General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 2025–26 and 2026–27.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Power, in consultation with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), has notified the Greenhouse Gases Emission Intensity Target Rules to establish a structured pathway for reducing industrial emissions in India.
• These rules specifically define the emission intensity targets for the compliance years 2025–26 and 2026–27. This period marks the initial phase of mandatory compliance under the broader Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) launched in 2023.
• The targets are part of the transition of several industrial sectors from the Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme to a comprehensive carbon market mechanism. These rules aim to align industrial output with India's climate commitments.
• Under these rules, Obligated Entities in sectors such as Iron and Steel, Cement, Aluminium, Pulp and Paper, and Petrochemicals are required to limit their greenhouse gas emissions per unit of production.
• The emission intensity is calculated based on tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e) per unit of product, ensuring that even as production scales up, the carbon footprint per unit decreases.

Additional Information

• Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS):
• Launched under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (as amended in 2022), the CCTS is designed to create a domestic carbon market in India to incentivize Greenhouse Gas (GHG) reduction.
• Entities that exceed their targets can earn Carbon Credit Certificates (CCCs), while those failing to meet them must purchase credits from the market to remain compliant.
• Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE):
• The BEE serves as the administrator for the Indian Carbon Market (ICM). It is responsible for developing the trajectories, monitoring emissions, and maintaining the registry of Carbon Credit Certificates.
• The National Steering Committee for Indian Carbon Market (NSCICM), chaired by the Secretary of the Ministry of Power and the Secretary of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, provides oversight.
• International Commitments:
• These rules are a critical step toward achieving India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement, which includes reducing the emission intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 compared to 2005 levels.
• This initiative also supports India's long-term goal of achieving Net Zero emissions by the year 2070, as announced at COP26 in Glasgow.
• Greenhouse Gases Covered:
• The rules track various GHGs beyond just carbon dioxide, including Methane (CH4), Nitrous Oxide (N2O), Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6), all converted to a CO2 equivalent value.

The correct answer is New York Athletic Club.

Key Points

• The AAU James E. Sullivan Award ceremony for the year 2025 was hosted at the New York Athletic Club (NYAC), located in Manhattan, New York City.
• This event marks the 95^th anniversary of the award, which has been presented annually since 1930 by the Amateur Athletic Union (AAU).
• The New York Athletic Club is a historic venue that has a long-standing relationship with the AAU, frequently serving as the site for this prestigious presentation due to its deep roots in American amateur sports.
• The ceremony honors the most outstanding amateur athlete in the United States, evaluating candidates not only on their athletic prowess but also on their character, leadership, and sportsmanship.
• Finalists for the 2025 award represent a diverse range of sports, including collegiate athletics, Olympic disciplines, and youth sports programs across the United States.

Additional Information

• History of the Award:
• The award was established in 1930 and named after James E. Sullivan, one of the primary founders of the Amateur Athletic Union and a former president of the organization.
• The inaugural winner was the legendary golfer Bobby Jones, who set the standard for the type of excellence and integrity the award seeks to recognize.
• The New York Athletic Club (NYAC):
• Founded in 1868, the NYAC is one of the world's premier private athletic clubs. Its members have collectively won over 270 Olympic medals.
• The City House, located at 180 Central Park South, is the primary location for high-profile galas and award ceremonies like the Sullivan Award.
• Selection Process:
• The winner is determined through a voting process that includes the AAU Sullivan Award Executive Committee, previous winners, members of the national media, and a public fan vote.
• This multi-tiered voting system ensures that the recipient is widely recognized as the premier amateur athlete of the year.
• Legacy of Winners:
• Notable past recipients include Wilma Rudolph (Track and Field), Carl Lewis (Track and Field), Peyton Manning (Football), Michael Phelps (Swimming), and Caitlin Clark (Basketball).
• Winning the Sullivan Award is often considered the highest honor an amateur athlete can receive in the United States, comparable to the "Oscar" of the amateur sporting world.

Important Points

• The Amateur Athletic Union (AAU) was founded in 1888 and is one of the largest non-profit volunteer sports organizations in the United States, dedicated to the promotion and development of amateur sports and physical fitness programs.
• The Sullivan Award is unique because it transcends individual sports, allowing a gymnast to compete against a wrestler or a basketball player for the same title based on their overall impact on society and their sport.
• The 2025 ceremony continues the tradition of highlighting the importance of amateurism in an era where professional and collegiate sports landscapes are rapidly changing with NIL (Name, Image, and Likeness) regulations.

The correct answer is Dachigam National Park.

Key Points

• In the assessment conducted by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) released in June 2025, Dachigam National Park achieved an exceptional Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) score of 92.97%.
• This score places it as one of the top two performing protected areas in the country, reflecting outstanding administrative and ecological management.
• The MEE process is a globally recognized tool used to evaluate the management of National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries, focusing on design, appropriateness, and delivery of conservation objectives.
• The evaluation highlights the park's success in habitat restoration, wildlife protection, and community engagement programs within the Jammu and Kashmir region.
• The high performance in the 2025 cycle underscores the efficiency of the Department of Wildlife Protection in maintaining the fragile Himalayan ecosystem.

Additional Information

• Dachigam National Park:
• Located in the Zabarwan Range of the Himalayas, approximately 22 kilometers from Srinagar.
• It was established in 1910 as a protected area and was later declared a National Park in 1981.
• The name Dachigam signifies "Ten Villages," referring to the relocation of ten villages to establish the park.
• It is the primary habitat of the Hangul (also known as the Kashmiri Stag), which is Critically Endangered and the State Animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Other Protected Areas Mentioned:
• Ranthambore National Park: Located in Rajasthan, it is one of the most prominent Tiger Reserves in India, known for its significant Bengal Tiger population.
• Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP): Located in Himachal Pradesh, it was established in 1984 and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized for its high-altitude biodiversity.
• Nanda Devi National Park: Situated in Uttarakhand, it is part of the Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks UNESCO World Heritage Site and surrounds the peak of Nanda Devi.

Important Points

• Wildlife Institute of India (WII): An autonomous institution under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), established in 1982 and headquartered in Dehradun.
• MEE Parameters: The evaluation uses a framework of 30 indicators across six elements: context, planning, inputs, process, outputs, and outcomes.
• Conservation Success: The 92.97% score is a testament to the rigorous anti-poaching measures and scientific monitoring techniques implemented to protect the alpine and sub-alpine forests.
• Flora and Fauna: Apart from the Hangul, the park hosts Himalayan Black Bear, Leopards, and rare birds like the Monal Pheasant and Crimson Tragopan.

The correct answer is Vancouver, March 30.

Key Points

• The 54^th annual Juno Awards are scheduled to be held on March 30, 2025. This date marks the culmination of Juno Week, which features various musical events and showcases.
• The prestigious ceremony will take place in Vancouver, British Columbia. This city was selected to highlight the vibrant music scene of the West Coast. Hence, the combination of Vancouver and March 30 is correct.
• The primary venue for the awards broadcast is Rogers Arena, a major sports and entertainment hub in Vancouver. It has previously hosted numerous high-profile international events and concerts.
• It has been officially announced that Nelly Furtado, the celebrated Canadian singer-songwriter, will return to host the 2025 ceremony, following her successful hosting stint in 2024.
• The event is produced by Insight Productions in association with The Canadian Academy of Recording Arts and Sciences (CARAS) and will be broadcast across Canada on CBC and CBC Gem.

Additional Information

• History and Nomenclature: The awards were established in 1970 as the Gold Leaf Awards. They were renamed the Juno Awards in 1971 to honor Pierre Juneau, the first chairperson of the CRTC and a key advocate for Canadian content regulations.
• CARAS: The Canadian Academy of Recording Arts and Sciences is the governing body that administers the awards. Its mission is to promote and celebrate Canadian music and artists on both national and international stages.
• Hosting Legacy: Vancouver has a long history with the ceremony, having previously hosted the event in 1991, 1998, 2009, and 2018. The 2025 edition marks the fifth time the city has served as the host.
• Category Scope: The Juno Awards feature over 40 categories, ranging from Artist of the Year and Album of the Year to specialized genres such as Reggae Recording of the Year and Traditional Roots Album of the Year.
• Juno Week Events: Leading up to the main telecast, Juno Week includes the Juno Cup (a celebrity hockey game), Juno Fest, and the Juno Songwriters' Circle, which benefit MusiCounts, a music education charity.

Important Points

• Economic Impact: Hosting the Juno Awards typically generates significant economic activity for the host city. In previous years, the event has contributed over $10 million to the local economy through tourism, hospitality, and event production.
• The MusiCounts Initiative: A portion of the proceeds from Juno events goes to MusiCounts, which helps provide musical instruments and equipment to schools and communities across Canada.
• Previous Host: The 2024 Juno Awards were held in Halifax, Nova Scotia, on March 24, 2024, where artists like Tate McRae and Charlotte Cardin were major winners.
• Nomination Process: Eligibility for the 2025 awards generally requires recordings to have been released during the eligibility period, typically spanning from September of the previous year to November of the current year$.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The first edition of the ‘Rising North East’ Investors Summit was held in New Delhi in 2025.
• The summit was organized by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER) in collaboration with industry partners to attract domestic and international investments to North East India.
• The primary objective of the event was to showcase the untapped economic potential of the eight North Eastern states, highlighting them as the new engine of India's growth.
• The summit provided a strategic platform for investors, policymakers, and state governments to interact and discuss projects in sectors such as infrastructure, renewable energy, and tourism.
• The event emphasizes the government's commitment to the 'Act East Policy', aiming to integrate the North Eastern Region (NER) with the economies of South East Asia.

Additional Information

• Significance of the North Eastern Region (NER):
• The NER comprises Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi has often referred to these states as 'Ashtalakshmi', symbolizing the eight forms of prosperity that the region brings to India.
• The region is strategically important as it shares international borders with Bhutan, China, Myanmar, and Bangladesh.
• Key Investment Sectors:
• Agri-Horticulture: The region is a global hub for organic farming, particularly for ginger, turmeric, and exotic fruits.
• Connectivity: Significant investments are being made in railway expansion, air connectivity (UDAN scheme), and national highways to reduce the geographical isolation of the region.
• Tourism: With its diverse ethnic cultures and biodiversity hotspots, the region offers immense potential for eco-tourism and adventure tourism.
• Government Initiatives:
• PM-DevINE: The Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North Eastern Region is a central scheme aimed at funding infrastructure and social development projects.
• North East Industrial Development Scheme (NEIDS): This scheme provides incentives to MSMEs and large industries to set up units in the region, including income tax exemptions and capital investment subsidies.

Important Points

• Venue Details: The summit in New Delhi was held at Bharat Mandapam, which serves as a premier venue for high-level international summits and exhibitions in the National Capital.
• Focus on Sustainability: A major theme of the 2025 summit was Sustainable Development, ensuring that industrial growth in the North East does not compromise the region's fragile ecology.
• International Collaboration: Delegations from Japan and ASEAN countries often participate in such summits due to their existing investment interests in road projects and cross-border trade in the region.

The correct answer is Lower-middle income economies.

Key Points

• According to the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2025, India continues to be a global leader in innovation among lower-middle income economies, securing the 1^st rank within this specific income group.
• The index is published annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), a specialized agency of the United Nations based in Geneva, Switzerland.
• In addition to its income group leadership, India also holds the top position in the Central and Southern Asia region, a rank it has maintained for several consecutive years.
• The GII 2025 report highlights that India is one of the few emerging economies that consistently performs above expectations relative to its level of economic development. Hence, the statement regarding its rank in the lower-middle income group is correct.
• India's performance is particularly strong in indicators such as ICT services exports, venture capital received, and the quality of its universities.

Additional Information

• Global Innovation Index (GII): It is a comprehensive tool used by policymakers and business leaders to assess the innovation landscape of roughly 130+ economies. It was first launched in 2007 to determine how to measure innovation beyond traditional metrics like R&D spending.
• Structure of GII: The index is calculated based on the average of two sub-indices: the Innovation Input Sub-Index (which measures elements of the economy that enable innovation) and the Innovation Output Sub-Index (which measures the actual results of innovation activities).
• The Seven Pillars: The GII framework relies on seven pillars: Institutions, Human capital and research, Infrastructure, Market sophistication, Business sophistication, Knowledge and technology outputs, and Creative outputs.
• World Bank Income Classifications: The World Bank divides economies into four groups based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita: Low-income, Lower-middle income, Upper-middle income, and High-income. India falls into the lower-middle income category.
• Growth Trajectory: India has shown remarkable progress in the GII over the last decade, jumping from the 81^st rank in 2015 to within the top 40 globally by 2024-2025, driven by the Startup India initiative and digital transformations.

Important Points

• Key Strengths: India ranks 1^st globally in ICT services exports as a percentage of total trade. It also shows high performance in domestic market scale and science and engineering graduates.
• Innovation Overperformers: WIPO identifies countries that perform better on innovation than their GDP would suggest as "Innovation Achievers." India has held this status for over 13 consecutive years.
• Regional Impact: India's innovation ecosystem, centered around hubs like Bengaluru, Delhi, and Mumbai, significantly influences the Central and Southern Asian innovation trends, encouraging neighboring countries to invest more in intellectual property and tech-startups.
• Policy Drivers: Major government schemes such as Digital India, the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), and the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 are cited as critical drivers for the improvement in India’s global innovation standing.

The correct answer is Article 114.

Key Points

• The Appropriation Bill (No.2), 2025 is passed in Parliament under the provisions of Article 114 of the Constitution of India.
• Article 114 mandates that no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law passed in accordance with the provisions of this article.
• The Appropriation Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha only after the Demands for Grants have been voted upon and passed by the house as per Article 113.
• This specific bill, Appropriation Bill (No.2), 2025, authorizes the Government of India to utilize funds for the Financial Year 2025-26 to meet the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund and the grants made by the Lok Sabha.
• The passage of this bill is a critical step in the Budgetary Process, as it provides the legal authority to the Executive to spend the money allocated in the Union Budget.

Additional Information

• Article 118:
• This article empowers each House of Parliament to make rules for regulating its procedure and the conduct of its business.
• It also provides for the President, after consultation with the Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker of the House of the People, to make rules as to the procedure with respect to joint sittings.
• Article 117:
• It deals with Special Provisions as to Financial Bills. It stipulates that Financial Bills (Category I) cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha and require the recommendation of the President for introduction.
• It distinguishes between Money Bills (Article 110) and other Financial Bills.
• Article 119:
• This article allows Parliament to regulate by law the procedure in relation to financial business to ensure the timely completion of such business.
• If any provision of law made under this article is inconsistent with the rules made by a House of Parliament, the law prevails.
• Consolidated Fund of India:
• Established under Article 266(1), it is the fund into which all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised, and all moneys received in repayment of loans are credited.
• Expenditure from this fund requires Parliamentary authorization through an Appropriation Act.

Important Points

• The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after it receives the assent of the President of India.
• The Government cannot withdraw even a single rupee from the Consolidated Fund for its operational requirements without the enactment of this law.
• In the Indian Parliamentary system, the Appropriation Bill is classified as a Money Bill, meaning the Rajya Sabha has limited powers and can only recommend changes within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept.
• The Year 2025 marks the continuation of fiscal management where Appropriation (No. 2) usually follows the Vote on Account or acts as the main spending authorization for the Full Budget.

The correct answer is Kochi, Kerala.

Key Points

• The 5^th edition of the Lok Samvardhan Parv was organized by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India, in 2025.
• The event was hosted in the city of Kochi, Kerala, specifically held at the iconic Marine Drive Ground from February 14 to February 23, 2025.
• This initiative is designed to provide a national platform for artisans, craftsmen, and culinary experts belonging to minority communities to showcase and sell their traditional indigenous products.
• The 5^th edition in Kochi emphasized the theme of “Vikas Bhi, Virasat Bhi” (Development along with Heritage), focusing on the preservation of India's rich cultural diversity while promoting economic growth.
• The fair featured over 300 artisans from more than 30 States and Union Territories, displaying a wide array of handicrafts, handlooms, and traditional heritage products.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Minority Affairs:
• The Ministry of Minority Affairs was carved out of the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment and created on January 29, 2006.
• It acts as the nodal agency for the overall policy, planning, coordination, evaluation, and review of the regulatory and development programs for minority communities including Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains.
• As of 2025, the ministry is led by the Union Minister Kiren Rijiju, who has emphasized the socio-economic empowerment of these communities through skill development.
• PM VIKAS Scheme:
• The Lok Samvardhan Parv is an integral part of the Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) scheme.
• PM VIKAS is a central sector scheme that aims to improve the livelihoods of artisans and minority communities through skill development, education, and entrepreneurship.
• It converges five erstwhile schemes of the Ministry: Seekho aur Kamao, USTTAD, Hamari Dharohar, Nai Roshni, and Nai Manzil.
• Economic Impact and Digital Integration:
• The event significantly contributes to the employment generation of traditional craftsmen, providing them with direct access to urban markets without the interference of middlemen.
• To further enhance reach, many products displayed at Lok Samvardhan Parv are integrated with the GeM (Government e-Marketplace) portal, allowing artisans to sell their products to government departments and global audiences digitally.
• The fair also features “Bawarchikhana,” a dedicated section for traditional Indian cuisines, which promotes the culinary heritage of different regions of India.

Important Points

• Host City Significance: Kochi, known as the “Queen of the Arabian Sea,” was chosen to highlight the cultural confluence of South India and to provide a gateway for artisans to tap into the thriving tourism and trade market of Kerala.
• Vocal for Local: The event is a practical implementation of the Hon'ble Prime Minister's vision of ‘Vocal for Local’ and ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ (Self-reliant India).
• Cultural Programs: Apart from commerce, the Lok Samvardhan Parv in Kochi featured daily cultural performances by renowned artists, showcasing Ghazals, folk dances, and classical music, thereby fostering a spirit of ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’.

The correct answer is Hindutva: Who is a Hindu?.

Key Points

• The book titled Hindutva: Who is a Hindu? was authored by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (popularly known as Veer Savarkar) and was published in 1923.
• The book was written while Savarkar was imprisoned in Ratnagiri jail and under internment; it was initially published under the pseudonym 'A Maratha' to avoid British censorship.
• In this work, Savarkar systematically defined the concept of Hindutva as an all-encompassing political and cultural identity, distinct from the religious rituals of Hinduism.
• Savarkar's birth anniversary falls on 28^th May; the year 2025 commemorates his 142^nd birth anniversary, as he was born in 1883 in the village of Bhagur, Nashik district, Maharashtra.
• The core thesis of the book posits that a Hindu is anyone who considers India (Bharatvarsha) as their Pitribhu (Fatherland) and Punyabhu (Holy land). Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• My Experiments with Truth:
• This is the autobiography of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi (Mahatma Gandhi).
• It was originally written in Gujarati and published as a series in his journal Navjivan between 1925 and 1929.
• The book covers Gandhi's life from his childhood in Porbandar to the year 1921, focusing on his spiritual and moral development.
• The Discovery of India:
• Written by Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.
• It was written during his imprisonment at Ahmednagar Fort between 1942 and 1945 following the Quit India Movement.
• The book provides a comprehensive analysis of Indian history, philosophy, and culture from the Indus Valley Civilization to the British Raj.
• India Wins Freedom:
• This is an autobiographical account by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and India's first Education Minister.
• The book offers an insider's view of the Indian Independence movement, the Partition of India, and Azad's personal views on the political leaders of that era.

Important Points

• Revolutionary Contributions: Veer Savarkar founded the secret society Abhinav Bharat Society in 1904 to promote armed rebellion against British rule.
• 1857 War of Independence: He authored another famous book, The Indian War of Independence 1857, in which he was among the first to describe the 1857 uprising as the "First War of Independence" rather than a mere sepoy mutiny.
• Cellular Jail: For his revolutionary activities, he was sentenced to two life terms (50 years) and sent to the Cellular Jail (Kala Pani) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in 1911.
• Political Leadership: He served as the President of the Hindu Mahasabha from 1937 to 1943, where he advocated for the rights of the Hindu community and a militarized India.

The correct answer is Target Olympic Podium Scheme.

Key Points

• The Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) was launched in September 2014 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS). Its primary objective is to identify and provide support to India’s elite athletes to help them achieve podium finishes at the Olympic Games and Paralympic Games. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The scheme was significantly revamped in April 2018 to establish a more robust technical support team and provide holistic assistance to athletes, including customized training programs and international exposure.
• It provides a monthly Out-of-Pocket Allowance (OPA) of Rs. 50,000 to athletes in the Core Group and Rs. 25,000 to those in the Development Group to cover daily incidental expenses.
• As of 2025, the scheme continues to be the flagship initiative for high-performance sports in India, focusing on upcoming major events like the 2028 Los Angeles Olympics.
• The Mission Olympic Cell (MOC) is a dedicated body under this scheme that evaluates athlete performance and approves financial assistance for training, equipment, and travel.

Additional Information

• Come and Play Scheme:
• This initiative was launched by the Sports Authority of India (SAI) in 2011.
• Its main focus is on grassroots development and encouraging the general public and youth to utilize the various sports facilities available at SAI centers across the country.
• It is not specifically designed for elite-level Olympic or Paralympic podium training. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Go and Play Scheme:
• There is no official government-recognized initiative named the "Go and Play Scheme" for Olympic training; it is often used as a distractor for the "Come and Play Scheme." Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• National Sports Fund (National Sports Development Fund - NSDF):
• The NSDF was established in 1998 under the Charitable Endowments Act, 1890.
• Its purpose is to mobilize resources from government, non-government, and private sectors for the promotion of sports in India.
• While the NSDF provides the financial backing for various programs including TOPS, it is a funding mechanism rather than the specific training initiative for elite athletes. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

• Mission Olympic Cell (MOC): A specialized committee chaired by the Director General of SAI that meets frequently to clear proposals for foreign training, procurement of high-end equipment, and hiring of personal coaches or physiotherapists.
• Khelo India Programme: Launched in 2018, this program works alongside TOPS to identify talent at a young age and provide a scholarship of Rs. 5 lakh per annum for eight years to talented players.
• Elite Athlete Support: Under TOPS, the government bears the entire cost of international competitions, sports science support, and medical insurance for the selected athletes.
• Focus Areas: The scheme prioritizes sports where India has a high potential for medals, such as Wrestling, Boxing, Shooting, Archery, Badminton, and Athletics.

The correct answer is ₹2,000 crores.

Key Points

• The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, in its 2025 report, estimated a significant revenue loss of ₹2,000 crores to the Delhi Government due to irregularities in the Excise Policy 2021-22.
• The report detailed that the loss was a direct result of improper implementation, including the waiver of license fees and the lack of competitive bidding in several zones.
• According to the CAG, the policy, which was intended to increase revenue by 9,500 crores annually, failed to meet its targets due to administrative lapses and procedural violations.
• The 2025 audit specifically highlighted that the decision to provide relief to liquor licensees during the COVID-19 pandemic was done without the necessary statutory approvals, contributing to the ₹2,000 crore shortfall.
• The findings of the CAG serve as a primary document for the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) to review the financial conduct of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.

Additional Information

• Delhi Excise Policy 2021-22:
• The policy was introduced in November 2021 with the aim of ending the government liquor trade and handing over the entire retail sector to private players.
• It divided Delhi into 32 zones, where each zone was auctioned to private bidders for a high license fee.
• The policy was eventually withdrawn by the Delhi Cabinet in July 2022 after the Lieutenant Governor (LG) recommended a CBI investigation into its formulation and execution.
• The Role of CAG:
• The Comptroller and Auditor General is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India.
• The CAG is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Union and State Governments, including those with Legislative Assemblies like Delhi.
• The reports of the CAG are submitted to the President or Governor (or LG in case of UTs) to be laid before the Parliament or State Legislature.
• Agencies Involved in Investigation:
• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) filed the initial FIR regarding the scam, focusing on corruption and undue favors to licensees.
• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) investigated the money laundering aspect, alleging that a "South Group" provided kickbacks worth ₹100 crores to political leaders.

Important Points

• Statutory Framework: The liquor trade in the capital is governed by the Delhi Excise Act, 2009 and the Delhi Excise Rules, 2010. Any deviation from these rules constitutes a legal violation.
• Revenue Components: The government revenue from liquor primarily comes from Excise Duty, Value Added Tax (VAT), and License Fees. The 2021-22 policy attempted to shift the bulk of revenue to upfront license fees.
• Impact of the Scam: The controversy led to the arrest of high-ranking officials and politicians in 2023 and 2024, making it one of the most high-profile financial scams in recent Indian history.
• The 2025 Report Significance: The CAG report mentioned in the question provides the final audited figure of the financial damage, distinguishing it from the initial estimates provided by the Chief Secretary of Delhi in 2022.

The correct answer is Approval to commence reinsurance business.

Key Points

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) granted the R2 License to Valueattics Reinsurance in March 2025, marking a significant milestone for the entity in the Indian insurance sector.
• An R2 License serves as the second and final stage of the registration process for reinsurance companies in India, effectively acting as the Certificate of Registration that allows the company to commence reinsurance business operations. Hence, the correct answer is Approval to commence reinsurance business.
• The granting of this license implies that Valueattics Reinsurance has met the rigorous regulatory requirements regarding capital adequacy, business plan viability, and management expertise as mandated by the IRDAI.
• With this approval, the company is authorized to accept risks from direct insurers (primary insurance companies), helping them manage their solvency margins and risk exposure.
• The entry of new players like Valueattics Reinsurance into the reinsurance market is intended to increase the reinsurance capacity within India, reducing the dependence on foreign reinsurers and curbing capital outflow from the country.

Additional Information

• IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India):
• It is a statutory body formed under the IRDA Act, 1999, following the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee.
• Headquartered in Hyderabad (shifted from Delhi in 2001), its primary mission is to protect the interests of policyholders and regulate the orderly growth of the insurance industry.
• Understanding Reinsurance:
• Reinsurance is often described as "insurance for insurance companies." It allows primary insurers to transfer a portion of their risk portfolio to a reinsurer to protect against catastrophic losses.
• Key functions of reinsurance include risk distribution, taxation benefits, stabilizing loss experience, and increasing the underwriting capacity of the primary insurer.
• The Registration Process (R1 to R3):
• The IRDAI follows a phased licensing approach: R1 is the preliminary "In-principle" approval, and R2 is the formal registration for business commencement.
• For foreign reinsurance branches (FRBs), there may be additional stages or specific classifications like R3 depending on the operational scope and retrocession permissions.
• Regulatory Framework:
• All reinsurance operations in India are governed by the Insurance Act, 1938 and various IRDAI (Reinsurance) Regulations issued periodically.
• Companies must maintain a solvency ratio of at least 1.5 to ensure they have enough capital to pay out claims even during financial distress.

Important Points

• Valueattics Reinsurance is expected to contribute to the Indian government's vision of making India a global reinsurance hub, similar to London or Singapore.
• The minimum paid-up equity capital for a reinsurer in India is typically Rs. 200 Crore, significantly higher than the Rs. 100 Crore required for life or general insurance companies.
• In the Indian market, GIC Re (General Insurance Corporation of India) remains the largest player and holds the "Right of First Refusal" on certain reinsurance business, though the market is becoming increasingly competitive with private and foreign entrants.

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

• Max Verstappen, representing Oracle Red Bull Racing, secured a dominant victory at the 2025 Japanese Grand Prix. This win was a pivotal moment in the 2025 Formula 1 season, reinforcing his status as a leading contender for the World Drivers' Championship.
• The race took place at the Suzuka International Racing Course, which is the only "figure-eight" layout on the FIA calendar. Verstappen's mastery of the high-speed S-Curves and the 130R corner was instrumental in his success.
• The 2025 victory showcased the continued technical synergy between Red Bull Racing and Honda RBPT (Red Bull Powertrains). The car's aerodynamic efficiency allowed Verstappen to maintain a significant lead over rivals from Ferrari and Mercedes throughout the 53 laps.
• Strategic excellence from the pit wall, led by Team Principal Christian Horner, ensured that Verstappen executed a flawless two-stop strategy, adapting perfectly to the track temperatures in Japan during the April race window.
• With this win, Max Verstappen added another trophy to his extensive collection, marking one of his most convincing performances of the 2025 calendar year.

Additional Information

• The Japanese Grand Prix History:
• The event first appeared on the Formula 1 schedule in 1976 at Fuji Speedway.
• Since 1987, the Suzuka Circuit has been the primary home for the race, known for its intense technical difficulty and passionate local fanbase.
• Historically, Japan has been the site where many World Championships have been decided due to its traditional slot late in the October season, though it was moved to April starting in 2024 to promote sustainability through regional "clustering" of races.
• Max Verstappen's Profile:
• Born in Hasselt, Belgium, on September 30, 1997, Verstappen competes under the Dutch flag.
• He made his Formula 1 debut in 2015 with Toro Rosso at just 17 years old, becoming the youngest driver in the history of the sport.
• By 2025, he had already secured multiple World Drivers' Titles (consecutively from 2021 to 2024), placing him among the all-time greats like Michael Schumacher and Lewis Hamilton.
• Other 2025 Grand Prix Locations:
• Bahrain: Usually hosts the season opener at the Sakhir circuit, characterized by night racing and desert conditions.
• Spain: Held at the Circuit de Barcelona-Catalunya, a track frequently used for testing due to its mix of high and low-speed sectors.
• China: The Shanghai International Circuit returned to prominence in the mid-2020s, featuring one of the longest straights on the F1 calendar.
• Technical Regulations: The 2025 season represented the final year of the current ground-effect aerodynamic regulations before the major 2026 engine and chassis rule changes, allowing teams like Red Bull to reach the peak of their development cycle.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The state of Assam launched a revised and comprehensive Flood Hazard Zonation Atlas in mid-June 2025 to strengthen its disaster management capabilities.
• This atlas was primarily developed by the Assam State Disaster Management Authority (ASDMA) in collaboration with the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) under the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The primary objective of this tool is to provide a detailed spatial analysis of areas that are chronically affected by floods, utilizing satellite imagery and historical data spanning several decades.
• It serves as a decision-support system for government departments to plan infrastructure, such as embankments, roads, and bridges, in a manner that accounts for periodic inundation risks.
• By identifying high-risk zones, the state aims to improve the efficiency of rescue operations and the distribution of relief materials during the monsoon season.

Additional Information

• Geographical Vulnerability:
• Assam is located in the Brahmaputra and Barak river valleys, making it one of the most flood-prone regions in India.
• The Brahmaputra River is known for its high sediment load and tendency to change course, leading to severe riverbank erosion and annual flooding.
• Role of Technology in Disaster Management:
• Modern tools include Geographic Information Systems (GIS) and Remote Sensing, which allow for real-time monitoring of water levels and catchment area precipitation.
• The Flood Hazard Zonation Atlas categorizes regions into different hazard levels, ranging from very high to low, based on the frequency of flooding.
• Comparison with Other States:
• Bihar: Highly vulnerable to floods due to the Kosi River, often referred to as the "Sorrow of Bihar." The state also utilizes satellite-based mapping for the Gangetic plains.
• Kerala: Faced catastrophic floods in 2018 and 2019, leading to the adoption of advanced Inundation Modeling and early warning systems for its 44 rivers.
• Karnataka: Experiences riverine floods in the Krishna and Cauvery basins and urban flooding in cities like Bengaluru.

Important Points

• Legal and Institutional Framework:
• The Disaster Management Act, 2005 mandates the creation of state and district-level authorities to mitigate the impact of natural calamities.
• The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) and National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) provide the necessary financial backing for rehabilitation and reconstruction.
• Significance for Agriculture:
• The atlas is vital for the Agriculture Department to advise farmers on crop cycles and to promote the use of submergence-tolerant rice varieties in flood-prone areas of Assam.
• It helps in assessing crop damage accurately for insurance claims under schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY).

The correct answer is 74%.

Key Points

• As of May 2025, the Government of India permits Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the defense sector up to 74% through the Automatic Route for companies seeking new industrial licenses.
• This significant policy shift was formalized through Press Note 4 (2020 Series) issued by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) in September 2020, aimed at boosting local manufacturing.
• For investments exceeding 74%, the Government Route is applicable, allowing up to 100% FDI where it is likely to result in access to modern technology or for other reasons to be recorded by the government.
• The policy stipulates that any foreign investment in the defense sector is subject to Security Clearance by the Ministry of Home Affairs and as per the guidelines of the Ministry of Defence.
• The liberalization of FDI limits is a core component of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Mission), designed to encourage Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) to set up production facilities within India.

Additional Information

• Evolution of FDI in Defense:
• In 2001, the defense sector was first opened to private participation with an FDI cap of 26%.
• The limit was increased to 49% under the Automatic Route in 2014 to stimulate the Make in India initiative.
• The current 74% limit serves to provide foreign investors with management control, thereby incentivizing the transfer of high-end technology to Indian subsidiaries.
• Automatic vs. Government Route:
• The Automatic Route signifies that the foreign investor or the Indian company does not require any prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or the Government of India for the investment.
• The Government Route (or Approval Route) requires prior clearance from the concerned administrative ministry, which in this case is the Ministry of Defence.
• Regulatory Framework:
• Defense manufacturing is primarily regulated under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 and the Arms Act, 1959.
• All foreign investments are subject to National Security clauses, allowing the government to review any investment that may affect the sovereignty and integrity of the nation.
• Sectoral Impact:
• The increase to 74% has facilitated major global firms like Safran, Lockheed Martin, and Boeing to explore deeper collaborations with Indian partners.
• It aims to reduce the Defense Import Bill, as India has historically been one of the world's largest importers of major arms.

Important Points

• Fresh Industrial Licenses: The 74% automatic limit is specifically applicable to companies seeking New Industrial Licenses. Existing licensees seeking to infuse fresh foreign investment up to 49% must follow specific declaration protocols.
• Review Authority: The Department of Defence Production (DDP) functions as the nodal agency for processing cases under the Government Route and monitors the Indigenization progress.
• Equity Cap: While the 74% route is automatic, the government maintains the right to scrutinize any investment on the grounds of Security, ensuring that the control of critical defense infrastructure remains transparent.

The correct answer is Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• The second phase of the Khelo India Winter Games 2025 was officially held in the world-famous ski resort of Gulmarg, located in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir.
• This phase of the multi-sport event took place in February 2025, following the successful completion of the first phase held earlier in the year.
• The competition in Gulmarg featured high-intensity winter sports disciplines, including Alpine Skiing, Snowboarding, Nordic Skiing, and Ski Mountaineering, attracting top athletes from across the country.
• The Jammu and Kashmir Sports Council, in collaboration with the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, spearheaded the organization to promote winter tourism and professional sports in the region.
• The games serve as a platform to identify talent for representing India in international arenas like the Asian Winter Games and the Winter Olympics.
• Hence, the correct answer is Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir.

Additional Information

• Phase 1 of KIWG 2025:
• The first phase of the 2025 edition was conducted in Leh, Ladakh.
• It primarily focused on ice-based sports such as Ice Hockey, Figure Skating, and Speed Skating.
• Mascot of the Games:
• The official mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games 2025 is 'Sheen-e-She' (or Shan), which is a Snow Leopard.
• This mascot symbolizes the biodiversity of the Himalayas and the resilience required for winter sports.
• Infrastructure and Location:
• Gulmarg is situated at an altitude of approximately 2,650 meters and is home to the Gulmarg Gondola, one of the highest cable cars in the world.
• The region provides ideal conditions for winter sports due to its heavy snowfall and naturally groomed slopes like the Kongdoori and Apharwat peaks.
• Participating Entities:
• Athletes representing various States, Union Territories, and organizations like the Indian Army (HAWS - High Altitude Warfare School) and ITBP participate in these games.

Important Points

• Growth of Winter Sports: Since the inaugural edition in 2020, the Khelo India Winter Games have significantly increased the popularity of niche sports like Curling and Ice Skating in India.
• Economic Impact: Hosting these games helps boost the economy of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh by promoting sports tourism during the peak winter months.
• Youth Engagement: Under the Khelo India initiative, the government provides financial assistance and world-class coaching to selected athletes through Khelo India State Centres of Excellence (KISCE).
• Historical Context: Gulmarg has hosted the majority of the KIWG editions (including 2020, 2021, 2023, and 2024), establishing itself as the winter sports capital of India.

The correct answer is Dhanush.

Key Points

• The Agnibaan - SOrTeD (Sub-Orbital Technological Demonstrator) mission was successfully launched on 30 May 2024.
• It was launched from Dhanush, which is India's first private launchpad, established by the space startup Agnikul Cosmos.
• The Dhanush launchpad is located within the premises of the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC SHAR) in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
• This mission marked a significant milestone as it was the first-ever launch from a private launchpad in India and featured the world's first single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine, named Agnilet.
• The flight was a sub-orbital mission, designed to test the flight systems and the 3D-printed engine technology before full-scale orbital launches.

Additional Information

• Agnikul Cosmos:
• It is an IIT Madras-incubated space startup founded in 2017 by Srinath Ravichandran and Moin SPM.
• The company focuses on developing cost-effective and customizable launch vehicles for small satellites.
• In 2022, Agnikul inaugurated India's first private launchpad and mission control center at Sriharikota.
• Agnilet Engine:
• The Agnilet is a semi-cryogenic engine that uses Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Kerosene as propellants.
• It is unique because it is entirely 3D-printed as a single piece of hardware, significantly reducing the number of components and assembly time.
• Regulatory Framework:
• The launch was supported by IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre) and ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation).
• IN-SPACe acts as a single-window nodal agency to promote and authorize private sector participation in the Indian space sector.
• Significance for the Indian Space Sector:
• Following the success of Skyroot Aerospace's Vikram-S in November 2022, the Agnibaan mission further cements India’s position in the global private space industry.
• The use of additive manufacturing (3D printing) in rocket engines showcases India's technological advancements in deep-tech sectors.

Important Points

• The Agnibaan rocket is a customizable, two-stage launch vehicle capable of carrying a payload of up to 100 kg to a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) of about 700 km.
• The SOrTeD mission specifically utilized a single-stage version of the rocket to demonstrate vertical ascent and controlled flight.
• The establishment of private launchpads like Dhanush is part of the Indian Space Policy 2023, which encourages Non-Government Entities (NGEs) to own and operate space infrastructure.

The correct answer is 3.8%.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2024-25, tabled in Parliament in January 2025, projected the growth rate for the Agriculture and Allied Sectors to be 3.8% for the financial year FY 2025.
• This forecast indicates a significant recovery and expansion compared to the previous financial year, FY 2024, where the growth rate was estimated at a lower 1.4% due to erratic weather patterns. Hence, the correct answer is 3.8%.
• The survey attributes this optimistic growth projection to the expectation of a normal monsoon and favorable reservoir levels across the country, which are critical for the Kharif and Rabi sowing seasons.
• The agriculture sector remains a vital pillar of the Indian economy, contributing approximately 18-19% to the Gross Value Added (GVA) and providing a livelihood for nearly 45% of the population.
• The improvement in agricultural output is expected to boost rural demand, which in turn supports the broader recovery of the Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) and automobile sectors.

Additional Information

• Overall GDP Growth Forecast:
• The Economic Survey 2024-25 has projected India’s real GDP growth to be in the range of 6.5% to 7% for FY 2025.
• This growth trajectory maintains India's position as the fastest-growing major economy in the world, supported by strong domestic investment and private consumption.
• Role of the Economic Survey:
• The Economic Survey is a flagship document prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs under the Ministry of Finance.
• It is authored by the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) of India, a position currently held by **Dr.

V. Anantha Nageswaran**.

• The document provides a detailed report card of the economy for the closing financial year and offers insights and outlooks for the upcoming year.
• Focus on Food Inflation:
• The survey highlighted that while headline inflation is moderating, food inflation remains a key area of concern for policymakers.
• Supply-side measures and the expected 3.8% growth in agriculture are seen as essential tools to stabilize the prices of essential commodities like cereals and vegetables.

Important Points

• Structural Reforms in Agriculture:
• The 2024-25 survey emphasizes the need for digitalization in the farming sector through the Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for agriculture.
• It highlights the success of the PM-KISAN scheme, which provides direct income support to 11 crore farmers, ensuring financial stability.
• Credit Growth:
• The Institutional Credit to the agriculture sector has seen a steady rise, with the government setting high targets for Agricultural Credit to ensure farmers have access to affordable loans.
• Capital Expenditure (CapEx):
• A major theme of the January 2025 release is the continuation of high Capital Expenditure by the government, which includes building irrigation facilities, cold chains, and rural roads to support the 3.8% growth target.

The correct answer is Singapore Convention Week 2025.

Key Points

• The Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA), in collaboration with FICCI, organized a significant Symposium-cum-Roundtable titled 'Bridging Markets, Resolving Disputes via ADR in the India–Singapore Corridor'.
• This event was held on the sidelines of the Singapore Convention Week 2025, which is a premier global event dedicated to dispute resolution. Hence, the correct answer is Singapore Convention Week 2025.
• The primary objective of the symposium was to discuss and enhance the use of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanisms to facilitate smoother trade and investment between India and Singapore.
• The event highlighted the growing importance of the Singapore Convention on Mediation and how it provides a robust framework for enforcing international settlement agreements.
• The roundtable brought together legal experts, arbitrators, and corporate leaders to address challenges and opportunities in the India-Singapore economic corridor.

Additional Information

• Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA):
• Established in 1965, the ICA is the apex arbitral institution in India.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and functions as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
• The ICA provides institutional arbitration services and promotes the use of ADR to settle commercial disputes efficiently.
• Singapore Convention Week (SCW):
• Organized annually by the Singapore Ministry of Law, the SCW is a signature event for the international dispute resolution community.
• It serves as a platform for thought leadership and networking among practitioners, government officials, and business executives.
• The week features various sessions on Arbitration, Mediation, and the evolving legal landscape of international commerce.
• The Singapore Convention on Mediation:
• Formally known as the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation.
• It was adopted on December 20, 2018, and opened for signature in Singapore on August 7, 2019.
• India was among the first group of 46 countries to sign the convention, reflecting its commitment to becoming a global hub for commercial dispute resolution.
• ADR Mechanisms:
• Alternative Dispute Resolution refers to methods like Arbitration, Mediation, and Conciliation used to resolve disputes outside the traditional courtroom.
• These methods are preferred in international trade because they are faster, confidential, and allow parties to choose experts as neutrals.
• Effective ADR is a key component of Ease of Doing Business indices, where India and Singapore have consistently worked to improve their rankings.

The correct answer is Manoj Kumar.

Key Points

• Manoj Kumar is a legendary Indian actor, director, and screenwriter who became an iconic figure in Bollywood during the 1960s and 1970s.
• He earned the popular moniker "Bharat Kumar" due to his penchant for acting in and directing films with strong patriotic themes, where his character was often named Bharat.
• The veteran actor-director passed away on 4 April 2025 (as per the provided data), marking the end of a cinematic era dedicated to nationalism and Indian values.
• His significant contribution to cinema was recognized by the Government of India with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2015, which is the highest honor in Indian cinema.
• He is best remembered for his "patriotic trilogy" of films: Shaheed (1965), Upkar (1967), and Purab Aur Paschim (1970).
• Hence, the correct answer is Manoj Kumar.

Additional Information

• Early Life and Background:
• Born as Harikishan Giri Goswami on July 24, 1937, in Abbottabad (then part of British India, now in Pakistan).
• His family migrated to Delhi during the Partition of India in 1947.
• He adopted the screen name Manoj Kumar after being inspired by Dilip Kumar's character in the 1949 film Shabnam.
• Directorial Milestones:
• His directorial debut, Upkar (1967), was produced at the request of Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri to promote the slogan "Jai Jawan Jai Kisan" following the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965.
• In 1974, he directed Roti Kapada Aur Makaan, a massive hit that addressed social issues like unemployment and poverty in India.
• His 1981 film Kranti was another major success that focused on the Indian Independence Movement.
• Awards and Honors:
• He received the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in the year 1992.
• Over his career, he won multiple Filmfare Awards, including Best Actor for Be-Imaan (1972) and Best Director for Upkar.

Important Points

• Analysis of Other Options:
• Amitabh Bachchan: Known as the "Angry Young Man" and "Shahenshah," he was born in 1942 and remains active in the film industry. While he has played patriotic roles, he is not referred to as "Bharat Kumar."
• Dilip Kumar: Often called the "Tragedy King," he was one of the greatest actors in Indian history. He passed away on July 7, 2021, at the age of 98.
• Rajesh Khanna: Recognized as the first "Superstar" of Indian cinema, he was famous for his romantic roles and massive fan following in the late 1960s and early 1970s. He passed away on July 18, 2012.
• Cinematic Style:
• Manoj Kumar's films were unique for blending entertainment with socio-political messages, often contrasting Western materialism with Indian spiritualism and culture.
• His portrayal of Bhagat Singh in Shaheed remains one of the most authentic depictions of the freedom fighter in Indian film history.