoring and disaster preparedness.
• The task team will focus on enhancing the accuracy of long-range forecasts, seasonal climate outlooks, and the standardization of climate data products to help countries mitigate the impacts of climate change.

Additional Information

• Regional Climate Centres (RCCs):
• These are specialized centers designated by the WMO to create regional climate products.
• They provide support to national weather agencies by generating high-quality climatological data, which is essential for sectors like agriculture, water management, and energy.
• India operates a prominent RCC in Pune under the India Meteorological Department (IMD), which provides seasonal outlooks for the South Asian region.
• World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
• Established on 23 March 1950, the WMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• It coordinates international efforts regarding the state and behavior of the Earth’s atmosphere, its interaction with the land and oceans, and the resulting weather and climate.
• Significance of the Meeting:
• The June 2025 meeting is crucial for updating the technical criteria for RCC operations and exploring the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning in climate modeling.
• It aligns with the Global Framework for Climate Services (GFCS), which aims to improve the quality and quantity of climate services available to vulnerable populations.
• India Meteorological Department (IMD):
• Established in 1875, the IMD is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting, and seismology in India.
• The IMD has been a lead player in the WMO Regional Association II (Asia), providing crucial data for cyclone warnings and monsoon predictions.

Important Points

• Climate Data Exchange: One of the key agendas of such meetings is the promotion of open and free data exchange between nations to enhance global weather predictive capabilities.
• Disaster Risk Reduction: By improving regional climate networks, the WMO aims to achieve the goal of protecting every person on Earth with Early Warning Systems by 2027, a target emphasized during recent UN climate summits.
• Technical Standards: The Task Team ensures that all Regional Climate Centres adhere to the strict technical and operational standards set by the Commission for Weather, Climate, Water and Related Environmental Services and Applications (SERCOM).

The correct answer is Paris Saint‑Germain.

Key Points

• Paris Saint-Germain (PSG) emerged as the champions of the 2024-25 UEFA Champions League, marking a historic achievement for the club.
• The final match was held on May 31, 2025, at the iconic Allianz Arena in Munich, Germany.
• This victory represents PSG's first-ever European Cup/UEFA Champions League title, fulfilling a long-standing ambition for the Paris-based side.
• By winning this title, PSG became the second French club in history to win the prestigious trophy, following Olympique de Marseille's victory in 1993.
• The 2025 final was the grand finale of the 70^th season of Europe's premier club football tournament and the 33^rd season since it was renamed the UEFA Champions League.

Additional Information

• New Tournament Format:
• The 2024–25 season introduced a revolutionary "Swiss-style" format, expanding the number of participating teams from 32 to 36.
• In this new League Phase, each team played eight matches against eight different opponents (four at home and four away) instead of the traditional group stage.
• This format change aimed to increase the number of high-profile matches early in the competition and provided more revenue opportunities for the UEFA member associations.
• Venue Details:
• The Allianz Arena, home to Bayern Munich, hosted its second Champions League final in 2025; the first was the famous 2012 "Finale dahoam."
• The stadium has a seating capacity of approximately 75,000 for domestic matches and around 67,000 for international UEFA events.
• Managerial Success:
• The team was led by head coach Luis Enrique, who had previously won the tournament with Barcelona in 2015.
• His tactical approach emphasized possession-based football and high-intensity pressing, which proved decisive throughout the knockout stages.

Important Points

• Qualification and Rewards:
• As the winners of the 2025 UEFA Champions League, PSG automatically qualified for the 2025–26 UEFA Champions League league stage.
• They also earned the right to play against the winners of the 2024–25 UEFA Europa League in the 2025 UEFA Super Cup.
• Furthermore, the victory ensured their participation in the expanded 2025 FIFA Club World Cup scheduled to be held in the United States.
• Financial Impact:
• The winner of the tournament received a base prize of €20 million for the final victory, in addition to accumulated bonuses from earlier rounds, totaling over €100 million in overall revenue.
• The UEFA Champions League remains the most lucrative club competition in world sports, with total distributions exceeding €2.4 billion for the 2024-25 cycle.
• Historical Context:
• The 2025 season marked a shift in European football hierarchy, as PSG overcame perennial giants like Real Madrid and Manchester City during their path to the trophy.
• Key players such as Ousmane Dembélé, Vitinha, and Bradley Barcola played pivotal roles in the club's successful campaign.

The correct answer is Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025.

Key Points

• The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 is a landmark piece of legislation aimed at strengthening governance in the Indian banking sector and enhancing depositor protection.
• One of the most significant changes introduced by this Act, effective from 1 November 2025, is the increased flexibility in nominations for bank deposits and locker facilities.
• Under the new provisions, depositors are now permitted to have up to four nominees for their accounts, whereas the previous limit was restricted to only one nominee. Hence, the statement regarding nomination flexibility is correct.
• The Act allows for both simultaneous and successive nominations, providing depositors with the choice to allocate percentages of their deposits to different individuals or establish a priority list of beneficiaries.
• This amendment primarily modifies the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, along with other related statutes like the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970 and 1980.

Additional Information

• Revision of "Substantial Interest":
• The Act has redefined the term substantial interest for bank directors. The threshold for defining such interest has been increased from the earlier limit of Rs 5 lakhs to Rs 2 crores, reflecting modern economic realities.
• Change in Reporting Frequency:
• The statutory reporting requirements for banks to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have been synchronized. Banks are now required to report their credit and deposit data as of the 15^th and the last day of every month, replacing the older system of fortnightly reporting Fridays.
• Statutory Auditors and Tenure:
• The amendment provides more autonomy and clarity regarding the tenure of statutory auditors and the appointment of directors in cooperative banks, ensuring better professional management.
• Unclaimed Dividends and DEAF:
• The Act introduces provisions for the transfer of unclaimed dividends and shares to the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) after a period of 10 years, allowing individuals to claim these funds from the RBI at a later stage.

Important Points

• The Banking Regulation Act, 1949: This is the parent act that regulates all banking firms in India. The 2025 Amendment ensures this act stays relevant in a digital-first banking environment.
• Impact on Cooperative Banks: The new law specifically empowers the Reserve Bank of India to exercise better oversight over Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and Cooperative Banks, aligning their governance standards with Commercial Banks.
• Ease of Doing Business: By streamlining reporting dates and increasing the nomination count, the government aims to reduce administrative friction for both the banking institutions and the general public.
• Implementation: The Union Ministry of Finance and the Reserve Bank of India are the primary bodies responsible for the rollout and enforcement of these new rules starting November 2025.

The correct answer is 28 February.

Key Points

• National Science Day is celebrated in India every year on 28 February to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect.
• On this day in 1928, the renowned Indian physicist Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman (C.V. Raman) announced the discovery of the scattering of light, which was later named after him as the Raman Effect.
• For his revolutionary work in the field of physics, Sir C.V. Raman was honored with the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930. He was the first Indian and first Asian to receive a Nobel Prize in any branch of science.
• In 1986, the National Council for Science and Technology Communication (NCSTC) requested the Government of India to designate February 28 as National Science Day.
• The first National Science Day was celebrated on February 28, 1987, with the aim of spreading the message of the importance of scientific applications in the daily lives of the people.

Additional Information

• Sir C.V. Raman:
• He was born on 7 November 1888 in Tiruchirapalli, Tamil Nadu.
• Apart from the Nobel Prize, he was also awarded India's highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna, in 1954.
• He was also a recipient of the Lenin Peace Prize in 1957.
• The Raman Effect:
• It is a phenomenon in spectroscopy where a photon of light interacts with a molecule, leading to a change in the wavelength and energy of the light.
• This discovery is widely used in chemical laboratories to identify the structure of molecules and in medical diagnostics.
• Objectives of the Day:
• To display all the activities, efforts, and achievements in the field of science for human welfare.
• To give an opportunity to the scientific-minded citizens in the country and encourage them to popularize science and technology.
• To foster a scientific temper among the youth of India.

Important Points

• The Department of Science and Technology (DST) acts as a nodal agency to support and coordinate the celebration of National Science Day throughout the country.
• The government announces a specific theme for National Science Day every year. For example, the theme for 2024 was "Indigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat", focusing on homegrown innovation.
• Various awards, such as the National Awards for Science Popularization, are conferred on this day to individuals and organizations for their outstanding contribution to science communication.
• Developing a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform is a Fundamental Duty of Indian citizens under Article 51A of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Mondo Duplantis.

Key Points

• Armand "Mondo" Duplantis is a Swedish-American athlete who competes for Sweden and is widely considered the greatest pole vaulter in the history of the sport.
• He is recognized for his extraordinary world record-breaking performances, having broken the world record multiple times throughout his career. In April 2024, he set a new world record of 6.24 meters at the Diamond League meeting in Xiamen, China.
• The Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award is a prestigious global honor given to the male athlete who has demonstrated supreme athletic achievement. Duplantis has been a frequent nominee and winner in various categories due to his dominance in track and field.
• His accolades include winning the Gold Medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and securing titles at the World Athletics Championships in 2022 (Eugene) and 2023 (Budapest).
• His ability to consistently improve his own records by small increments (the "Bubka" method) has made him a standout figure in global sports, leading to his selection for the 2025 cycle honors based on his 2024 season performance.

Additional Information

• Laureus World Sports Awards:
• Established in 1999 by founding patrons Daimler and Richemont, these awards celebrate the highest sporting achievements of the year.
• The first ceremony was held in 2000 in Monte Carlo, with Tiger Woods winning the first Sportsman of the Year award.
• The winners are selected by the Laureus World Sports Academy, which consists of over 70 sporting legends.
• Other Notable Athletes:
• Karsten Warholm: A Norwegian athlete who holds the world record in the 400-meter hurdles (45.94 seconds). He is a multiple-time World Champion and Olympic Gold medalist.
• Jakob Ingebrigtsen: A Norwegian middle-distance runner who won Olympic Gold in the 1500 meters at the Tokyo Games and holds several world and European records in the 1500m, 2000m, and 5000m.
• Armand Traoré: A former professional footballer who played as a defender for clubs such as Arsenal, Juventus, and Queens Park Rangers. He represented Senegal at the international level and is not associated with pole vaulting.

Important Points

• World Records: Mondo Duplantis has broken the world record eight times (as of early 2024). He first broke the record in February 2020 in Torun, Poland, with a jump of 6.17 meters, surpassing Renaud Lavillenie.
• Nationality: Although born and raised in the United States (Louisiana), Duplantis chose to represent his mother's home country, Sweden, in international competitions starting in 2015.
• Technique: His success is attributed to a combination of elite sprinting speed (learned from his father, a former vaulter) and exceptional gymnastic control.
• Consistency: In the 2024 season, his performance in Xiamen was particularly notable as it was his first outdoor competition of the year, where he cleared 6.24 meters on his first attempt.

The correct answer is Dr. Anandharamakrishnan C.

Key Points

• Dr. Anandharamakrishnan C was honored with the Vigyan Shri award in 2024 for his outstanding contributions to the field of Agricultural Science.
• He currently serves as the Director of the CSIR-National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology (NIIST), located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.
• His research work primarily focuses on food processing, food engineering, and the application of nanotechnology in the agricultural and food sectors.
• He is widely recognized for his pioneering work in 3D food printing, spray drying, and electrospraying of food bioactive compounds to improve their bioavailability.
• The Vigyan Shri is one of the four categories of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, newly instituted by the Government of India to recognize distinguished contributions to Science and Technology.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (2024):
• The Government of India announced the first-ever Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar in 2024, replacing various previous science awards with a unified national framework.
• A total of 33 awards were announced in August 2024, comprising 1 Vigyan Ratna, 13 Vigyan Shri, 18 Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar, and 1 Vigyan Team award.
• The awards were presented by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• Award Categories:
• Vigyan Ratna: Awarded for lifetime achievements and contributions in any field of science and technology. In 2024, it was awarded to Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan for his work in Biological Sciences.
• Vigyan Shri: Conferred for distinguished contributions to a specific field. Recipients in 2024 included Prof. Jayant Bhalchandra Udgaonkar (Biological Sciences) and Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi (Atomic Energy).
• Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar: Recognizes young scientists (up to 45 years of age) for exceptional contributions.
• Vigyan Team: Given to a team of 3 or more scientists for collaborative research work. In 2024, this was awarded to the ISRO Chandrayaan-3 Team.
• Significance of Agricultural Science in RVP:
• The inclusion of Agricultural Science as a dedicated category highlights the government's focus on food security, sustainable farming, and agri-tech innovations.
• Dr. Anandharamakrishnan's recognition emphasizes the importance of value addition in agricultural produce and the reduction of post-harvest losses through engineering interventions.

Important Points

• The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is organized across 13 domains, including Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Sciences, Medicine, Engineering Sciences, Agricultural Science, Environmental Science, Technology & Innovation, Atomic Energy, Space Science & Technology, and others.
• The selection process is governed by the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Committee (RVPC), headed by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
• Recipients of the Vigyan Shri award receive a Sanad (certificate) and a Medallion, but no monetary cash prize is associated with these specific national honors, focusing instead on the prestige of the recognition.

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi participated in the Outreach Session of the 51^st G7 Summit, which was held in Canada in June 2025.
• India was invited as an Outreach Country, continuing its streak of participation in the G7 meetings as a key global partner and a representative of the Global South.
• During the summit, the Indian Prime Minister engaged in discussions regarding global governance, artificial intelligence, energy security, and sustainable development. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The 51^st G7 Summit saw the participation of leaders from the seven member nations and invited heads from various international organizations and partner countries to address geopolitical tensions and economic stability.
• The invitation to Narendra Modi reflects India's growing influence in the international arena and its strategic partnership with G7 nations like the United States, France, and Canada.

Additional Information

• The Group of Seven (G7):
• The G7 is an intergovernmental political forum consisting of seven of the world's advanced economies: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• The European Union (EU) is also represented at the G7, though it is not a formal member.
• The group was established in 1975 (initially as the G6) to provide a platform for industrialized nations to coordinate economic policies and tackle global crises.
• G7 Presidency and Hosting:
• The presidency of the G7 rotates annually among its members. Canada held the presidency for the year 2025 and hosted the summit.
• The previous summit, the 50^th G7 Summit, was hosted by Italy in June 2024 at Borgo Egnazia (Puglia).
• India has been a regular invitee to the G7 summits since 2019, when it was invited by France for the Biarritz Summit.
• Significance of the Outreach Session:
• The Outreach Session is a special segment of the G7 summit where leaders from non-member nations and international organizations are invited to discuss specific global issues like climate change, health, and digital transformation.
• It serves as a bridge between the G7 and the rest of the world, particularly the developing nations.

Important Points

• India's Role: India often uses the G7 platform to advocate for the concerns of the Global South, emphasizing inclusive growth and technological equity.
• Other Options: While Amit Shah (Union Home Minister), Nirmala Sitharaman (Finance Minister), and Droupadi Murmu (President of India) hold high constitutional and cabinet positions, it is traditionally the Prime Minister who represents India at G7 Outreach summits.
• Historical Context: India's first participation in a G7 (then G8) summit was in 2003 under the leadership of then PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• Key Themes: The 2025 Summit in Canada emphasized clean energy transitions and supply chain resilience in the face of shifting global dynamics.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• In 2025, Saudi Arabia and Pakistan signed a significant security agreement aimed at deepening their bilateral military cooperation and strategic partnership.
• The agreement focuses on enhancing joint military exercises, sharing intelligence, and collaborating on counter-terrorism operations to address evolving regional security challenges.
• A major component of this pact involves Defense Industrial Cooperation, where both nations agreed to explore joint ventures in defense production and the transfer of military technology.
• The security pact also emphasizes maritime security in the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean, ensuring the safety of vital international sea lanes and trade routes.
• This collaboration is seen as a move to stabilize the Middle East and South Asia regions, reflecting the high level of trust between the Saudi Armed Forces and the Pakistan Armed Forces.

Additional Information

• Historical Defense Ties: The security relationship between Saudi Arabia and Pakistan dates back several decades, formally strengthened by a defense protocol signed in 1982. Under this framework, Pakistan has historically provided military training and advisory services to the Saudi military.
• Islamic Military Counter Terrorism Coalition (IMCTC): Both nations are prominent members of the IMCTC, a 41-nation alliance headquartered in Riyadh. The coalition, often led by retired high-ranking officers from Pakistan, focuses on counter-terrorism through four domains: ideology, communications, counter-terrorist financing, and military.
• Strategic Location: Saudi Arabia views Pakistan as a key strategic ally due to its location at the crossroads of Central Asia, China, and the Middle East. Conversely, Saudi Arabia is the "Heart of the Islamic World" and a major energy supplier for Pakistan.
• Joint Exercises: The two countries regularly conduct high-intensity military drills such as Al-Samsaam (army), Al-Kassah (anti-explosive/mine), and Naseem Al-Bahr (navy) to improve interoperability between their respective forces.
• Economic and Security Synergy: The security agreement often runs parallel to economic initiatives like the Special Investment Facilitation Council (SIFC) in Pakistan, which encourages Saudi investment in sectors like mining, agriculture, and information technology.

Important Points

• Regional Stability: The 2025 agreement is particularly relevant given the shifting geopolitical dynamics in the Gulf region and the need for a unified approach toward non-state actors and maritime piracy.
• Humanitarian and Peacekeeping: Beyond combat operations, the pact includes provisions for disaster management and cooperation in United Nations Peacekeeping missions where both countries are active contributors.
• Cybersecurity: Modern security challenges including cyber warfare and digital surveillance were also integrated into the 2025 framework, marking an evolution from traditional kinetic warfare to modern hybrid security needs.

The correct answer is Section 40(1) of Insurance Act.

Key Points

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) took regulatory action against Acko General Insurance in May 2025 for violations concerning outsourcing and commission payments.
• Section 40(1) of the Insurance Act, 1938 serves as a critical provision that prohibits the payment of remuneration or reward by way of commission to any person for soliciting or procuring insurance business in India, unless that person is an authorized insurance agent or an insurance intermediary.
• The investigation by IRDAI revealed that the insurer had entered into arrangements that resulted in payments exceeding the permissible commission caps or were directed toward entities not eligible under the regulatory framework.
• The fine was imposed because the outsourcing expenses were found to be a means of circumventing the statutory limits on acquisition costs and expenses of management. Hence, the statement regarding Section 40(1) is correct.
• This regulatory intervention emphasizes the necessity for general insurance companies to adhere strictly to the Insurance Act and IRDAI regulations to maintain market integrity and protect policyholders' interests.

Additional Information

• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI):
• It is a statutory body formed under the IRDAI Act, 1999.
• The headquarters of the authority are located in Hyderabad, having moved from New Delhi in 2001.
• Its primary mission is to regulate and promote the insurance and reinsurance industries in India while ensuring the financial security of the sector.
• The Insurance Act, 1938:
• This is the foundational legislation governing the insurance sector in India.
• It provides the legal framework for the registration of insurance companies, investment of assets, and the prohibition of rebates and unauthorized commissions.
• Section 64V of this Act specifically deals with the assets and liabilities of an insurer and the determination of the solvency margin.
• Outsourcing Regulations:
• Under the IRDAI (Outsourcing of Activities by Indian Insurers) Regulations, 2017, insurers are strictly prohibited from outsourcing core functions such as underwriting, claims settlement, and compliance functions.
• The regulations aim to ensure that insurers retain effective control over their operations and do not utilize outsourcing as a loophole to pay extra commissions.

Important Points

• Section 40(1) Enforcement: The enforcement of this section ensures that the cost of insurance does not escalate due to unregulated payouts to intermediaries, which ultimately benefits the end consumer.
• Compliance Framework: Every insurer must submit an annual certificate signed by the CEO and Compliance Officer, affirming that all outsourcing arrangements and commission payments are in line with the statutory provisions.
• Penalties: IRDAI has the power to impose monetary penalties ranging from 1 lakh to 1 crore rupees per day of continuing violation or cancel the certificate of registration under extreme circumstances.

The correct answer is IM Vijayan.

Key Points

• The legendary Indian footballer Inovivalappil Mani Vijayan, popularly known as IM Vijayan, has been selected for the prestigious Padma Shri award in the year 2025.
• He served as the former captain of the Indian National Football Team and is celebrated as one of the most gifted strikers to ever represent the country, often referred to as the "Black Pearl of Indian Football".
• IM Vijayan holds the distinction of being the first player to be honored as the AIFF Player of the Year on three separate occasions, specifically in the years 1993, 1997, and 1999.
• His illustrious international career spanned from 1989 to 2003, during which he formed a lethal attacking partnership with Bhaichung Bhutia and scored approximately 40 international goals for India.
• His contribution to the sport extends beyond the field, as he has been instrumental in mentoring young athletes and currently serves as the Chairman of the Technical Committee of the All India Football Federation (AIFF).

Additional Information

• The Padma Shri Award:
• The Padma Shri is the fourth-highest civilian award in the Republic of India, after the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan, and the Padma Bhushan.
• It is awarded by the Government of India every year on the occasion of Republic Day to recognize distinguished contributions in various spheres like Art, Education, Literature, Science, Sports, Medicine, and Social Service.
• Career Highlights of IM Vijayan:
• Before his 2025 Padma Shri recognition, he was conferred with the Arjuna Award in 2003 for his excellence in Football.
• He was famous for scoring one of the fastest international goals in history, netting a goal against Bhutan in the 1999 SAF Games in just 12 seconds.
• Apart from his sporting career, he is a well-known actor in the Malayalam film industry, having debuted in the film Shantham, which won the National Film Award for Best Feature Film.
• Other Football Recipients:
• The Padma Shri has been previously awarded to other iconic Indian footballers, including Bhaichung Bhutia in 2008 and Sunil Chhetri in 2019.
• In the 2025 awards list, the government emphasized the recognition of sporting veterans who have dedicated their lives to raising the profile of Indian Sports globally.

Important Points

• IM Vijayan started his professional journey with the Kerala Police football team and went on to play for major clubs like Mohun Bagan, East Bengal, and JCT Mills.
• His selection in 2025 is seen as a long-overdue recognition for a player who dominated South Asian football throughout the 1990s.
• The Padma Awards 2025 ceremony is typically held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan, where the President of India confers the honors upon the recipients.

The correct answer is BHASHINI.

Key Points

• BHASHINI, which stands for Bharat Interface for Smart Indian Languages, is the National Language Translation Mission launched by the Government of India.
• It was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in July 2022 during the Digital India Week held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
• The primary objective of the initiative is to break language barriers by utilizing Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) technologies to provide digital content and services in Indian languages. Hence, the correct answer is BHASHINI.
• The platform aims to enable citizens to access the internet and digital government services in their native languages, thereby promoting digital inclusion for those who are not proficient in English.
• It focuses on all 22 scheduled languages of India, seeking to create a massive open-source ecosystem for datasets and models that can be used by startups and developers to build innovative language-based solutions.

Additional Information

• IndiaStack:
• IndiaStack is a set of open APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) and digital public goods that allow governments, businesses, and developers to utilize a unique digital infrastructure.
• It is built on four distinct layers: Presence-less (Aadhar), Paperless (DigiLocker), Cashless (UPI), and Consent Layer.
• While it provides the foundation for digital identity and payments, it is not primarily a language translation portal.
• DigiLocker:
• Launched in July 2015 under the Digital India program, DigiLocker is a flagship initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• It provides cloud-based storage for citizens to store, share, and verify authentic digital documents such as driving licenses, marksheet, and Aadhar cards.
• Its main purpose is paperless governance and documentation, not solving language barriers.
• UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance):
• UMANG was launched in November 2017 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to provide a single platform for all Indian citizens to access pan-India e-Gov services.
• The app integrates services from Central and State government departments, such as EPFO, PAN, Aadhar, and Gas cylinder booking.
• It is available in 13 languages to enhance accessibility, but unlike BHASHINI, its core function is service aggregation rather than language translation technology.

Important Points

• Bhasha Daan: This is a crucial component of the BHASHINI mission where citizens can contribute to the enrichment of Indian language datasets by transcribing, translating, or validating text and speech.
• The Digital Divide: Statistics show that a large percentage of the Indian population cannot access the internet effectively due to language constraints; BHASHINI aims to bridge this gap to reach the next billion users.
• Universal Product/Service Interface (UPHI): The mission also works on creating a seamless interface for voice-based digital interactions, allowing users to perform tasks like digital payments through voice commands in their mother tongue.

The correct answer is Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.

Key Points

• The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), in its meeting held in November 2025, cleared the proposal for the construction of the Pinjoli bridge.
• The bridge is located within the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, situated in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• This infrastructure project is a critical component of the Bhalukpong-Charduar-Tawang (BCT) road, which is of strategic importance for the movement of defense forces and logistics toward the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
• The Pinjoli bridge construction involves the diversion of forest land, and the approval was granted with specific mitigation measures to ensure the protection of the local flora and fauna.
• The NBWL is the apex body in India for all wildlife-related matters and its approval is mandatory for any project passing through protected areas like national parks and sanctuaries. Hence, the correct answer is Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.

Additional Information

• Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary:
• Located in Arunachal Pradesh, it covers an area of approximately 218 square kilometers.
• It gained international fame in 2006 following the discovery of a rare bird species named Bugun Liocichla.
• The sanctuary is part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve and is known for its incredible altitudinal range, varying from 500 meters to 3,250 meters.
• Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary:
• Located in the Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts of Assam, it is often referred to as the "Amazon of the East".
• It was officially declared a National Park in June 2021. It is the only sanctuary in India that is home to seven different species of wild cats.
• Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary:
• This sanctuary is located in Tripura and is famous for its Clouded Leopard National Park.
• It is a prominent site for the conservation of the Phayre's leaf monkey (also known as the Spectacled Monkey), which is the state animal of Tripura.
• Dzukou Valley Wildlife Sanctuary:
• Situated at the border of Nagaland and Manipur, it is renowned for its natural beauty and seasonal blooms of the Dzukou Lily.
• The valley is a popular trekking destination and faces ecological threats from forest fires and unregulated tourism.

Important Points

• National Board for Wildlife (NBWL): It is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The Prime Minister serves as the ex-officio chairman of the board.
• Border Roads Organization (BRO): Most strategic bridges in this region, including those near Eaglenest, are executed by the BRO under Project Vartak to enhance national security infrastructure.
• Wildlife Clearances: Any non-forestry activity within a protected area requires a recommendation from the Standing Committee of the NBWL after initial scrutiny by the State Board for Wildlife.

The correct answer is 8^th Central Pay Commission.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet of India officially approved the Terms of Reference (ToR) for the 8^th Central Pay Commission on 28 October 2025.
• The primary mandate of the 8^th Central Pay Commission is to review, examine, and recommend changes to the existing salary structure, allowances, and retirement benefits for all Central Government employees, including the Armed Forces and pensioners.
• The recommendations are expected to benefit approximately 48 lakh active employees and over 67 lakh pensioners across the country, aiming to address the rising cost of living and inflation.
• As per the standard decadal cycle followed by the government, the implementation of the new pay structure recommended by the 8^th Pay Commission is likely to take effect from January 1, 2026.
• The commission is tasked with evolving a comprehensive framework that balances the financial needs of the employees with the fiscal health of the Government of India.

Additional Information

• Historical Context: The first Pay Commission in India was established in 1946, chaired by Srinivasa Varadachariar. Since then, the government has traditionally constituted a new commission every 10 years to revise the pay scales.
• The 7^th Central Pay Commission: It was set up in February 2014 under the chairmanship of Justice Ashok Kumar Mathur. Its recommendations were implemented with effect from January 1, 2016, introducing a Fitment Factor of 2.57 for basic pay calculation.
• Composition of the Commission: A typical Pay Commission is headed by a Chairperson, usually a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court, and includes full-time members, a Member-Secretary, and part-time members with expertise in economics and administration.
• Purpose and Objective: The commissions focus on ensuring that government compensation remains competitive and fair, taking into account the Consumer Price Index (Industrial Workers) and the general economic environment of the nation.

Important Points

• Fitment Factor: This is a crucial numerical value used to arrive at the new basic pay. For the 8^th Pay Commission, there is significant speculation and demand for an increased fitment factor to boost the minimum wage.
• Scope of Coverage: The recommendations of the Pay Commission apply to Central Government employees, All India Services, personnel of Union Territories, and the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
• Fiscal Impact: The implementation of such commissions usually results in a significant increase in government expenditure, which is a major factor in the Union Budget planning and the management of the fiscal deficit.
• Terms of Reference (ToR): This document outlines the specific guidelines, limitations, and areas of study for the commission, serving as the legal and administrative roadmap for its functioning.