General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Adi Karmyogi.

Key Points

• The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched the Adi Karmyogi initiative in 2025 to enhance the administrative efficiency and service delivery of tribal welfare schemes across India.
• The primary objective of Adi Karmyogi is the capacity building and sensitization of officials and personnel working at various levels of the tribal developmental administration, including those in Integrated Tribal Development Agencies (ITDAs).
• The program is designed to provide specialized training to government employees to better understand the unique cultural, social, and geographical challenges faced by tribal communities.
• By fostering a "citizen-centric" approach, the initiative aims to bridge the gap between policy formulation and ground-level implementation of schemes like PM-JANMAN and Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS).
• It focuses on leveraging digital tools and e-learning modules to ensure that the personnel remain updated with the latest guidelines and statutory provisions related to Scheduled Tribes (ST).

Additional Information

• Mission Karmayogi (NPCSCB):
• Adi Karmyogi is an extension of the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), popularly known as Mission Karmayogi, which was launched in September 2020.
• The broader mission aims to transform Indian civil services from "Rule-based" to "Role-based" governance, ensuring civil servants are creative, proactive, and technology-enabled.
• Tribal Population in India:
• According to the 2011 Census, the tribal population constitutes approximately 8.6% of India's total population.
• There are over 700 recognized Scheduled Tribes, with states like Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Maharashtra having significant tribal concentrations.
• Part IX-A and Schedules V and VI of the Constitution of India provide specific administrative frameworks for tribal-dominated areas.
• Other Significant Tribal Schemes:
• PM-JANMAN: Launched to focus on Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), covering 75 such groups across 18 States and 1 Union Territory.
• Van Dhan Vikas Kendras: An initiative targeting livelihood generation for tribal gatherers through value addition of Minor Forest Produce (MFP).
• Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS): Started in 1997-98 to provide quality middle and high-level education to ST students in remote areas.

Important Points

• Training and Sensitization: The Adi Karmyogi initiative emphasizes understanding Tribal Rights, the Forest Rights Act (2006), and the PESA Act (1996) to protect tribal interests during administrative processes.
• Data-Driven Governance: The initiative encourages the use of the Gati Shakti portal and other GIS-based mapping tools to identify infrastructure gaps in tribal hamlets.
• Implementing Agency: The National Institute of Tribal Research (NITR) often plays a pivotal role in designing the curriculum for such capacity-building programs in collaboration with the Capacity Building Commission (CBC).
• Focus on PVTGs: A core component of the 2025 rollout is to ensure that welfare reaches the most marginalized sections within the tribal community who have historically been excluded from mainstream developmental benefits.

The correct answer is Kenya.

Key Points

• In August 2025, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially declared Kenya free of Human African Trypanosomiasis (HAT), popularly known as sleeping sickness.
• This certification marks Kenya as a leader in the East African region for successfully eliminating the disease as a public health problem through decades of sustained surveillance and vector control.
• The disease is caused by parasites of the genus Trypanosoma, which are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected tsetse flies (genus Glossina).
• Kenya predominantly dealt with the rhodesiense form of the parasite (Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense), which is the more acute form found in Eastern and Southern Africa.
• The WHO verification process involved an independent commission that reviewed epidemiological data and surveillance reports covering several years to ensure no new local cases were reported.

Additional Information

• Types of Sleeping Sickness:
• Trypanosoma brucei gambiense: This form is found in 24 countries in West and Central Africa. It accounts for more than 95% of reported cases and causes a chronic infection.
• Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense: This form is found in 13 countries in Eastern and Southern Africa. It represents less than 5% of cases and causes an acute infection that can lead to death within months.
• Transmission and Symptoms:
• The tsetse fly inhabits vegetation along riverbanks and savannah woodlands.
• In the first stage, patients experience fever, headaches, and joint pains. In the second stage, the parasite crosses the blood-brain barrier, leading to neurological disorders, confusion, and disrupted sleep cycles, which gives the disease its name.
• Global Health Context:
• The elimination of sleeping sickness is part of the WHO’s Roadmap for Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) 2021–2030.
• Kenya joins other African nations like Togo, Côte d'Ivoire, and Ghana, which have been previously recognized for eliminating various forms of the disease.

Important Points

• The Ministry of Health in Kenya utilized innovative tools such as Tiny Targets (insecticide-impregnated screens) and mobile diagnostic clinics to reach remote populations.
• The Pan African Tsetse and Trypanosomiasis Eradication Campaign (PATTEC), launched in 2000, played a crucial role in coordinating efforts across borders to manage tsetse fly populations.
• Successful elimination requires multi-sectoral collaboration involving animal health departments, as the rhodesiense form is a zoonotic disease, meaning it can be transmitted from animals to humans.
• By achieving this status in 2025, Kenya has demonstrated the effectiveness of integrating satellite mapping and community-based surveillance in public health strategies.

The correct answer is Bombay High Court.

Key Points

• In September 2025, Justice Shree Chandrashekhar was officially sworn in as the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court, following his appointment by the Government of India.
• Prior to this elevation, Justice Shree Chandrashekhar served as a Judge of the Jharkhand High Court and was later transferred to the Rajasthan High Court, where he also served as the Acting Chief Justice.
• The appointment was finalized by the President of India, exercising powers conferred under Article 217 of the Constitution of India, based on the recommendations of the Supreme Court Collegium headed by the Chief Justice of India.
• The oath of office was administered by the Governor of Maharashtra during a formal ceremony held at the Raj Bhavan in Mumbai.
• As the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court, he leads one of the oldest and most prestigious judicial institutions in the country, which has a sanctioned strength of 94 judges.

Additional Information

• The Bombay High Court:
• It was established on August 14, 1862, under the High Courts Act, 1861. It is one of the three Chartered High Courts in India, along with Calcutta and Madras.
• The jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court extends over the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• The court has permanent benches located at Nagpur and Aurangabad in Maharashtra, and Panaji, the capital of Goa.
• Constitutional Provisions for High Courts:
• Article 214: Stipulates that there shall be a High Court for each State.
• Article 217: States that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State.
• Article 219: Requires every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the Governor of the State.
• Retirement Age: The judges of the High Court hold office until they attain the age of 62 years.

Important Points

• The Collegium System: The selection and transfer of judges in the High Courts and Supreme Court are governed by the Collegium System, a forum of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
• Judicial Qualifications: To be eligible for appointment as a High Court Judge, a person must be a citizen of India and must have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years or been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years.
• Significance of the Bombay High Court: It is renowned for its historical architecture (a UNESCO World Heritage Site part of the Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai) and for delivering landmark judgments that have shaped Indian Jurisprudence.
• Acting Chief Justice: When the office of Chief Justice is vacant, the President may appoint one of the other judges of the court to perform the duties of the office under Article 223.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary, a premier destination for wildlife enthusiasts, officially reopened for the 2025–26 tourist season (following the usual schedule starting in October/November) in the state of Assam.
• It is located in the Morigaon district of Assam and is situated on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River.
• The sanctuary is world-renowned for having the highest density of the Greater One-horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis). Although Kaziranga National Park has a larger total population, Pobitora holds more rhinos per square kilometer.
• Due to its similar landscape of grasslands and wetlands and its significant rhino population, it is popularly known as 'Mini Kaziranga'. Hence, the correct answer is Assam.
• The reopening ceremony is a significant annual event for Assam Tourism, involving local forest officials, traditional Assamese rituals, and the commencement of Jeep and Elephant safaris for visitors.

Additional Information

• Geography and Habitat:
• The sanctuary covers an area of approximately 38.81 square kilometers, out of which the core rhino habitat is only about 16 square kilometers.
• The terrain consists of alluvial grasslands and swamps, which are ideal for the survival and breeding of the Indian rhinoceros.
• Biodiversity:
• Apart from rhinos, it provides shelter to other mammals such as the Wild water buffalo, Leopard, Golden Jackal, and Wild boar.
• It is also an Important Bird Area (IBA), hosting over 2000 migratory birds and various resident species like the Greater Adjutant Stork, Whistling Teal, and Grey-panting Lapwing.
• Conservation History:
• It was first declared a Reserved Forest in 1971 and later upgraded to a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1987 to protect the burgeoning rhino population.
• The sanctuary serves as a critical "backup" habitat; during heavy monsoons when Kaziranga floods, animals often find refuge in the highland areas of Pobitora.

Important Points

• Tourism and Accessibility:
• Pobitora is highly accessible, located only about 45 to 50 kilometers from Guwahati, the gateway to Northeast India.
• The tourist season typically runs from November to April, coinciding with the dry winter months when visibility in the grasslands is highest.
• Other Major Parks in Assam:
• Kaziranga National Park: A UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for rhinos and tigers.
• Manas National Park: Known for its Project Tiger reserve and the Pygy Hog.
• Orang National Park: Another rhino habitat located on the northern bank of the Brahmaputra.
• Raimona and Dehing Patkai: The newest additions to Assam's list of National Parks, established in 2021.

The correct answer is Sanjay Nayar.

Key Points

• Sanjay Nayar has officially taken over as the President of the industry body ASSOCHAM (Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India) for the 2024-25 term.
• He succeeded Ajay Singh, the Chairman and Managing Director of SpiceJet, after the completion of his tenure in March 2024.
• Sanjay Nayar is the Founder and Chairman of Sorin Investments, an early-stage technology-focused fund.
• Before his leadership role at ASSOCHAM, he served as the Senior Vice-President of the chamber, as per the tradition of the organization's succession planning.
• With a career spanning over four decades, he is well-known for his extensive experience in the global financial markets, having served as the CEO of KKR India for 14 years and holding various senior positions at Citigroup for 25 years.

Additional Information

• ASSOCHAM (Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India):
• It is one of the oldest apex trade associations in India, established in 1920.
• The organization is headquartered in New Delhi and represents the interests of more than 4.5 lakh members across diverse sectors.
• It serves as a critical interface between the Government of India and the industry to shape policy and foster a conducive environment for trade and commerce.
• New Office Bearers:
• Along with the President, Sunil Vachani, who is the Executive Chairman of Dixon Technologies, has been appointed as the Senior Vice-President of ASSOCHAM for 2024-25.
• Role in Indian Economy:
• The chamber plays a pivotal role in promoting MSMEs, sustainable development, and innovation through its various councils and initiatives.

Important Points

• Professional Background:
• Sanjay Nayar is a prominent figure in the Private Equity and Banking landscape in India.
• He is a member of the Board of Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, which advises the government on Export-Import (EXIM) policies.
• He is also a member of the National Startup Advisory Council, which is tasked with advising the government on building a strong startup ecosystem in India.
• Focus Areas for 2024-25:
• Under his presidency, ASSOCHAM is expected to focus on digitization, ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) standards, and enhancing the global competitiveness of Indian manufacturing.

The correct answer is To educate about sugar risks.

Key Points

• The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) introduced the concept of Sugar Boards in schools as reported in May 2025 to raise awareness regarding the high sugar content in processed foods and beverages.
• The primary purpose of these boards is to educate students about sugar risks, specifically focusing on the dangers of excessive consumption that leads to childhood obesity and Type 2 diabetes. Hence, the correct answer is To educate about sugar risks.
• These boards serve as a visual educational tool, often displaying the amount of hidden sugar in popular snacks and soft drinks in terms of teaspoons or grams, making it easier for children to understand nutritional labels.
• The initiative is part of a broader health and wellness mandate to encourage health literacy from a young age, helping students make informed dietary choices during their formative years.
• By highlighting the risks associated with sucrose and high-fructose corn syrup, the CBSE aims to reduce the dependency on "junk food" within the school premises and surrounding areas.

Additional Information

• Impact on Health:
• Excessive sugar intake is directly linked to metabolic syndrome, dental caries (tooth decay), and cardiovascular diseases later in life.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends that free sugars should ideally make up less than 5% to 10% of the total daily energy intake for both adults and children.
• FSSAI Guidelines:
• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has previously introduced the "Eat Right School" initiative, which complements the Sugar Board strategy by promoting safe and nutritious food.
• Regulations often prohibit the sale of foods high in fat, sugar, and salt (HFSS foods) within 50 meters of school campuses in India.
• Visual Learning in Nutrition:
• Studies show that visual aids, like the Sugar Boards, are significantly more effective in changing eating habits among school-going children (ages 6 to 18) compared to traditional textbook warnings.
• These boards often compare the sugar in a 300ml carbonated drink (roughly 35-40 grams of sugar) to the recommended daily limit of 25 grams for children.

Important Points

• Context of May 2025: The reporting in May 2025 emphasizes a proactive shift in the Indian education system toward holistic well-being, integrating physical health with academic learning.
• Role of CBSE: As a national-level board of education in India for public and private schools, CBSE's implementation of such policies sets a benchmark for State Boards to follow in the fight against non-communicable diseases (NCDs).
• Parental Involvement: The initiative also encourages parents to monitor sugar intake at home, creating a collaborative environment between educational institutions and households to combat malnutrition and obesity.

The correct answer is Odia.

Key Points

• The Sahitya Akademi announced the Bal Sahitya Puraskar in June 2025, recognizing excellence in children's literature across various Indian languages.
• Rajkishore Parhi was selected for this prestigious honor in the Odia language category for his notable contribution to poetry.
• The award-winning work is a poetry collection titled ‘Kete Phula Phutichhi’ (which translates to "How many flowers have bloomed").
• This recognition highlights the importance of Odia literature in the national landscape, specifically targeting the creative development and engagement of younger readers.
• The selection was made based on books first published during the five years immediately preceding the year of the award, following a rigorous selection process by a three-member jury.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi:
• Established on 12 March 1954, it is India's National Academy of Letters and functions as an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.
• It recognizes literary merit in 24 languages, including the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, plus English and Rajasthani.
• Bal Sahitya Puraskar:
• This annual award was instituted in 2010 to encourage and honor writers who contribute significantly to children's literature.
• The award consists of a casket containing an engraved copper-plaque and a cash prize of Rs. 50,000.
• It aims to promote reading habits among children and ensure the availability of high-quality literary content in regional languages.
• Odia Language:
• Odia is one of the six classical languages of India, a status it received in 2014 due to its ancient heritage and rich literary tradition.
• The state of Odisha is the primary home to this language, which has a long history of poetry and prose dating back centuries.

Important Points

• The Sahitya Akademi also confers the Yuva Puraskar alongside the Bal Sahitya Puraskar to recognize young writers under the age of 35.
• The selection criteria for the Bal Sahitya Puraskar include the literary merit of the book, its appeal to the target age group, and the originality of the work.
• In 2025, several authors across different states were honored, showcasing India's linguistic diversity and the vibrant culture of storytelling in languages like Tamil, Telugu, Bhojpuri, and Hindi.
• Rajkishore Parhi’s achievement is significant as it brings Odia children's poetry to the forefront of the national literary stage, encouraging other writers in the Eastern Indian region.

The correct answer is Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement.

Key Points

• The Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement, often referred to as the "High Seas Treaty," is a landmark international legally binding instrument under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
• The treaty achieved its critical final ratification push during the UN Ocean Conference held in June 2025 in Nice, France. This conference served as a global platform to urge member states to reach the 60-ratification threshold required for the treaty to enter into force.
• The primary objective of the BBNJ Agreement is the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction, which cover nearly two-thirds of the global ocean and 95% of its volume.
• It is a vital component for achieving the "30x30" target, an international commitment to protect 30% of the world's land and oceans by the year 2030, as established under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
• The treaty addresses four main pillars: Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs) including benefit-sharing, Area-Based Management Tools (ABMTs) like Marine Protected Areas (MPAs), Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs), and Capacity Building and Transfer of Marine Technology.

Additional Information

• United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
• Adopted in 1982, UNCLOS defines the rights and responsibilities of nations in their use of the world's oceans. While it established the legal framework for maritime zones, it lacked specific mechanisms for biodiversity conservation in the High Seas, a gap now filled by the BBNJ Agreement.
• Marine Protected Areas (MPAs):
• Under the BBNJ, the international community can establish MPAs in international waters. These are essential for shielding marine life from overfishing, shipping traffic, and the emerging threat of deep-sea mining.
• Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs):
• This refers to the genetic material of marine plants, animals, and microbes. The treaty ensures that the economic benefits and scientific discoveries derived from these resources in the High Seas are shared fairly between developed and developing nations.
• Comparison with Other Treaties:
• The Paris Agreement (2015) focuses primarily on climate change and limiting global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
• The Ramsar Convention (1971) is specifically dedicated to the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands, rather than the open ocean.

Important Points

• The High Seas: These are ocean areas beyond 200 nautical miles from the shore, outside the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of any country. Before the BBNJ, only about 1% of these waters were under any form of protection.
• Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs): The agreement mandates that any planned activity in the High Seas that may cause substantial pollution or significant harmful changes to the marine environment must undergo a rigorous impact assessment.
• Significance of the 2025 Deadline: The UN Ocean Conference 2025 was strategically positioned as the "make or break" moment for the treaty, as 60 countries needed to deposit their instruments of ratification to ensure the treaty became legally binding before the 2030 biodiversity targets.
• Role of the COP: The BBNJ Agreement establishes a Conference of the Parties (COP), which will meet periodically to make decisions on the management and conservation of the global commons.

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is Kumaon Regiment.

Key Points

• The Indian Armed Forces contingent for the ZAPAD 2025 exercise is led by the Kumaon Regiment of the Indian Army. This regiment was selected due to its rich heritage and operational expertise in diverse terrains.
• ZAPAD 2025 is a multilateral joint military exercise hosted by Russia. It brings together several nations to practice counter-terrorism strategies and enhance multinational military cooperation.
• The exercise focuses on the interoperability of different military wings, including mechanized infantry, artillery, and air support, to handle complex security threats. Hence, the correct option is Kumaon Regiment.
• The Indian Army participation in ZAPAD typically involves a battalion-strength contingent. In the 2025 edition, the Kumaon Regiment represents the professional standards and tactical proficiency of the Indian Infantry.
• Participation in such global drills allows the Indian Armed Forces to refine their Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) in a coalition environment, ensuring readiness for peacekeeping or combat missions.

Additional Information

• The Kumaon Regiment:
• The Kumaon Regiment is one of the most decorated infantry regiments of the Indian Army, with its origins dating back to the 18^th century. It has produced three Army Chiefs: General S.M. Srinagesh, General K.S. Thimayya, and General T.N. Raina.
• The regiment's motto is "Parakramo Vijayate" (Valour Triumphs), and its war cry is "Kalika Mata Ki Jai". The Regimental Centre is located at Ranikhet in the state of Uttarakhand.
• The regiment played a pivotal role in the Battle of Rezang La during the 1962 Indo-China War, where Major Shaitan Singh was posthumously awarded the Param Vir Chakra.
• Exercise ZAPAD (West):
• ZAPAD (which means "West" in Russian) is part of a four-year cycle of strategic military exercises conducted by the Russian Armed Forces, alongside Vostok (East), Tsentr (Centre), and Kavkaz (Caucasus).
• These exercises are designed to test the preparedness of the Russian military and its allies against conventional and asymmetric warfare.
• In previous years, such as 2021, the Indian Army contingent was led by the Naga Regiment. The change in the leading unit for 2025 to the Kumaon Regiment reflects the Army's policy of rotating exposure among different units.

Important Points

• Strategic Significance:
• Participating in ZAPAD 2025 reinforces India's strategic autonomy and its commitment to multilateral military diplomacy. It provides a platform to interact with the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) member states.
• The use of Indian Army weaponry and indigenous technology in these exercises serves as a demonstration of Aatmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) on a global stage.
• Geopolitics and Security:
• The ZAPAD 2025 exercise helps in building mutual trust and confidence-building measures (CBMs) among participating nations, which is essential for regional stability in Eurasia.
• It involves the simulation of urban warfare, electronic warfare, and cyber-defense, reflecting the changing nature of modern battlefields in the 21^st century.

The correct answer is Women’s 10m air pistol.

Key Points

• Indian shooter Suruchi Singh achieved a significant milestone by winning the gold medal in the Women’s 10m air pistol event at the ISSF World Cup 2025.
• The prestigious tournament was held in Munich, Germany, which is globally recognized as one of the primary hubs for international shooting competitions.
• Suruchi Singh displayed exceptional precision and composure during the final round to secure the top spot on the podium, contributing to India’s success in the global shooting circuit.
• The ISSF World Cup serves as a crucial platform for elite shooters to earn ranking points and prepare for major championships like the Olympics and World Championships.
• Her victory in the 10m air pistol category highlights the growing depth of talent in India's pistol shooting contingent. Hence, the correct answer is Women’s 10m air pistol.

Additional Information

• International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF):
• The ISSF is the governing body for Olympic shooting events in rifle, pistol, and shotgun disciplines.
• It was founded in 1907 and is currently headquartered in Munich, Germany.
• The federation organizes the ISSF World Cup series annually across different countries to provide international exposure to athletes.
• 10m Air Pistol Event:
• This is an Olympic shooting discipline where athletes use 4.5 mm (0.177 in) caliber air pistols.
• Shooters fire at a distance of 10 meters from the target, which has a bullseye diameter of just 11.5 mm.
• In the qualification round, participants typically fire 60 shots within a time limit of 75 minutes.
• India's Performance in Shooting:
• India has emerged as a powerhouse in the 10m Air Pistol and 10m Air Rifle categories over the last decade.
• Shooters like Manu Bhaker, Saurabh Chaudhary, and now Suruchi Singh have consistently brought laurels to the country at the World Cup and Asian Games level.

Important Points

• Scoring and Technology:
• Modern shooting events use Electronic Scoring Targets (EST), which provide instantaneous results with high precision up to decimal points (e.g., a perfect shot is 10.9).
• The Munich leg of the ISSF World Cup is often considered the most competitive due to the high number of participants from across the globe.
• Venue Significance:
• The Olympic Shooting Range in Munich-Hochbrück is one of the largest and most advanced facilities in the world, having hosted events since the 1972 Summer Olympics.

The correct answer is Payments Regulatory Board.

Key Points

• The Payments Regulatory Board (PRB) is the newly constituted body under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established to regulate and supervise the payment and settlement systems in India.
• Formed in May 2025, the board was created to provide a more focused and specialized regulatory framework for the rapidly evolving digital payments landscape, ensuring financial stability and consumer trust.
• The PRB replaces the erstwhile Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS), which previously functioned as a sub-committee of the Central Board of the RBI.
• The board is chaired by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and includes members such as the Deputy Governor in charge of payment systems and other officials nominated by the Central Government.
• The primary mandate of the Payments Regulatory Board involves the oversight of various platforms such as UPI, NEFT, RTGS, and prepaid payment instruments (PPIs), ensuring they adhere to cybersecurity and operational standards.

Additional Information

• Legal Framework: The foundation for the board lies in the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Recent amendments have been introduced to empower the PRB with greater autonomy and enforcement powers to penalize non-compliant entities.
• Role in Fintech: The PRB plays a crucial role in fostering innovation within the FinTech sector while mitigating risks associated with shadow banking and unregulated payment intermediaries.
• Financial Inclusion: By standardizing payment protocols, the PRB supports the Government of India's vision of a Cashless Economy and helps in expanding financial services to rural and semi-urban areas through AePS (Aadhaar Enabled Payment System).
• Regulatory Sandbox: The board often utilizes a regulatory sandbox approach, allowing startups to test new payment technologies in a live environment under RBI supervision before a full-scale launch.
• Consumer Protection: One of the core pillars of the PRB is the enhancement of grievance redressal mechanisms and the implementation of the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme for payment-related disputes.

Important Points

• Structure: The Payments Regulatory Board consists of six members in total, ensuring a balanced representation of regulatory expertise and administrative oversight.
• Impact on NPCI: While the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operates systems like RuPay and UPI, the PRB acts as the ultimate regulator to which NPCI is accountable.
• Global Alignment: The formation of the PRB aligns India with international best practices as recommended by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) regarding the oversight of payment infrastructures.
• Data Localization: The PRB is responsible for enforcing data sovereignty rules, requiring all payment service providers to store transaction data on servers located within the territory of India.

The correct answer is National Highways Authority of India.

Key Points

• The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is the primary body responsible for the introduction and management of the FASTag system, which includes the provision for annual and monthly passes for frequent commuters.
• The FASTag initiative was launched to enable Electronic Toll Collection (ETC) on National Highways, aimed at reducing bottle-necks at toll plazas and ensuring a seamless flow of traffic.
• The annual pass facility is specifically designed for local residents and frequent users who reside within a 20-kilometer radius of a specific toll plaza, allowing them to pay a concessional fixed rate for unlimited trips.
• This system operates using Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology, where a tag affixed to the vehicle's windshield is read by a sensor, and the toll amount is automatically debited from a linked prepaid account or bank account.
• The implementation is carried out through the Indian Highway Management Company Limited (IHMCL), an entity promoted by NHAI, in collaboration with over 30 member banks and the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

Additional Information

• Establishment of NHAI: The National Highways Authority of India was constituted by an Act of Parliament, the NHAI Act, 1988. It became operational in 1995 and works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH).
• Mandatory Implementation: The Government of India made FASTag mandatory for all M and N category vehicles (four-wheelers and above) from February 15, 2021. Vehicles entering the FASTag lane without a functional tag are liable to pay double the toll amount as a penalty.
• One Vehicle One FASTag Initiative: To improve the efficiency of the Electronic Toll Collection system, NHAI introduced the 'One Vehicle One FASTag' norm to discourage the use of multiple tags for one vehicle or using one tag for multiple vehicles.
• Economic and Environmental Benefits: The adoption of FASTag significantly reduces fuel consumption by minimizing idling time at toll booths and reduces air pollution. It also provides data-driven insights for traffic management and infrastructure planning.
• Recharge and Validity: A FASTag is valid for a period of 5 years. Users can recharge their accounts through various digital modes including UPI, BBPS, Net Banking, and Debit/Credit cards.

Important Points

• Local Pass Eligibility: The annual pass or monthly pass for local vehicles is subject to verification of residence (via Aadhar or Electricity bill). The NHAI guidelines specify that this concession is available to non-commercial vehicles registered in the local district.
• Technological Integration: The FASTag system is integrated with the Vahan database to verify vehicle details, which helps in preventing toll evasion and tracking stolen vehicles across the national highway network.
• Global Context: India's FASTag system is similar to electronic tolling systems used in other countries, such as E-ZPass in the United States and Salik in Dubai, representing a shift towards Intelligent Transport Systems (ITS).

The correct answer is Fine particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometres or smaller.

Key Points

• PM2.5 refers to particulate matter that consists of fine particles or droplets in the air that are 2.5 micrometres or less in width.
• These particles are extremely tiny; for perspective, the average human hair is about 70 micrometres in diameter, making PM2.5 approximately 30 times smaller than the width of a hair.
• In October 2025, the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA) assessment highlighted the levels of these pollutants across Indian cities, focusing on the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) targets.
• Because of their microscopic size, these particles can bypass the nose and throat to reach deep into the alveoli of the lungs and even enter the circulatory system.
• The composition of PM2.5 can vary but often includes organic compounds, heavy metals, nitrates, and sulfates.

Additional Information

• Sources of PM2.5:
• Primary Sources: These are emitted directly into the air from vehicle exhausts, power plants, forest fires, stubble burning (common in Northern India), and industrial processes.
• Secondary Sources: These form in the atmosphere through chemical reactions of gases such as sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx).
• Health and Environmental Impact:
• Exposure to high levels of PM2.5 is linked to increased rates of chronic bronchitis, reduced lung function, asthma, and heart disease.
• Environmentally, it is the primary cause of reduced visibility (haze) in parts of the world, including national parks and urban centers.
• Regulatory Standards:
• The National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in India set the permissible annual limit for PM2.5 at 40 µg/m³ and the 24-hour limit at 60 µg/m³.
• In contrast, the World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines are stricter, recommending an annual mean of no more than 5 µg/m³ to protect public health.

Important Points

• Measurement: Air quality is monitored using the Air Quality Index (AQI), where PM2.5 is a critical sub-index component. Equipment like Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Systems (CAAQMS) are deployed in cities like Delhi, Mumbai, and Patna to provide real-time data.
• CREA (Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air): It is an independent research organization that tracks air pollution trends and the impact of fossil fuel consumption globally. Its reports often serve as a basis for policy recommendations in South Asia.
• Comparison with PM10: While PM2.5 is "fine" particulate matter, PM10 refers to particles with a diameter between 2.5 and 10 micrometres (coarse particles), such as dust from roads and construction sites. PM2.5 is considered more hazardous due to its ability to penetrate deeper into the body.
• Seasonal Variation: In India, PM2.5 levels often spike during the winter months due to temperature inversion, which traps pollutants near the ground, combined with agricultural residue burning.

The correct answer is Second.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra, the reigning Olympic and World Champion, achieved the Second rank at the Doha Diamond League 2025.
• The prestigious track and field event was held at the Suhaim bin Hamad Stadium in Doha, Qatar, which is a traditional stop for the elite Diamond League circuit.
• In this competition, Neeraj Chopra competed against a world-class field of athletes, including top contenders like Jakub Vadlejch from the Czech Republic and Anderson Peters from Grenada.
• By finishing in the top three, he secured significant Diamond League points, which are crucial for qualifying for the Diamond League Final held at the end of the season.
• His performance at the 2025 event showcased his trademark consistency, as he has frequently occupied the podium in international meets since his historic Gold Medal win in 2021. Hence, the correct answer is Second.

Additional Information

• About Neeraj Chopra:
• Neeraj Chopra was born on December 24, 1997, in Khandra village, Panipat district, Haryana.
• He made history by becoming the first Indian track and field athlete to win a Gold Medal at the Olympics during the Tokyo 2020 games.
• He holds the National Record for India in Javelin Throw with a distance of 89.94 meters, achieved at the Stockholm Diamond League in 2022.
• He was honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021 and the Padma Shri in 2022 for his exceptional contributions to Indian sports.
• The Diamond League Format:
• The Wanda Diamond League is an annual series of elite track and field athletic competitions comprising 15 meetings across the globe.
• Athletes compete for points at the 14 series meetings to qualify for the Diamond League Final.
• The Doha leg is often one of the season openers, providing athletes a platform to test their early-season form in the Middle East.

Important Points

• Career Achievements:
• Apart from the Olympics, he won the Gold Medal at the 2023 World Athletics Championships in Budapest.
• He is also a Gold Medalist at the Asian Games (2018, 2022) and the Commonwealth Games (2018).
• Competition Dynamics:
• The Javelin Throw event in the Diamond League usually consists of six rounds of throws for the top participants.
• Consistency in the 88m to 90m range has established Neeraj Chopra as one of the most dominant athletes in the modern era of the sport.
• His Second place finish in 2025 reinforces his position as a perennial title contender on the global stage.

The correct answer is Allianz with Jio Financial Services.

Key Points

• In July 2025, Jio Financial Services (JFS) and the German insurance major Allianz SE entered into a binding agreement to form a 50:50 domestic reinsurance joint venture.
• This partnership marks a significant entry into the reinsurance sector, aiming to provide a localized platform for managing risks within the Indian insurance market.
• The 50:50 structure ensures that both entities have equal ownership and decision-making power in the newly formed entity, combining Allianz's global technical expertise with Jio's massive digital reach.
• The primary objective of this joint venture is to serve the domestic market by offering reinsurance capacity to primary insurers in India, thereby strengthening the financial infrastructure of the country's insurance ecosystem.
• This move follows a broader trend of Reliance Industries-backed JFS expanding its financial services portfolio, which already includes segments like asset management, lending, and payment services.

Additional Information

• Allianz SE: A German multinational financial services company headquartered in Munich. It is one of the world's largest insurers and asset managers, with a presence in over 70 countries.
• Jio Financial Services (JFS): De-merged from Reliance Industries Limited in 2023, JFS has quickly moved to establish itself as a major player in India's financial sector through strategic partnerships, including a high-profile tie-up with BlackRock for asset management.
• Reinsurance Defined: It is essentially "insurance for insurance companies." Reinsurers take on a portion of the risks held by primary insurance companies to help them remain solvent, especially in the event of large-scale claims or disasters.
• Market Dynamics: The Indian reinsurance market has traditionally been led by the state-owned General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re). The entry of a powerful joint venture like Allianz-Jio is expected to increase competition and capacity in the domestic market.
• Regulatory Oversight: All such joint ventures and insurance operations in India are governed and regulated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), which ensures compliance with capital requirements and consumer protection laws.

Important Points

• The collaboration leverages Jio's data-driven approach and Allianz's sophisticated underwriting and risk-modelling capabilities.
• The deal signifies Allianz's renewed and deeper commitment to India, reflecting the long-term growth potential of the Indian economy and its under-penetrated insurance sector.
• By operating as a domestic reinsurer, the venture can offer more competitive pricing and tailored products specifically designed for Indian risks, such as agricultural fluctuations, infrastructure projects, and natural catastrophes.
• This partnership is expected to create numerous employment opportunities in the high-end financial services and data analytics sectors within India.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad Airport.

Key Points

• The specific aviation incident mentioned involves a London-bound Air India aircraft that crashed shortly after takeoff in June 2025.
• The flight originated from Ahmedabad Airport, formally known as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport (SVPIA), which serves the state of Gujarat.
• Air India, the national carrier owned by the Tata Group, operates several direct international flights from Ahmedabad to major global hubs, including London Heathrow and London Gatwick.
• The crash occurred during the initial climb phase, a critical stage of flight shortly after leaving the runway at Ahmedabad.
• As per the question, the departure point was neither Delhi, Chennai, nor Kolkata, but specifically the international terminal at Ahmedabad. Hence, the correct answer is Ahmedabad Airport.

Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport (SVPIA):
• Located in Hansol, it is the busiest airport in Gujarat and serves both Ahmedabad and the state capital, Gandhinagar.
• It features two main terminals: Terminal 1 for domestic flights and Terminal 2 for international operations.
• The airport is named after Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.
• Air India International Operations:
• Air India maintains a significant presence in the United Kingdom market due to the large Gujarati diaspora residing there.
• Direct connectivity between Ahmedabad and London is a high-demand route, often utilizing long-haul aircraft like the Boeing 787 Dreamliner or Boeing 777.
• Under the Tata Group's ownership since January 2022, the airline has been undergoing a massive transformation project named Vihaan.AI.
• Aviation Safety and Investigation:
• In India, any major aircraft accident is investigated by the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB), which operates under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body that oversees safety standards and pilot licensing in the country.
• Takeoff and landing are statistically the most vulnerable phases of flight, accounting for a high percentage of aviation incidents globally.

Important Points

• Airport Codes: The IATA code for Ahmedabad Airport is AMD, while the ICAO code is VAAH.
• Geographical Significance: The airport is situated approximately 9 kilometers from the city center of Ahmedabad.
• Historical Context: Air India has a long history of flying to the United Kingdom, dating back to its first international flight to London in June 1948.
• Emergency Protocols: In the event of a crash shortly after takeoff, airports activate the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP), involving the Airport Fire Service and local medical teams for immediate rescue operations.

The correct answer is Faith Kipyegon.

Key Points

• Faith Kipyegon made history in 2025 by breaking the women’s Mile world record during a specialized athletic event in Paris.
• She clocked a remarkable time of 4:06.42, surpassing the previous world record mark and further cementing her legacy as the greatest middle-distance runner of all time.
• The record was set at Nike’s Breaking event, an elite competition designed to push the limits of human speed and endurance through optimized conditions and cutting-edge technology.
• Faith Kipyegon, representing Kenya, has consistently dominated the 1500m and Mile distances, holding multiple world records simultaneously across different track categories.
• The performance in Paris highlighted her exceptional pacing and finishing kick, which allowed her to shave significant time off her own previous global standards.

Additional Information

• Faith Kipyegon (Athlete Profile):
• Born on January 10, 1994, in Bomet, Kenya, she is a specialist in the 1500 meters.
• She is a three-time Olympic Gold Medalist (Rio 2016, Tokyo 2020, and Paris 2024) in the 1500m event, becoming the first woman to win three consecutive Olympic titles in that discipline.
• In 2023, she achieved a historic "triple" by breaking world records in the 1500m, 5000m, and the Mile within a single season.
• The Mile Run:
• The Mile (approx. 1,609.34 meters) is a classic middle-distance race. While the 1500m is the standard Olympic distance (the "metric mile"), the full mile remains a prestigious record-breaking event in professional athletics.
• Kipyegon's previous record was 4:07.64, set at the Monaco Diamond League in July 2023.
• Other Notable Athletes:
• Sifan Hassan: A versatile Dutch athlete who formerly held the mile record (4:12.33) and is known for winning medals in distances ranging from 1500m to the Marathon.
• Genzebe Dibaba: An Ethiopian runner who held the 1500m world record for eight years until Faith Kipyegon broke it in 2023.
• Laura Muir: A prominent British middle-distance runner and Olympic silver medalist who has frequently competed against Kipyegon at the highest level.

Important Points

• Technological Impact: High-performance events like the Nike Breaking event often utilize Wavelight technology (pacing lights on the track) and advanced carbon-plated spikes to help athletes maintain a precise record-breaking tempo.
• Location Significance: Paris has remained a focal point for world-class athletics following the 2024 Summer Olympics, hosting various elite meets at the Stade de France and other venues.
• Historical Context: The sub-4:10 barrier in the women's mile was long considered a daunting milestone, much like the 4-minute mile for men, until the recent era of specialized training and shoe technology led by athletes like Kipyegon.

The correct answer is Viksit Bharat: Civil Service and Digital Transformation.

Key Points

• The 28^th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) is scheduled to be held on 22 and 23 September 2025 in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
• The primary theme for this edition of the conference is "Viksit Bharat: Civil Service and Digital Transformation", reflecting the nation's focus on modernization and the role of the bureaucracy in achieving a developed India status.
• The event is organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) in collaboration with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
• The conference serves as a major platform for policymakers, practitioners, and industry experts to discuss the latest trends in digital governance and the integration of technology into public service delivery.
• A significant highlight of the conference is the presentation of the National Awards for e-Governance, which recognize and promote excellence in the implementation of e-Governance initiatives across various sectors.

Additional Information

• Viksit Bharat 2047: This is the Government of India's roadmap to transform the nation into a completely developed country by the 100^th year of Independence in 2047. The theme emphasizes that digital transformation is a core pillar of this vision.
• Civil Service Reforms: The conference highlights how Civil Services are being revamped through initiatives like Mission Karmayogi (National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building) to make them more tech-savvy and citizen-centric.
• Digital Transformation: This involves the adoption of emerging technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), Blockchain, and Data Analytics to enhance the efficiency of government operations and reduce red-tapism.
• Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI): India has emerged as a global leader in DPI with systems like Aadhaar, UPI, and DigiLocker, which are often central themes in these national conferences to showcase "India Stack."
• Visakhapatnam: Often referred to as the 'City of Destiny' and a rising IT hub in the state of Andhra Pradesh, it provides a strategic location for discussing the intersection of urban growth and digital services.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The National Conference on e-Governance has been held annually since 1997 to provide a forum for Central and State Governments to exchange ideas and share success stories in the field of Information Technology.
• 27^th NCeG: The previous edition, the 27^th National Conference, was held in Mumbai, Maharashtra, with the theme "Viksit Bharat: Empowering Citizens", showing a progression towards the current theme of civil service transformation.
• Stakeholder Engagement: The 2025 conference aims to bridge the gap between administrative efficiency and technological advancement, ensuring that the digital divide is bridged and inclusive growth is achieved.
• National Awards Categories: These awards typically cover categories like Excellence in Government Process Re-engineering, Digital Transformation by PSUs, and e-Governance initiatives by academic and research institutions.

The correct answer is Rajal Neeti: Lok Vyavhaar.

Key Points

• The Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, Yogi Adityanath, officially launched the book titled Rajal Neeti: Lok Vyavhaar in May 2025.
• The book is authored by Rajal Bandwar, who is known for writing literature focused on personal development, management, and ethical conduct.
• The primary objective of Rajal Neeti: Lok Vyavhaar is to provide a comprehensive guide on public etiquette and the nuances of social behavior in both professional and personal spheres.
• During the launch event held in Lucknow, the Chief Minister emphasized that the book serves as an essential resource for cultivating moral values and improving interpersonal communication within society.
• The book Rajal Neeti: Lok Vyavhaar integrates traditional Indian values with modern-day social requirements, making it a relevant guide for the youth and public servants alike.

Additional Information

• Scope of the Book:
• The term Lok Vyavhaar translates to "Public Dealing" or "Social Interaction". It covers various aspects of manners, body language, and the art of conversation.
• The book Rajal Neeti: Lok Vyavhaar is part of a series by Rajal Bandwar that aims to simplify complex management principles for the common public.
• Other Books in the Series:
• Rajal Neeti: Time Management: This book focuses on efficiency, productivity, and the optimal utilization of time to achieve success in various walks of life.
• Sanghatil Manavi Vyavasthapan: This work deals with human resource management within organizations, emphasizing the psychological and administrative aspects of leading teams.
• Government Focus on Literature:
• The Government of Uttar Pradesh has frequently supported the publication of books that promote social harmony and administrative excellence.
• Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath has been associated with several book launches, including those that document cultural heritage and developmental milestones of the state.

Important Points

• Theme of Public Etiquette: The book addresses the growing need for civility in public discourse and provides practical tips on conflict resolution and empathy.
• Significance for Youth: The Chief Minister noted that the Rajal Neeti series is particularly beneficial for students and competitive exam aspirants to develop soft skills and a disciplined lifestyle.
• The Divine Kumbh: While The Divine Kumbh is another notable publication related to the state of Uttar Pradesh, it focuses on the spiritual and cultural significance of the Kumbh Mela rather than public etiquette.
• Language and Accessibility: The book is written in an accessible language to ensure that the message of ethical living and refined conduct reaches a wide audience across India.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Haryana emerged as the overall champion at the 23^rd National Para Athletics Championships, which concluded in January 2025.
• The prestigious event was organized at the Nehru Stadium located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, under the aegis of the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI).
• Haryana dominated the medals tally by securing a total of 131 medals, which included 53 gold, 45 silver, and 33 bronze medals.
• The host state, Tamil Nadu, secured the second position in the combined standings with a total of 58 medals (18 gold, 21 silver, and 19 bronze).
• Maharashtra finished in the third position, claiming 53 medals in total, comprising 18 gold, 15 silver, and 20 bronze medals.

Additional Information

• Paralympic Committee of India (PCI):
• The PCI is the apex body for promoting para-sports in the country and is recognized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
• The current President of the PCI is Devendra Jhajharia, a two-time Paralympic gold medalist in javelin throw.
• Classification in Para Athletics:
• Athletes are categorized into different classes based on their impairment to ensure fair competition. For example, 'T' stands for Track events and 'F' stands for Field events.
• Specific numbers follow the prefix, such as T42 or F57, denoting the type and level of physical limitation.
• Growth of Para Sports in India:
• Following India's record-breaking performances at the Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024 Paralympics, there has been a significant increase in government funding and public interest in para-athletics.
• The Khelo India Para Games, launched recently, further complements the National Championships in identifying grassroots talent.
• Nehru Stadium, Chennai:
• It is a multi-purpose stadium with a capacity of approximately 40,000 people and is a hub for athletics in South India.
• The stadium provided world-class facilities for the 23^rd edition of the championships, ensuring accessibility for all competing athletes.