General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• The National Commission for Women (NCW) released its annual statistical report in January 2025, highlighting that Uttar Pradesh continues to record the highest number of complaints regarding crimes against women, including domestic violence.
• According to the data for the year 2024, the NCW received a total of 24,535 complaints from across the country, out of which Uttar Pradesh alone accounted for nearly 50.6% of the total grievances.
• Of the total complaints originating from Uttar Pradesh, a significant volume (approximately 12,410 cases) was related to the "Right to Dignity" and domestic violence, maintaining the state's position at the top of the list for the consecutive year.
• Following Uttar Pradesh, the National Capital Territory of Delhi recorded the second-highest number of complaints with 2,330, while Maharashtra stood third with 1,326 complaints registered in 2024.
• The data indicates that the "Right to Dignity" category, which includes harassment other than domestic violence, saw the highest number of overall filings, followed closely by specific complaints of domestic abuse and dowry harassment. Hence, the correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

• National Commission for Women (NCW):
• The NCW is a statutory body of the Government of India, established on 31 January 1992.
• It was formed under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, with the mandate to review constitutional and legal safeguards for women and recommend remedial legislative measures.
• The NCW consists of a Chairperson, five members, and a Member-Secretary, all nominated by the Central Government.
• As of January 2025, the Chairperson of the commission is Vijaya Rahatkar, who took charge in October 2024, succeeding Rekha Sharma.
• Legislative Framework for Protection:
• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 (PWDVA) is a key civil law that provides protection and support to women facing abuse within a domestic relationship.
• Criminal provisions such as Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) (now integrated into the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita) deal specifically with cruelty by the husband or his relatives.
• The NCW facilitates the registration of these complaints and monitors the action taken by the respective state police departments.

Important Points

• Reporting Mechanisms:
• The NCW launched a 24/7 Helpline Number (7827170170) to provide online support to women in distress, which has seen a surge in usage in states like Uttar Pradesh and Delhi.
• The high volume of complaints in Uttar Pradesh is often attributed to the state's massive population (approx 240 million) and intensified awareness campaigns like "Mission Shakti" launched by the state government.
• Nature of Complaints in 2024:
• Nationwide, 8,115 complaints were classified under "Right to Dignity", while 6,150 were specifically related to domestic violence.
• Complaints regarding molestation stood at 1,820, and cases of rape or attempt to rape accounted for 1,200 filings in the 2024 calendar year.
• The NCW also possesses suo motu powers to take cognizance of incidents reported in the media and initiate independent investigations.

The correct answer is International Cricket Council.

Key Points

• The International Cricket Council (ICC) constituted a dedicated task force in November 2021 to review the status of cricket in Afghanistan and the Afghanistan Cricket Board (ACB) following the Taliban takeover.
• The primary objective of this task force was to monitor the situation on the ground and support the continued development of the game, with a specific focus on the future of female Afghan athletes and the women's national cricket team.
• The task force was led by Imran Khwaja (the ICC Deputy Chairman) and included prominent members such as Ross McCollum, Ramiz Raja, and Lawson Naidoo.
• The ICC mandates that all Full Members must have a functional women's cricket program; the task force was designed to engage with the ACB to ensure these requirements are met despite the political shifts.
• This initiative was a response to the humanitarian crisis and the subsequent displacement of many players, aiming to provide a pathway for displaced female cricketers to continue their professional journeys.

Additional Information

• International Cricket Council (ICC):
• The ICC is the global governing body for cricket, originally founded as the Imperial Cricket Conference in 1909.
• It is headquartered in Dubai, United Arab Emirates, having moved its base from London in 2005.
• The ICC currently has 108 member nations, comprising 12 Full Members and 96 Associate Members.
• Cricket in Afghanistan:
• The Afghanistan Cricket Board (ACB) became a Full Member of the ICC in June 2017, alongside Ireland, allowing the nation to play Test cricket.
• Despite the rapid growth of the men's team, women's cricket has faced severe restrictions since August 2021, leading many players to seek refuge in countries like Australia.
• Role of Other Global Bodies:
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) and FIFA (football) have also been active in evacuating and supporting displaced Afghan athletes through Olympic Solidarity funds and special visas.
• However, the ICC's task force is unique in its administrative focus on maintaining the Full Member status of a country while demanding progress on gender inclusivity.
• ICC Governance:
• The current Chairman of the ICC is Greg Barclay, and the CEO is Geoff Allardice.
• The organization is responsible for major global events like the ICC Men's and Women's Cricket World Cups and the World Test Championship.

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• The 9^th edition of the India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2025 is scheduled to be inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi.
• Recognized as Asia's largest telecom, media, and technology forum, the IMC serves as a premier platform for showcasing the latest innovations in the digital landscape.
• The event is expected to focus on the evolution of 6G technology, the expansion of 5G use cases, and the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) across various sectors.
• It is traditionally organized at iconic venues in the capital, such as Bharat Mandapam or Pragati Maidan, attracting global tech leaders, startups, and policymakers.
• The inauguration by Narendra Modi underscores the government's commitment to the Digital India vision and making the country a global hub for telecom manufacturing and technology exports.

Additional Information

• India Mobile Congress (IMC):
• Launched in 2017, IMC has grown to become the largest technology event in South Asia, co-hosted by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI).
• The forum facilitates discussions on Cybersecurity, Semiconductors, Green Technology, and Quantum Computing.
• The 8^th edition of the event, held in October 2024, saw the Prime Minister highlight India's record-breaking 5G rollout and the goal of leading the global 6G standard-setting process.
• Organizational Roles:
• The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), under the Ministry of Communications, provides the regulatory framework and policy support for the event.
• The Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI) represents major industry players like Reliance Jio, Bharti Airtel, and Vodafone Idea.

Important Points

• Global Participation: The IMC typically hosts over 400 exhibitors and 2,500 delegates from more than 60 countries, making it a significant event for international diplomatic and commercial collaborations.
• Innovation Hub: The event features the "Aspire" program, which is a dedicated startup initiative aimed at fostering entrepreneurship in the deep-tech and telecom sectors.
• Technological Milestones: Under the leadership of Narendra Modi, India has successfully launched 5G services in over 400,000 sites across the country in a remarkably short span, a feat often showcased during these congresses.
• Venue Significance: Bharat Mandapam, where recent editions have been held, was the venue for the G20 Summit in 2023, reflecting the world-class infrastructure provided for IMC.

The correct answer is Kirtida Brahmbhatt.

Key Points

• Kirtida Brahmbhatt, a noted Gujarati author and poet, was selected for the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar.
• The award was conferred for her outstanding poetry collection titled Tinchak, which is specifically written for children.
• The announcement of the winners for the Bal Sahitya Puraskar usually occurs in June, as part of the Sahitya Akademi's annual recognition of excellence in children's literature.
• For the Gujarati language category, the selection was made based on the recommendations of a three-member jury that evaluates the literary merit and creative contribution of works published in the preceding years.
• This recognition highlights Kirtida Brahmbhatt's significant role in enriching Gujarati children's literature and fostering a love for poetry among young readers.

Additional Information

• Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar:
• This award was instituted in the year 2010 to promote and recognize high-quality literature written for children.
• It covers 24 Indian languages, including those listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, as well as English and Rajasthani.
• The award consists of a copper plaque and a cash prize of Rs. 50,000.
• Other Notable Recipients (2024 Context):
• Nandini Purandare: Won the award in the English category for her biography titled 'Mountain Fairies: The Inspiring Life of Tenzing Norgay'.
• Akhil P Dharmajan: Recognized in the Malayalam category for his novel 'Ramante Kayyum Thozuthu Pookkalum'.
• Parvati Tirkey: While mentioned in literary awards circles, she is the recipient of the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar for Santali poetry, rather than the Bal Sahitya Puraskar.
• Sahitya Akademi:
• Founded on 12 March 1954, it is India's National Academy of Letters.
• It functions as an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, to promote literary dialogue and publication across various regional languages.

Important Points

• The Bal Sahitya Puraskar is one of the twin honors announced mid-year, the other being the Yuva Puraskar, which is awarded to young authors under the age of 35.
• The selection criteria for the Bal Sahitya Puraskar require that the author must be an Indian national and the work must be an original contribution to the genre of children's books.
• The Sahitya Akademi also publishes translated versions of award-winning books to ensure that children across India can enjoy the diverse literary heritage of different states.

The correct answer is Anil Bhardwaj.

Key Points

• In July 2024, prominent Indian planetary scientist Anil Bhardwaj was honored with the Vikram Sarabhai Medal.
• The award was presented during the 45^th Scientific Assembly of the Committee on Space Research (COSPAR) held in Busan, South Korea.
• The Vikram Sarabhai Medal is a prestigious international recognition jointly established by COSPAR and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• It is awarded to scientists who have made outstanding contributions to space research in developing countries, specifically promoting the legacy of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai.
• Anil Bhardwaj is currently the Director of the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad, an institution founded by Sarabhai himself.
• His selection for this medal underscores India's growing influence and excellence in planetary sciences and space exploration on the global stage.

Additional Information

• Anil Bhardwaj's Contributions:
• He has played a pivotal role in several Indian space missions, including Chandrayaan-1, Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission), Chandrayaan-2, and Aditya-L1.
• His research primarily focuses on planetary atmospheres, ionospheres, and the interaction of solar wind with planetary bodies and comets.
• He is a recipient of numerous awards, including the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize in 2007 and the Infosys Prize in 2016.
• Committee on Space Research (COSPAR):
• Established in 1958 by the International Council of Scientific Unions (ICSU), it aims to promote scientific research in space at an international level.
• COSPAR provides a forum for scientists to discuss results and coordinate space research efforts across the globe.
• Vikram Sarabhai (1919–1971):
• He is widely recognized as the Father of the Indian Space Programme and was instrumental in the establishment of ISRO in 1969.
• Apart from PRL, he founded several other institutions like the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Ahmedabad.
• Physical Research Laboratory (PRL):
• Known as the "cradle of space sciences" in India, PRL was founded in 1947.
• It functions under the Department of Space, Government of India, and conducts fundamental research in astronomy, astrophysics, solar physics, and planetary sciences.

Important Points

• The Vikram Sarabhai Medal is awarded biennially (every two years) to encourage scientific excellence in developing nations.
• The 45^th COSPAR Scientific Assembly in Busan (July 13-21, 2024) saw the participation of thousands of scientists, where India’s progress in lunar and solar missions was a major highlight.
• Other notable Indian space scientists who have received international recognition recently include S. Somanath (ISRO Chairman), who has led the successful Chandrayaan-3 and Aditya-L1 missions.
• The award serves as a bridge between the global scientific community and emerging space-faring nations.

The correct answer is US$1.3 trillion.

Key Points

• The Baku–Belem Roadmap was established to ensure a seamless transition and continuity between the COP29 presidency in Azerbaijan and the COP30 presidency in Brazil.
• A primary objective of this roadmap is to finalize and scale the New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG), which is the successor to the previous US$100 billion annual climate finance target.
• At the conclusion of the negotiations leading toward COP30 in November 2025, the global community aimed to set a target for climate finance to reach an annual level of US$1.3 trillion by the year 2035.
• This US$1.3 trillion** figure represents the total "global goal" for climate finance intended for **developing nations** to support their **mitigation** and **adaptation** efforts. ***Hence, the target of US$1.3 trillion is the correct annual level.*
• The roadmap emphasizes the "Mission 1.5°C" initiative, which focuses on keeping the global temperature rise within the limits set by the Paris Agreement through enhanced Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

Additional Information

• The COP Presidencies Troika:
• The Troika is a collaborative partnership consisting of three consecutive presidencies: COP28 (UAE), COP29 (Azerbaijan), and COP30 (Brazil).
• Its purpose is to maintain momentum in international climate negotiations and provide a clear pathway toward the Belem summit in 2025.
• Structure of the Finance Goal:
• While the overarching goal is US$1.3 trillion** annually by **2035**, a specific "core" mobilization goal of **US$300 billion per year was designated for developed countries to lead by 2035.
• This includes funds from public, private, bilateral, and multilateral sources, including Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs).
• Significance of COP30:
• COP30, scheduled for November 2025 in Belem, Brazil, is considered a landmark event as it marks the 10^th anniversary of the Paris Agreement.
• It is the deadline for countries to submit their updated and more ambitious NDCs for the 2030-2035 period.

Important Points

• Climate Justice and Equity: Many developing nations and groups like the G77 + China argued that the US$1.3 trillion should primarily come from public grants rather than loans to avoid increasing the debt burden on vulnerable economies.
• Historical Context: The US$100 billion goal was originally set at COP15 in Copenhagen in 2009, but developed nations faced criticism for delays in meeting this target, which was finally achieved only in 2022.
• NCQG Purpose: The New Collective Quantified Goal is designed to reflect the evolving financial needs of Global South countries to combat climate change impacts like sea-level rise, extreme weather, and biodiversity loss$.

p>The correct answer is Cyclone Ditwah.

Key Points

• Cyclone Ditwah is identified as the cyclonic storm that occurred in November 2025, leading to intense precipitation and severe flooding across South India and Sri Lanka.
• The storm originated in the Bay of Bengal as a low-pressure system and rapidly intensified into a Very Severe Cyclonic Storm with wind speeds ranging between 120 and 150 km/h.
• It made landfall near the coastal regions of Tamil Nadu and the northern provinces of Sri Lanka, causing significant damage to infrastructure, power grids, and agricultural land.
• The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) in India and the Disaster Management Centre (DMC) in Sri Lanka spearheaded the disaster relief efforts, evacuating over 200,000 people to relief camps.
• Urban areas such as Chennai and Colombo experienced unprecedented waterlogging, which prompted the suspension of railway and aviation services for several days.

Additional Information

• Cyclone Tauktae:
• This was a powerful Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm that developed in the Arabian Sea in May 2021.
• It primarily affected the Western coast of India, including the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka.
• It was the strongest cyclone to strike Gujarat since the 1998 Kandla cyclone, leading to substantial industrial disruptions.
• Cyclone Amphan:
• Occurring in May 2020, Amphan was the first Super Cyclonic Storm to form in the Bay of Bengal since 1999.
• It caused catastrophic destruction in West Bengal and Bangladesh, with damages estimated at over $13 billion USD.
• The storm was characterized by a massive storm surge that inundated the Sundarbans delta.
• Cyclone Yaas:
• This Very Severe Cyclonic Storm formed in the Bay of Bengal in May 2021, shortly after Tauktae.
• It made landfall in the Balasore district of Odisha, causing widespread damage to kucha houses and saline water flooding in coastal villages.
• The storm's impact was felt as far as West Bengal and Jharkhand.

Important Points

• Naming of Cyclones: Tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean are named by the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones, which consists of 13 member countries including India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• Role of IMD: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) serves as the Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre (RSMC) for providing tropical cyclone advisories to the region.
• Classification: Cyclones are categorized based on their Maximum Sustained Surface Wind Speed (MSW). A "Severe Cyclonic Storm" typically features wind speeds of 89–117 km/h (48–63 knots).
• Mitigation Tools: Modern technologies such as Doppler Weather Radars (DWR) and Ocean-buoys help in the early detection and tracking of these systems to minimize the loss of human life and livestock$.

The correct answer is Shooting.

Key Points

• Manu Bhaker is a renowned Indian sport shooter who has represented the country in various international platforms, specializing in the 10m Air Pistol and 25m Pistol events.
• She achieved monumental success at the 2024 Paris Olympics, where she won two bronze medals. This feat made her the first Indian athlete since Independence to win two medals in a single edition of the Olympic Games.
• One of her medals was won in the Women's 10m Air Pistol event, and the second was a Mixed Team 10m Air Pistol bronze, which she won alongside partner Sarabjot Singh.
• In recognition of her extraordinary contribution to Indian sports and her historic performance at the Olympics, she was conferred with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2025.
• Hailing from Goria village in the Jhajjar district of Haryana, she started her shooting career at a very young age and quickly rose to prominence by winning gold at the 2018 Commonwealth Games at just 16 years old.
• Hence, the correct answer is Shooting.

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• This is the highest sporting honor in India, awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• The award was formerly known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award but was renamed in August 2021 in honor of the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• The first recipient of this prestigious award was the Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand in the year 1991-92.
• Other Sports mentioned in the options:
• Badminton: India has a strong presence in this sport with athletes like P.V. Sindhu, who is a two-time Olympic medalist, and Saina Nehwal.
• Hockey: Often regarded as India's national game in spirit, the Indian Men’s Hockey Team has won multiple Olympic medals, including a bronze at both Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024.
• Para-Athletics: This refers to sports for athletes with disabilities. India has seen a surge in performance here, with stars like Sumit Antil (Javelin Throw) winning gold medals at the Paralympic Games.

Important Points

• Early Achievements: Manu Bhaker became the youngest Indian to win a gold medal at the ISSF World Cup in 2018, held in Guadalajara, Mexico.
• Arjuna Award: Before receiving the Khel Ratna, she was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2020 for her consistent performance in international shooting competitions.
• Olympic History: Prior to Paris 2024, India’s shooting medals at the Olympics were won by Abhinav Bindra (Gold, 2008), Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (Silver, 2004), Vijay Kumar (Silver, 2012), and Gagan Narang (Bronze, 2012). Manu Bhaker ended a 12-year medal drought for Indian shooting in 2024.
• Academic Background: Apart from her sporting career, she pursued a degree in Political Science from Lady Shri Ram College, Delhi University, balancing rigorous training with education.

The correct answer is 5.6%.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) released the findings of the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) for the quarter ending May 2025.
• According to the official data, India’s overall unemployment rate was reported at 5.6%. This figure represents the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed and actively seeking employment.
• The PLFS is a primary source of high-frequency labor market data in India, helping policymakers understand the dynamics of employment across urban and rural sectors.
• The survey focuses on key indicators such as the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) and the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) to provide a holistic view of the economy.
• For the period of May 2025, the data highlights the stabilization of the job market compared to previous fiscal quarters, reflecting the impact of various economic policies and industrial growth.

Additional Information

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
• Launched in April 2017 by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), the PLFS was designed to provide more frequent labor force statistics.
• It has two main objectives: to estimate key employment indicators in the Current Weekly Status (CWS) every three months for urban areas, and to provide annual estimates in both Usual Status and CWS for both rural and urban areas.
• Key Terminology:
• Unemployment Rate (UR): It is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force.
• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): This is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e., working or seeking or available for work) in the total population.
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR): This is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the total population.
• Role of MOSPI:
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is the nodal agency for the planned and organized development of the statistical system in India.
• It consists of two wings: the Statistics Wing (consisting of the NSO) and the Programme Implementation Wing.

Important Points

• Survey Methodology: The PLFS utilizes a rotational panel sampling design in urban areas to measure short-term changes in the labor market every quarter.
• Activity Status: The survey classifies individuals based on their activity during a specific reference period. Usual Status considers a reference period of 365 days, while Current Weekly Status (CWS) considers a reference period of the last 7 days.
• Age Criteria: While the PLFS collects data for all ages, the key indicators for policy analysis are typically highlighted for the age group of 15 years and above.
• Data Utility: The reported 5.6% unemployment rate is used by the Government of India and international organizations like the ILO to monitor Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) related to decent work and economic growth.

The correct answer is 27^th February.

Key Points

• The 94^th martyrdom day of the legendary Indian revolutionary Chandra Shekhar Azad was observed across India on 27^th February 2025.
• Born as Chandra Shekhar Tiwari on July 23, 1906, in the Bhabhra village of Alirajpur district in Madhya Pradesh, he was a key figure in the Indian independence movement.
• Azad attained martyrdom on February 27, 1931, at Alfred Park in Allahabad (now officially known as Prayagraj), after a fierce gunfight with the British Police.
• He was a prominent leader and the chief strategist of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), which aimed to establish a socialist republic in India through armed revolution.
• Azad was famously involved in revolutionary acts such as the Kakori Train Action in 1925 and the killing of J.P. Saunders in 1928 to avenge the death of Lala Lajpat Rai. Hence, the correct option is 27^th February.

Additional Information

• The Origin of 'Azad': At the young age of 15, he participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1921. When arrested and presented before a magistrate, he declared his name as 'Azad' (The Free), his father's name as 'Swatantrata' (Independence), and his residence as 'Jail'. This defiant act earned him the moniker Chandra Shekhar Azad.
• Evolution of HSRA: Initially, the organization was known as the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), founded by Sachindra Nath Sanyal in 1924. After the arrest of several leaders during the Kakori case, Azad reorganized it with Bhagat Singh in September 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi, renaming it the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• Mentorship: Azad served as a mentor and idol for younger revolutionaries like Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev. His organizational skills and ability to evade the British intelligence for years made him a symbol of resistance.
• The Final Encounter: On the fateful day of February 27, 1931, Azad was betrayed by an informant while meeting a comrade. Surrounded by police led by John Nott-Bower, he fought until his last bullet, which he used to shoot himself, staying true to his pledge of never being captured alive by the British Raj.

Important Points

• Commemoration: To honor his ultimate sacrifice, Alfred Park was renamed Chandra Shekhar Azad Park after Independence. It remains a major site of pilgrimage for nationalists in Prayagraj.
• Bhabhra Renaming: In tribute to his roots, the Government of Madhya Pradesh renamed his birthplace, Bhabhra, to Azad Nagar in 2010.
• Legacy in Modern India: His life and revolutionary philosophy continue to be a subject of numerous films, books, and educational curricula, inspiring generations with the spirit of Self-Rule and Socialism.
• Other Options: 27^th January and 26^th February do not hold specific historical significance regarding Azad's martyrdom, while 15^th August is celebrated as India's Independence Day.

The correct answer is ₹1,000 crore.

Key Points

• The Government of India has significantly increased the budget for its flagship sports initiative, allocating ₹1,000 crore for the Khelo India programme for the financial year 2025-26. This reflects a continued commitment to fostering a sports culture at the grassroots level.
• The allocation is part of the broader Union Budget outlay for the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, which aims to improve sports infrastructure and talent identification across the country.
• The funding for FY 2025-26 is intended to support the various verticals of the scheme, including the Khelo India Youth Games, University Games, and the Winter Games.
• This financial support is crucial for the National Programme for Development of Sports, ensuring that young athletes receive the necessary training, equipment, and exposure to international standards. Hence, the correct answer is ₹1,000 crore.

Additional Information

• Origin and Vision:
• The Khelo India Programme was introduced in 2017-18 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. It was formed by merging three existing schemes: Rajiv Gandhi Khel Abhiyan (RGKA), Urban Sports Infrastructure Scheme (USIS), and the National Sports Talent Search Scheme (NSTSS).
• The primary objective is to revive the sports culture in India by engaging with children at a young age and providing a platform for excellence.
• Scholarship Support:
• Under the Talent Identification and Development vertical, selected athletes are provided an annual financial assistance of ₹5 lakh per annum for 8 consecutive years.
• This scholarship helps cover the costs of training, nutrition, and participation in national and international tournaments for over 2,800 athletes currently supported under the scheme.
• Administrative Body:
• The Sports Authority of India (SAI) is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation and monitoring of the Khelo India scheme across various states and Union Territories.
• The program focuses on 12 specific verticals, including State Level Khelo India Centres, Annual Sports Competitions, and Sports for Peace and Development.

Important Points

• Impact on Infrastructure:
• The allocation of ₹1,000 crore assists in the creation and up-gradation of community coaching and playfield development, especially in rural and tribal areas.
• In 2024, the government emphasized the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) program, which aims to conduct 20 lakh assessments to identify talent among school-going children between the ages of 9 to 18 years.
• Inclusivity in Sports:
• The scheme includes a dedicated vertical for Promotion of Sports among persons with disabilities and Sports for Women to ensure balanced participation across all demographics in India.
• The Khelo India Winter Games held in locations like Gulmarg and Leh serve to promote winter sports and tourism in the Himalayan region.

The correct answer is Alwar District.

Key Points

• The state of Rajasthan achieved a new milestone in environmental conservation with the inauguration of its first Namo Biodiversity Park in October 2025.
• This prestigious project is located in the Alwar District, a region known for its rich ecological heritage and proximity to the Aravalli Range.
• The park has been developed to serve as a natural habitat for various indigenous species of flora and fauna, ensuring the preservation of the local ecosystem.
• The Namo Biodiversity Park is designed to promote eco-tourism and provide a dedicated space for environmental research and nature education for students and researchers.
• The establishment of this park in Alwar highlights the Government of Rajasthan's commitment to increasing green cover and mitigating the effects of climate change in the semi-arid regions of the state.

Additional Information

• Alwar District:
• Alwar is often referred to as the Gateway to Rajasthan and is a significant part of the National Capital Region (NCR).
• It is home to the famous Sariska Tiger Reserve, which was the first reserve in the world to successfully relocate tigers.
• The district features diverse topography, including the Aravalli Hills, which play a crucial role in preventing the expansion of the Thar Desert.
• Biodiversity Parks in India:
• A Biodiversity Park is a unique landscape of community-based ecosystems that helps in the restoration of degraded land and provides ecosystem services such as carbon sequestration and groundwater recharge.
• These parks act as lungs for urban and semi-urban areas, significantly improving air quality and providing a refuge for migratory birds and pollinators.
• Other Ecological Initiatives in Rajasthan:
• Jaipur: Known for the Kishan Bagh Sand Dune Park and the Jhalana Leopard Reserve, which are key sites for ecological restoration.
• Udaipur: Famous for its Sajjangarh Biological Park and numerous lakes that support diverse aquatic biodiversity.
• Kota: Home to the Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve and various riverine ecosystems along the Chambal River.

Important Points

• The Namo Biodiversity Park project aligns with the National Biodiversity Action Plan and the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), specifically Goal 15 (Life on Land).
• Key features of the park include herbal gardens, butterfly zones, and walking trails designed to minimize human impact on the core conservation zones.
• The October 2025 inauguration marks a strategic move to utilize the post-monsoon season, which is the most favorable time for the growth of new plantations and the arrival of winter migratory birds in the Alwar region.
• Local Panchayati Raj Institutions and the State Forest Department are the primary bodies responsible for the long-term maintenance and protection of this biodiversity hotspot.

The correct answer is Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI).

Key Points

• The Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the principal financial institution in India for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.
• According to the Department of Financial Services (DFS) Annual Report 2024-25, published in March 2025, SIDBI continues to serve as the apex body for coordinating the functions of institutions engaged in similar activities.
• SIDBI was established on April 2, 1990, under an Act of the Indian Parliament. It originally operated as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI), but is currently an independent All-India Financial Institution (AIFI).
• The headquarters of SIDBI is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. Its primary objective is to facilitate and strengthen credit flow to MSMEs and address both financial and developmental gaps in the MSME ecosystem.
• It serves as the nodal agency for several government schemes, including the Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) and the PM Vishwakarma scheme, ensuring financial inclusion for small-scale entrepreneurs. Hence, the correct answer is Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI).

Additional Information

• Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank):
• Established in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981, it is headquartered in Mumbai.
• Its primary function is to provide financial assistance to exporters and importers and function as the principal financial institution for coordinating the working of institutions engaged in financing export and import of goods and services.
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):
• Established on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee.
• Headquartered in Mumbai, it is the apex regulatory body for the overall regulation and licensing of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India. It focuses on rural prosperity and agricultural credit.
• National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID):
• Set up in 2021 under the NaBFID Act, 2021, it is the newest All-India Financial Institution.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai and functions as a specialized Development Financial Institution (DFI) for long-term infrastructure financing in India, supporting projects in sectors like energy, transport, and water.
• MSME Classification (Revised 2020):
• Micro: Investment up to Rs. 1 crore and Turnover up to Rs. 5 crore.
• Small: Investment up to Rs. 10 crore and Turnover up to Rs. 50 crore.
• Medium: Investment up to Rs. 50 crore and Turnover up to Rs. 250 crore.

Important Points

• Regulatory Framework: There are currently five All-India Financial Institutions (AIFIs) regulated and supervised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI): SIDBI, NABARD, EXIM Bank, NHB (National Housing Bank), and NaBFID.
• MUDRA Bank: The Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) is a subsidiary of SIDBI, launched in 2015 to provide loans up to 10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises.
• Udyam Registration: It is the official portal launched by the Ministry of MSME for the registration of MSMEs, which SIDBI uses to identify and provide credit assistance to valid enterprises.

The correct answer is Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• The Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog is the designated authority to present India’s Voluntary National Review (VNR) report at the international level. This report is a formal document that tracks the progress made by the country toward achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• In July 2025, the Third VNR report was presented at the United Nations High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) on Sustainable Development in New York. This forum is the primary global platform for reviewing the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• The report outlines India’s journey in localized implementation of the 17 SDGs, emphasizing the philosophy of "Viksit Bharat" (Developed India) and the principle of "Antyodaya" (leaving no one behind).
• The VNR serves as a platform for India to share its best practices, such as the Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), clean energy transitions, and large-scale social welfare schemes, with the global community.
• The preparation of the report is led by NITI Aayog, involving extensive consultations with State Governments, Union Territories, Civil Society Organizations (CSOs), and the private sector. Hence, the correct answer is Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India):
• Established on January 1, 2015, it replaced the erstwhile Planning Commission. It acts as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• The Prime Minister of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairperson, while the Vice Chairman is the administrative head appointed by the Prime Minister. As of current tenures, Shri Suman Bery serves as the Vice Chairman.
• Evolution of VNRs in India:
• India presented its First VNR in 2017, which focused on early implementation strategies.
• The Second VNR was presented in 2020, titled "Decade of Action: Taking SDGs from Global to Local."
• The Third VNR continues this trajectory, highlighting the integration of SDGs into national development plans and the Annual Budget.
• SDG India Index:
• To monitor progress domestically, NITI Aayog publishes the SDG India Index. It ranks States and Union Territories based on their performance across various social, economic, and environmental indicators.
• This index fosters a spirit of competitive federalism, encouraging states to improve their rankings by achieving specific targets like Zero Hunger (SDG 2) and Gender Equality (SDG 5).

Important Points

• Key Themes of the Report: The Third VNR specifically highlights the impact of schemes like Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana for financial inclusion and the Jal Jeevan Mission for providing tap water to rural households.
• International Collaboration: By presenting the VNR, India reinforces its commitment to the Global South, promoting South-South Cooperation and sharing scalable models for poverty eradication and climate resilience.
• Monitoring Framework: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) maintains the National Indicator Framework (NIF), which provides the data backbone for the VNR and the SDG India Index.
• HLPF Role: The High-Level Political Forum meets annually under the auspices of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) to evaluate global progress toward the 2030 targets.

The correct answer is Virtual Digital Assets.

Key Points

• The term Virtual Digital Assets (VDA) was introduced into the Income Tax Act to provide a specific legal framework for the taxation of digital assets like cryptocurrencies and tokenized assets.
• As per Section 2(47A) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, a Virtual Digital Asset is defined as any information, code, number, or token generated through cryptographic means or otherwise, providing a digital representation of value.
• This definition is broad enough to include Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) and any other digital asset of a similar nature, ensuring that the digital economy is brought under the tax net.
• The Finance Act, 2022 originally established the taxation regime for these assets, which has been refined in subsequent updates like the Income Tax Act, 2025, to ensure transparency and prevent tax evasion.
• Income derived from the transfer of any Virtual Digital Asset is taxed at a high flat rate of 30%, regardless of whether the holding period is short-term or long-term.

Additional Information

• Tax Deducted at Source (TDS): To track the transaction trail of Virtual Digital Assets, the government introduced Section 194S, which mandates a 1% TDS on payments made for the transfer of such assets if the transaction value exceeds Rs. 10,000 (or Rs. 50,000 for specified persons) in a Financial Year.
• Treatment of Losses: One of the most stringent features of the VDA tax regime is that losses incurred from the transfer of one Virtual Digital Asset cannot be set off against gains from another VDA or any other source of income. Furthermore, such losses cannot be carried forward to future Assessment Years.
• Cost of Acquisition: While calculating the taxable income from VDAs, no deduction is allowed for any expenditure (such as mining costs or platform fees) other than the actual cost of acquisition of the asset.
• Gifts of VDAs: If a Virtual Digital Asset is received as a gift, it is taxable in the hands of the recipient under the head "Income from Other Sources," provided the value exceeds the threshold of Rs. 50,000.
• Exclusion of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC): It is important to note that the Digital Rupee or CBDC issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is generally not classified as a Virtual Digital Asset because it is considered a digital form of legal tender (currency).

The correct answer is Fino Payments Bank.

Key Points

• In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a significant monetary penalty of ₹29.6 lakh on Fino Payments Bank Limited.
• The penalty was imposed due to the bank's non-compliance with specific directions issued by the RBI regarding regulatory guidelines and operational standards expected of Payments Banks.
• The action was taken under the powers vested in the RBI under the provisions of Section 47A(1)(c) read with Section 46(4)(i) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
• The RBI stated that the penalty was based on deficiencies in regulatory compliance and was not intended to pronounce upon the validity of any transaction or agreement entered into by the bank with its customers.
• A statutory inspection and scrutiny of the bank revealed that it failed to adhere to the RBI's directions on maintaining customer identification records and reporting mechanisms.

Additional Information

• Fino Payments Bank:
• It was incorporated in 2017 and is a subsidiary of Fino Paytech Limited.
• Headquartered in Navi Mumbai, it operates as a Scheduled Commercial Bank under the RBI.
• The bank primarily focuses on financial inclusion, offering savings accounts, current accounts, and remittance services to the unbanked and underbanked population.
• Payments Banks in India:
• These are specialized banks introduced by the RBI to provide basic financial services to small businesses and low-income households.
• They can accept demand deposits up to a limit of ₹2 lakh per individual customer but are not permitted to issue loans or credit cards.
• Key players in this sector include Airtel Payments Bank, India Post Payments Bank, and Paytm Payments Bank.
• Regulatory Oversight:
• The Reserve Bank of India, established on April 1, 1935, serves as the central bank and regulatory body for the Indian banking system.
• It uses monetary penalties as a tool to ensure that financial institutions maintain transparency, integrity, and security in their operations.

Important Points

• Banking Regulation Act, 1949: This Act provides the legal framework for the supervision of commercial banks in India, granting the RBI the authority to license banks, regulate shareholding, and impose penalties for violations.
• KYC Norms: Know Your Customer guidelines are mandatory for banks to prevent money laundering and financial fraud. Failure to comply with these often leads to monetary fines.
• Compliance Audits: The RBI conducts periodic audits and supervisory reviews to check the health of the banking sector and protect depositor interests.
• Financial Inclusion: The Nachiket Mor Committee recommended the creation of Payments Banks to reach the last mile of the Indian economy.

The correct answer is Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

Key Points

• The 17^th BRICS Summit is scheduled to be held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, on 6–7 July 2025. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Brazil assumed the BRICS Presidency for the year 2025, following the 16^th Summit held in Kazan, Russia, in October 2024.
• The 2025 summit marks a significant milestone as it continues to integrate the new member nations that officially joined the bloc on January 1, 2024.
• The primary agenda for the Rio de Janeiro summit includes global governance reform, sustainable development, and strengthening economic cooperation among the expanded membership.
• The summit serves as a platform for the Global South to discuss multilateralism and the transition toward a multipolar world order.

Additional Information

• Evolution of BRICS:
• The acronym BRIC was coined in 2001 by Jim O'Neill of Goldman Sachs to represent the fast-growing economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
• The first formal summit took place in Yekaterinburg, Russia, on June 16, 2009.
• South Africa was invited to join the group in December 2010, transforming BRIC into BRICS.
• Member Countries (Expanded):
• As of 2024, the core members are Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
• New full members include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). Saudi Arabia has also been invited to join the bloc.
• New Development Bank (NDB):
• The NDB was established during the 6^th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014.
• Headquartered in Shanghai, China, the bank provides financial assistance for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies.
• Other Options Analysis:
• New Delhi, India: India hosted the 13^th BRICS Summit in 2021 via virtual mode due to the pandemic. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Johannesburg, South Africa: Hosted the 15^th BRICS Summit in August 2023, where the historic expansion of the group was announced. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Shanghai, China: China hosted the 14^th BRICS Summit virtually in 2022. Shanghai is also the permanent headquarters of the New Development Bank. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

• Presidency Rotation: The chairmanship of the BRICS forum is rotated annually among the members in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S.
• Economic Significance: BRICS now represents approximately 45% of the world's population and nearly 28% of the global economy (GDP nominal), surpassing the G7 in terms of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
• Focus Areas: The group focuses on three pillars: Political and Security cooperation, Economic and Financial cooperation, and Cultural and People-to-People exchanges.
• 2025 Priorities: Under the Brazilian Presidency, emphasis is placed on technological innovation and reducing dependence on Western-dominated financial systems through local currency trade.

p>The correct answer is Armand Duplantis.

Key Points

• Armand "Mondo" Duplantis, the Swedish-American pole vaulter, was named the 2025 Laureus World Sportsman of the Year in recognition of his unprecedented achievements throughout the 2024 sporting calendar.
• During the Paris 2024 Olympic Games, he successfully defended his Olympic gold medal and captivated the global audience by breaking the world record with a vault of 6.25 meters.
• Shortly after the Olympics, in August 2024, he further pushed the boundaries of the sport by clearing 6.26 meters at the Silesia Diamond League in Poland, marking his tenth world record breaking performance.
• The Laureus World Sports Awards are often described as the "Oscars of Sport," and winning this category places Duplantis among the elite legends of athletics who have demonstrated sustained excellence and dominance.
• His selection was based on his ability to consistently outperform his own benchmarks, making him the standout male athlete in a year filled with high-level international competition.

Additional Information

• Laureus World Sports Awards:
• Established in 1999, these awards celebrate the greatest sporting triumphs of the year. The inaugural ceremony was held in 2000 in Monte Carlo.
• The winners are selected by the Laureus World Sports Academy, a unique jury composed of over 70 of the greatest living sporting legends.
• Max Verstappen:
• The Dutch racing driver and three-time Formula 1 World Champion for Red Bull Racing was a fellow nominee. He previously won the Sportsman of the Year title in 2022.
• Leon Marchand:
• A French swimming sensation who became a national hero during the Paris 2024 Olympics by winning four individual gold medals and setting multiple Olympic records in a single week.
• Carlos Alcaraz:
• The Spanish tennis prodigy had a stellar 2024, winning both the French Open and Wimbledon, cementing his status as the future of men's tennis following the era of the "Big Three."
• Significance of the Award:
• The World Sportsman of the Year trophy is one of the most coveted individual honors in global sport, previously won by icons such as Roger Federer, Usain Bolt, Lionel Messi, and Novak Djokovic.

The correct answer is Nara Lokesh.

Key Points

• In October 2024, the Andhra Pradesh Minister for Information Technology, Electronics and Communications, Nara Lokesh, embarked on an official visit to the United States to attract investments.
• During his visit to Redmond, Washington, he met with Microsoft CEO Satya Nadella at the company's headquarters.
• Nara Lokesh officially invited Satya Nadella to visit Andhra Pradesh and requested Microsoft's collaboration in transforming the state into a technological leader.
• The discussions primarily revolved around leveraging Artificial Intelligence (AI) for e-governance and establishing IT hubs in the state to generate employment for the youth.
• A key proposal discussed was the setting up of an AI University in Amaravati, the capital city of Andhra Pradesh, where Microsoft could play a pivotal role as a technical partner.
• The minister emphasized the state's vision of "Speed of Doing Business" to streamline administrative processes and foster a startup-friendly ecosystem.

Additional Information

• Satya Nadella:
• He has been serving as the CEO of Microsoft since 2014.
• Born in Hyderabad, India, he is widely recognized for leading Microsoft's shift toward Cloud Computing and AI.
• Nara Lokesh:
• He is the son of the current Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, N. Chandrababu Naidu.
• Apart from the IT portfolio, he also holds the portfolio for Human Resources Development (HRD) and Real-Time Governance (RTG).
• Other Options:
• Vangalapudi Anitha: She is the current Home Minister and Minister for Disaster Management in the Andhra Pradesh government.
• N. Chandrababu Naidu: He is the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh and the National President of the Telugu Desam Party (TDP).
• Kolusu Parthasarathy: He serves as the Minister for Housing and Information & Public Relations (I&PR) in the state cabinet.

Important Points

• The meeting is part of the Andhra Pradesh government's broader strategy to revive the IT sector, similar to the growth witnessed in Hyderabad during the 1990s under TDP governance.
• The state government aims to make Amaravati a global destination for Deep Tech and Software Development by collaborating with Big Tech companies like Microsoft, Google, and Tesla.
• The IT hubs mentioned in the proposal are expected to be developed in cities like Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, and Tirupati, besides the capital Amaravati.
• In 2024, the state government also focused on Digital Infrastructure policies to provide high-speed internet to rural areas, supporting the e-governance vision discussed with Satya Nadella.

The correct answer is Godrej & Boyce Manufacturing Company Limited.

Key Points

• Godrej Aerospace, a business unit of Godrej & Boyce, signed a landmark Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA).
• The agreement was finalized during Aero India 2025, which was the 15^th edition of the biennial air show held in Bengaluru.
• The primary objective of this collaboration is the indigenous development and manufacturing of Flight Control Actuators for India’s Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) programme.
• This partnership marks a significant milestone in the participation of the private sector in critical high-technology defense projects, moving away from reliance on foreign original equipment manufacturers (OEMs).
• Under the MoU, Godrej & Boyce will focus on the design, development, and testing of complex mechanical and hydraulic systems required for the flight control of fifth-generation stealth aircraft.

Additional Information

• Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA):
• The AMCA is an Indian programme to develop a fifth-generation, multirole, stealth fighter.
• It is designed for the Indian Air Force to perform roles like air superiority, ground attack, and bombing, featuring stealth characteristics and internal weapons bays.
• Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA):
• ADA is an autonomous body under the Department of Defence Research and Development (DRDO), established in 1984.
• It is the lead agency for the design and development of combat aircraft in India, including the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas.
• Flight Control Actuators:
• These are electro-hydraulic or mechanical devices that move the control surfaces (like ailerons and rudders) of an aircraft in response to inputs.
• In high-performance stealth jets like the AMCA, these actuators must be highly precise to maintain flight stability and maneuverability at supersonic speeds.
• Aero India 2025:
• The event was organized at Air Force Station Yelahanka, Bengaluru in February 2025.
• It served as a major hub for Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives, showcasing domestic manufacturing capabilities in the aerospace and defense sectors.

Important Points

• The AMCA project is a core component of India's long-term defense strategy, aiming to reduce dependence on imported platforms like the Rafale or F-35.
• Godrej Aerospace has been a key contributor to India’s space and defense missions for over three decades, supplying critical components for Chandrayaan and Mangalyaan.
• The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) approved the development of the AMCA in March 2024, with a budget of approximately Rs. 15,000 crore for the design and prototype phase.