General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Women.

Key Points

• The SHe-Box (Sexual Harassment electronic Box) is a specialized online portal designed to provide a single-window access to every woman, regardless of her work status, to register complaints related to sexual harassment at the workplace.
• In May 2025, the Uttar Pradesh government announced an improved version of the portal to enhance the safety and dignity of women across various sectors in the state.
• The portal serves as a centralized platform for the effective implementation of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (commonly known as the POSH Act). Hence, the option supporting women is correct.
• By utilizing this digital interface, women in both the organized and unorganized sectors, including government and private employees, can ensure their grievances are reached to the concerned authorities without physical hurdles.
• The improved version launched in Uttar Pradesh features enhanced tracking mechanisms and real-time monitoring by the Department of Women and Child Development to ensure timely disposal of cases.

Additional Information

• The POSH Act, 2013:
• The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act was enacted in 2013 to provide protection against sexual harassment of women at workplaces and for the prevention and redressal of complaints.
• It defines "sexual harassment" to include unwelcome acts such as physical contact, a demand or request for sexual favors, making sexually colored remarks, or any other unwelcome physical, verbal, or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature.
• Internal and Local Committees:
• The Act mandates that any workplace with 10 or more employees must constitute an Internal Committee (IC) to handle complaints.
• For organizations with fewer than 10 employees or for complaints against the employer themselves, a Local Committee (LC) is established by the District Officer in every district.
• Mission Shakti in Uttar Pradesh:
• The Uttar Pradesh government has been integrating the SHe-Box portal with its flagship Mission Shakti program, which aims to empower women through security, dignity, and self-reliance.
• The state initiative focuses on establishing Women Help Desks in all 1,535 police stations and ensuring that digital platforms like SHe-Box are accessible even at the Gram Panchayat level.

Important Points

• Confidentiality and Tracking:
• One of the primary features of the SHe-Box portal is the confidentiality it provides to the complainant, ensuring that her identity is not disclosed during the initial registration process.
• Once a complaint is lodged, both the complainant and the Ministry/Department can monitor the progress of the inquiry, which brings transparency and accountability to the Internal Committee.
• Applicability to Unorganized Sector:
• The portal is particularly vital for the unorganized sector, where women workers like domestic help, daily wage laborers, and street vendors often lack a formal grievance redressal mechanism.
• By providing a direct link to the District Local Committees, the Uttar Pradesh portal ensures that women at the grassroots level are not left behind in the pursuit of justice.

The correct answer is Nine-point policy.

Key Points

• The government of Uttarakhand, led by the state administration, officially launched the Nine-point policy in October 2025 to address the dual challenges of rapid industrialization and the preservation of the Himalayan ecology.
• The primary objective of this policy is to achieve a sustainable equilibrium between economic growth and environmental protection, ensuring that development projects do not compromise the state's natural resources.
• This Nine-point policy focuses on key sectors such as eco-tourism, renewable energy expansion, and sustainable agriculture, which are vital for the state's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP).
• It emphasizes the conservation of water bodies and the management of forest resources, which are critical for the fragile ecosystem of the hill state.
• The policy was introduced as part of the state's vision for the year 2025, marking a significant milestone in its journey toward becoming a "Green State".

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand's Environmental Context:
• The state of Uttarakhand was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000, and its geography is dominated by the Himalayas, making it highly susceptible to climate change and natural disasters.
• In 2021, Uttarakhand became the first state in India to introduce the concept of Gross Environmental Product (GEP), a metric to measure the health of its natural ecosystem alongside economic data.
• Strategic Vision for 2025:
• The year 2025 is significant as it represents the Silver Jubilee of the state's formation. The government has set several targets under the "Strong Uttarakhand" mission to double the state's GSDP by this time.
• The Nine-point policy serves as a framework to ensure that this doubling of the economy is inclusive and environmentally resilient.
• Key Themes of the Policy:
• The policy integrates disaster mitigation strategies, particularly focusing on landslide prevention and flood management, which have historically affected regions like Kedarnath and Joshimath.
• It also promotes vocal for local initiatives by supporting organic farming and local handicrafts to reduce the carbon footprint of logistics and transportation.

Important Points

• Specific Characteristics of the Policy:
• The Nine-point policy includes the implementation of stringent waste management protocols in high-altitude trekking routes and pilgrimage sites to curb plastic pollution.
• It mandates Environmental Impact Assessments (EIA) for all new infrastructure projects, including hydroelectric power plants and national highways, to minimize deforestation.
• The policy encourages community-based conservation, where Van Panchayats (Forest Councils) are given more financial autonomy to manage local forests.
• It aligns with the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) of the Government of India, focusing on the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem.
• The Nine-point policy is expected to generate green jobs for the youth of Uttarakhand, particularly in the solar energy and eco-hospitality sectors.

The correct answer is Second Asset Monetisation Plan.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, announced the launch of the Second Asset Monetisation Plan to boost infrastructure funding.
• This initiative aims to mobilize a massive ₹10 lakh crore by the year 2030 by unlocking the value of existing public assets.
• The plan focuses on brownfield infrastructure assets where investments have already been made but are not yet fully monetized or optimally utilized.
• By shifting the operational and maintenance responsibilities to the private sector, the Government of India intends to generate upfront capital for new greenfield projects.
• The Second Asset Monetisation Plan is a strategic successor to the previous phase, designed to cover a broader range of assets including highways, railways, power transmission lines, and telecom towers.

Additional Information

• National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP):
• The first phase, known as the National Monetisation Pipeline, was launched in August 2021 with a target to mobilize ₹6 lakh crore over a four-year period ending in 2025.
• It utilized models such as Toll-Operate-Transfer (TOT) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) to attract private investment into public infrastructure.
• Asset Monetisation Models:
• Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) are popular vehicles that allow retail and institutional investors to invest in completed projects and earn dividends from the income generated.
• The Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model remains a core component of these monetization strategies to ensure professional management of national assets.
• Economic Impact:
• Asset monetization helps in fiscal consolidation by providing non-debt capital receipts, reducing the government's reliance on borrowing to fund the Capital Expenditure (Capex).
• For the Financial Year 2025-26, the government has maintained a strong focus on infrastructure-led growth to achieve the goal of a Viksit Bharat by 2047.
• Key Participating Entities:
• Major contributors to the monetization pool include the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCIL), and Indian Railways.

Important Points

• The ₹10 lakh crore target reflects a nearly 67% increase in ambition compared to the first National Monetisation Pipeline.
• The Union Budget 2025-26 also emphasizes digital infrastructure and green energy as emerging sectors for future monetization efforts.
• Monetization does not involve the sale of land or the privatization of ownership; the government remains the ultimate owner of the assets, and they are handed back after the concession period ends.

The correct answer is Alexia Putellas.

Key Points

• Alexia Putellas was officially announced as the recipient of the International Player of the Year award at the Women’s Football Awards in 2025.
• The Women’s Football Awards is a major ceremony designed to celebrate the pioneers, players, and organizations that have contributed to the exponential growth of the female game globally.
• Alexia Putellas, who plays as a midfielder, has been instrumental in the success of FC Barcelona Femení and the Spain women's national team, consistently performing at the highest level of European football.
• The award recognizes her exceptional contributions during the 2024-2025 season, where her leadership and playmaking abilities helped her club and country achieve significant milestones in international competitions.
• She won the title amidst a shortlist of world-class talent, underscoring her status as a generational talent in the sport. Hence, the correct answer is Alexia Putellas.

Additional Information

• Alexia Putellas:
• Born on 4 February 1994 in Spain, she is widely considered one of the greatest female footballers ever.
• She was the first woman to win the Ballon d'Or Féminin twice consecutively, in 2021 and 2022.
• She has secured numerous Liga F titles and UEFA Women's Champions League trophies with Barcelona.
• Vivianne Miedema:
• A Dutch professional striker born in 1996, she is the all-time leading scorer for the Netherlands.
• She has held multiple scoring records in the English Women's Super League (WSL) while playing for Arsenal.
• Sam Kerr:
• The Australian national team captain and a star forward for Chelsea FC.
• She is the only female player to win the Golden Boot in three different leagues on three different continents (Australia, USA, and England).
• Ada Hegerberg:
• A Norwegian striker playing for Lyon, she was the inaugural winner of the Ballon d'Or Féminin in 2018.
• She holds the record for the most goals ever scored in the UEFA Women's Champions League.
• Women’s Football Awards:
• These awards were established to provide a dedicated platform to honor excellence in women's football, separate from traditional mixed-gender ceremonies.
• Categories often include Best Fan Engagement, Gamechanger of the Year, and Lifetime Achievement, alongside traditional performance awards.

The correct answer is 48.

Key Points

• The 2025 Asian Youth Games were hosted in Manama, Bahrain, serving as a major continental multi-sport event for young athletes across Asia.
• India achieved a remarkable feat by winning a total of 48 medals, demonstrating the significant progress of the nation in nurturing junior sporting talent.
• The Indian contingent participated in a wide array of sporting disciplines, including Athletics, Badminton, Swimming, Table Tennis, and Wrestling.
• The delegation for the 2025 event consisted of over 150 athletes, supported by a specialized team of coaches and medical staff to ensure peak performance in the Middle Eastern climate.
• This medal tally of 48 highlights India's strengthening position in the Asian sports ecosystem, following consistent investments in grassroots development.

Additional Information

• Asian Youth Games (AYG):
• The Asian Youth Games is a multi-sport event held every four years, organized by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
• It is designed for athletes in the age group of 14 to 17 years, acting as a crucial stepping stone for the Asian Games and the Olympic Games.
• The event aims to promote cultural exchange and international friendship among the youth of different Asian nations.
• Olympic Council of Asia (OCA):
• The OCA is the governing body for all sports in Asia, currently headquartered in Kuwait City.
• It is responsible for the organization of major events like the Asian Games, Asian Winter Games, and the Asian Youth Games.
• India's Sports Initiatives:
• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports has launched several schemes like Khelo India to identify talent at a young age.
• The Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) also provides specialized assistance to elite junior athletes to prepare them for international podium finishes.

Important Points

• Venue Details: Manama, the capital of Bahrain, utilized world-class facilities such as the Khalifa Sports City to host the 2025 games.
• Medal Distribution: Out of the 48 medals won, the maximum contribution came from Track and Field events, where Indian sprinters and jumpers showed exceptional form.
• Significance: Winning 48 medals in a competitive field involving nations like China, Japan, and South Korea signifies India's rising "soft power" through sports.
• Future Outlook: The success in Bahrain serves as a benchmark for the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to plan for the upcoming Youth Olympic Games and senior championships.

The correct answer is Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports was allocated a total of ₹3,794 crore in the Union Budget 2025-2026, presented by the Union Finance Minister.
• This allocation represents the government's continued focus on enhancing India's sporting infrastructure and preparing athletes for upcoming international competitions, including the 2026 Asian Games and Commonwealth Games.
• A major portion of this budget is dedicated to the Khelo India – National Programme for Development of Sports, which remains the flagship initiative for grassroots talent identification and development across the country.
• The funding also supports the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and the National Sports Federations (NSFs), which are responsible for training elite athletes and managing sporting events.
• The allocation for Youth Affairs within the ministry focuses on schemes like the Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) platform, aimed at youth-led development. Hence, the correct answer is the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Education:
• In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Ministry of Education received a significantly higher allocation compared to sports, reaching approximately ₹1,25,638 crore.
• This funding is divided between the Department of School Education and Literacy and the Department of Higher Education to implement the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare:
• The Ministry of Health was allocated over ₹90,000 crore in the 2025-2026 budget to bolster the Ayushman Bharat scheme and improve public health infrastructure.
• The focus remains on Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) and digital health initiatives.
• Ministry of Tourism:
• The Ministry of Tourism received an allocation of around ₹2,450 crore in the 2025-26 cycle, which is lower than the sports allocation.
• Key schemes include Swadesh Darshan 2.0 and PRASHAD, which aim at developing integrated tourism circuits and pilgrimage sites across India.

Important Points

• Khelo India Scheme: This remains a central pillar of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, receiving a substantial chunk of the ₹3,794 crore to promote "Sports for All" and "Sports for Excellence."
• Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS): A specialized program under the ministry that provides customized training and financial support to India’s top athletes aiming for medals in the Olympic Games.
• National Youth Corps (NYC): Under the Youth Affairs segment, this initiative engages young people in nation-building activities through the Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS).
• Budget Date: The Union Budget 2025-26 was presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2025.
• Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat): Launched in 2023, this autonomous body serves as an overarching enabling mechanism for youth development through technology-driven platforms.

The correct answer is Croatia.

Key Points

• The Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, undertook a significant state visit to Croatia in June 2025 to strengthen bilateral relations and expand the strategic footprint of India in Central and Southeast Europe.
• During this visit, the Prime Minister held high-level delegation talks with the Croatian Prime Minister, Andrej Plenković, focusing on deepening cooperation in sectors such as defense, digital technology, and renewable energy.
• A series of Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) were signed, notably in the field of Information Technology and Pharmaceuticals, aiming to leverage Croatia's position as a gateway to the European Union markets.
• The visit emphasized the India-Croatia Strategic Partnership, with both nations agreeing to enhance bilateral trade, which has seen steady growth over the last decade, and to collaborate on climate action initiatives.
• The Prime Minister also engaged with the Indian Diaspora in Zagreb, acknowledging their role in fostering cultural and economic ties between the two nations.

Additional Information

• Geography and Location:
• Croatia is a country located at the crossroads of Central and Southeast Europe, on the Adriatic Sea. It borders Slovenia to the northwest, Hungary to the northeast, Serbia to the east, and Bosnia and Herzegovina and Montenegro to the southeast.
• Its capital and largest city is Zagreb, which serves as the political and economic hub of the country.
• Political and Economic Profile:
• Croatia became a member of the European Union (EU) on July 1, 2013, and officially joined the Schengen Area and the Eurozone on January 1, 2023, adopting the Euro as its official currency.
• The country is a parliamentary republic, with the President serving as the head of state and the Prime Minister as the head of government.
• Bilateral Relations with India:
• Diplomatic relations between India and Croatia were established in 1992 following Croatia's independence from Yugoslavia.
• India and Croatia share a history of cooperation dating back to the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), where India and the former Yugoslavia were founding members.
• Key areas of export from India to Croatia include textiles, chemicals, and engineering goods, while India imports machinery and plastics from Croatia.
• Tourism and Culture:
• Croatia is a major global tourist destination, famous for its Dalmatian Coast and historical sites like Dubrovnik, often referred to as the "Pearl of the Adriatic."
• The cultural exchange between the two nations is promoted through the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR), which offers scholarships to Croatian students.

Important Points

• The visit in June 2025 is considered a milestone in India's "Look West" policy (in the context of European engagement), aiming to diversify partnerships beyond the traditional major powers of Western Europe.
• Discussions on the India-EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA) remained a central theme, with Croatia expressing strong support for the early conclusion of the negotiations to benefit small and medium enterprises (SMEs) in both regions.
• Security Cooperation: Both countries reaffirmed their commitment to counter-terrorism and maritime security in the Indo-Pacific and Mediterranean regions, highlighting the importance of a rules-based international order.

The correct answer is 2.3%.

Key Points

• According to the World Bank’s report released in June 2025, India’s extreme poverty rate reached a historic low of 2.3% in the fiscal year 2022-23.
• This estimate is based on the international poverty line of $2.15 per day per person, calculated using the 2017 Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) standards.
• The data signifies a monumental shift from previous decades, indicating that India is successfully eliminating extreme deprivation for a vast majority of its population.
• The World Bank highlighted that the decline was driven by robust economic growth and the effective implementation of large-scale social welfare programs.
• The report notes that India has maintained an extreme poverty level of below 3% for several years, which is a key indicator of achieving broad-based economic resilience.

Additional Information

• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
• In addition to income-based poverty, the NITI Aayog reported that approximately 24.8 crore individuals moved out of multidimensional poverty between 2013-14 and 2022-23.
• MPI takes into account improvements in health, education, and standard of living, showing a holistic improvement in Indian households.
• Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY):
• This scheme provided free food grains to more than 80 crore people, playing a critical role in preventing millions from slipping back into extreme poverty during global economic fluctuations.
• The continued extension of PMGKAY has been cited as a primary factor in maintaining food security for the most vulnerable sections of society.
• Data Source and Methodology:
• The poverty figures are derived from the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) for the year 2022-23.
• The World Bank uses this consumption-based data to align India's economic status with global poverty tracking metrics.

Important Points

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDG): India's achievement is a significant contribution toward the United Nations' SDG 1, which aims to end poverty in all its forms everywhere by the year 2030.
• Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): The deployment of Aadhaar-linked DBT systems has minimized leakages in government subsidies, ensuring that financial assistance reaches the bank accounts of the poor directly and efficiently.
• Rural Poverty Decline: The June 2025 report observed that the reduction in poverty was particularly pronounced in rural areas, narrowing the traditional disparity between rural and urban poverty levels.
• International Comparison: At 2.3%, India's extreme poverty rate is now comparable to many upper-middle-income countries, marking its transition into a more prosperous economic bracket$.

The correct answer is Govindarajan Padmanabhan.

Key Points

• The Government of India announced the first edition of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar in 2024, which are the highest national awards in the field of science, technology, and innovation.
• Professor Govindarajan Padmanabhan was selected as the recipient of the prestigious Vigyan Ratna award for his lifetime achievements and monumental contributions to Biological Sciences.
• He is a renowned biochemist and has served as the former Director of the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), located in Bengaluru.
• His research work is globally recognized, particularly his studies on the molecular biology of the malaria parasite and the process of heme biosynthesis.
• The award ceremony was held on August 23, 2024, a date celebrated as National Space Day to commemorate the success of the Chandrayaan-3 mission.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) Structure:
• The awards are organized into four distinct categories: Vigyan Ratna, Vigyan Shri, Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar, and Vigyan Team.
• In 2024, a total of 33 awards were announced across these categories to honor scientists from various domains.
• Vigyan Shri Awards:
• This category recognizes distinguished contributions in science and technology. In 2024, 13 scientists were honored, including individuals like Anandharamakrishnan C. and Umesh Varshney.
• Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB):
• This award is aimed at young scientists under the age of 45 who have made exceptional contributions. A total of 18 researchers received this award in the inaugural year.
• Vigyan Team Award:
• This is awarded to a team of three or more scientists for collaborative excellence. The ISRO-Chandrayaan 3 team was the recipient of this award in 2024 for their historic lunar landing.

Important Points

• The Vigyan Ratna award is the top-most honor among the national science awards, reserved for lifetime achievement. Govindarajan Padmanabhan was the sole recipient of this specific category in 2024.
• Selection for these awards is carried out by the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Committee (RVPC), which is chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
• The awards cover 13 domains, including Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Sciences, Medicine, Engineering, and Agricultural Science, among others.
• Govindarajan Padmanabhan has previously been honored with the Padma Shri in 1991 and the Padma Bhushan in 2003 for his contributions to the biotechnology and science sectors in India.
• The institution of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar was part of a government initiative to streamline and bring all scientific awards under a unified, high-prestige framework.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Karnataka secured the second position in the country for effective management of its Protected Areas (PA) and National Parks (NP).
• The state achieved a performance score of 74.24% in the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) report released by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The evaluation was part of the 5^th cycle (2020-2025) of assessment, aimed at measuring how well National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries are being managed.
• Himachal Pradesh emerged as the top performer in this cycle, securing the first position with a score of 74.56%.
• This ranking reflects Karnataka's commitment to wildlife conservation, habitat management, and biodiversity protection through efficient administrative practices.

Additional Information

• Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE):
• It is a global tool used to assess how well Protected Areas are achieving their conservation objectives.
• India adopted the MEE framework based on the IUCN World Commission on Protected Areas guidelines.
• The assessment has been conducted in India since 2006 to ensure transparency and accountability in forest management.
• Protected Areas in Karnataka:
• Karnataka is home to 5 National Parks and over 30 Wildlife Sanctuaries.
• Major National Parks include Bandipur, Nagarhole (Rajiv Gandhi), Anshi (Kali), Kudremukh, and Bannerghatta.
• These areas are critical for the conservation of Tigers, Elephants, and other endangered species.
• Assessment Parameters:
• The MEE uses 30 indicators to evaluate management, categorized into six elements: Context, Planning, Inputs, Process, Outputs, and Outcomes.

Important Points

• The 5^th cycle of MEE-PA involved the evaluation of 128 National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries across India.
• The Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun, plays a vital role as the technical partner for the Ministry in conducting these evaluations.
• The high scores for Karnataka and Himachal Pradesh place them in the "Very Good" category of management effectiveness.
• Regular MEE cycles help the Government of India identify gaps in wildlife protection and allocate financial resources more effectively for conservation projects.

p>The correct answer is Amish Tripathi.

Key Points

• The book 'The Chola Tigers: Avengers of Somnath' is a prominent historical thriller presented and conceptualized by Amish Tripathi, released in 2023.
• This work is part of the Immortal Writers' Centre, an initiative founded by Amish Tripathi to mentor and collaborate with emerging writers to bring Indian history and mythology to the mainstream.
• The narrative is set in the 11^th century and follows a group of Chola warriors on a high-stakes mission to reclaim the prestige of India following the raid on the Somnath Temple by Mahmud of Ghazni.
• It highlights the legendary maritime strength of the Chola Empire and their commitment to protecting the cultural and religious integrity of the Indian subcontinent.
• The book blends historical facts with fast-paced fiction, showcasing the strategic brilliance of the Chola Dynasty, particularly their advanced naval warfare and intelligence networks. Hence, the correct answer is Amish Tripathi.

Additional Information

• Amish Tripathi:
• Often referred to as the "Tolkien of India", he is one of India's best-selling authors known for reimagining Indian mythology.
• His debut novel, The Immortals of Meluha, published in 2010, became a massive success and launched the Shiva Trilogy.
• He has also authored the Ram Chandra Series, which includes titles like Scion of Ikshvaku and Sita: Warrior of Mithila.
• His non-fiction works include Immortal India and Dharma: Decoding the Epics for a Meaningful Life.
• Arundhati Roy:
• A world-renowned Indian author and political activist.
• She won the prestigious Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 1997 for her debut novel, The God of Small Things.
• Her second major novel, The Ministry of Utmost Happiness, was published in 2017.
• She is also known for her essays on social justice, environment, and human rights.
• Natwar Singh:
• A former Indian diplomat and politician who served as the Minister of External Affairs from 2004 to 2005.
• He is an accomplished author, most famous for his autobiography One Life is Not Enough, published in 2014.
• His other works include My China Diary and Walking with Lions: Tales from a Diplomatic Past.
• Chola Empire Context:
• The Chola Dynasty was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in world history, primarily based in Southern India (modern-day Tamil Nadu).
• Under rulers like Rajaraja Chola I and Rajendra Chola I, the empire expanded its influence across Southeast Asia and the Indian Ocean.
• They are celebrated for their Dravidian architecture, exemplified by the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur.

The correct answer is Rajput Regiment.

Key Points

• The 10^th edition of the joint military exercise MITRA SHAKTI was conducted in August 2024 (often referred to in upcoming training cycles as the 2024-25 series). The Indian Army contingent was primarily represented by a battalion of the Rajput Regiment.
• The exercise took place from August 12 to August 25, 2024, at the Army Training School located in Maduru Oya, Sri Lanka.
• The Indian contingent comprised 120 personnel, while the Sri Lankan Army was represented by personnel from the Gajaba Regiment.
• The primary focus of the MITRA SHAKTI exercise is to enhance interoperability and mutual understanding between the two nations' armed forces, specifically for counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations.
• The Rajput Regiment, known for its bravery and long history, was chosen to lead the tactical drills, showcasing the Indian Army's expertise in sub-conventional operations. Hence, the correct answer is Rajput Regiment.

Additional Information

• Exercise MITRA SHAKTI:
• This is an annual bilateral exercise between India and Sri Lanka that began in 2012.
• It alternates between India and Sri Lanka; the 9^th edition was held in Aundh, Pune in November 2023.
• The exercise is conducted under the United Nations (UN) Charter, specifically Chapter VII, which deals with peace enforcement and security operations.
• Scope and Drills:
• The training involves tactical maneuvers, heliborne operations, and the integration of Unmanned Aerial Systems (UAS) and drones to counter modern threats.
• It also includes Combat Engineering tasks and exercises in semi-urban environments to prepare troops for diverse combat scenarios.
• Geopolitical Significance:
• The exercise strengthens the bilateral defense cooperation and the security architecture in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
• It fosters diplomatic ties and professional camaraderie between the soldiers of both neighboring countries.

Important Points

• The Rajput Regiment:
• One of the oldest and most prestigious infantry regiments of the Indian Army, it was formally established in 1778.
• The regiment has participated in several major conflicts, including both World Wars, the Indo-Pak wars, and various UN Peacekeeping missions.
• Other Options Context:
• While the Kumaon, Sikh, and Gorkha regiments are elite units of the Indian Army, they have represented India in different bilateral exercises such as SURYA KIRAN (with Nepal) or YUDH ABHYAS (with the USA) in recent years.
• The selection of the Rajput Regiment for MITRA SHAKTI-X highlights their specific specialization in the training modules required for the 2024-2025 training calendar.

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

• South Africa made history by winning their first-ever ICC World Test Championship (WTC) title in June 2025.
• The final was held at the iconic Lord's Cricket Ground in London, which is widely recognized as the "Home of Cricket".
• The Proteas (South Africa) achieved this feat by defeating Australia by a margin of 5 wickets in a highly competitive encounter.
• By winning this title, South Africa became the third nation to lift the WTC Mace, following New Zealand (2021) and Australia (2023).
• This victory concluded the 2023-2025 WTC cycle, where teams competed over two years in various bilateral series to qualify for the ultimate final.

Additional Information

• ICC World Test Championship (WTC):
• The WTC was introduced by the International Cricket Council to add context to Test Cricket, ensuring that every bilateral series contributes to a global ranking.
• The league involves the top nine Test-playing nations competing in series both at home and away.
• The first edition (2019-2021) was won by New Zealand, who defeated India at Southampton.
• The second edition (2021-2023) saw Australia emerge as champions after beating India at The Oval in London.
• Qualification Process:
• Teams are ranked based on the Percentage of Points (PCT) system rather than total points to account for the varying number of matches played by different nations.
• The top two teams on the points table at the end of the league phase advance to the one-off final match.
• Venues of WTC Finals:
• The finals have traditionally been hosted in England. The venues include the Rose Bowl (Southampton) in 2021, The Oval (London) in 2023, and Lord's (London) for the 2025 edition.

Important Points

• Australia's Performance: Australia entered the 2025 final as the defending champions but were unable to secure back-to-back titles against a resilient South African side.
• The WTC Mace: The winner of the final is awarded the ICC Test Championship Mace, symbolizing supremacy in the longest format of the game, along with a significant prize money component.
• Strategic Significance: The 2025 win by South Africa highlighted the growth of their domestic structures and the effectiveness of their pace-heavy bowling attack in English conditions.
• Match Summary: Chasing a target in the final innings at Lord's is historically difficult, making South Africa's 5-wicket victory a testament to their batting depth and composure under pressure.

The correct answer is 3.3%.

Key Points

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF), in its World Economic Outlook (WEO) Update, projected the global GDP growth rate for 2025 to be 3.3%. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• This projection reflects a period of economic resilience as global inflation is expected to fall faster than previously anticipated, despite significant monetary policy tightening by central banks.
• The January Update highlighted that the global economy is beginning the final descent toward a soft landing, with risks to global growth now broadly balanced.
• Growth in major advanced economies and emerging markets showed varied trends, with India remaining a bright spot among the fastest-growing large economies in the world.
• The report emphasizes that global trade is expected to recover, though it remains below historical averages due to geoeconomic fragmentation and trade barriers.

Additional Information

• World Economic Outlook (WEO):
• The WEO is a survey by the IMF staff published usually twice a year in April and October, with smaller Updates released in January and July.
• It provides analysis and projections of global economic developments, focusing on GDP growth, inflation, and fiscal balances across various countries and regions.
• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• The IMF is an international organization headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries.
• It was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference and began formal operations in 1945.
• Its primary mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system, including exchange rates and international payments.
• The current Managing Director is Kristalina Georgieva (as of recent terms).
• Economic Terminologies:
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product): The total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period.
• Soft Landing: A cyclical slowdown in economic growth that avoids a recession; usually the goal of a central bank when raising interest rates.
• Disinflation: A temporary slowing of the pace of price inflation.

Important Points

• Regional Outlooks:
• For India, the IMF has consistently maintained a robust growth projection, often exceeding 6.5% to 7.0%, driven by strong domestic demand and public investment.
• The United States growth projections are often adjusted based on Federal Reserve decisions and labor market strength.
• China's growth has faced headwinds due to the real estate sector crisis and subdued consumer confidence, influencing the total global average.
• Risks to Projections:
• Geopolitical Tensions: Conflicts in the Middle East or the Russia-Ukraine war can lead to spikes in commodity prices (oil and food), impacting the 2025 forecast.
• Fiscal Consolidation: Many countries are expected to reduce government spending to manage high debt levels accumulated during the pandemic, which may slightly dampen growth.

The correct answer is Sudan.

Key Points

• In December 2025, the government of Sudan officially approved a long-standing agreement with the Russian Federation to establish a naval logistics facility on the Red Sea.
• This facility, located at Port Sudan, serves as Russia's first permanent naval base on the African continent since the dissolution of the Soviet Union.
• The primary function of the base is to provide a strategic logistics hub for the Russian Navy, allowing for the repair, resupply, and rest of crew members operating in the Indian Ocean and Red Sea regions.
• The agreement permits Russia to station up to four warships at the facility simultaneously, including those equipped with nuclear propulsion systems, provided they adhere to international environmental safety standards.
• The move is seen as a significant expansion of Russia's geopolitical influence in North-East Africa and its ability to monitor critical maritime trade routes.

Additional Information

• Strategic Location of Port Sudan:
• Port Sudan is the main seaport of Sudan and is located on the western coast of the Red Sea. It is a vital gateway for international trade, especially for landlocked neighbors like Ethiopia and South Sudan.
• The Red Sea is one of the world's most crowded shipping lanes, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Indian Ocean via the Suez Canal and the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.
• Russia-Sudan Bilateral Relations:
• The defense cooperation between the two nations has grown significantly over the last decade, involving military training, arms sales, and resource extraction agreements, particularly in the gold mining sector.
• The deal for the naval base was initially conceptualized in 2017 during the administration of Omar al-Bashir but faced multiple delays due to political transitions and civil conflict within Sudan.
• Geopolitical Competition in the Region:
• The Horn of Africa and the Red Sea coast have become a focal point for global powers. Neighboring Djibouti already hosts military bases for the United States, China, France, and Japan.
• By securing a presence in Sudan, Russia aims to counterbalance Western influence and protect its commercial interests in Africa.

Important Points

• Duration of the Agreement: The treaty is set for an initial duration of 25 years. It includes a provision for an automatic 10-year extension unless either party provides written notice of termination at least one year before the expiry.
• Personnel and Capacity: The base is authorized to house a maximum of 300 personnel, including Russian military and civilian specialists. Russia is also granted the right to transport any weapons, ammunition, and equipment necessary for the base's operation through Sudanese ports and airports.
• Sovereignty and Security: While Russia manages the internal operations of the facility, the Sudanese government retains sovereignty over the territory. Russia has committed to providing Sudan with assistance in coastal defense and maritime security as part of the bilateral pact.
• Economic Impact: In exchange for the base, Russia provides Sudan with military hardware and technical support, which is critical for the Sudanese Armed Forces during periods of internal instability.

The correct answer is Virat Kohli.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli, playing for Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB), became the first Indian cricketer to amass 1000 runs against four different teams in the Indian Premier League (IPL) history by the 2025 season.
• The four franchises against which Kohli has achieved this milestone are Delhi Capitals (DC), Punjab Kings (PBKS), Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR), and Chennai Super Kings (CSK). Hence, the statement is correct regarding his record-breaking feat.
• This achievement highlights his immense consistency and longevity in the league, where he has been a part of the same franchise since the inaugural season in 2008.
• Before Kohli, only David Warner (an overseas player) had shown similar dominance against multiple teams, but Kohli is the pioneer among Indian batters to reach the quadruple 1000-run mark.
• During the 2024 and 2025 period, Kohli significantly accelerated his run-scoring, crossing the 8000-run total mark in the IPL, making him the all-time leading run-getter in the tournament.

Additional Information

• Rohit Sharma:
• The former Mumbai Indians captain was the first player in IPL history to score 1000 runs against a single team, which was Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR).
• He also crossed the 1000-run mark against Delhi Capitals (DC), but he currently trails Kohli in terms of the number of teams he has dominated to this extent.
• Shikhar Dhawan:
• Known for his prolific scoring at the top of the order, Dhawan has scored over 1000 runs against Chennai Super Kings (CSK) and has come close against Punjab Kings and Mumbai Indians.
• He is the second-highest run-scorer in IPL history after Virat Kohli, with over 6700 runs to his name across various franchises like SRH, DC, and PBKS.
• Suresh Raina:
• Often called "Mr. IPL", Raina was the first player to reach the 5000-run milestone in the league.
• While he was highly consistent for Chennai Super Kings, he retired from the IPL before he could complete 1000 runs against four individual opponents.
• David Warner:
• The Australian opening batter holds the record for the most 50+ scores in the IPL.
• He has scored 1000+ runs against Kolkata Knight Riders and Punjab Kings, showcasing the highest level of dominance by an overseas player.

Important Points

• IPL Centuries Record: Virat Kohli also holds the record for the most centuries in the IPL, surpassing Chris Gayle's long-standing record of 6 centuries. As of 2024/25, Kohli has recorded 8 centuries.
• Orange Cap: Kohli won the Orange Cap in the 2016 season with a record-breaking 973 runs and again showcased elite form in the 2024 season to win the Orange Cap with over 741 runs.
• Single Franchise Loyalty: Virat Kohli is the only player in the history of the IPL to have played for the same franchise (Royal Challengers Bengaluru) in every single season since 2008.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• In the Union Budget 2025–26, presented by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, the government announced the establishment of a dedicated Makhana Board in the state of Bihar.
• The primary objective of this board is to provide a comprehensive framework for boosting the production, processing, and international marketing of Makhana (fox nuts).
• Bihar is the leading producer of Makhana in India, contributing approximately 80% to 90% of the total national production and a significant portion of the global supply.
• The establishment of the board aims to integrate modern technology in the cultivation process and ensure fair pricing for farmers by eliminating middle-men through better market linkages. Hence, the correct answer is Bihar.
• This initiative is part of a larger plan to promote specialized agriculture and agro-based industries in the eastern region of India to improve rural livelihoods.

Additional Information

• Mithila Makhana GI Tag:
• In August 2022, the Geographical Indication (GI) tag was awarded to Mithila Makhana, which ensures that only registered users from the Mithila region can use the name for the product.
• This tag has significantly enhanced the brand value of Bihar's Makhana in the export market, reaching countries like the USA, European Union, and Middle East.
• Nutritional and Biological Profile:
• Makhana is derived from the seeds of the aquatic plant Euryale ferox, often referred to as Gorgon nut or fox nut.
• It is considered a superfood due to its high protein and fiber content while being low in calories and saturated fats.
• It is rich in antioxidants and essential minerals like magnesium, potassium, and phosphorus, making it a popular choice in Ayurvedic medicine and healthy snacking.
• Cultivation Districts in Bihar:
• The major districts involved in Makhana cultivation include Darbhanga, Madhubani, Purnia, Katihar, and Saharasa.
• The ICAR-National Research Centre for Makhana is located in Darbhanga, which conducts vital research on crop improvement and post-harvest management.

Important Points

• Economic Impact: The new board is expected to benefit over 5 lakh farmers and workers involved in the Makhana value chain in North Bihar.
• Budgetary Context: The Union Budget 2025–26 has prioritized agricultural infrastructure and value-addition to double the income of farmers practicing non-traditional farming.
• Storage and Logistics: One of the key focuses of the Makhana Board will be the creation of cold storage facilities and testing laboratories to meet international food safety standards for export.
• Government Schemes: The board will work in tandem with the PM Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) scheme to provide financial and technical support to small-scale processors.

The correct answer is National Urban Conclave 2025.

Key Points

• The Dumpsite Remediation Accelerator Programme (DRAP) was officially unveiled by the Government of India in November 2025.
• The announcement took place during the National Urban Conclave 2025, which is a premier platform for discussing urban governance and sustainable infrastructure. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
• The primary objective of DRAP is to provide a structured and accelerated framework for the remediation of legacy waste dumpsites that have been a long-standing environmental challenge in urban India.
• The programme aims to support Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) by streamlining financial mechanisms and providing advanced technical guidelines to ensure the complete reclamation of land occupied by old landfills.
• This initiative is a critical step towards achieving the "Garbage-Free Cities" vision under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U) 2.0, targeting the clearance of thousands of existing dumpsites across the country.

Additional Information

• Legacy Waste Remediation:
• Legacy waste refers to the millions of tonnes of mixed municipal solid waste that has been accumulating at dumpsites for decades.
• The remediation process typically involves Bio-mining and Bio-remediation, where waste is stabilized and then screened to separate recyclables, Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF), and fine soil/inert materials.
• Reclaiming these sites is essential to prevent groundwater contamination and the emission of hazardous gases like Methane.
• Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0:
• Launched in October 2021, SBM-U 2.0 focuses on sustainable solid waste management and wastewater management.
• A major component of the mission is to ensure that all legacy dumpsites in India are remediated by March 2026.
• The DRAP initiative acts as an "accelerator" to ensure states and cities meeting these tight deadlines through enhanced monitoring and funding support.
• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA):
• The MoHUA is the nodal ministry responsible for the implementation of DRAP and the National Urban Conclave.
• The ministry provides Central Assistance to states, often ranging from 25% to 90% depending on the category of the city and its population.

Important Points

• Environmental Impact: Successfully clearing legacy waste helps in reducing the carbon footprint of cities and prevents frequent landfill fires, which are common during summer months in India.
• Circular Economy: The DRAP emphasizes the Circular Economy principle by encouraging the conversion of extracted waste into useful resources, such as using RDF in cement kilns and using recovered inert materials for road construction.
• Scale of Operations: As per government estimates, there are over 2,400+ major legacy dumpsites across India containing more than 15 crore tonnes of waste, requiring urgent intervention through programmes like DRAP.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Delhi government issued a directive making it mandatory for all construction and demolition sites with a plot area of more than 3,000 square metres to install anti-smog guns to control dust pollution.
• This mandate is part of the city's year-round effort to combat deteriorating air quality, particularly focusing on Particulate Matter (PM 10 and PM 2.5) generated from Construction and Demolition (C&D) activities.
• The Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC) is the primary body responsible for monitoring the implementation of this rule and ensuring that these devices are operational during work hours.
• Prior to this, the threshold for mandatory anti-smog guns was higher, but the government lowered it to 3,000 square metres to cover a larger number of mid-sized private and public infrastructure projects.
• Failure to comply with these regulations leads to heavy environmental compensation fines and the potential stoppage of work under the direction of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).

Additional Information

• Anti-smog Guns:
• An anti-smog gun is a device that sprays atomized water (tiny droplets) into the air through a high-pressure propeller.
• The water droplets bind with dust particles and suspended particulate matter, causing them to settle on the ground, thereby clearing the air.
• These devices are often mounted on trucks or stationary platforms at high-vulnerability points like large excavation sites.
• Dust Mitigation Guidelines:
• Construction sites in Delhi are required to follow a 14-point dust mitigation checklist, which includes covering materials with green tarpaulin and washing vehicle tires.
• Project proponents must register on the C&D Waste Management Portal to allow the government to monitor self-compliance through remote sensing and video feeds.
• Air Quality Context:
• Delhi frequently records AQI (Air Quality Index) levels in the 'Poor' to 'Severe' categories, especially during the onset of winter.
• The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is an emergency framework that kicks in depending on the severity of pollution, where Stage I to Stage IV measures are applied across the National Capital Region (NCR).

Important Points

• CAQM (Commission for Air Quality Management): This is a statutory body established for better coordination, research, and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality in the NCR and adjoining areas like Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
• PM 10 vs PM 2.5: PM 10 refers to particles with a diameter of 10 micrometers or less (often dust), while PM 2.5 refers to finer particles (often from combustion) that can penetrate deep into the lungs. Anti-smog guns are particularly effective against the coarser PM 10 dust.
• Regulatory Evolution: The evolution of these rules shows a transition from voluntary compliance to strict legal mandates, reflecting the urgency of the environmental crisis in North India.

The correct answer is The Indian Council of Medical Research.

Key Points

• The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) released the second edition of the draft National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) in January 2025 to enhance the diagnostic infrastructure across the country.
• The NEDL serves as a comprehensive guide for the government to prioritize the availability of essential diagnostic tests at various levels of healthcare, ranging from Village-level facilities to Tertiary Care centers.
• India became the first country in the world to compile and release a National Essential Diagnostics List when the first edition was launched in 2019.
• The 2025 draft edition includes updated lists of in-vitro diagnostics (IVDs), including tests for infectious diseases, non-communicable diseases (NCDs), and specialized tests for maternal and child health.
• The primary objective of the ICMR through this list is to bridge the gap between clinical diagnosis and treatment, ensuring that patients do not have to travel long distances for basic diagnostic services. Hence, the correct answer is The Indian Council of Medical Research.

Additional Information

• The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR):
• Established in 1911 as the Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA), it was renamed ICMR in 1949.
• It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research and is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• Headquartered in New Delhi, it oversees 27 institutes across India focusing on specific health topics like virology, nutrition, and oncology.
• WHO Essential Diagnostics List (EDL):
• The NEDL is inspired by the World Health Organization’s (WHO) first Essential Diagnostics List, which was released in May 2018 to provide a blueprint for countries to improve diagnostic access.
• While the WHO EDL provides a global reference, the ICMR's NEDL is tailored to the specific epidemiological profile and healthcare needs of the Indian population.
• Structure of the List:
• The list categorizes tests based on healthcare settings: Level 1 (Health and Wellness Centers), Level 2 (Primary Health Centers), Level 3 (Community Health Centers), and Level 4 (District Hospitals).
• It includes General laboratory tests (blood, urine, etc.) and Disease-specific tests (HIV, Hepatitis, Malaria, Tuberculosis, etc.).

Important Points

• Benefits of NEDL:
• Standardizes diagnostic services, ensuring quality assurance and cost-effectiveness in the procurement of medical kits.
• Helps in reducing out-of-pocket expenditure (OOPE) for citizens by making essential tests available at public health facilities for free or at subsidized rates.
• Promotes evidence-based medical practice by ensuring doctors have reliable diagnostic data before starting treatment.
• Technological Inclusion in 2025:
• The second edition draft emphasizes the inclusion of Point-of-Care (PoC) tests and Molecular diagnostics, which allow for rapid results in rural and remote areas.
• It also accounts for emerging pathogens and antimicrobial resistance (AMR) by including specific sensitivity tests.