General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Technology for Risk Reduction – For a Safer Nation.

Key Points

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) observed its 21^st Formation Day on 26 September 2025.
• The specific theme for the 2025 celebration was “Technology for Risk Reduction – For a Safer Nation”, emphasizing the pivotal role of modern scientific advancements in mitigating the impact of natural and man-made calamities.
• This theme underscores the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI), remote sensing, Geographic Information Systems (GIS), and Big Data analytics to improve disaster preparedness and response mechanisms across India.
• The event serves as a platform for stakeholders to discuss the implementation of Early Warning Systems (EWS) and the development of disaster-resilient infrastructure using high-end engineering technologies.
• By focusing on technology, the NDMA aims to minimize the loss of life and property through precise forecasting and real-time monitoring of hazards such as cyclones, floods, and earthquakes. Hence, the correct answer is Technology for Risk Reduction – For a Safer Nation.

Additional Information

• About NDMA:
• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India.
• It was formally constituted on 27 September 2006, in accordance with the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the NDMA.
• The primary mandate of the authority is to lay down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management to ensure a timely and effective response.
• Institutional Framework:
• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for the management of natural disasters in India.
• The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is the specialized multi-disciplinary force that works under the NDMA for rescue and relief operations during emergencies.
• At the state and district levels, the framework is replicated through the State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) and District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMAs).

Important Points

• Historical Context: The Disaster Management Act was enacted by the Parliament of India following the devastating 2004 Tsunami, highlighting the need for a proactive rather than reactive approach to disasters.
• Technological Tools in India: Initiatives like the Sachet portal for early warnings and Bhuvan (the geo-platform of ISRO) are critical tools used by the NDMA for vulnerability mapping and risk assessment.
• Global Alignment: The theme “Technology for Risk Reduction” aligns with the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (2015-2030), which India is a signatory to, promoting the use of science and technology in understanding disaster risk.
• Functions of NDMA: Apart from policy making, it approves the National Plan and assists State Authorities in formulating their own disaster management strategies.

The correct answer is Holambi Kalan.

Key Points

• The Delhi Government approved the development of India’s first electronic waste (e-waste) eco-park at Holambi Kalan in North West Delhi.
• Spanning across approximately 21 acres, the facility is designed to be a state-of-the-art hub for the scientific disposal and recycling of electronic waste.
• The park aims to address the growing issue of e-waste by integrating the informal sector into a formal, regulated framework, ensuring safe handling of hazardous materials.
• It functions as an integrated center where dismantling, refurbishing, and material recovery take place under one roof, serving as a model for sustainable urban development in India.
• This initiative was officially announced and approved by the Delhi Cabinet in February 2022 to mitigate the environmental risks posed by the massive amount of e-waste generated in the national capital.

Additional Information

• Understanding E-Waste:
• Electronic waste includes discarded computers, smartphones, televisions, refrigerators, and circuit boards that have reached the end of their useful life.
• India is currently the third-largest producer of e-waste in the world, following China and the USA.
• Delhi alone produces roughly 2 lakh tonnes of e-waste annually, which accounts for nearly 9.5% of the total e-waste generated in the country.
• Components of the Eco-Park:
• The Holambi Kalan facility will house specialized units for pre-processing, metal extraction, and refining.
• It will focus on recovering valuable resources such as gold, silver, copper, and aluminum from electronic components, which otherwise end up in landfills.
• The park will also include training centers for workers to learn modern and safe recycling techniques.

Important Points

• Environmental and Health Safety:
• E-waste contains toxic substances like lead, mercury, cadmium, and brominated flame retardants which can cause severe health issues and soil contamination if not handled properly.
• By moving recycling to a regulated eco-park, the government ensures that these toxins do not leach into the groundwater or pollute the atmosphere during processing.
• Regulatory Framework:
• The management of such waste is governed by the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016, and the revised 2022 rules, which emphasize Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR).
• Under EPR, manufacturers and producers are held accountable for the end-of-life management of the electronic products they place on the market.
• The Delhi State Pollution Control Committee (DPCC) plays a crucial role in monitoring the standards and operations within such environmental projects.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• According to the Fiscal Health Report for the financial year 2022-23, Odisha has been recognized for its exceptional performance in fiscal management, often ranking at the top in terms of fiscal sustainability and prudence.
• The index evaluates states based on four critical fiscal parameters: fiscal deficit, own tax revenue, state debt as a percentage of GSDP, and interest payments as a percentage of revenue receipts.
• For FY 2022-23, Odisha demonstrated a robust debt-to-GSDP ratio and effectively managed its fiscal deficit within the limits prescribed by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act. Hence, the correct answer is Odisha.
• While Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh were also high performers, Odisha stood out due to its high capital expenditure and low interest burden relative to its total revenue.
• The NITI Aayog and other financial analysts utilize these indices to provide a comparative analysis of how Indian states manage their finances and resources to ensure long-term economic stability.

Additional Information

• Parameters of Fiscal Health:
• Fiscal Deficit: This represents the gap between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts (excluding borrowings). A lower deficit indicates better health.
• Own Tax Revenue: This is the revenue generated by the state through its own taxes (like SGST, excise duty, and stamp duty) without relying on central transfers.
• Debt-to-GSDP Ratio: This ratio compares a state's public debt to its Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP). It is a key indicator of a state's ability to pay back its debts.
• Interest Payments: The percentage of revenue used to pay interest on previous loans. High interest payments can limit the funds available for developmental projects.
• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India):
• Established on January 1, 2015, it replaced the Planning Commission.
• It serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• The Prime Minister serves as the Ex-officio Chairperson, while the Vice-Chairperson is appointed by the Prime Minister.
• Comparative Rankings:
• In various fiscal reports for FY23, Maharashtra often occupied the first position in overall economic size, but Odisha was frequently hailed for fiscal discipline.
• States like Gujarat and Karnataka generally perform well in Own Tax Revenue due to high industrialization and service sector growth.
• Conversely, states like West Bengal, Punjab, and Kerala have often been flagged for high debt levels and fiscal stress.

Important Points

• FRBM Act, 2003: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act was enacted to institutionalize financial discipline, reduce India's fiscal deficit, and improve public funds management.
• Finance Commission: The 15^th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, provided recommendations for the devolution of taxes from the Centre to the States for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• Article 293: Under the Constitution of India, this article deals with borrowing by States. It stipulates that a State may not raise any loan without the consent of the Government of India if there is still outstanding any part of a loan made to the State by the Central Government.

The correct answer is ₹500 crore.

Key Points

• On 11 March 2025, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the establishment of a corpus for a contingency fund in Manipur.
• The announcement was made during the discussion and subsequent passing of the ‘Manipur Appropriation Bill, 2025’ and ‘The Manipur Appropriation (Vote on Account) Bill, 2025’ in the Lok Sabha.
• The corpus amount designated for this contingency fund is ₹500 crore, aimed at providing the state government with the necessary liquidity to meet unforeseen and urgent expenditures.
• The Finance Minister highlighted that this fund is crucial for maintaining administrative stability and ensuring that essential services are not disrupted due to financial constraints in the state.
• This move comes as part of the Union Government's efforts to support Manipur during its reconstruction and stabilization phase, ensuring that immediate fiscal needs are addressed without delay.

Additional Information

• Manipur Appropriation Bill, 2025:
• This bill authorizes the government to withdraw specific sums from the Consolidated Fund of Manipur for the service of the financial year 2025-26.
• In the absence of a functional State Legislative Assembly or under President’s Rule, the Parliament exercises the power to pass the budget and appropriation bills for the state.
• Vote on Account:
• A Vote on Account is a grant in advance to allow the government to cover its expenditure for a part of the financial year until the full budget and Appropriation Bill are passed.
• It ensures that the machinery of the state continues to function even if the detailed discussion on the budget takes longer than expected.
• Fiscal Support for Manipur:
• The Union Government has been providing special financial assistance to Manipur to handle security, relief, and rehabilitation efforts following the socio-political challenges in the region.
• The ₹500 crore fund is a specific allocation over and above the regular budgetary allocations to create a safety net for the state's finances.

Important Points

• Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 267(2) of the Constitution of India empowers the State Legislature to establish a Contingency Fund of the State.
• This fund is placed at the disposal of the Governor of the state to enable advances to be made for meeting unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization of such expenditure by the State Legislature.
• Appropriation Bill Process:
• Under Article 204 (for states) and Article 114 (for the Union), no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.
• Since Manipur's budget was presented in the Lok Sabha, the Finance Minister steered the legislative process to ensure the financial year 2025-26 begins with adequate funding for the state.
• Role of the Lok Sabha:
• The Lok Sabha has the primary authority over Money Bills and Appropriation Bills. Once passed by the Lok Sabha, these bills are sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.

The correct answer is World Bank Group.

Key Points

• The Global Economic Prospects (GEP) is a flagship report issued by the World Bank Group that examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging market and developing economies (EMDEs).
• It is published twice a year, typically in January and June. The report issued in June 2025 continues the tradition of providing comprehensive forecasts for global growth, inflation, and trade.
• The GEP serves as a vital tool for policymakers and investors by identifying downside risks such as geopolitical instability, high debt levels, and financial market volatility.
• The report often includes analytical chapters on topical issues, such as the impact of interest rate cycles, investment trends, and the economic consequences of climate change on developing nations.
• By providing data-driven insights and forecasts for over 150 countries, the World Bank helps guide international development strategies and poverty reduction efforts.

Additional Information

• World Bank Group:
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.
• It comprises five institutions, including the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
• Its primary goals are to end extreme poverty and promote shared prosperity by providing loans, grants, and technical assistance to low and middle-income countries.
• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• While often confused with the World Bank, the IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Global Financial Stability Report.
• The IMF focuses primarily on macroeconomic stability, exchange rate regimes, and providing temporary financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments crises.
• Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• Founded in 1966 and based in Manila, Philippines, the ADB focuses on the Asia-Pacific region.
• Its flagship publication is the Asian Development Outlook (ADO), which provides economic analysis and growth projections specifically for Asian economies.
• World Economic Forum (WEF):
• An international non-governmental organization based in Cologny, Switzerland, famous for its annual meeting in Davos.
• It publishes the Global Risks Report and the Global Competitiveness Report, focusing on public-private cooperation and global governance.

Important Points

• The World Bank also publishes the World Development Report (WDR), which is an annual guide to the economic, social, and environmental state of the world today.
• As of 2024-2025, the World Bank is led by President Ajay Banga, who has emphasized climate finance and private sector mobilization as key pillars of the bank's evolution roadmap.
• The GEP report is distinct from the Global Financial Development Report, another World Bank publication that focuses specifically on the financial sector's role in development.

The correct answer is ASEAN-China Summit.

Key Points

• The ASEAN-China Summit involving regional leaders from East and Southeast Asia was scheduled to be held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, on 26–27 May 2025.
• This high-level meeting is a cornerstone of Malaysia's tenure as the ASEAN Chair for the year 2025, having officially taken over the leadership from Laos.
• The summit focuses on deepening the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership between the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and the People's Republic of China, which was established in 2021.
• Discussions during the May 2025 session primarily centered on the finalization of the ASEAN-China Free Trade Area (ACFTA) 3.0 Upgrade, aimed at boosting trade in digital technology and green energy. Hence, the statement regarding the summit type and location is correct.
• Security and maritime cooperation, specifically the negotiation for a Code of Conduct (CoC) in the South China Sea, remained a critical agenda item to maintain regional stability and freedom of navigation.

Additional Information

• Malaysia's ASEAN Chairmanship 2025:
• Malaysia officially assumed the ASEAN Chairmanship on January 1, 2025.
• The theme for the 2025 summits is "Inclusivity and Sustainability," reflecting Malaysia's commitment to equitable economic growth across the 10 member states.
• The Kuala Lumpur summits in 2025 are significant as they mark the transition toward the ASEAN Community Vision 2045.
• East Asia Summit (EAS):
• The East Asia Summit is a premier leaders-led forum for strategic dialogue and cooperation on political, security, and economic issues in the Indo-Pacific region.
• It includes 18 participating countries: the 10 ASEAN member states plus Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia, and the United States.
• While related, the EAS is typically held later in the year, usually in the fourth quarter, alongside the main ASEAN Summit.
• Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) 2025:
• The APEC Summit is a separate inter-governmental forum for 21 member economies in the Pacific Rim.
• In 2025, the APEC host is the Republic of Korea (South Korea), not Malaysia.

Important Points

• Economic Impact: China has remained ASEAN's largest trading partner for over 15 consecutive years, while ASEAN has been China's top trading partner since 2020.
• RCEP Integration: The ASEAN-China Summit also serves to review the implementation of the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), which entered into force in 2022 and includes China and all ASEAN members.
• Connectivity: A major part of the ASEAN-China dialogue involves the synergy between the Master Plan on ASEAN Connectivity (MPAC) 2025 and China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
• Historical Context: ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Its current members include Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam, with Timor-Leste as an observer.

The correct answer is 2.3%.

Key Points

• According to the World Bank's Poverty and Equity Brief Report 2025, India has demonstrated a significant decline in extreme poverty over the last decade.
• The extreme poverty rate in India, measured using the international poverty line of $2.15 per person per day (at 2017 PPP), fell to 2.3% in the year 2022-23.
• In the 2011-12 period, the extreme poverty rate was recorded at 16.2%, highlighting a sharp reduction in the proportion of the population living in absolute deprivation.
• The data used in this brief is primarily based on the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) for 2022-23, which was released by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• This trend indicates that India is moving closer to achieving the Sustainable Development Goal 1 (SDG 1) of ending poverty in all its forms by 2030.

Additional Information

• International Poverty Line:
• The World Bank updated the global extreme poverty line to $2.15** in **September 2022**, replacing the previous **$1.90 line. This change was based on 2017 Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) to reflect changes in the cost of living across countries.
• Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2022-23:
• This survey was crucial as it provided official consumption data for India after a gap of 11 years. It used a revamped methodology, including multiple visits to households and a modernized questionnaire, to capture consumption patterns accurately.
• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
• Apart from income-based poverty, NITI Aayog tracks Multidimensional Poverty in India. Their 2024 reports suggest that nearly 24.82 crore Indians escaped multidimensional poverty between 2013-14 and 2022-23.
• Gini Index and Inequality:
• The World Bank report also monitors the Gini Index, which measures consumption inequality. Recent data suggests that while poverty has decreased, consumption inequality in India has shown signs of stabilization, with the Gini coefficient in rural areas declining more noticeably than in urban areas.

Important Points

• Social Welfare Schemes: Large-scale government interventions such as the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY), which provides free foodgrains to approximately 80 crore beneficiaries, have played a vital role in cushioning the vulnerable population from extreme poverty, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Purchasing Power Parity (PPP): The calculations utilize 2017 PPP dollars, which is a spatial price index that allows for the comparison of the real value of currencies across different countries, neutralizing the effect of price level differences.
• Regional Variations: While the national average stands at 2.3%, the World Bank notes that poverty reduction has been widespread, though specific states in the BIMARU region continue to require targeted policy interventions to sustain these gains$.

The correct answer is Dharali.

Key Points

• On 5 August 2025, the village of Dharali, located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, witnessed severe devastation due to a cloudburst and subsequent flash flood.
• The cloudburst occurred in the higher reaches of the mountains, causing the Kheer Ganga (a local rivulet) to overflow with massive amounts of debris and sludge, which entered the residential and commercial areas of Dharali.
• Dharali is a prominent village situated in the Harsil valley on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, approximately 20 kilometers before the Gangotri shrine. Hence, the correct answer is Dharali.
• The flash flood caused significant damage to the Gangotri National Highway (NH-108), cutting off connectivity to the border areas and the holy shrine, while also damaging local apple orchards, which are the primary source of livelihood for the villagers.
• Rescue operations were promptly initiated by the State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) and local administration to evacuate residents and pilgrims stranded in the Harsil and Dharali regions.

Additional Information

• Cloudbursts in the Himalayas:
• A cloudburst is a localized weather phenomenon characterized by an unexpected and very heavy rainfall, usually exceeding 100 mm per hour over a small geographical area (approx. 20-30 sq km).
• In Uttarakhand, the complex topography of the Himalayas often traps moisture-laden winds, leading to rapid condensation and intense spells of rain during the monsoon months of July and August.
• Geographical Context of Options:
• Pangot: It is a world-renowned bird-watching destination located near Nainital at an altitude of about 1,983 meters. It was not the site of the 2025 Uttarkashi disaster.
• Kanatal: This is a quiet hill station located in the Tehri Garhwal district on the Mussoorie-Chamba road, known for its views of the Shivalik range.
• Bhowali: Situated at an elevation of 1,706 meters, it is a major fruit market and town in the Nainital district, serving as a gateway to the Kumaon region.
• Uttarkashi District:
• Uttarkashi, often called "Kashi of the North," is a border district of Uttarakhand that shares its boundary with Tibet (China).
• It is the source of two of India's holiest rivers: the Ganga (at Gangotri) and the Yamuna (at Yamunotri).
• The region is highly vulnerable to seismic activity (falling in Zone V) and extreme weather events like landslides and glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs).
• Disaster Management:
• The Uttarakhand State Disaster Management Authority (USDMA) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD) continuously monitor high-altitude weather patterns to issue early warnings for cloudbursts.
• Incidents like the one in Dharali highlight the increasing frequency of extreme weather events in the Himalayan ecosystem, often attributed to climate change and environmental degradation.

The correct answer is Italy.

Key Points

• The Special Olympics World Winter Games 2025 are scheduled to be hosted in Italy, specifically centered in the Piedmont region.
• The event is set to take place from March 8 to March 16, 2025, marking a significant return of international disability sports to the Italian Alps.
• The city of Turin (Torino) serves as the primary hub for the games, utilizing world-class facilities that previously hosted the 2006 Olympic and Paralympic Winter Games.
• Approximately 2,500 athletes and 625 coaches representing 103 countries are expected to participate in this global event.
• This is the first time Italy has been selected to host the World Winter Games of the Special Olympics, further solidifying its reputation as a premier destination for winter sports and social inclusion.

Additional Information

• Sports Disciplines:
• The 2025 Games will feature eight winter sports: Alpine Skiing, Cross-Country Skiing, Snowboarding, Snowshoeing, Figure Skating, Speed Skating, Floorball, and Dance Sport.
• Dance Sport is a relatively new addition to the Special Olympics repertoire, highlighting the evolving nature of the competition.
• Key Venues:
• Competitions will be spread across several locations in Piedmont, including Bardonecchia, Sestriere, and Pragelato, which are renowned for their high-altitude terrains and snow quality.
• Impact and Inclusion:
• The Special Olympics mission is to provide year-round sports training and athletic competition for children and adults with intellectual disabilities.
• The event aims to promote the "Inclusion Revolution," using sports to break down barriers and foster a more accepting society for people of all abilities.

Important Points

• Organizational History:
• The Special Olympics was founded in 1968 by Eunice Kennedy Shriver. The first International Special Olympics Summer Games were held at Soldier Field in Chicago.
• Unlike the Paralympics, which focus on physical disabilities, the Special Olympics specifically cater to individuals with intellectual disabilities.
• Global Governance:
• The selection of Italy was finalized by the Special Olympics International (SOI) Board of Directors, recognizing Italy's robust infrastructure and commitment to the Special Olympics Italy national program.
• Future Prospects:
• The 2025 Winter Games serve as a precursor to other major sporting events in the country, including the 2026 Milano-Cortina Winter Olympics, showcasing Italy's decade of dominance in hosting global winter sports.

The correct answer is D.Y. Chandrachud.

Key Points

• The book titled 'Why the Constitution Matters' is authored by Justice D.Y. Chandrachud (Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud), who served as the 50^th Chief Justice of India.
• In this work, the author explores the transformative power of the Indian Constitution and how it serves as a living document that evolves with the needs of society.
• Justice D.Y. Chandrachud assumed the office of Chief Justice on 9^th November 2022 and served until 10^th November 2024.
• The book emphasizes the role of the judiciary in upholding constitutional morality and protecting the fundamental rights of every citizen, regardless of their background.
• It highlights the significance of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) and the concept of liberty, equality, and fraternity as envisioned by the Constitution's makers, including Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Additional Information

• D.Y. Chandrachud:
• Before becoming the CJI, he served as a judge in the Supreme Court of India and as the Chief Justice of the Allahabad High Court.
• He is noted for his landmark judgments on the Right to Privacy (Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case), the decriminalization of Section 377, and the Sabarimala verdict.
• His father, Y.V. Chandrachud, remains the longest-serving Chief Justice of India in history.
• Natwar Singh:
• K. Natwar Singh was a distinguished diplomat and former Union Minister for External Affairs.
• He is famous for his autobiography titled 'One Life is Not Enough', published in 2014, which provided insights into Indian politics and foreign policy.
• Bibek Debroy:
• He was a prominent economist and served as the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).
• He is well-known for his English translations of the Mahabharata, the Bhagavad Gita, and the Puranas, as well as his writings on economic reforms and constitutional history.
• Arif Mohammad Khan:
• He is a veteran politician currently serving as the Governor of Kerala (appointed in September 2019).
• He is an advocate for social and religious reform within the Islamic community and is known for his role in the Shah Bano case debate during the 1980s.

Important Points

• The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26^th November 1949, a date now celebrated as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas).
• It came into effective force on 26^th January 1950, marking the birth of the Republic of India.
• The Supreme Court of India acts as the custodian and final interpreter of the Constitution, ensuring that the legislature and executive do not exceed their constitutional limits.
• The Basic Structure Doctrine, established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), ensures that the essential features of the Constitution cannot be altered by Parliament.

The correct answer is 200 m.

Key Points

• Animesh Kujur is a prominent Indian sprinter who has specialized in the 200 m track event, achieving significant milestones in the 2024 athletic season.
• During the Federation Cup 2024 held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, Animesh Kujur clocked a remarkable time of 20.62 seconds in the 200 m category.
• With this timing, he became the second-fastest Indian in history in the 200 m sprint, coming incredibly close to the standing national record.
• His performance at the Kalinga Stadium was a major highlight of the meet, as he broke the previous Meet Record and set a new Personal Best, which is often recognized as breaking his own previous competitive benchmarks.
• The sprinter has shown consistent growth, also performing well in the 63^rd National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships in Panchkula, where he secured a Gold medal in the same event with a time of 20.65 seconds.

Additional Information

• National Record Context: The current National Record for the men's 200 m in India is held by Amlan Borgohain, who clocked 20.52 seconds in 2022. Animesh Kujur's 20.62 seconds is the closest any Indian has gotten to this mark recently.
• Athlete Background: Animesh Kujur hails from Chhattisgarh and has been training under the Reliance Foundation Athletics High-Performance Centre. His rapid improvement has made him a key contender for international events like the Asian Games and World Athletics Championships.
• Event Characteristics: The 200 m race is a sprint event that begins on the curve of a standard 400 m track and ends on the home straight. It requires a combination of explosive acceleration and speed endurance.
• Comparison with other Events:
• 100 m: A straight-line dash where Animesh also competes, but his most significant record-threatening times have occurred in the longer sprint.
• 400 m: Known as the "quarter-mile," this event requires different physiological pacing compared to the 200 m.
• 800 m: This is a middle-distance event requiring aerobic capacity, which is outside the specialty of a pure sprinter like Kujur.
• Olympic Qualification: High-profile domestic meets like the Federation Cup and Inter-State Championships serve as crucial platforms for Indian athletes to meet the Olympic Entry Standards for the Paris 2024 Games.

Important Points

• Timing Evolution: In May 2024, Animesh's time of 20.62 seconds was significant because it surpassed the Asian Championships qualifying standard set by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• Governance: Athletics in India is governed by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), which organizes the National Inter-State and Federation Cup events to scout and prepare talent for global stages.
• Speed Training: Athletes like Animesh Kujur utilize advanced sports science and biomechanical analysis at high-performance centers to shave milliseconds off their records in technical events like the 200 m.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in its economic assessment for May 2025, confirmed that India’s industrial and services sectors continue to lead the nation's economic growth.
• The central bank highlighted that the Services sector remained the primary engine of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), bolstered by strong domestic demand and export of services.
• The Industrial sector showed significant resilience, particularly in Manufacturing and Construction, supported by the government’s Capital Expenditure (CAPEX) initiatives and the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes.
• Despite the positive trajectory in production and output, the RBI raised concerns regarding unemployment challenges, noting that the growth has not yet fully translated into proportionate job creation across all demographics.
• The RBI uses high-frequency indicators such as the Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) and GST collections to validate these growth trends in the May 2025 report.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• It was nationalized on January 1, 1949, and serves as the Central Bank of India, regulating the monetary policy and the banking system.
• The Governor of RBI (currently Shaktikanta Das as of recent years) leads the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), which meets bi-monthly to decide on interest rates like the Repo Rate.
• Industrial and Services Sector Metrics:
• Index of Industrial Production (IIP): An index that details the growth of various sectors in the economy such as Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity.
• PMI (Purchasing Managers' Index): An indicator of the economic health of the manufacturing and service sectors; a reading above 50 indicates expansion.
• The Services Sector in India contributes more than 50% to the Gross Value Added (GVA), making it the most dominant part of the economy.
• Unemployment and Labor Trends:
• Unemployment is often tracked via the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
• "Jobless growth" is a condition where the economy grows without a corresponding increase in employment opportunities, a phenomenon the RBI monitors to ensure financial stability.

Important Points

• Role of NITI Aayog: While NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) serves as the policy think-tank of the government, the RBI is the statutory body responsible for the macroeconomic data and inflation control.
• Financial Stability Report (FSR): This is a bi-annual report released by the RBI that assesses the resilience of India's financial sector and identifies risks to economic growth.
• Growth vs. Development: The RBI often distinguishes between numerical growth (GDP) and inclusive development (employment and equity), emphasizing that sustainable growth requires a robust labor market.
• Foreign Exchange Reserves: In 2025, the RBI continues to manage India’s Forex Reserves to protect the Indian Rupee (INR) against global volatility.

The correct answer is Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences.

Key Points

• The Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences (CHESS), located in Hyderabad, is the specialized laboratory of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) dedicated to the development of Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs).
• In August 2025, the DRDO conducted a successful flight test of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS), which integrates advanced laser-based weaponry to counter aerial threats.
• CHESS has been leading the research on high-power laser systems, including the DURGA-II (Directionally Unrestricted Ray-Gun Assembly), which is a 100-kilowatt class laser weapon system.
• The Directed Energy Weapon (DEW) developed by CHESS is designed to neutralize unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), missile seekers, and mortar shells using concentrated electromagnetic energy.
• These systems are highly effective in modern warfare as they provide speed-of-light engagement and a low cost-per-shot compared to traditional kinetic interceptors.
• Hence, the correct answer is Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences.

Additional Information

• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):
• It was established in 1958 and functions under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.
• Headquartered in New Delhi, it aims to achieve self-reliance in critical defence technologies and systems.
• Research Centre Imarat (RCI):
• Located in Hyderabad, this laboratory is primarily responsible for the development of avionics systems, inertial navigation, and control systems for various missile projects.
• Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL):
• Also based in Hyderabad, it is the lead laboratory for the design and development of missile systems like Agni, Akash, and Prithvi.
• Defence Research and Development Establishment (DRDE):
• Located in Gwalior, its primary focus is on the detection and protection against chemical and biological warfare agents.

Important Points

• Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS):
• The IADWS is a comprehensive air defense shield intended to protect high-value assets and metropolitan areas from a variety of aerial threats including cruise missiles and aircraft.
• The integration of DEWs into the IADWS represents a technological shift toward non-kinetic warfare, allowing for more precise and stealthy engagements.
• Key features of laser-based DEWs include a near-infinite magazine, as long as a power source is available, and the ability to target electronic components without causing large-scale physical explosions.

The correct answer is Dheera.

Key Points

• In September 2025, the female cheetah named Dheera was released into the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh as part of the ongoing Project Cheetah.
• The release of Dheera is a critical step in establishing a second meta-population of cheetahs in India, reducing the concentration of the animals solely in Kuno National Park.
• Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary was specifically prepared with a predator-proof enclosure spanning approximately 64 square kilometers to ensure the safety and successful breeding of the translocated felines.
• The introduction of Dheera and other cheetahs to this sanctuary aims to strengthen breeding efforts and provide a diverse habitat consisting of open grasslands and dry deciduous forests, which are ideal for the species.
• This translocation is overseen by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in collaboration with international experts from Namibia and South Africa.

Additional Information

• Project Cheetah:
• Launched in September 2022, this is the world’s first intercontinental large wild carnivore translocation project.
• The project aims to reintroduce the Asiatic Cheetah (now extinct in India) by using its close relative, the African Cheetah.
• The first batch of 8 cheetahs was brought from Namibia, followed by 12 cheetahs from South Africa in February 2023.
• Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:
• It is located on the northern boundary of Mandsaur and Neemuch districts in Madhya Pradesh.
• The sanctuary is bisected by the Chambal River, which provides a perennial water source for the local wildlife.
• It was selected as the second site for cheetah reintroduction due to its prey base (including Chinkara and Spotted Deer) and suitable terrain.
• Significant Cheetahs in the Project:
• Aasha: A female cheetah from Namibia known for being one of the first to successfully hunt and adapt to the Indian wild.
• Sasha: One of the initial Namibian cheetahs; unfortunately, she was the first to succumb to a kidney ailment in March 2023.
• Jwala: Noted for giving birth to the first litter of cheetah cubs born on Indian soil in over 70 years.
• Conservation Goals:
• The long-term goal is to reach a self-sustaining population of about 35 to 40 cheetahs across multiple sites in Central India.
• Reintroducing cheetahs helps in the restoration of open forest and grassland ecosystems, which supports biodiversity conservation at a larger scale.

The correct answer is Laser Weapon.

Key Points

• DURGA-2, which stands for Directionally Unrestricted Ray-Gun Array, is a classified project of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) to develop a high-power Laser Weapon.
• The project is being spearheaded by the Laser Science and Technology Centre (LASTEC), a premier laboratory based in New Delhi that specializes in Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs).
• The DURGA-2 system is designed as a 100-kilowatt, lightweight Directed Energy Weapon that can be integrated into land, sea, and air-based platforms.
• The weapon works by emitting a highly concentrated laser beam to damage or destroy targets such as Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), ballistic missiles, and enemy fighter jets by melting their airframes or blinding their sensors.
• Unlike conventional munitions, this Laser Weapon provides a low cost per shot because it utilizes electrical energy instead of expensive physical missiles or shells.

Additional Information

• Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs):
• DEWs are systems that use concentrated electromagnetic energy or atomic particles to incapacitate or destroy enemy equipment and personnel.
• The primary types of DEWs include High-Energy Lasers (HEL) and High-Power Microwaves (HPM).
• These weapons engage targets at the speed of light, making them effective against high-speed threats like hypersonic missiles.
• KALI (Kilo Ampere Linear Injector):
• Apart from DURGA-2, India is also working on KALI, a linear accelerator being developed by DRDO and the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
• KALI is designed to emit powerful pulses of electrons to destroy the electronic systems of incoming missiles and aircraft.
• Global Context:
• Several countries are racing to deploy Laser Weapons, including the United States (with its Laser Weapon System - LaWS), Russia (with Peresvet), and Israel (with the Iron Beam).
• The United Kingdom recently tested its DragonFire laser system, demonstrating the tactical shift toward non-kinetic warfare.

Important Points

• Strategic Advantages: The DURGA-2 provides a stealthy engagement capability as the laser beam is invisible to the naked eye and produces no sound during firing.
• Tactical Applications: It is particularly effective for Short-Range Air Defence (SHORAD), protecting vital installations from swarms of drones which are difficult to intercept using traditional air defense systems.
• Research and Development: LASTEC has been focusing on solid-state lasers and fiber lasers to ensure the DURGA-2 system remains compact enough for mobile military trucks and naval ships.
• Power Requirements: Achieving a 100kW output is a significant milestone for India, as it provides enough thermal energy to neutralize hardened military targets at distances of several kilometers.

The correct answer is Gateway of India.

Key Points

• The Fit India Movement, a flagship program of the Government of India, organized the 'Sundays on Cycle' event at the historic Gateway of India in Mumbai on February 2, 2025.
• The primary objective of this event was to encourage citizens to adopt cycling as a sustainable and healthy lifestyle choice, promoting physical fitness and environmental consciousness.
• The event witnessed a massive gathering of cyclists, fitness enthusiasts, and youth icons who pedaled through the streets of South Mumbai to spread the message of a "Fit India."
• By choosing the Gateway of India, an iconic landmark completed in 1924, the organizers aimed to maximize visibility and inspire thousands of residents to participate in outdoor physical activities.
• The 'Sundays on Cycle' initiative is part of a larger series of events planned across various metropolitan cities to reclaim public spaces for health-oriented activities on weekends. Hence, the correct answer is Gateway of India.

Additional Information

• Fit India Movement:
• It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 29, 2019, which is celebrated as National Sports Day in India to honor the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.
• The movement is governed by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and aims to address the rising lifestyle diseases such as diabetes and obesity by promoting daily exercise.
• Gateway of India:
• Located on the waterfront at Apollo Bunder, it is one of the most famous monuments in India and a major tourist attraction in Maharashtra.
• It was built to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to Mumbai (then Bombay) in 1911.
• Marine Drive:
• While a popular spot for morning walks and cycling, it served as a connecting route for the event but was not the primary host landmark for the inauguration of this specific February 2025 event.
• It is a 3.6-kilometer long, C-shaped six-lane concrete road along the coast of the Arabian Sea, often called the Queen's Necklace.

Important Points

• Health Benefits of Cycling: Cycling is a low-impact aerobic exercise that improves cardiovascular health, increases muscle strength and flexibility, and reduces stress levels. It is considered one of the most effective ways to reduce carbon emissions in urban settings.
• Government Initiatives: The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has also promoted the Cycles4Change Challenge to support Indian cities in implementing quick cycling-friendly interventions under the Smart Cities Mission.
• Event Impact: High-profile events like Sundays on Cycle help in the development of non-motorized transport (NMT) infrastructure, such as dedicated cycle tracks and bike-sharing systems, in crowded cities like Mumbai and Delhi.
• Year 2025 Context: The 2025 edition of the event focused on the integration of technology and fitness, encouraging participants to track their progress via the Fit India Mobile App.

p>The correct answer is Held at 5.50% and maintained a 'neutral' stance.

Key Points

• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) concluded its meeting in October 2025 with a decision to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.50%. This decision reflects the committee's assessment of the prevailing macroeconomic conditions and inflation outlook.
• In a significant move regarding the future path of monetary policy, the RBI decided to maintain a 'neutral' stance. A neutral stance provides the central bank with the flexibility to move interest rates in either direction depending on incoming economic data regarding price stability and growth. Hence, the statement regarding holding the rate at 5.50% and a neutral stance is correct.
• The MPC decision to hold the rate was supported by a majority of the members, emphasizing the need to ensure that inflation aligns with the 4% target on a durable basis while supporting the economic recovery.
• Following the repo rate decision, the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate remained at 5.25%, and the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate were maintained at 5.75%.
• The Reserve Bank continues to monitor the impact of previous rate cycles on the economy, particularly the transmission of rates to commercial bank lending and deposit portfolios.

Additional Information

• Policy Repo Rate: It is the fixed interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). It is the primary tool used to control inflation.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC): It is a six-member committee constituted by the Central Government under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934. The committee consists of three members from the RBI (including the Governor as the ex-officio Chairperson) and three external members.
• Inflation Targeting: The RBI operates under a Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework. The target is set at 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2% (i.e., 2% to 6%). The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the primary measure used to track retail inflation in India.
• Types of Policy Stances:
• Accommodative Stance: Suggests the central bank is prepared to cut rates to expand money supply and boost growth.
• Hawkish Stance: Indicates a focus on curbing inflation, often leading to interest rate hikes.
• Neutral Stance: Indicates the central bank is open to moving rates in either direction or keeping them stable based on data.
• Withdrawal of Accommodation: Implies a gradual reduction of liquidity and potentially rising rates to normalize the policy.

Important Points

• The Role of the RBI Governor: The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India has a casting vote in the event of a tie in the MPC voting process.
• Impact on Borrowers: When the RBI holds the repo rate, the External Benchmark Linked Lending Rates (EBLR) usually remain stable, meaning Equated Monthly Installments (EMIs) for home loans and car loans are likely to remain unchanged in the short term.
• Frequency of Meetings: The MPC is required to meet at least four times a year, though it typically meets bi-monthly (every two months) to review the monetary policy.
• Statutory Basis: The Monetary Policy framework was modernized following the Urjit Patel Committee recommendations and the subsequent amendment to the RBI Act in 2016.

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

• As of July 2025, only two Indian cricketers have been nominated for the prestigious Laureus World Sports Awards.
• Sachin Tendulkar became the first Indian cricketer to be nominated and win a Laureus award. He won the Laureus Sporting Moment (2000–2020) award in February 2020.
• The nomination for Sachin Tendulkar was based on the iconic moment titled "Carried on the Shoulders of a Nation," referring to India's 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup victory.
• Rishabh Pant is the second Indian cricketer to receive a nomination. He was nominated for the 2025 Laureus World Comeback of the Year award.
• Rishabh Pant's nomination follows his remarkable recovery and return to professional cricket in 2024 after surviving a near-fatal car accident in December 2022.
• The inclusion of Rishabh Pant in the 2025 shortlist highlights his successful stint in the IPL 2024 and his pivotal role in India’s T20 World Cup 2024 triumph.

Additional Information

• Laureus World Sports Awards:
• Established in 1999 by founding patrons Daimler and Richemont, these awards are often referred to as the "Oscars of Sport."
• The first ceremony was held on May 25, 2000, in Monte Carlo, with a keynote speech delivered by Nelson Mandela.
• The awards celebrate sporting excellence across various categories, including Sportsman of the Year, Sportswoman of the Year, Team of the Year, and Breakthrough of the Year.
• Indian Athletes at Laureus:
• While only two cricketers have been nominated, other Indian athletes have received recognition. Vinesh Phogat (Wrestling) was the first Indian athlete to be nominated for the Laureus World Comeback of the Year in 2019.
• Neeraj Chopra (Javelin Throw) was nominated for the Laureus World Breakthrough of the Year award in 2022 following his Tokyo Olympics gold medal.
• The awards are adjudicated by the Laureus World Sports Academy, a group of over 70 living sporting legends.

Important Points

• Significance of the 2025 Nomination:
• The 2025 Laureus World Comeback of the Year nomination for Rishabh Pant places him alongside global icons who have overcome significant physical or personal adversity.
• Pant made his return to competitive cricket during the Indian Premier League (IPL) in March 2024, after a hiatus of nearly 15 months involving multiple surgeries and intensive rehabilitation.
• His performance in the ICC T20 World Cup 2024, where India emerged as Champions, was a critical factor in his international recognition.
• Sachin Tendulkar’s Legacy:
• The Sporting Moment award won by Sachin Tendulkar in 2020 was unique as it was decided by a global fan vote, showcasing his massive popularity nine years after the event took place.
• The moment captured the Indian cricket team carrying Tendulkar on their shoulders at the Wankhede Stadium after winning the World Cup.

The correct answer is Issue advisory against FPI-linked schemes.

Key Points

• On 22 August 2025, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) issued a formal advisory warning the public against fraudulent investment schemes that claim to offer high returns through Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) investment routes.
• The regulator observed that fraudsters were increasingly using social media platforms such as WhatsApp, Telegram, and Instagram to lure retail investors into scams by promising "special" or "institutional" access to the stock market.
• These schemes often falsely claim to provide retail individuals with benefits typically reserved for Institutional Investors, such as guaranteed IPO allotments and sophisticated trading tools, which are not legally available to common retail participants through these channels. Hence, the correct action was issuing an advisory.
• SEBI highlighted that scammers often impersonate registered Investment Advisers or Research Analysts to gain credibility, using forged documents and fake apps to show non-existent profits.
• The advisory explicitly states that FPI investment is a highly regulated category and cannot be accessed by individual retail investors through unregulated social media groups or mobile applications.

Additional Information

• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• It is the statutory regulatory body established on April 12, 1992, in accordance with the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992.
• Its primary function is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development and regulation of the Indian securities market.
• Headquartered in Mumbai, it oversees stock exchanges, brokers, and various financial intermediaries.
• Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI):
• FPI refers to the entry of funds into a country where foreigners deposit money in a country's stock market or bond market.
• Unlike Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), FPI involves the purchase of securities that can be easily liquidated and does not provide the investor with direct control over the company.
• In India, FPIs are regulated under the SEBI (Foreign Portfolio Investors) Regulations, 2019.
• Common Red Flags in Financial Scams:
• Promises of guaranteed returns in the volatile equity market.
• Pressure to transfer funds to personal bank accounts rather than designated trading accounts.
• Offers of "exclusive" access to institutional quotas in IPOs for retail investors.

Important Points

• Verification Mechanisms: SEBI urges all investors to verify the registration status of any financial entity on its official website (www.sebi.gov.in) before making payments.
• Investor Grievance Redressal: If an investor falls victim to such a scam, they can lodge a complaint on the SCORES (SEBI Complaints Redress System) portal, which was updated to SCORES 2.0 in 2024 to enhance efficiency.
• Action against Finfluencers: In recent years, SEBI has tightened regulations regarding financial influencers (finfluencers) to prevent the spread of misleading advice on social media platforms.
• Institutional Trading: Retail investors should note that Institutional Trading Accounts require specific legal structures and cannot be opened via simple mobile apps promoted on Telegram or WhatsApp.

The correct answer is Delivery of 250^th C-130J tail assembly.

Key Points

• In December 2025, Tata Lockheed Martin Aerostructures (TLMAL) achieved a significant milestone in India's defense manufacturing sector by delivering its 250^th C-130J tail assembly, also known as the empennage.
• TLMAL is a joint venture between Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) and the US-based global security and aerospace leader Lockheed Martin, which was established in 2010.
• The TLMAL facility, located in Adibatla, Hyderabad, serves as the sole global production source for C-130J empennage assemblies, which are integrated into all Super Hercules aircraft produced in the United States.
• The empennage consists of the aircraft's entire tail section, including the horizontal and vertical stabilizers, as well as the leading edges and tip assemblies.
• This milestone reflects the maturity of the Indian aerospace ecosystem and the success of the Make in India initiative, as these locally manufactured components support a global fleet operated by 22 nations.

Additional Information

• C-130J Super Hercules:
• The C-130J Super Hercules is the world’s most advanced tactical airlifter, known for its versatility in combat, humanitarian aid, and disaster relief missions.
• The Indian Air Force (IAF) operates a fleet of C-130J-30s, which are used for special operations and transport in challenging terrains.
• Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL):
• TASL is the strategic aerospace and defense arm of the Tata Group and is a key player in India's mission to become self-reliant in defense manufacturing (Atmanirbhar Bharat).
• Beyond the C-130J project, TASL is involved in several other high-profile aerospace projects, including the C-295 transport aircraft manufacturing program.
• Growth and Export Impact:
• The TLMAL joint venture has a high export orientation, with over 90% of its manufactured components being sent to Lockheed Martin’s final assembly line in Marietta, Georgia.
• The facility reached the delivery of its 100^th empennage in 2018 and its 150^th in September 2021, indicating a steady increase in production efficiency over the years.

Important Points

• The TLMAL facility also hosts a specialized Metal-to-Metal Bonding facility, which was added in 2018 to enhance its technological capabilities and local content.
• This joint venture serves as a model for private sector participation in Indian defense, showcasing how global original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) can partner with Indian firms to create a robust domestic supply chain.
• By December 2025, the total number of C-130J aircraft delivered globally has expanded significantly, all featuring the critical tail assemblies manufactured in Hyderabad.