General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is The Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Key Points

• The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on August 1, 2024, and subsequently passed in March 2025 to amend the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• The primary objective of the amendment is to bring more clarity and convergence in the roles of various authorities working in the field of disaster management at the National and State levels.
• One of the significant features of the Bill is the establishment of a National Disaster Database, which will be maintained at the national level to store critical information related to disaster risks and mitigation.
• The Bill provides for the constitution of Urban Disaster Management Authorities in state capitals and large cities with Municipal Corporations, acknowledging the unique challenges of urban flooding and infrastructure risks.
• It grants statutory recognition to existing bodies such as the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) and the State Disaster Response Force (SDRF), formalizing their roles and responsibilities within the legal framework.
• The amendment empowers the Central Government to make regulations concerning the Disaster Management framework, ensuring a more flexible and responsive system to modern-day calamities. Hence, the correct answer is The Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Additional Information

• Disaster Management Act, 2005:
• This Act was enacted by the Parliament of India on December 23, 2005, following the devastating 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami.
• It established a three-tier structure: the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) at the center, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) at the state level, and the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) at the district level.
• The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the NDMA, while the Chief Ministers lead the respective SDMAs.
• Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897:
• This is a colonial-era law meant to provide for the better prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases. It was widely invoked during the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020.
• Environmental Protection Act, 1986:
• Enacted in the wake of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, this Act empowers the Central Government to protect and improve environmental quality and control pollution.
• National Green Tribunal Act, 2010:
• This Act enabled the creation of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.

Important Points

• Key Revisions in 2024 Bill:
• The 2024 Bill seeks to address the "overlapping" of functions between the NDMA and various ministries, ensuring that the National Plan is more comprehensive.
• It introduces provisions for financial penalties for individuals or organizations that fail to comply with the directions issued by the Central or State Governments regarding disaster management.
• The creation of the National Disaster Database is expected to help in evidence-based decision-making by tracking the allocation and utilization of funds from the National Disaster Response Fund.

The correct answer is Hnahthial (Mizoram).

Key Points

• According to the NER District SDG Index 2023–24, which is the second edition of the index released by NITI Aayog, Hnahthial district in Mizoram secured the first rank in the Northeastern Region.
• Hnahthial achieved a top score of 75.39 out of 100, indicating significant progress across various socio-economic and environmental parameters.
• The index was developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER) and with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• Following Hnahthial, the district of Aizawl in Mizoram stood second with a score of 75.24, while Siaha (also in Mizoram) and East Sikkim (Sikkim) followed closely in the rankings.
• The 2023–24 edition of the index evaluated the performance of 103 districts across the eight states of Northeast India using a framework of 84 indicators spanning 15 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• Hence, the correct answer is Hnahthial (Mizoram).

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations in 2015 to be achieved by the year 2030. They cover issues like poverty, hunger, health, education, climate change, and social justice.
• In India, NITI Aayog is the nodal agency responsible for monitoring the progress of these goals at the national and sub-national levels.
• NER District SDG Index:
• This regional index is specifically designed to address the unique challenges and geographical diversity of the North Eastern Region, ensuring that development is tailored to local needs.
• The eight states covered are Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
• Performance Categorization:
• Districts are categorized based on their SDG scores: Aspirant (0–49), Performer (50–64), Front Runner (65–99), and Achiever (100).
• In the latest report, all 103 districts in the NER fell into either the Front Runner or Performer categories, showing a general upward trend in development.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India):
• It was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It functions as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• The Prime Minister serves as the Ex-officio Chairperson, while the Vice-Chairperson and CEO lead the administrative functions.
• SDG India Index 2023–24 (National Level):
• At the national level, the SDG India Index 2023–24 showed that Uttarakhand and Kerala were the top-performing states, while Bihar was ranked at the bottom.
• The national composite score for India improved from 66 in 2020-21 to 71 in 2023-24, reflecting significant advancements in Goal 1 (No Poverty) and Goal 13 (Climate Action).
• Goal-Specific Performance in NER:
• Mizoram and Sikkim have consistently performed well in Goal 3 (Good Health and Well-being) and Goal 4 (Quality Education), contributing to the high ranking of their districts like Hnahthial and Aizawl.

The correct answer is Tennis.

Key Points

• Rafael Nadal is a world-renowned professional athlete from Spain who has dominated the sport of Tennis for over two decades.
• He is the recipient of the 2025 Sporting Icon Award, a prestigious honor bestowed upon him in recognition of his unparalleled contribution to the sport, his resilient spirit, and his role as a global ambassador for athletic excellence.
• Known affectionately as the "King of Clay," Nadal is most famous for his record-breaking performance at Roland Garros (The French Open), where he has won a staggering 14 titles, a feat unmatched by any other player in the history of the game.
• Throughout his illustrious career, he has captured a total of 22 Grand Slam men's singles titles, placing him among the top three most successful male players of all time alongside Novak Djokovic and Roger Federer.
• His style of play is characterized by extreme topspin, incredible physical endurance, and a relentless competitive drive, making him one of the most formidable opponents on all court surfaces, including grass and hard courts.

Additional Information

• Career Achievements and Grand Slams:
• In addition to his 14 French Open titles, Nadal has won the US Open 4 times, the Australian Open 2 times, and Wimbledon 2 times.
• He completed the Career Grand Slam (winning all four major tournaments) at the age of 24, becoming the youngest man in the Open Era to achieve this milestone.
• Olympic Success:
• Rafael Nadal is a two-time Olympic Gold Medalist. He won the singles gold at the 2008 Beijing Olympics and the doubles gold at the 2016 Rio Olympics alongside Marc Lopez.
• By winning all four Grand Slams and an Olympic gold in singles, he achieved the rare Career Golden Slam.
• Retirement and Legacy:
• Nadal officially announced his retirement from professional tennis in late 2024, with his final competitive appearance taking place during the Davis Cup Finals.
• He spent a total of 209 weeks as the World No. 1 in the ATP Rankings and finished as the year-end No. 1 five times (2008, 2010, 2013, 2017, and 2019).
• Off-Court Contributions:
• He established the Rafa Nadal Academy in his hometown of Manacor, Mallorca, to train the next generation of tennis players using his unique methodology.
• He is also heavily involved in philanthropy through the Rafa Nadal Foundation, which focuses on social integration and education for vulnerable children and youth.

Important Points

• Rivalries: Nadal was part of the legendary "Big Three" era, which elevated the popularity of tennis worldwide through intense rivalries with Roger Federer (the "Fedal" rivalry) and Novak Djokovic.
• Awards: Beyond the 2025 Sporting Icon Award, he has received the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year award multiple times (2011 and 2021) and the Prince of Asturias Award in 2008.
• Davis Cup: He has been a pivotal member of the Spanish Davis Cup team, helping his country win the title on five occasions (2004, 2008, 2009, 2011, and 2019).

The correct answer is fell to ₹88.33 per USD.

Key Points

• On 1 September 2025, the Indian Rupee experienced significant selling pressure, causing it to breach a new historic low of ₹88.33 against the US Dollar.
• The primary drivers for this depreciation included a strengthening US Dollar Index (DXY) and consistent Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) outflows from the Indian capital markets. Hence, the statement regarding the fall to 88.33 is correct.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reportedly intervened in the Non-Deliverable Forward (NDF) and spot markets by selling US Dollars through public sector banks to provide support to the local currency.
• Global economic factors, such as high crude oil prices and rising US Treasury yields, contributed to the rupee's vulnerability, as India is a major importer of energy.
• The intervention by the central bank was aimed at curbing excessive volatility rather than targeting a specific exchange rate level, allowing the rupee to recover slightly after hitting the record low.

Additional Information

• Currency Depreciation:
• This is the fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system due to market forces like demand and supply.
• A weaker rupee makes exports more competitive but increases the cost of imports, leading to imported inflation in the domestic economy.
• Role of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• The RBI manages the exchange rate through its Foreign Exchange Reserves, which include Foreign Currency Assets (FCA), Gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve Position in the IMF.
• In 2024-2025, India’s Forex Reserves have been maintained at high levels to shield the economy from external shocks and speculative attacks on the currency.
• External Factors:
• The monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve plays a crucial role; when the Fed raises interest rates, capital often flows back to the United States, weakening currencies in Emerging Markets like India.
• The Current Account Deficit (CAD) is also a vital indicator; a widening deficit puts structural pressure on the rupee's value over the long term.

Important Points

• Exchange Rate Management: Unlike a fixed regime, India follows a managed float system where the market determines the rate, but the RBI steps in to prevent wild fluctuations.
• Impact on Sectors:
• Beneficiaries: IT services, textiles, and pharmaceuticals often benefit from a weaker rupee as their dollar-denominated earnings translate into more rupees.
• Losers: Oil marketing companies, importers of electronics, and students studying abroad face higher costs when the rupee falls to record lows like 88.33.
• Historical Context: The rupee has seen a gradual depreciation over the decades, moving from around ₹4.76 in 1947 to over ₹80 in 2022, and reaching the ₹88 mark in late 2025.

The correct answer is Nagpur.

Key Points

• On October 5, 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated Asia's longest double-decker flyover in Nagpur, Maharashtra.
• The flyover, known as the Pardi Flyover, spans a length of approximately 5.3 kilometers, setting a new benchmark for urban infrastructure in India and across the continent.
• This massive project was developed as a joint venture between the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and the Maharashtra Metro Rail Corporation (Maha Metro).
• The structure is located on National Highway 53 (NH-53) and is designed to decongest the heavily crowded Pardi, Kapsi, and HB Town areas of Nagpur.
• The project features a unique multi-layer transport system where the Nagpur Metro runs on the uppermost level, a multi-lane flyover for vehicular traffic exists in the middle, and the existing ground-level road serves local traffic, all supported by a single pier (pillar) system.

Additional Information

• Engineering Marvel: The flyover is considered a masterpiece of modern engineering because it utilizes a single-column pier to support both the highway flyover and the Metro rail tracks, significantly saving space in dense urban environments.
• Connectivity: The flyover provides seamless connectivity for commuters traveling towards Bhandara, Raipur, and Kolkata, effectively bypassing the chaotic traffic of East Nagpur.
• Nagpur's Infrastructure Record: This is not the first record for the city; Nagpur previously held the Guinness World Record for the longest double-decker viaduct (3.14 km) on Wardha Road, which was also built by Maha Metro and NHAI.
• Cost and Scope: The Pardi project is part of a larger infrastructure push in Maharashtra, involving an investment of several hundred crores to modernize the National Highway network passing through the "Orange City."
• Environmental Impact: By reducing idling time at traffic signals and providing a dedicated corridor for heavy vehicles, the project aims to lower carbon emissions and fuel consumption in the region.

Important Points

• National Highway 53: This is a major East-West corridor connecting Gujarat and Odisha; the inauguration of the Nagpur section is vital for inter-state trade and logistics.
• PM-GatiShakti: The integration of Metro and Road infrastructure in this project aligns with the PM-GatiShakti National Master Plan, which emphasizes multimodal connectivity and integrated infrastructure planning.
• Safety Features: The flyover is equipped with advanced lighting systems, drainage facilities, and sound barriers to ensure safety and comfort for both motorists and residents in nearby localities.
• Year of Achievement: The completion and inauguration in 2024 mark a significant milestone in India's goal to build world-class highways and urban transit systems simultaneously.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• On 26 May 2025, the NITI Aayog released a landmark report titled 'Designing a Policy for Medium Enterprises', which outlines a strategic framework to bolster the growth of the MSME sector. Hence, the correct answer is NITI Aayog.
• The report identifies Medium Enterprises as the "missing middle" in India's industrial landscape and proposes a dedicated roadmap to transform them into globally competitive growth engines.
• Key recommendations in the report focus on Ease of Doing Business (EoDB), providing better access to credit, and facilitating technological upgrades for firms that have graduated from being small-scale units.
• The document emphasizes the need for structural reforms to help these enterprises integrate into Global Value Chains (GVCs), thereby contributing significantly to India's goal of becoming a USD 5 trillion economy.
• It suggests the creation of sector-specific clusters and specialized Export Promotion Cells to assist Medium Enterprises in expanding their footprint in international markets.

Additional Information

• Definition of Medium Enterprises:
• According to the revised MSME classification effective from 1 July 2020, an enterprise is categorized as Medium if its investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed Rs. 50 crore and its annual turnover does not exceed Rs. 250 crore.
• This composite criteria of investment and turnover was introduced to encourage firms to scale up without fear of losing government benefits.
• About NITI Aayog:
• The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was established on 1 January 2015, replacing the erstwhile Planning Commission.
• It serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs while fostering Cooperative Federalism.
• The Prime Minister of India acts as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Aayog.
• Importance of the MSME Sector:
• The Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector is often called the backbone of the Indian economy, contributing nearly 30% to the GDP and approximately 45% to total exports.
• It provides employment to over 11 crore people across the country, making it the second-largest employer after agriculture.
• Schemes like Udyam Registration, the RAMP (Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance) program, and the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) are designed to support this vital sector.
• Role of Other Agencies:
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates the flow of Priority Sector Lending (PSL) to MSMEs.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) facilitates capital raising for smaller firms through SME Exchanges like NSE Emerge and BSE SME.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• The Government of India has established two Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs) in the country, one in Uttar Pradesh and the other in Tamil Nadu, to promote self-reliance in defence manufacturing.
• As of the recent updates leading into 2024-2025, these two corridors have successfully attracted cumulative investments worth over ₹8,658 crore, demonstrating a significant push toward indigenous production.
• The Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor (TNDIC) consists of five strategic nodes: Chennai, Hosur, Salem, Coimbatore, and Tiruchirappalli. Hence, the statement regarding the second state is correct.
• The Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor (UPDIC) is spread across six nodes: Agra, Aligarh, Chitrakoot, Jhansi, Kanpur, and Lucknow.
• The primary objective of these corridors is to create a robust ecosystem for defence production, involving both Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) and private sector players, including MSMEs and Startups.
• These corridors were announced in the Union Budget 2018-19 to reduce the import dependency of the Indian Armed Forces and bolster the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor (TNDIC):
• The state of Tamil Nadu was selected due to its existing strong manufacturing base and high rank in the Export Preparedness Index.
• The Tiruchirappalli node focuses heavily on ordnance factories, while Chennai leverages its port accessibility for global supply chains.
• Major companies like Tata Group, L&T, and TVS have expressed significant investment interests in this corridor.
• Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor (UPDIC):
• The Lucknow node is being developed as a hub for aerospace and missile technology, including projects like the BrahMos missile unit.
• The Aligarh node has seen rapid development with several small-scale industries setting up units for components and hardware.
• Ministry of Defence Initiatives:
• The Department of Defence Production facilitates these corridors by providing infrastructure support and testing facilities.
• The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) scheme is integrated with these corridors to foster innovation and technology development by Startups.
• The government has implemented the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020, which prioritizes Buy (Indian-IDDM) categories to support local industries.
• Economic Impact:
• The corridors are expected to generate massive employment opportunities (direct and indirect) for skilled youth in North and South India.
• By the year 2025, the government aims to achieve a turnover of ₹1,75,000 crore (US$ 25 billion) in defence manufacturing, including exports of ₹35,000 crore.

Important Points

• The investment of ₹8,658 crore is a combined figure reflecting the progress made in both states since the inception of the project.
• The Defence Investor Cell has been created within the Ministry of Defence to provide single-window clearance and assistance to potential investors in these corridors.
• A total of 108 Positive Indigenisation Lists have been notified by the government, ensuring that the items listed are sourced only from domestic manufacturers located within such industrial hubs$.

The correct answer is Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL).

Key Points

• In August 2025, the Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory (DMRL), a premier laboratory of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), transferred the manufacturing technology for high-strength radomes to Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL).
• This Technology Transfer (ToT) is aimed at indigenizing the production of critical components used in aerospace and defense applications. Hence, the correct answer is Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL).
• The technology involves the fabrication of advanced ceramic-based radomes that can withstand extreme aerodynamic heating and mechanical stresses encountered during high-speed flights of missiles and aircraft.
• DMRL, located in Hyderabad, specializes in the development of advanced metallurgical materials, and this collaboration with BHEL marks a significant milestone under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
• BHEL will now be responsible for the mass production of these radomes, ensuring a steady supply for the Indian Armed Forces and reducing dependency on foreign imports.

Additional Information

• Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL):
• Established in 1964, BHEL is one of India's largest engineering and manufacturing enterprises and holds the prestigious Maharatna status.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and operates under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
• While traditionally known for power equipment, BHEL has significantly expanded into the Defense and Aerospace sector, producing Super Rapid Gun Mounts (SRGM), simulators, and space-grade solar cells.
• Defence Metallurgical Research Laboratory (DMRL):
• DMRL is a constituent laboratory of DRDO, primarily focused on research and development of advanced materials, alloys, and processing technologies.
• It has played a pivotal role in developing Abhay (heavy alloy) and Bio-Medical implants, apart from critical defense materials.
• Radomes:
• A radome is a structural, weatherproof enclosure that protects a radar antenna.
• It is constructed from materials that minimally attenuate the electromagnetic signals transmitted or received by the antenna.
• For high-speed missiles, radomes must be made of high-strength ceramic materials to resist temperatures exceeding 1000 degrees Celsius.

Important Points

• Significance of the ToT: The transfer of technology ensures that the IP (Intellectual Property) remains within the country, fostering a Defense Industrial Ecosystem.
• Collaborative Research: This specific technology was developed over several years of research at DMRL, specifically for supersonic and hypersonic flight profiles.
• Self-Reliance: By enabling a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) like BHEL to manufacture these components, India moves closer to achieving 100% indigenization in missile sub-systems.

The correct answer is Rohtak.

Key Points

• The 6^th edition of the UMAI National Muaythai Championship was successfully organized in the city of Rohtak, located in the state of Haryana.
• Scheduled and held in June 2025, the championship saw participation from hundreds of athletes representing various states and Union Territories across India.
• The event was conducted under the aegis of the United Muaythai Association - India (UMAI), which is the national governing body for the sport, affiliated with the International Federation of Muaythai Associations (IFMA).
• The primary objective of holding the championship in Rohtak was to provide a professional platform for Muaythai practitioners to showcase their skills and to select the national team for upcoming international tournaments.
• The city of Rohtak was chosen due to its robust sports infrastructure and its reputation as a hub for combat sports in North India.

Additional Information

• Understanding Muaythai:
• Known as the "Art of Eight Limbs," Muaythai is a traditional martial art from Thailand that utilizes fists, elbows, knees, and shins for striking.
• It was officially recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) during the 138^th IOC Session held in Tokyo in July 2021, making it eligible for future Olympic Games.
• United Muaythai Association - India (UMAI):
• UMAI is responsible for the development, regulation, and promotion of Muaythai throughout the Republic of India.
• It ensures that Indian athletes adhere to the anti-doping regulations set by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA).
• Rohtak as a Sports Destination:
• Rohtak is home to the Rajiv Gandhi Sports Complex, which features world-class facilities for various indoor and outdoor sports.
• The state of Haryana has a long-standing history of producing medal-winning athletes in wrestling, boxing, and now Muaythai, contributing significantly to India's tally in the Asian Games and Commonwealth Games.
• Championship Categories:
• The National Muaythai Championship typically features weight categories ranging from 45 kg to over 91 kg for male and female participants.
• Divisions include Elite Senior, Under-23, and Youth categories (Junior and Sub-Junior), ensuring a pipeline of talent for the national squad.

Important Points

• The 2025 championship in Rohtak served as a crucial qualification event for the IFMA World Muaythai Championships.
• The event highlighted the growing popularity of martial arts in India, with an increasing number of female athletes participating in full-contact combat sports.
• State governments, particularly Haryana, have been incentivizing such national championships to promote sports tourism and youth engagement.

The correct answer is Biometric Authentication System.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) announced the mandatory implementation of the Biometric Authentication System for beneficiary registration under Poshan 2.0, effective from 1^st August 2025.
• This significant decision was communicated during the Zonal Meeting held at Kevadia, Gujarat (near the Statue of Unity), where representatives from various states and Union Territories gathered to review the progress of nutrition and women empowerment schemes.
• The introduction of biometric-based verification aims to enhance transparency and ensure that the benefits of Take Home Ration (THR) and Hot Cooked Meals (HCM) reach the intended genuine beneficiaries without leakages.
• The system will involve Aadhaar-based authentication or other biometric markers to verify the physical presence of children (0-6 years), pregnant women, and lactating mothers at Anganwadi Centres (AWCs).
• By transitioning to this technology-based method, the government intends to eliminate "ghost beneficiaries" and streamline the data recorded on the Poshan Tracker application. Hence, the correct answer is Biometric Authentication System.

Additional Information

• Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0:
• Launched in 2021-22, it is an Integrated Nutrition Support Programme that seeks to address the challenges of malnutrition in children, adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
• The mission focuses on three primary verticals: Nutrition Support for POSHAN, Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE), and Anganwadi Infrastructure.
• It targets the reduction of Stunting, Under-nutrition, Anemia, and Low Birth Weight across the country.
• Poshan Tracker Application:
• It is a robust ICT-based platform launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development for real-time monitoring of nutrition service delivery.
• The application enables Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) to enter data regarding growth monitoring, vaccination, and ration distribution.
• As of recent data, more than 10 crore beneficiaries are registered on the platform, and it tracks the Height and Weight of children monthly to identify Wasting and Stunting.

Important Points

• Administrative Strategy: The shift to Biometric Authentication is a part of the government's Digital India initiative to improve governance and accountability in social welfare programs.
• Geographic Focus: The choice of Kevadia, Gujarat for the Zonal Meeting highlights the focus on sharing best practices and regional cooperation among Western States and UTs.
• Infrastructure Upgrade: Under the Saksham Anganwadi component, over 2 lakh Anganwadis are being upgraded with better connectivity, clean water, and digital learning tools to support the new authentication protocols.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Analogy: Similar to DBT in other sectors, this biometric integration ensures that the last-mile delivery of nutrition is accurately mapped to the individual's Aadhaar identity.

The correct answer is ₹1 crore.

Key Points

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) imposed a monetary penalty of ₹1 crore on Acko General Insurance in May 2025.
• The penalty was directed towards the insurer for various regulatory violations, primarily concerning the outsourcing of activities and non-compliance with prescribed insurance business guidelines.
• The regulatory action followed an onsite inspection conducted by the authority, which highlighted deviations from the IRDAI (Protection of Policyholders’ Interests) Regulations and the Insurance Act, 1938.
• The enforcement of this penalty underscores the regulator's commitment to ensuring market discipline and protecting the rights of individual policyholders within the Indian insurance sector.
• Acko General Insurance was instructed to remit the penalty amount of ₹1 crore to the Government of India and to take corrective measures to prevent future lapses in their operational framework.

Additional Information

• IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India):
• It is a statutory body formed under the IRDA Act, 1999, tasked with regulating and promoting the insurance and re-insurance industries in India.
• The authority is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana, having moved from New Delhi in 2001.
• The primary objective of IRDAI is to protect the interests of the policyholders, regulate the solvency margins of companies, and ensure the orderly growth of the insurance market.
• Acko General Insurance:
• Founded in 2016 by Varun Dua, it is a digital-first insurance company in India that provides specialized products like motor insurance, health insurance, and gadget protection.
• The company is known for its direct-to-consumer model, which leverages technology and data analytics to offer low-cost premiums and fast claim settlements.
• It has received significant backing from global investors and is part of the growing InsurTech ecosystem in the Asia-Pacific region.
• Regulatory Powers:
• Under Section 102 of the Insurance Act, 1938, IRDAI has the legal authority to impose penalties on insurance companies for failing to comply with directives or for violating legislative provisions.
• Inspections and audits are regularly conducted to ensure that insurers maintain sufficient capital adequacy and follow ethical underwriting practices.

Important Points

• In India, the insurance sector is governed by the Ministry of Finance and operates under the framework of the Insurance Act, 1938 and the IRDA Act, 1999.
• Penalties such as the ₹1 crore fine act as a deterrent against mis-selling and the unauthorized use of third-party service providers (outsourcing) that may compromise data security or service quality.
• Maintaining high standards of corporate governance is mandatory for all general insurance companies to sustain their license to operate granted by the regulator.

The correct answer is Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML).

Key Points

• In October 2024, BEML Limited (formerly Bharat Earth Movers Limited) secured a major contract from the Integral Coach Factory (ICF), Chennai, for the design, manufacturing, and commissioning of India’s first indigenous high-speed trainsets.
• The contract is valued at approximately Rs. 866.87 crore and marks a significant step toward the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR) project, often referred to as the Bullet Train project.
• Under this agreement, BEML will produce two high-speed trainsets, each consisting of 8 cars. These trains are designed to reach a test speed of 280 kmph and an operational speed of 250 kmph.
• The manufacturing of these trainsets will take place at BEML’s Bangalore complex, with the delivery of the first set expected by late 2026.
• This initiative is a critical component of the 'Make in India' campaign, aimed at reducing dependence on foreign technology for high-speed rail operations.

Additional Information

• BEML Limited:
• It is a Schedule 'A' Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.
• Headquartered in Bengaluru, it operates in three major business verticals: Defence & Aerospace, Mining & Construction, and Rail & Metro.
• The company has historically been a pioneer in manufacturing Metro coaches and EMU (Electric Multiple Unit) trainsets for Indian Railways.
• Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR):
• The project covers a total length of 508 kilometers, connecting the financial hub of Mumbai with the industrial city of Ahmedabad.
• It is being implemented by the National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL).
• The project utilizes Japanese Shinkansen technology and is largely funded by the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) through a soft loan.
• Integral Coach Factory (ICF):
• Located in Perambur, Chennai, it is a premier production unit of Indian Railways.
• ICF is the developer of the Vande Bharat Express (Train 18) and is now leading the indigenous development of higher-speed rolling stock.

Important Points

• Technical Specifications: The new trainsets will feature fully air-conditioned cabins, revolving chairs, and advanced safety systems such as KAVACH (though adapted for high speeds) and Level-2 automation.
• Timeline: The Surat-Bilimora section (50 km) of the bullet train corridor is expected to be the first to open, with trials potentially starting by 2026.
• Economic Impact: The local manufacturing contract awarded to BEML is expected to boost local ancillary industries and create specialized engineering jobs in the aerospace and rail sectors.
• Comparison: While Japan will provide the E5 series Shinkansen trains for the bulk of the MAHSR operations, the BEML-ICF project serves as a pilot for developing domestic high-speed rail technology for future corridors across India.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• The city of Bengaluru was chosen to host the first Indian Grand Prix (IGP) athletics meet of the 2025 season, scheduled to take place in March 2025.
• The event is organized under the aegis of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), which is the apex body for managing athletics in the country.
• The Sree Kanteerava Stadium in Bengaluru serves as the primary venue for this high-profile competition, featuring top Indian athletes across various track and field disciplines.
• The Indian Grand Prix series is a crucial part of the domestic calendar, providing athletes with the opportunity to achieve qualification standards for major international events such as the World Athletics Championships and other continental meets.
• The first leg of the 2025 series in Bengaluru focuses on identifying early-season form and allowing athletes to test their training progress after the winter off-season.

Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• The AFI was formed in 1946 and is responsible for the development and promotion of athletics in India.
• It is affiliated with World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association.
• The headquarters of the AFI is located in New Delhi.
• Structure of the Indian Grand Prix:
• The IGP is typically conducted in multiple legs (e.g., IGP 1, IGP 2, IGP 3, and IGP 4) across different cities to ensure wide geographical participation.
• Cities like Thiruvananthapuram, Patiala, and Bhubaneswar are other prominent hosts for subsequent legs of the series.
• The competition includes events such as 100m, 200m, 400m, 800m, Long Jump, Shot Put, and Javelin Throw.
• Bengaluru as a Sports Hub:
• Bengaluru is home to the Sports Authority of India (SAI) Netaji Subhas Southern Centre, which is a premier training base for Indian track and field athletes.
• The city's moderate climate and elevation make it an ideal location for middle and long-distance runners to train and compete.

Important Points

• Role of the Meet: The March 2025 meet acts as a season opener, allowing the National Selection Committee to monitor the performance of athletes under the National Coaching Camps.
• Anti-Doping Measures: During the Indian Grand Prix, the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) actively conducts testing to ensure a clean sporting environment and adherence to WADA guidelines.
• Technological Integration: Modern meets in India now utilize advanced electronic timing systems and photo-finish technology to ensure accuracy in record-keeping for national records.
• Key Participants: Expected participants in such meets often include high-profile names in Indian athletics, including those who have represented India in the Olympics and Asian Games.

The correct answer is Commercial trucks.

Key Points

• The FASTag Annual Plan or Monthly Pass system is a specialized subscription model designed primarily for private vehicle owners who reside within a specific proximity of a toll plaza.
• Commercial trucks are classified as Heavy Goods Vehicles (HGV) or Multi-Axle Vehicles (MAV) and are typically excluded from these specific personal annual plans, as they are governed by commercial tolling rates based on load and distance. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
• Vehicles like Private cars, Jeeps, and Vans are categorized under Class 4 (Light Motor Vehicles) and are the primary beneficiaries of discounted passes if they are used for non-commercial purposes. Hence, options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they are included in such plans.
• The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) implemented these plans to provide relief to local residents, allowing for unlimited trips within a calendar month or year for a fixed nominal fee, provided the vehicle is registered for personal use.
• The eligibility for these annual or monthly plans often requires the vehicle owner to provide proof of residence within a 20-kilometer radius of the specific toll plaza where the plan is to be applied.

Additional Information

• FASTag Technology:
• It utilizes Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the linked prepaid or savings account.
• The FASTag is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a person to drive through toll plazas without stopping for cash transactions.
• As of February 15, 2021, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways made FASTag mandatory for all vehicles in India to ensure seamless traffic flow and reduce fuel consumption.
• Vehicle Classification and Toll Fees:
• Vehicles are divided into classes such as Class 4 (Cars/Jeeps/Vans), Class 5 (Light Commercial Vehicles), Class 6 (Bus/Truck), and Class 7 (MAV).
• Commercial trucks often pay significantly higher toll rates than private vehicles because of the higher wear and tear they cause to the highway infrastructure.
• The National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) Rules, 2008, govern the structure of these fees and the provision of monthly passes for local traffic.
• One Vehicle, One FASTag Initiative:
• Launched by NHAI in 2024, this initiative aims to discourage the use of a single FASTag for multiple vehicles or linking multiple FASTags to a single vehicle.
• It enhances the efficiency of Electronic Toll Collection (ETC) and ensures that the vehicle class registered matches the physical vehicle passing through the toll lane.

Important Points

• IHMCL (Indian Highway Management Company Limited): This organization, incorporated by NHAI, carries out Electronic Tolling and other ancillary projects of National Highways.
• Issuing Entities: FASTags are issued by over 30 certified banks and various Point of Sale (POS) locations across the country, including petrol pumps and Common Service Centres (CSC).
• Validity: A FASTag typically has a validity of 5 years, but the linked annual plans or monthly passes must be renewed periodically as per the NHAI guidelines.
• Blacklisting: If the FASTag account has insufficient balance, the tag is blacklisted, and the vehicle owner may be required to pay double the toll amount in cash or via electronic modes at the plaza.

p>The correct answer is Percival Everett.

Key Points

• Percival Everett is the recipient of the 2025 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction for his acclaimed novel 'James'.
• The novel 'James' serves as a creative and powerful reimagining of Mark Twain’s 1884 masterpiece, 'Adventures of Huckleberry Finn'. Hence, the statement regarding the novel's origin is correct.
• The narrative is told entirely from the perspective of Jim, the enslaved man who flees with Huck Finn. This shift in viewpoint provides Jim with a complex internal life, intellectual depth, and a distinct voice that was largely absent in the original text. Hence, the statement regarding the perspective of the novel is correct.
• The book explores heavy themes such as racial identity, the hypocrisy of slavery, and the subversive power of language and literacy in 19^th-century America.
• 'James' was widely praised by critics for its satirical edge and its ability to deconstruct a classic of the American literary canon while standing as a significant work of art on its own.

Additional Information

• Percival Everett:
• He is a highly prolific American novelist and a Distinguished Professor of English at the University of Southern California.
• Born in 1956 in Georgia, his work often utilizes metafiction and satire to critique contemporary American culture and racial politics.
• He is also well-known for his 2001 novel 'Erasure', which was later adapted into the Academy Award-winning film 'American Fiction' in 2023.
• The Pulitzer Prize for Fiction:
• This is one of the seven Pulitzer Prizes annually awarded for Letters, Drama, and Music.
• The award was established in 1917 through the will of Joseph Pulitzer, a prominent newspaper publisher.
• It is administered by Columbia University in New York City and honors distinguished fiction by an American author, preferably dealing with American life.
• The Narrative of 'James':
• In Everett's retelling, Jim is revealed to be highly literate and articulate, choosing to speak in a "slave dialect" only as a survival mechanism around white characters.
• This linguistic subversion is a central feature of the novel, highlighting the agency and intelligence of those oppressed by systemic racism.

Important Points

• Literary Impact: Reimagining classics has become a significant trend in contemporary literature, allowing modern authors to fill historical silences and provide voices to marginalized characters from canonical texts.
• Context of the 2025 Award: The recognition of 'James' by the Pulitzer Board underscores the ongoing relevance of American history and the Antebellum South in understanding current societal structures.
• Critical Recognition: Before winning the Pulitzer Prize, 'James' was also a finalist for other major awards like the National Book Award, cementing its status as one of the most important books of the mid-2020s.

The correct answer is Rishabh Pant.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli, though a legendary figure in Indian cricket and a prolific run-scorer, did not achieve the milestone of scoring centuries in both innings of the Headingley Test in 2025. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Rishabh Pant etched his name in the history books by scoring centuries in both the first and second innings of the 1^st Test against England at Headingley in 2025. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• KL Rahul was a key part of the top order during the 2025 series, but he did not record twin centuries in this specific match at Leeds. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Jasprit Bumrah, the premier fast bowler and a vital leader in the Indian attack, focused on his bowling performance and did not score centuries in both innings. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• The feat made Rishabh Pant the first Indian wicket-keeper to score twin centuries in a Test match played in England, significantly boosting India's position in the ICC World Test Championship.
• Hence, the correct answer is Rishabh Pant.

Additional Information

• Headingley Cricket Ground:
• Located in Leeds, West Yorkshire, this historic ground was established in 1890 and has been a primary venue for Test cricket in England since 1899.
• The ground is famous for some of the most dramatic matches in cricket history, including the 1981 Ashes Test and the 2019 heroics by Ben Stokes.
• Twin Centuries in Test Cricket:
• Scoring a century (100 runs or more) in both innings of a single Test match is a rare achievement that requires immense concentration and physical stamina.
• Other Indian legends who have achieved this include Vijay Hazare, Sunil Gavaskar (who did it three times), Rahul Dravid, Virat Kohli, Ajinkya Rahane, and Rohit Sharma.
• Rishabh Pant's Profile:
• Born on October 4, 1997, in Roorkee, Uttarakhand, Pant is a left-handed wicket-keeper-batsman known for his aggressive and fearless approach.
• He made his Test debut in 2018 and has since become a match-winner for India in overseas conditions, including memorable knocks in Australia (Gabba, 2021) and England (Edgbaston, 2022).

Important Points

• Match Conditions: The 1^st Test at Headingley in 2025 was played in typical English conditions during June, where the Duke ball offered significant swing and seam movement, making Pant's achievement even more remarkable.
• ICC World Test Championship (WTC): This match was part of the WTC 2025-2027 cycle. India's victory, fueled by Pant's twin tons, secured 12 points for the team in their quest to reach the WTC Final at Lord's.
• Statistical Milestone: By scoring twin centuries, Pant joined an elite global group of wicket-keepers like Adam Gilchrist and Kumar Sangakkara who have dominated games with the bat while maintaining their keeping duties.

The correct answer is SUNRISE – Solar Upcycling Network for Recycling, Innovation & Stakeholder Engagement.

Key Points

• The SUNRISE initiative, which stands for Solar Upcycling Network for Recycling, Innovation & Stakeholder Engagement, was officially launched during the Eighth Session of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Assembly.
• The assembly was held at the prestigious Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi during October 2025, bringing together global leaders to discuss the future of solar energy.
• The primary objective of the SUNRISE programme is to address the burgeoning challenge of solar photovoltaic (PV) waste and to establish a robust framework for circularity within the solar industry.
• It focuses on the upcycling of end-of-life solar modules, ensuring that valuable materials such as silver, silicon, and glass are recovered and reintroduced into the production cycle.
• The initiative seeks to foster innovation in recycling technologies and facilitate stakeholder engagement between governments, private manufacturers, and environmental agencies to create a sustainable ecosystem. Hence, the correct answer is SUNRISE – Solar Upcycling Network for Recycling, Innovation & Stakeholder Engagement.

Additional Information

• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• The ISA is a collaborative platform launched in 2015 by India and France on the sidelines of the COP21 in Paris.
• Headquartered in Gurugram, India, it aims to mobilize more than USD 1000 billion of investment in solar energy solutions by 2030.
• The Assembly is the apex decision-making body of the ISA, in which each member country is represented and decisions regarding the implementation of the ISA Framework Agreement are made.
• Solar Waste Management:
• As global solar capacity increases, the volume of PV waste is projected to reach several million tonnes by the year 2050.
• Proper recycling is essential to prevent heavy metals like lead and cadmium from leaching into the soil, posing significant environmental risks.
• The circular economy model promoted by SUNRISE helps reduce the dependency on virgin raw materials, thereby lowering the overall carbon footprint of solar energy production.
• Bharat Mandapam:
• Located at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, it is India’s largest International Exhibition-cum-Convention Centre (IECC).
• It has become a focal point for high-level international summits, including the G20 Summit in 2023 and subsequent ISA Assemblies.

Important Points

• Global Impact: The launch of SUNRISE aligns with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), specifically Goal 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy) and Goal 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production).
• Technological Innovation: The programme encourages the development of automated disassembly and chemical leaching processes to maximize the purity of recovered materials from old panels.
• Regulatory Frameworks: A key part of the Stakeholder Engagement involves assisting member nations in drafting Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) guidelines for solar manufacturers.

The correct answer is Ministry of AYUSH.

Key Points

• The National Dhanwantari Ayurveda Awards are conferred annually by the Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India, to recognize eminent practitioners and institutions for their outstanding contributions to Ayurveda.
• In 2025, these awards continued to highlight the government's commitment to promoting traditional Indian medicine on both national and global platforms.
• The award ceremony is typically held on Ayurveda Day, which is celebrated every year on the occasion of Dhanwantari Jayanti (Dhanteras).
• The award includes a citation, a trophy, and a cash prize of Rs. 5 lakh, making it one of the most prestigious honors in the field of traditional medicine. Hence, the correct answer is the Ministry of AYUSH.
• The primary objective of these awards is to encourage research, clinical excellence, and the propagation of Ayurvedic principles to improve public health.

Additional Information

• Ministry of AYUSH:
• The ministry was formed on 9^th November 2014 to ensure the optimal development and propagation of AYUSH systems of healthcare.
• It covers Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy.
• The ministry plays a vital role in the National AYUSH Mission (NAM), which aims to provide cost-effective AYUSH services through upgraded AYUSH hospitals and dispensaries.
• Ayurveda Day:
• The first Ayurveda Day was celebrated in 2016.
• It is observed to create awareness about the health benefits of Ayurveda and to reduce the burden of disease and related morbidity.
• The date of celebration varies each year as it follows the Hindu lunar calendar, falling on Dhanteras.
• Global Significance:
• India, through the Ministry of AYUSH, has collaborated with the World Health Organization (WHO) to establish the Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) in Jamnagar, Gujarat.
• This initiative aims to harness the potential of traditional medicine from across the world through modern science and technology.

Important Points

• Lord Dhanwantari: In Hindu mythology, Lord Dhanwantari is worshipped as the God of Medicine and an avatar of Lord Vishnu, who emerged during the Samudra Manthan (churning of the ocean) with the nectar of immortality (Amrit).
• Ministry of Education: Primarily responsible for school education, literacy, and higher education in India. It does not handle traditional medicine awards.
• Ministry of Culture: Focuses on the preservation and promotion of art, culture, and heritage, including museums and monuments.
• Ministry of Tribal Affairs: Focuses on the socio-economic development of Scheduled Tribes (STs) through various schemes like the Eklavya Model Residential Schools.
• The National Dhanwantari Ayurveda Award is specifically tailored for those who have dedicated 20 years or more to the service of Ayurveda, ensuring only veteran experts receive this high distinction.

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is Bamboo mask-making.

Key Points

• Rebakanta Mahanta is a master craftsman from Assam who has dedicated over six decades to the preservation and promotion of Mukha Shilpa, the traditional art of bamboo mask-making.
• In January 2025, the Government of India announced the Padma Shri award for him in the field of Art, recognizing his exceptional contribution to the cultural heritage of Assam.
• He is based in Sivasagar district and is associated with the Khatpar Satra, where he has been instrumental in teaching this ancient art form to the younger generation to ensure its survival.
• His expertise lies in creating intricate masks used in Bhaona, a traditional form of Satriya mythological theatre. These masks are traditionally made from bamboo, clay, and cloth.
• Through his Samaguri-style influences and his own innovations, he has made the masks more flexible and lightweight, allowing performers to use them more effectively during Satriya dance and drama performances.

Additional Information

• The Art of Mukha Shilpa (Mask-making):
• Bamboo mask-making is a 500-year-old tradition in Assam, primarily centered around the river island of Majuli and various Satras (monasteries).
• The tradition was initiated by the 15^th-16^th century saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardeva. He used these masks as a visual aid to depict characters from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas during Bhaona performances.
• The masks are categorized into three types: Mukh Mukha (covering only the face), Lotokoi Mukha (larger masks with moving parts), and Bor Mukha (giant masks covering the entire body).
• Geographical Indication (GI) Tag:
• In March 2024, the Majuli Mask Making craft was officially granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, which provides legal protection and recognizes its unique origin and traditional methods.
• This recognition has helped in global branding and preventing the imitation of this Assamese craft by commercial manufacturers.
• Materials and Techniques:
• The process begins with a framework made of split bamboo. This is covered with cotton cloth dipped in a paste of clay and cow dung to give it a skin-like texture.
• Once dry, the masks are painted using natural pigments like Hengul (vermilion) and Haital (yellow orpiment), ensuring that the craft remains eco-friendly and deeply rooted in tradition.

Important Points

• Bhaona and Satriya Culture:
• Bhaona is a traditional form of entertainment with religious messages, prevalent in Assam. It was created by Mahapurush Srimanta Sankardeva to propagate Neo-Vaishnavism.
• The masks play a crucial role in bringing characters like Ravana, Hanuman, Narasimha, and various demons to life on stage, making the spiritual teachings accessible to the common people.
• Other Options Context:
• Madhubani painting: A famous folk art from the Mithila region of Bihar, characterized by geometric patterns and vibrant natural dyes.
• Kathakali: A highly stylized classical dance-drama from Kerala, known for its heavy make-up and elaborate costumes, though it also uses facial paint that resembles masks.
• Pottery: While Assam has a rich tradition of Hira and Kumar pottery, Rebakanta Mahanta's specific 2025 Padma Shri recognition is explicitly for his mask-making mastery.

The correct answer is Maria Corina Machado.

Key Points

• Maria Corina Machado is a prominent Venezuelan politician and the founder of the liberal political party Vente Venezuela. She has been a leading figure in the movement for democracy and human rights in South America.
• She was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2025 (as per the provided data) for her unwavering commitment to peaceful transition and her leadership during the 2024 presidential elections in Venezuela.
• Despite being disqualified from holding public office by the National Electoral Council of the Maduro regime, she successfully mobilized millions of citizens to participate in democratic processes and civic resistance.
• Her efforts focused on transparency, electoral integrity, and the rule of law, making her a global symbol of courage against authoritarianism. Her work with the civil organization Súmate, founded in 2002, laid the groundwork for her long-term advocacy for fair elections.
• The award recognizes her role in maintaining a non-violent struggle despite facing intense political repression, arrests of her team members, and personal security threats.

Additional Information

• Malala Yousafzai:
• She is a Pakistani activist for female education who was shot by the Taliban in 2012.
• She became the youngest-ever Nobel Peace Prize laureate in 2014 at the age of 17.
• She co-founded the Malala Fund to advocate for 12 years of free, safe, and quality education for girls globally.
• Svetlana Tikhanovskaya:
• She is the leader of the Belarusian democratic movement who ran against Alexander Lukashenko in the 2020 election.
• Since the disputed results, she has led the United Transition Cabinet from exile in Lithuania, advocating for the release of political prisoners and new elections.
• She has received numerous international honors, including the Sakharov Prize from the European Parliament.
• Greta Thunberg:
• A Swedish environmental activist who gained international recognition in 2018 for her "School Strike for Climate".
• She addressed the United Nations Climate Action Summit in 2019 and was named Time Person of the Year at age 16.
• Her movement, Fridays for Future, has mobilized millions of youth across over 150 countries to demand climate justice.

Important Points

• The Nobel Peace Prize was established by the 1895 will of Alfred Nobel and was first awarded in 1901.
• Unlike the other five Nobel Prizes which are awarded in Stockholm, Sweden, the Peace Prize is awarded annually in Oslo, Norway.
• The Norwegian Nobel Committee, consisting of five members appointed by the Storting (the Norwegian Parliament), is responsible for selecting the laureates.
• The award ceremony traditionally takes place on December 10, the anniversary of Alfred Nobel's death. The prize includes a gold medal, a diploma, and a cash award of 11 million Swedish krona (as of 2024).