General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Naresh Mhaske.

Key Points

• Naresh Mhaske is a prominent leader of the Shiv Sena (Eknath Shinde faction) who currently serves as a Member of Parliament (MP) representing the Thane Lok Sabha constituency.
• In 2025, he was selected as a recipient of the prestigious Sansad Ratna Award, a recognition given to top-performing parliamentarians for their active participation and legislative contributions.
• Mhaske is a first-time MP, having secured his seat in the 2024 General Elections (18^th Lok Sabha) by defeating his opponent from the Shiv Sena (UBT) faction in the Thane district of Maharashtra.
• Before his tenure in the Parliament, he served as the Mayor of Thane from November 2019 to March 2022, where he gained significant administrative experience.
• The award recognizes his exceptional performance in terms of parliamentary debates, the number of questions raised, and his overall engagement in the 18^th Lok Sabha sessions. Hence, the correct answer is Naresh Mhaske.

Additional Information

• Sansad Ratna Awards:
• These awards were instituted in 2010 following a suggestion by the former President of India, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, to honor the best-performing lawmakers.
• The awards are organized by the Prime Point Foundation and are based on the data provided by PRS Legislative Research regarding the performance of MPs in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• The selection criteria include factors such as attendance, participation in debates, introduction of Private Member Bills, and the number of state-related or national questions asked during the sessions.
• Thane Constituency:
• The Thane Lok Sabha constituency is one of the most significant political hubs in Maharashtra, often considered a stronghold of the Shiv Sena.
• In the 2024 elections, the seat witnessed a high-stakes battle, and Naresh Mhaske's victory solidified the influence of the Mahayuti alliance in the region.
• Other Options:
• Rahul Shewale: A senior leader and experienced MP from the Mumbai South Central constituency.
• Arvind Sawant: A veteran parliamentarian representing the Mumbai South constituency, belonging to the Shiv Sena (UBT).
• Dr. Varsha Gaikwad: A former state cabinet minister and current MP from Mumbai North Central, representing the Indian National Congress.

Important Points

• The Sansad Ratna Awards are highly regarded as they are non-government awards that use objective data to promote transparency and accountability in the Indian Parliament.
• A jury committee, typically comprising eminent parliamentarians and members of civil society, oversees the selection process for these honors.
• Recipients of this award often include both opposition and ruling party members, ensuring a balanced recognition of legislative merit across the political spectrum.
• Naresh Mhaske's achievement as a debutant MP highlights the increasing focus on new-age leadership and active participation from first-generation parliamentarians in the 18^th Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is ULPGM-V3.

Key Points

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the flight trial of the ULPGM-V3 (UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile - Version 3) in July 2025.
• The test was carried out at a specialized defense range in Andhra Pradesh, aimed at validating the missile's guidance system and its ability to engage targets from unmanned platforms.
• The ULPGM-V3 is a lightweight, high-precision missile designed to be integrated into UAVs (Unmanned Aerial Vehicles) to enhance their offensive strike capabilities against ground-based assets.
• Equipped with an advanced Imaging Infrared (IIR) seeker, the missile can perform surgical strikes against both stationary and moving targets, including enemy tanks, command centers, and armoured personnel carriers.
• The successful development of this missile represents a significant leap in indigenous aerial combat technology, aligning with the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative to modernize the Indian Armed Forces with home-grown equipment. Hence, the correct answer is ULPGM-V3.

Additional Information

• Astra Mk-II:
• The Astra Mk-II is an advanced Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM).
• It is designed to engage enemy aircraft at long distances, with an estimated range of approximately 160 kilometres.
• The missile utilizes active radar homing and is a successor to the Astra Mk-I, which is already inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF).
• Agni-P (Agni-Prime):
• The Agni-P is a new-generation nuclear-capable ballistic missile developed by DRDO.
• It is a two-stage canisterized solid propellant missile with a range capability between 1,000 and 2,000 kilometres.
• The canisterized system ensures that the missile can be stored for long periods and transported easily via rail or road, significantly improving its operational readiness.
• Nirbhay-V3:
• Nirbhay is India’s first indigenous long-range subsonic cruise missile.
• It is capable of carrying nuclear and conventional warheads and has a strike range of over 1,000 kilometres.
• The missile is known for its terrain-hugging capability, allowing it to fly at very low altitudes to evade enemy radar systems.

Important Points

• DRDO Background: The Defence Research and Development Organisation was established in 1958 by merging the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production. It functions under the Ministry of Defence.
• UAV Integration: The ULPGM series is vital for arming indigenous drones like the Tapus-BH-201 (MALE UAV) and the Archer-NG, providing them with a lethal stand-off strike capability.
• Precision Strike Technology: The use of laser-guided or IIR seekers in missiles like ULPGM-V3 minimizes collateral damage and ensures a high probability of kill (Pk) in complex battlefield environments.
• Strategic Significance: Developing drone-launched missiles locally reduces the dependency on foreign systems like the American Hellfire or the Turkish MAM-L missiles.

The correct answer is North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).

Key Points

• The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is an intergovernmental military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also known as the Washington Treaty) signed on 4 April 1949.
• The core principle of NATO is collective defence, which is enshrined in Article 5 of its founding treaty. This article states that an armed attack against one or more of its members in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against them all. Hence, the correct answer is North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
• The primary purpose of the alliance is to safeguard the freedom and security of its member countries through political and military means. Politically, it promotes democratic values, while militarily, it is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes.
• NATO was originally formed by 12 founding members, including the United States, Canada, United Kingdom, France, and Italy, primarily to provide collective security against the threat posed by the Soviet Union during the Cold War era.
• Under the collective defence mechanism, if a member state is attacked, every other member is obligated to assist the party attacked, which may include the use of armed force to restore and maintain the security of the North Atlantic area.

Additional Information

• World Trade Organization (WTO):
• The WTO is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
• It was established on 1 January 1995 following the Marrakesh Agreement, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
• Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland. Its main function is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably, and freely as possible.
• World Health Organization (WHO):
• The WHO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
• It was founded on 7 April 1948 (celebrated as World Health Day) and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• Its mandate includes advocating for universal healthcare, monitoring public health risks, and coordinating responses to health emergencies.
• UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization):
• UNESCO aims to build peace through international cooperation in Education, the Sciences, and Culture.
• It was founded on 16 November 1945 and its headquarters is located in Paris, France.
• It is well known for designating World Heritage Sites to preserve cultural and natural heritage around the globe.
• Important Facts about NATO:
• The headquarters of NATO is located in Brussels, Belgium.
• As of 2024, NATO consists of 32 member countries, with Finland and Sweden being the most recent additions to the alliance.
• Article 5 has been invoked only once in the history of the alliance, which was in response to the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks on the United States.
• The current Secretary General of NATO (as of 2024) is Mark Rutte, who succeeded Jens Stoltenberg.

The correct answer is Very Poor (AQI 301–400).

Key Points

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in National Capital Region (NCR) and Adjoining Areas is the statutory body responsible for implementing the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) to combat air pollution.
• Stage-II of the GRAP is specifically invoked when the Air Quality Index (AQI) in Delhi-NCR is forecast to or has already reached the 'Very Poor' category, which spans a numerical range of 301 to 400.
• In November 2025, the implementation of Stage-II necessitated restrictive measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality toward the 'Severe' category. Hence, the correct answer is Very Poor (AQI 301–400).
• Under this stage, the use of Diesel Generator (DG) sets is heavily regulated and generally banned except for essential services like hospitals and elevators to minimize vehicular and industrial emissions.
• Other mandatory actions under Stage-II include the mechanical sweeping and water sprinkling of identified roads on a daily basis and the intensification of inspections at construction and demolition (C&D) sites.

Additional Information

• Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP):
• It is a set of emergency measures that kick in to prevent further deterioration of air quality in Delhi-NCR. It was first notified in 2017 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The plan is divided into four stages based on the AQI levels:
• Stage-I ('Poor'): Triggered when AQI is between 201–300. Focuses on dust control at construction sites and waste management.
• Stage-II ('Very Poor'): Triggered when AQI is between 301–400. Focuses on DG set restrictions and increasing parking fees.
• Stage-III ('Severe'): Triggered when AQI is between 401–450. Includes bans on non-essential construction and specific vehicle types (e.g., BS-III petrol and BS-IV diesel cars).
• Stage-IV ('Severe+'): Triggered when AQI exceeds 450. This involves stopping the entry of trucks into Delhi and potentially shifting schools to online mode.
• Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
• The CAQM was established through an Ordinance in 2020 and later by the CAQM in NCR and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021.
• It replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) and has the power to issue directions and entertain complaints for protecting and improving air quality.

Important Points

• Forecasting Mechanism: The decision to invoke stages of GRAP is based on forecasts provided by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
• Pollutants Monitored: The AQI calculation involves eight major pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb. However, PM2.5 and PM10 are the primary concerns in Delhi during the winter months of October and November.
• Geographical Scope: GRAP measures are applicable across the entire National Capital Region, which includes districts in Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan, besides Delhi.
• Public Participation: During Stage-II, citizens are encouraged to use public transport (Metro and buses) and minimize the use of personal vehicles to reduce the carbon footprint and local pollution levels.

The correct answer is Supreme Court of India.

Key Points

• In November 2025, the Supreme Court of India expressed grave concern over the "severe plus" Air Quality Index (AQI) levels in Delhi and the National Capital Region (NCR).
• A bench comprising Justice Abhay S. Oka and Justice Augustine George Masih observed that the pollution levels had reached a stage where even wearing masks was becoming ineffective for the citizens.
• The Supreme Court pulled up the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) for the delay in implementing the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), specifically Stage IV measures.
• The court invoked Article 21 of the Constitution of India, asserting that every citizen has a fundamental right to live in a pollution-free environment.
• The Supreme Court directed all NCR states to immediately constitute teams to monitor and enforce the GRAP-IV restrictions, which include a ban on truck entry (except for essential commodities) and the suspension of construction and demolition activities.

Additional Information

• Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP):
• GRAP is a set of emergency measures implemented in Delhi-NCR depending on the severity of air pollution.
• It is divided into four stages: Stage I (Poor), Stage II (Very Poor), Stage III (Severe), and Stage IV (Severe Plus).
• Stage IV is triggered when the AQI crosses the 450 mark, involving the strictest curbs like stopping the entry of non-essential commercial vehicles into Delhi.
• Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
• The CAQM is a statutory body established under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021.
• It was formed to coordinate and oversee efforts to improve air quality in Delhi-NCR and adjoining states like Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
• Primary Pollutants:
• The crisis is often exacerbated by PM2.5 and PM10 particles, which can penetrate deep into the lungs.
• Key contributors to Delhi's air pollution in November include stubble burning (parali burning) in neighboring states, vehicular emissions, construction dust, and low wind speeds due to winter temperature inversion.

Important Points

• The Supreme Court clarified that even if the AQI falls below 450, the GRAP-IV restrictions should not be relaxed without the court's prior permission during the peak pollution season.
• The National Air Quality Index was launched in 2014 as part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan to provide a simplified "one number-one color-one description" for the general public to understand air quality.
• Other bodies involved in pollution control include the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), established in 1974, which provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) organized a national-level workshop in March 2025 to discuss and refine the National Adaptation Plan (NAP) of India.
• The workshop was held in New Delhi, serving as a central hub for policy-makers, climate scientists, and international delegates to deliberate on climate resilience strategies.
• The primary objective of the event was to strengthen the framework for climate change adaptation at both national and state levels, aligning with India's commitments under the Paris Agreement.
• The workshop emphasized the integration of traditional knowledge with modern scientific data to protect vulnerable communities from extreme weather events like floods, droughts, and heatwaves.
• It facilitated a platform for State Governments to share their progress on State Action Plans on Climate Change (SAPCC) and identify gaps in funding and technology transfer.

Additional Information

• National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC):
• Launched in June 2008, the NAPCC is India's flagship strategy to address climate change through eight core national missions.
• These missions include the National Solar Mission, National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, and the National Mission on Sustainable Habitat.
• Other critical components include the National Water Mission, National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem, and National Mission for a Green India.
• The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture and the National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change complete the framework.
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC):
• It is the nodal agency in the Government of India for planning, promotion, coordination, and overseeing the implementation of environmental and forestry programmes.
• The ministry is responsible for India's participation in international bodies like the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
• State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC):
• Individual States and Union Territories in India develop their own SAPCCs to address region-specific climate vulnerabilities.
• These plans are periodically updated to reflect Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) and Net Zero goals.

Important Points

• National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC):
• Established in 2015-16, this fund assists states that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change in meeting the cost of adaptation.
• The NABARD acts as the National Implementing Entity (NIE) for projects under this fund.
• India's Climate Targets:
• During COP26 in Glasgow, India announced the Panchamrit targets, which include achieving Net Zero emissions by 2070.
• India also aims to increase its non-fossil energy capacity to 500 GW by 2030.
• The National Adaptation Plan discussed in the New Delhi workshop is a crucial step in ensuring that developmental gains are not reversed by climate-induced disasters.

The correct answer is Anju Bobby George.

Key Points

• The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) announced the appointment of legendary long jumper Anju Bobby George as the Chairperson of the AFI Athletes Commission in January 2025.
• She is an iconic figure in Indian sports, famously being the first Indian athlete to win a medal at the World Championships in Athletics, securing a bronze in the Long Jump event in Paris, 2003.
• Her appointment to this role is aimed at bridging the gap between the active athletes and the national federation, ensuring that the concerns, welfare, and training needs of sportspersons are directly addressed at the administrative level.
• Anju Bobby George has previously served as the Senior Vice President of the AFI, making her one of the few former athletes to hold high-ranking executive positions in Indian sports governance.
• The Athletes Commission plays a critical role in maintaining the integrity of the sport, promoting anti-doping awareness, and providing recommendations for the development of grassroots athletics in India.

Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• It is the apex body for running and managing athletics in India, established in 1946.
• The federation is responsible for conducting National Championships and selecting the Indian Athletics Team for international events like the Olympics, Asian Games, and World Athletics Championships.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and is affiliated with World Athletics and the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
• Anju Bobby George’s Career Highlights:
• She represented India at the 2004 Athens Olympics, finishing with a personal best of 6.83 meters.
• In recognition of her contribution to sports, she was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2002, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna in 2003, and the Padma Shri in 2004.
• She was also declared the World Athletics Woman of the Year in 2021 for her efforts in advancing sports in the country and mentoring young girls.
• Other Notable Personalities in the Options:
• PT Usha: Known as the "Payyoli Express," she is the first woman President of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and a legendary sprinter who dominated the Asian Games in the 1980s.
• Neeraj Chopra: A prominent javelin thrower who won the Gold medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and the Silver medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• Saurav Ganguly: The former captain of the Indian Cricket Team and the former President of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).

Important Points

• The formation and empowerment of Athletes Commissions are mandated by international bodies like the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to ensure good governance and transparency in sports organizations.
• In 2025, the AFI continues to focus on the Mission 2028 Los Angeles Olympics, with the Athletes Commission expected to play a vital role in identifying and supporting elite talent across various track and field disciplines.
• Anju Bobby George also runs a high-performance training academy in Bengaluru, which has been instrumental in producing international-level jumpers for the country.

The correct answer is Gajuwaka.

Key Points

• The Rajiv Sports Complex was officially inaugurated in June 2025 to enhance the sporting infrastructure and provide better facilities for athletes in the region.
• The complex is situated in Gajuwaka, which is one of the most prominent residential and industrial suburbs of Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
• The development of this project was undertaken by the Greater Visakhapatnam Municipal Corporation (GVMC), aiming to promote physical fitness among the local youth and industrial workers.
• The facility includes state-of-the-art amenities such as shuttle badminton courts, multipurpose halls, gymnasiums, and dedicated spaces for indoor games.
• The strategic location in Gajuwaka allows easy access for the massive population working in nearby industrial zones like the Visakhapatnam Steel Plant and BHEL.

Additional Information

• Greater Visakhapatnam Municipal Corporation (GVMC):
• The GVMC is the civic body that oversees the administration of Visakhapatnam. It is one of the largest municipal corporations in India by area, covering approximately 681.96 square kilometers.
• It has been instrumental in implementing various Smart City projects, focusing on urban greenery, waste management, and public sports facilities.
• Gajuwaka Locality:
• Gajuwaka is often referred to as the biggest shopping hub in the Andhra Pradesh state and serves as a vital economic engine for the city of Visakhapatnam.
• Its transformation into a sports destination with the Rajiv Sports Complex is part of a broader plan to decentralize sports infrastructure from the main city center.
• Comparison of Options:
• Dwaraka Nagar is a major commercial and educational hub in Visakhapatnam but was not the site for this specific 2025 inauguration.
• Uttam Nagar is a well-known locality often associated with Delhi, making it irrelevant to the GVMC jurisdiction in Andhra Pradesh.
• Kollam is a coastal city located in the state of Kerala, which is geographically distinct from the Andhra Pradesh administration.

Important Points

• The Rajiv Sports Complex project was funded through a combination of municipal funds and Smart City Mission grants, highlighting the government's commitment to urban renewal.
• Sports Authority of Andhra Pradesh (SAAP) often collaborates with local bodies like GVMC to ensure these facilities meet national standards for coaching and competitions.
• The inauguration in June 2025 marks a significant milestone in the Visakhapatnam urban development timeline, focusing on "Health and Wellness" as a core pillar of city planning.
• Such complexes serve as vital hubs for inter-school competitions and state-level tournaments, helping identify budding talent from the Coastal Andhra region.

The correct answer is Alberta.

Key Points

• The 51^st G7 Summit is scheduled to be hosted by Canada in June 2025.
• The government of Canada has officially designated the province of Alberta as the host region for this high-profile international gathering.
• Specifically, the summit will take place in Kananaskis, a scenic area located in the foothills of the Canadian Rockies within Alberta.
• Prime Minister Justin Trudeau announced the selection of Alberta to highlight the province's natural beauty and its vital role in the national economy. Hence, the option Alberta is correct.
• This will be the seventh time that Canada has hosted the G7 Summit since it joined the group in 1976.
• The G7 Presidency for the year 2025 belongs to Canada, which takes over the leadership role from Italy (the 2024 host).

Additional Information

• Geographic Importance of Alberta:
• Alberta is one of the three prairie provinces in Western Canada and is bordered by British Columbia to the west and Saskatchewan to the east.
• It is home to major cities such as Calgary and the provincial capital, Edmonton.
• The province is globally recognized for its oil and natural gas industry, as well as its stunning national parks like Banff and Jasper.
• History of G7 in Canada:
• Canada previously hosted the summit in several locations: Ottawa-Montebello (1981), Toronto (1988), Halifax (1995), Kananaskis (2002), Muskoka (2010), and Charlevoix (2018).
• The choice of Kananaskis in 2025 mirrors the 2002 summit, which was chosen for its remote and secure location, facilitating focused discussions among world leaders.
• Member Countries:
• The Group of Seven (G7) is an intergovernmental political forum consisting of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• The European Union is also represented at the summit as a non-enumerated member, participating in all discussions.

Important Points

• Summit Objectives: The 2025 agenda is expected to focus on global security, economic stability, and the clean energy transition, particularly given Alberta's position as an energy hub.
• Rotating Presidency: The G7 Presidency rotates annually in a set order: France, United States, United Kingdom, Germany, Japan, Italy, and Canada. Canada's term begins on January 1, 2025.
• Logistic Preparation: Hosting a summit involves rigorous security protocols and the coordination of Sherpas (official representatives), who meet throughout the year to prepare the final Communique.
• Global Influence: While the G7 does not have a permanent secretariat or legal status, its decisions carry significant political weight and often set the tone for global policy in the IMF and World Bank.

The correct answer is Javed Akhtar.

Key Points

• The book titled 'Gyan Seepiyan: Pearls of Wisdom' was officially launched during the 18^th edition of the Jaipur Literature Festival (JLF) in January 2025.
• It is authored by the veteran Indian poet, lyricist, and screenwriter, Javed Akhtar, who is a prominent figure in Hindi and Urdu literature.
• The work serves as a literary collection that translates complex philosophical thoughts and life lessons into accessible wisdom, reflecting Javed Akhtar's unique worldview.
• During the launch, Javed Akhtar engaged in discussions regarding the role of poetry and language in preserving cultural heritage and navigating the challenges of modernity.
• The book launch at JLF 2025 was one of the most anticipated sessions, highlighting the author's continued relevance in the literary world. Hence, the option is correct.

Additional Information

• Javed Akhtar's Background: Born on January 17, 1945, in Gwalior, he belongs to a family of freedom fighters and poets. He became a household name in the 1970s as part of the legendary Salim-Javed duo, creating iconic films like Sholay and Deewar.
• Literary Contributions: Apart from his new book, his poetry collections like 'Tarkash' and 'Lava' have received widespread critical acclaim. 'Lava' won the Sahitya Akademi Award in Urdu in 2013.
• Major Awards: He is a recipient of several prestigious Indian civil honors, including the Padma Shri (1999) and the Padma Bhushan (2007). He has also won the National Film Award for Best Lyricist five times.
• International Recognition: In 2020, Javed Akhtar became the first Indian to be honored with the Richard Dawkins Award for his rationalism, secularism, and critical thinking.
• Jaipur Literature Festival (JLF): Founded in 2006, it is often described as the "greatest literary show on Earth." It takes place annually in Jaipur, Rajasthan, typically at the Hotel Clarks Amer, and serves as a global platform for intellectual exchange.

Important Points

• Significance of the Title: The title 'Gyan Seepiyan' literally translates to "Shells of Wisdom," symbolizing the act of gathering precious pearls of knowledge from the ocean of experience.
• Themes of the Book: The book explores a wide range of themes, including humanism, the power of logic, the beauty of the Urdu language, and the social responsibility of an artist.
• Cultural Impact: The launch at JLF 2025 reinforces the festival's role in debuting significant South Asian literature that bridges the gap between traditional poetry and contemporary philosophy.
• Global Reach: Javed Akhtar's works are often translated into multiple languages, ensuring that his pearls of wisdom reach a global audience beyond the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).

Key Points

• In January 2025, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) announced the expansion of its Regulatory Sandbox Framework to foster greater innovation and technological advancement within the insurance industry.
• The primary objective of this expansion is to provide a "safe space" for InsurTech companies and traditional insurers to test new products, services, and business models in a live environment with certain regulatory relaxations.
• The revised framework aims to accelerate the goal of "Insurance for All by 2047" by encouraging solutions that address the needs of unserved and underserved segments of the Indian population.
• This expansion includes streamlined application processes and extended testing timelines, allowing participants more flexibility to refine their innovations before a full-scale market launch.
• By leveraging the sandbox, IRDAI seeks to promote the use of emerging technologies such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), Machine Learning, and Blockchain to improve policy issuance and claims settlement efficiency.

Additional Information

• IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India):
• It is a statutory body established under the IRDAI Act, 1999, following the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee report.
• The authority is headquartered in Hyderabad (shifted from Delhi in 2001) and functions under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
• The current Chairperson of IRDAI is Debasish Panda, who leads the mission of protecting policyholders' interests and ensuring the orderly growth of the insurance sector.
• Other Regulatory Sandboxes in India:
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) operates a Regulatory Sandbox focused on FinTech themes such as retail payments, MSME lending, and cross-border remittances.
• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) manages a sandbox for the capital markets, enabling innovations in trading platforms and investment advisory services.
• The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) also maintains a sandbox specifically for global financial innovations within GIFT City, Gujarat.
• Regulatory Sandbox Definition:
• A Regulatory Sandbox refers to live, time-bound testing of new products or services in a controlled regulatory environment.
• It allows regulators to understand new technologies and their risks without immediately imposing the full weight of existing regulations.

Important Points

• The IRDAI Sandbox was originally introduced in 2019, and the January 2025 update represents a move toward a more permanent and dynamic regulatory approach.
• Key areas of interest for the 2025 expansion include Parametric Insurance (weather-based covers), Telematic-based motor insurance (pay-as-you-drive), and Wearable-integrated health insurance.
• Any entity registered in India, including startups and intermediaries, can apply to participate, provided they meet the minimum net worth and innovation criteria set by the regulator.
• Successful testing within the sandbox often leads to the amendment of existing insurance laws to accommodate modern digital-first insurance solutions.

The correct answer is Minimum Wage Guarantee.

Key Points

• The Minimum Wage Guarantee for beedi and cigar workers is a transformative reform under the Code on Wages, 2019, which reached full implementation maturity by November 2025.
• This reform ensures that every worker, regardless of being in the organized or unorganized sector, is entitled to a statutory minimum wage, removing the disparities previously found in the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
• For the beedi industry, which traditionally operates on a piece-rate basis (payment per thousand beedis rolled), the guarantee ensures that the effective daily earnings do not fall below the National Floor Minimum Wage set by the Central Government.
• The initiative aims to provide financial security to approximately 7 to 8 million workers involved in beedi rolling, the majority of whom are home-based women workers living in rural areas.
• By November 2025, the transition to a mandatory digital payment or Aadhaar-linked bank transfer for these wages has been prioritized to prevent exploitation by middlemen and contractors.

Additional Information

• Code on Wages, 2019:
• This code subsumes four major labor laws: The Minimum Wages Act, 1948; The Payment of Wages Act, 1936; The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965; and The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
• It empowers the Central Government to fix a floor wage, taking into account the minimum living standards of workers across different geographical regions.
• Beedi and Cigar Workers (Conditions of Employment) Act, 1966:
• Before the new codes, this was the primary legislation governing the welfare, working hours, and licensing of beedi establishments.
• The 2025 reforms integrate the welfare provisions of this act into the broader Social Security Code and Occupational Safety Code.
• The e-Shram Portal:
• Launched in August 2021, this database is critical for the Minimum Wage Guarantee as it allows the government to track unorganized workers and ensure they receive Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT).
• Registration on this portal provides a Universal Account Number (UAN), which is essential for accessing insurance and pension benefits.
• Socio-Economic Impact:
• The beedi industry is concentrated in states like Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.
• Providing a guaranteed wage helps in poverty Alleviation for the Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) communities who form a large part of this workforce.

Important Points

• National Floor Minimum Wage: A benchmarking mechanism where no State Government can set a minimum wage lower than the floor wage decided by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
• Inspector-cum-Facilitator: Under the new reforms, the role of traditional inspectors has changed to facilitators, who use web-based random inspection systems to ensure compliance with the Minimum Wage Guarantee.
• Gender Sensitivity: Since nearly 90% of beedi rollers are women, the Code on Wages strictly prohibits gender discrimination in matters of wages for the same work or work of a similar nature.
• Penalty for Non-compliance: Employers failing to pay the guaranteed minimum wage face stringent fines and potential imprisonment, as mandated under the penal provisions of the Labour Codes updated in 2024-2025.

The correct answer is Ranipuram forest.

Key Points

• In 2025, a team of dedicated entomologists from institutions such as Christ College (Irinjalakuda) conducted a comprehensive survey in the Ranipuram forest region of Kerala.
• During this scientific expedition, the researchers successfully recorded seven new moth species that had never been documented in the state of Kerala before.
• The Ranipuram forest, located in the Kasaragod district, is part of the Western Ghats, which is a global biodiversity hotspot and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The discovery includes species from diverse families such as Erebidae and Noctuidae, highlighting the rich lepidopteran diversity of the northern Western Ghats.
• This finding underscores the ecological importance of the high-altitude shola-grassland ecosystems found in the Kasaragod region for rare and endemic insect life.

Additional Information

• Ranipuram Forest:
• Located in the Kasaragod district of Kerala, it was formerly known as Madathumala.
• It is often referred to as the "Ooty of Kerala" due to its cool climate and scenic beauty, situated at an elevation of about 1022 meters.
• The landscape is a unique blend of evergreen forests, shola woods, and montane grasslands, which supports a wide array of flora and fauna.
• It borders the Talakavery Wildlife Sanctuary in Karnataka, forming an important corridor for elephants and other wildlife.
• Moths as Bioindicators:
• Moths belong to the order Lepidoptera and are considered excellent bioindicators because they are highly sensitive to changes in the environment and climate.
• Unlike butterflies, most moths are nocturnal, and their diversity reflects the health of the local ecosystem and the availability of specific host plants.
• Other Regions Mentioned:
• Silent Valley National Park: Located in Palakkad, famous for the Lion-tailed Macaque and its untouched tropical rainforest.
• Periyar Tiger Reserve: Situated in Idukki, it is one of the most prominent Tiger and Elephant reserves in India.
• Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary: Part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, known for its significant population of Tigers and Asian Elephants.

Important Points

• The survey methodology involved the use of mercury vapor lamp light traps to attract and document the nocturnal insect species.
• Taxonomic studies and DNA barcoding are often used by entomologists to confirm the identity of such rare species in the Western Ghats.
• The Government of Kerala and various nature conservation foundations have been emphasizing the protection of the Ranipuram-Kottancheri belt to prevent habitat fragmentation.
• The year 2025 marks a significant milestone in the entomological research of North Kerala, bringing global attention to the lesser-explored forest tracts of the Kasaragod highlands.

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is 2030.

Key Points

• During the 42^nd Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADCC) annual meeting held in April 2024 in Bengaluru, the ISRO Chairman, S Somanath, declared India's commitment to achieving debris-free space missions by the year 2030.
• This initiative is part of ISRO's broader vision to ensure the long-term sustainability of outer space operations, preventing the accumulation of "space junk" that could jeopardize future missions.
• The goal of a Debris-free Space Mission involves all Indian space actors, including both government-led projects and private sector startups, ensuring that every mission launched from India leaves no debris behind in the Earth's orbit.
• The ISRO Chairman emphasized that by 2030, India aims to have a well-defined mechanism to de-orbit satellites at the end of their functional life or ensure their natural decay within a specified timeframe.
• This declaration reinforces India's position as a responsible global space power, actively contributing to the United Nations guidelines for space debris mitigation and the IADCC framework. Hence, the correct option is 2030.

Additional Information

• Space Debris and its Risks:
• Space debris refers to man-made objects in orbit that no longer serve a useful function, such as defunct satellites, spent rocket stages, and fragments from collisions.
• The Kessler Syndrome is a theoretical scenario where the density of objects in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is high enough that collisions between objects could cause a cascade, making space activities and the use of satellites difficult for generations.
• ISRO's Technological Interventions:
• IS4OM (ISRO System for Safe and Sustainable Space Operations Management): This facility was established in July 2022 to monitor space objects, predict collisions, and coordinate debris mitigation activities.
• POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module): ISRO has successfully utilized the fourth stage (PS4) of the PSLV rocket as an orbital platform for experiments, rather than letting it become debris immediately. In March 2024, the PSLV-C58 POEM-3 mission achieved a zero-debris status by re-entering the atmosphere.
• SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment): A mission currently under development aimed at mastering autonomous docking, which is crucial for satellite servicing and debris removal.
• IADCC (Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee):
• It is an international governmental forum for the worldwide coordination of activities related to the issues of man-made and natural debris in space.
• The 42^nd meeting hosted by ISRO in Bengaluru saw participation from various global space agencies like NASA, ESA, and JAXA.

Important Points

• Future Landmarks for ISRO:
• While the debris-free target is 2030, India has other major milestones including the establishment of the Bhartiya Antariksha Station (BAS) by 2035.
• India also plans to send the first Indian to the Moon by the year 2040.
• The Gaganyaan mission, India's first manned space flight, is a critical step toward these goals, requiring a clean and safe orbital environment.
• Global Compliance:
• India's commitment aligns with the Zero Debris Charter and the Space Sustainability goals discussed at international platforms to keep Low Earth Orbit accessible for future scientific and commercial use.

The correct answer is ₹12 lakh.

Key Points

• In the Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, the government announced a significant increase in the tax-exempt income threshold under the New Tax Regime.
• The effective tax-free income limit has been raised to ₹12 lakh for individuals opting for the New Tax Regime. Hence, the statement regarding the ₹12 lakh threshold is correct.
• This change is implemented through a combination of revised Income Tax Slabs and the Tax Rebate under Section 87A of the Income Tax Act.
• The Standard Deduction for salaried employees has been increased from ₹75,000 to ₹1,00,000 in the FY 2025-26 budget.
• The primary objective of this move is to provide substantial relief to the middle-class taxpayers and increase disposable income in the hands of the public.

Additional Information

• Revised Tax Slabs (Budget 2025-26):
• ₹0 to ₹4 lakh: Nil tax.
• ₹4 lakh to ₹8 lakh: 5% tax.
• ₹8 lakh to ₹12 lakh: 10% tax.
• ₹12 lakh to ₹16 lakh: 15% tax.
• ₹16 lakh to ₹20 lakh: 20% tax.
• Above ₹24 lakh: 30% tax.
• Section 87A Rebate: This section provides a tax rebate that effectively makes the tax liability zero for those whose total income does not exceed the specified threshold. In the Budget 2025-26, this rebate was adjusted to cover income up to ₹12 lakh.
• New Tax Regime vs. Old Tax Regime: The New Tax Regime (introduced under Section 115BAC) is now the default regime. While it offers lower tax rates, it does not allow most deductions (like 80C, 80D, or HRA) that are available in the Old Tax Regime.
• Pensioners' Relief: The deduction on family pension for pensioners has been enhanced from ₹25,000 to ₹30,000 to provide further social security benefits.

Important Points

• Impact on Taxpayers: Under the new structure, a salaried individual earning ₹12 lakh per annum will pay zero tax, leading to a direct saving compared to previous fiscal years where the limit was lower.
• Surcharge and Cess: While the tax rates have been rationalized, the Health and Education Cess of 4% remains applicable on the total tax amount for those above the rebate threshold.
• Corporate Tax: The Budget 2025-26 also maintained the stability of corporate tax rates, focusing on the Ease of Doing Business and simplifying the Tax Assessment process.
• Date of Implementation: These changes are applicable for the Assessment Year 2026-27 (which corresponds to the Financial Year 2025-26 starting from 1 April 2025).

The correct answer is Karlos Nasar.

Key Points

• Karlos Nasar, a 20-year-old weightlifting prodigy from Bulgaria, delivered a historic performance at the 2024 Paris Olympics on August 9, 2024.
• He set a new World Record and Olympic Record in the men’s 89 kg category by successfully lifting 224 kg in the clean and jerk segment of the competition.
• In addition to the clean and jerk record, Nasar achieved a total lift of 404 kg (180 kg in the snatch and 224 kg in the clean and jerk), which also established a new World Record for the total weight in the 89 kg division.
• His performance secured the gold medal for Bulgaria, finishing significantly ahead of his closest competitors.
• Karlos Nasar was born in 2004 and has been a dominant force in world weightlifting, previously holding multiple world records in the 81 kg and 89 kg categories before the Paris 2024 games.

Additional Information

• Other Medalists in the 89 kg Category:
• The silver medal was won by Yeison López of Colombia, who achieved a total lift of 390 kg.
• The bronze medal went to Antonino Pizzolato of Italy, who recorded a total lift of 384 kg after a dramatic successful final attempt.
• Li Fabin:
• He is a world-renowned weightlifter from China who competed in the 61 kg category at the 2024 Olympics.
• Li Fabin won the gold medal in his category and set a new Olympic Record in the snatch by lifting 143 kg.
• Akbar Djuraev:
• He is a prominent weightlifter from Uzbekistan who competed in the 102 kg category during the Paris 2024 games.
• He secured the silver medal in the men's 102 kg event with a total lift of 404 kg.
• Simon Martirosyan:
• He is a highly decorated Armenian weightlifter, typically competing in the 109 kg or +109 kg categories.
• He is a two-time Olympic silver medalist (2016 and 2020) and a multiple-time World Champion.

Important Points

• The 89 kg weight class is a relatively new Olympic category, part of the revised weightlifting program designed to streamline the sport for the Olympic Games.
• Clean and Jerk: This is the second of the two lifts in weightlifting, where the athlete first lifts the barbell to the shoulders (the clean) and then overhead (the jerk). It usually allows for higher weights than the snatch.
• The weightlifting events at the 2024 Paris Olympics were held at the South Paris Arena, part of the Paris Expo Porte de Versailles.
• Bulgaria has a long and storied history in weightlifting, and Nasar's gold was a significant achievement for the nation, marking their first Olympic weightlifting gold since the 2004 Athens Games.

The correct answer is Automotive Skills Development Council.

Key Points

• The Automotive Skills Development Council (ASDC) has collaborated with the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) to launch the National Automobile Olympiad for the academic year 2024-25.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to create awareness among school students about the automotive industry and provide them with a platform to explore various career opportunities in this rapidly evolving sector.
• The Olympiad is designed to be inclusive, targeting students from Class 6 to Class 12 across all CBSE-affiliated schools in India and abroad.
• This competition aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes the integration of vocational education with mainstream academic learning to enhance the employability of the youth.
• The event is structured to test students on their knowledge of automobile technologies, sustainability, road safety, and the future of mobility, encouraging a mindset of innovation and technical curiosity.

Additional Information

• Automotive Skills Development Council (ASDC): It is the first Sector Skill Council (SSC) in India, incorporated in 2011. It is promoted by the Society of Indian Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM), Automotive Component Manufacturers Association (ACMA), and Federation of Automobile Dealers Associations (FADA), along with the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC).
• Role of CBSE: The Central Board of Secondary Education, established in 1929, plays a crucial role in implementing skill-based modules in schools to ensure that students are prepared for the industry 4.0 requirements.
• Focus Areas: The National Automobile Olympiad 2025 focuses on modern themes such as Electric Vehicles (EVs), Hydrogen Fuel Cell technology, Autonomous Driving, and the Circular Economy within the automotive manufacturing process.
• Skill India Mission: This collaboration is a significant step under the broader Skill India Mission, which aims to empower the youth with skill sets that make them more productive in their various work environments.
• Competition Structure: The Olympiad typically involves multiple rounds, including online assessments, regional level competitions, and a national grand finale, where winners are often recognized with certificates, trophies, and industry exposure visits.

Important Points

• Industry Integration: By involving ASDC, the program ensures that the content provided to students is vetted by industry experts, making the learning process relevant to current market trends.
• Career Pathing: The initiative helps in identifying young talent early, potentially guiding them toward professional degrees in Automobile Engineering, Mechatronics, and Robotics.
• Gender Neutrality: The program actively encourages female students to participate, aiming to break gender stereotypes in a traditionally male-dominated automotive sector.
• Registration: Participation in the Olympiad is usually facilitated through a dedicated portal, and CBSE issues official circulars to all its principals and school heads to ensure maximum outreach.

The correct answer is BIT Mesra.

Key Points

• Researchers at the Birla Institute of Technology (BIT), Mesra, specifically from the Department of Pharmaceutical Sciences and Technology, successfully developed smart peptides in June 2025.
• These smart peptides are engineered to be pH-responsive, meaning they change their structural configuration or chemical activity in response to the acidity or alkalinity of their surrounding environment.
• The primary application of this research is in the field of targeted drug delivery, where medication is released specifically at the site of a disease, such as a tumor, rather than throughout the entire body.
• The development is a significant milestone for Indian biotechnology, providing a more efficient way to treat chronic ailments while minimizing side effects. Hence, the correct option is BIT Mesra.
• These bio-inspired molecules are designed to remain stable in the neutral pH of the bloodstream (around 7.4) but activate when they encounter the acidic microenvironment (pH 5.5 to 6.5) typically found in cancerous tissues.

Additional Information

• BIT Mesra (Birla Institute of Technology):
• Established in 1955 by the visionary industrialist Mr. B.M. Birla, it is located in Ranchi, Jharkhand.
• It was the first institute in India to establish a Department of Space Engineering and Rocketry in 1964 and has remained a leader in pharmaceutical research.
• The institute holds a Deemed University status under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956.
• Smart Peptides and Nanomedicine:
• Smart Peptides are short chains of amino acids that "sense" external stimuli like temperature, light, or pH.
• In oncology, they exploit the Warburg Effect, where cancer cells produce lactic acid, creating a unique pH signature that these peptides can identify.
• This technology is a part of nanomedicine, which involves the medical application of nanotechnology for diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment.
• Comparison with other Institutions:
• While IIT Delhi and IIT Guwahati are known for biomedical engineering, the specific breakthrough regarding pH-responsive smart peptides in 2025 is attributed to BIT Mesra.
• BITS Pilani also conducts extensive pharmacology research, but the Ranchi-based institution led this particular innovation.

Important Points

• Targeted Therapy: By using pH-responsive triggers, smart peptides can deliver chemotherapeutic agents directly to malignant cells, significantly reducing toxicity in healthy organs like the liver and kidneys.
• Mechanism of Action: The peptides undergo protonation of histidine or glutamic acid residues when the pH drops, causing the molecular package to "unfold" and release the payload.
• Future Prospects: Beyond cancer, these peptides could be used for localized antibiotic delivery in infected wounds, which also exhibit altered pH levels due to bacterial metabolism.
• Research Significance: The project aligns with the Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives, fostering indigenous medical technology and reducing reliance on imported pharmaceutical delivery systems.

The correct answer is Kamle District.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports, Shri Mansukh Mandaviya, officially inaugurated a state-of-the-art multi-purpose Khelo India Hall in the Kamle District of Arunachal Pradesh.
• This infrastructure project was completed under the Khelo India - National Programme for Development of Sports, which aims to provide world-class sporting facilities to the youth in remote and border regions.
• The multi-purpose hall is designed to support various indoor sports such as badminton, table tennis, and wrestling, providing a year-round training environment regardless of the mountainous weather conditions.
• During the event, the Minister highlighted that such initiatives are aligned with the "Vibrant Villages Programme", focusing on the holistic development of border districts to prevent migration and encourage local talent.
• The facility in Kamle is expected to serve as a crucial training hub for aspiring athletes from the Nyishi community and surrounding areas, helping them prepare for national and international competitions. Hence, the correct answer is Kamle District.

Additional Information

• Kamle District:
• It is one of the youngest districts of Arunachal Pradesh, created in 2017 by bifurcating parts of Lower Subansiri and Upper Subansiri districts.
• The district headquarters is located at Raga. It is known for its diverse ethnic culture and significant population of the Nyishi tribe.
• Khelo India Scheme:
• Launched in 2018, this flagship program of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports was introduced to revive the sports culture at the grass-root level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• It focuses on several verticals including Infrastructure Development, Talent Identification, and Support to National/Regional/State Sports Academies.
• Sports in Arunachal Pradesh:
• The state has emerged as a powerhouse in combat sports, particularly in Weightlifting, Karate, and Wushu.
• The central government has categorized Arunachal Pradesh as a priority zone for the development of sports infrastructure to harness the natural athletic potential of the North-Eastern youth.
• Union Minister Mansukh Mandaviya:
• Apart from the sports portfolio, he has been a key figure in the Union Cabinet, emphasizing the integration of sports with the New Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to make sports an integral part of the curriculum.

Important Points

• Geographic Importance: Developing infrastructure in Arunachal Pradesh is part of the "Act East Policy", ensuring that the frontier states are at par with the rest of India in terms of social and athletic facilities.
• Vibrant Villages Programme: This program was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23. It targets villages on the northern border that have sparse populations and limited connectivity, providing them with infrastructure like the Khelo India Hall.
• Economic Impact: Such sports complexes also generate local employment through maintenance, coaching, and administrative roles, boosting the local economy of the Kamle District.

The correct answer is Articles 17 and 21.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India, in its observations leading up to February 2025, has reaffirmed that the practice of manual scavenging is a direct violation of Article 17 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
• Article 17 of the Constitution abolished "Untouchability" and forbade its practice in any form. The Court has historically noted that manual scavenging is a dehumanizing practice rooted in the caste system, effectively serving as a modern manifestation of untouchability.
• Article 21 guarantees the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty. The judiciary has interpreted this to include the right to live with dignity. Forcing individuals to handle human excreta manually is considered a gross violation of this fundamental right to a dignified life.
• In recent judgements and hearings around 2024-2025, the Supreme Court emphasized that the state has a constitutional obligation to ensure that no citizen is forced into this hazardous occupation, linking the failure to provide protective gear and mechanized cleaning to a breach of Article 21.
• The Court has consistently utilized these two articles to push for the strict implementation of the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013. Hence, the correct answer is Articles 17 and 21.

Additional Information

• The 2013 Act:
• The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013, is the primary legislation aimed at eliminating this practice.
• It prohibits the manual cleaning of insanitary latrines, open drains, or pits. It also provides for the rehabilitation of identified manual scavengers through skills training and financial assistance.
• Judicial Interventions (Safai Karamchari Andolan Case):
• In the landmark case of Safai Karamchari Andolan v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court directed the government to provide a compensation of 10 lakhs to the families of those who died while cleaning sewers.
• By 2023-2024, the Supreme Court increased this compensation amount to 30 lakhs for sewer deaths, citing the continued violation of Fundamental Rights.
• NAMASTE Scheme:
• The National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) is a central sector scheme launched to ensure zero fatalities in sanitation work.
• It aims to provide sanitation workers with access to alternative livelihoods and mechanized cleaning equipment to phase out manual intervention in hazardous cleaning.
• Relevant Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 23: Prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor (begar), which is often relevant in cases where workers are coerced into manual scavenging.
• Article 47: A Directive Principle that mandates the State to improve public health and the standard of living.

Important Points

• Socio-Economic Impact: Manual scavenging is heavily concentrated among specific Scheduled Castes, making it a critical issue of social justice and equity.
• Survey and Data: According to government surveys, thousands of manual scavengers have been identified across various states, though activists often claim the actual numbers are much higher due to under-reporting in the unorganized sector.
• Role of Technology: The shift toward robotic scavengers (like Bandicoot) and high-pressure jetting machines is a key part of the modern strategy to uphold the constitutional spirit of Article 21.