General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Iris.

Key Points

• Iris is recognized as India's first AI teacher, marking a significant milestone in the integration of Artificial Intelligence within the classroom environment.
• The AI teacher was officially unveiled at the KTCT Higher Secondary School located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, in March 2024.
• Developed by Makerlabs Edutech, a startup based in Kochi, the robot is designed to enhance the learning experience by providing personalized and interactive content to students.
• It was developed as part of the Atal Tinkering Lab (ATL) project, which is a flagship initiative of the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) under NITI Aayog to foster curiosity and innovation in schools.
• Iris is a humanoid robot that can speak three languages and is capable of answering complex questions across various subjects, acting as a versatile pedagogical tool.
• The robot features physical capabilities such as moving on wheels, shaking hands, and using gestures to make the interaction more engaging for young learners.

Additional Information

• Technological Foundation: Iris is powered by Generative AI technology, similar to ChatGPT, allowing it to process natural language and provide real-time responses to student queries.
• Makerlabs Edutech Private Limited: This is the Kochi-based educational technology firm responsible for the research, design, and assembly of Iris. They focus on creating AI-based solutions for modern education.
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): Launched by the Government of India, this mission aims to create an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship. The Atal Tinkering Labs are dedicated workspaces where students (from Class 6 to Class 12) learn innovation skills and sculpt ideas through hands-on activities.
• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020: The introduction of AI teachers like Iris aligns with the goals of NEP 2020, which emphasizes the digital transformation of education and the use of technology to bridge the learning gap.
• Features and Design: The robot is draped in a traditional saree, designed to look familiar and approachable to Indian students. It includes a voice assistant and a processor that allows it to function as a standalone teaching entity.

Important Points

• Impact on Education: AI teachers like Iris are not intended to replace human teachers but to serve as teaching assistants that can provide 24/7 support, handle repetitive queries, and offer personalized learning paths for students with different learning speeds.
• Global Context: While Sophia (developed by Hanson Robotics in Hong Kong) is a world-famous social humanoid robot, Iris is specifically customized for the Indian educational curriculum and classroom dynamics.
• Accessibility: By utilizing AI, schools in remote areas can gain access to high-quality information and interactive tutoring, helping to democratize education across India.

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

• The 51^st G7 Summit is scheduled to take place in 2025, and Canada will hold the presidency and host the event.
• The presidency of the Group of Seven (G7) rotates annually among its member nations, which include Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• This summit follows the 50^th G7 Summit, which was hosted by Italy in June 2024 in the region of Apulia.
• Canada last hosted the G7 summit in 2018 at La Malbaie, Quebec (the 44^th summit), and previously in 2010 at Huntsville, Ontario.
• The host nation is responsible for setting the agenda, hosting the meetings, and determining which guest participants and international organizations will be invited.

Additional Information

• Origin and Evolution: The group originated from an ad hoc gathering of finance ministers in 1973. It was formally established as the G6 in 1975 by France, West Germany, Italy, Japan, the UK, and the USA. Canada joined in 1976, making it the G7.
• The G8 Era: Russia formally joined the group in 1998, making it the G8. However, Russia was suspended in 2014 following the annexation of Crimea, leading the group to return to its G7 format.
• The European Union: The European Union (EU) has been a non-enumerated member since 1977. It is represented by the President of the European Council and the President of the European Commission, though it does not host or hold the presidency.
• Core Objectives: The G7 serves as a forum for highly industrialized democracies to coordinate on global issues such as economic governance, international security, climate change, and health policy.
• Recent Hosts: Recent summits were held in Hiroshima, Japan (2023), Schloss Elmau, Germany (2022), and Carbis Bay, United Kingdom (2021).

Important Points

• Canadian Presidency 2025: As the host for the 51^st summit, Prime Minister Justin Trudeau will lead the discussions. The 2025 summit is expected to focus on Artificial Intelligence (AI), clean energy transitions, and global trade stability.
• G7 vs G20: While the G7 consists of advanced economies, the G20 is a larger forum that includes emerging economies like India, Brazil, and China to address broader global financial stability.
• Member Data: Together, the G7 members represent approximately 30% to 45% of the global Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and about 10% of the world's population.
• Legal Status: The G7 is not an international organization in the legal sense; it has no permanent headquarters or legal charter. Its decisions are political commitments rather than legally binding treaties.

The correct answer is Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.

Key Points

• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) issued a strict directive in October 2025 to restrict the commercial use of the term 'ORS' (Oral Rehydration Salts) by food business operators for beverages that do not meet medical standards.
• The regulatory body observed that many companies were marketing sugary drinks and fruit juices under the name 'ORS', which could mislead consumers into believing these products are medicinal rehydration solutions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• According to the FSSAI, the term 'ORS' is a scientific terminology used specifically for a composition defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) or the Indian Pharmacopoeia for treating clinical dehydration.
• The authority mandated that only those products manufactured under a drug license and meeting the specific electrolyte composition can use the abbreviation 'ORS'.
• Any beverage that does not comply with these standards must be labeled as an 'Electrolyte Drink' or a 'Rehydration Beverage', and must carry a disclaimer that the product is not a medical ORS.

Additional Information

• Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):
• It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidated various older laws related to food safety in India.
• The organization operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
• Headquartered in New Delhi, its primary function is to lay down science-based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import.
• Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS):
• ORS is a mixture of Sodium Chloride (2.6g), Glucose (13.5g), Potassium Chloride (1.5g), and Trisodium Citrate (2.9g) when dissolved in 1 litre of water.
• It is used as a life-saving treatment for dehydration caused by diarrhea or cholera, specifically by replacing lost fluids and essential salts.
• Using fruit beverages labeled as 'ORS' during medical emergencies can be dangerous as they often contain high sugar levels, which may worsen certain types of diarrhea.
• Other Regulatory Bodies:
• Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS): It provides technical knowledge on medical and public health matters but does not directly regulate food labeling.
• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR): It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
• National Medical Commission (NMC): This body regulates medical education and professionals in India, replacing the former Medical Council of India.

Important Points

• Mislabeling and Penalties: Under the FSS Act, misbranding or providing misleading information on food labels can attract heavy penalties and lead to the suspension of the FSSAI license.
• Consumer Awareness: The 2025 directive aims to protect vulnerable populations, especially children, by ensuring that parents do not confuse commercial sugary drinks with clinical rehydration therapy.
• WHO Guidelines: The WHO first recommended a standard ORS formula in 1975, and the osmolarity was further reduced in 2002 to improve efficacy.

The correct answer is to address under-employment in agriculture.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2025–26, presented by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2025, introduced the 'Rural Prosperity and Resilience' programme as a cornerstone for rural development.
• The primary objective of this programme is to address under-employment in agriculture by facilitating the transition of the rural workforce into more productive and diverse economic activities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It emphasizes multi-sectoral interventions, focusing on diversifying the rural economy beyond traditional crop cultivation into areas like food processing, animal husbandry, and rural entrepreneurship.
• The programme aims to build resilience against economic and climate-related shocks by promoting climate-resilient agriculture and enhancing the income-generating capacity of rural households.
• By addressing disguised unemployment (a form of under-employment prevalent in Indian farming), the government intends to optimize labour productivity and ensure sustainable livelihoods for the rural population.
• The initiative does not primarily focus on school dropout rates, sports infrastructure, or administrative reforms, though these may be addressed by other specific schemes like Samagra Shiksha or Khelo India. Hence, statements 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Additional Information

• Budget 2025-26 Themes:
• The budget focuses on four major pillars: Garib (Poor), Mahila (Women), Yuva (Youth), and Annadata (Farmers), often referred to as the GYAN initiative.
• The 'Rural Prosperity and Resilience' programme aligns with the Annadata pillar to boost farm incomes and modernize the agrarian economy.
• Under-employment in India:
• Under-employment, particularly disguised unemployment, occurs when more people are engaged in an activity than are actually required. In India, nearly 45-47% of the workforce is dependent on agriculture, which contributes only about 15-18% to the GDP.
• The Rural Prosperity scheme seeks to bridge this gap by creating non-farm jobs in rural areas, such as in logistics, warehousing, and agri-tech startups.
• Components of Rural Resilience:
• Resilience involves the capacity of rural communities to withstand climate change impacts. The budget allocates funds for micro-irrigation, digital public infrastructure for agriculture, and natural farming.
• The National Cooperative Policy is also integrated to empower Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) for better credit flow to small farmers.

Important Points

• Economic Impact: By targeting under-employment, the government aims to increase the disposable income of rural families, which in turn boosts domestic consumption and fuels national economic growth.
• Focus on Women: A significant portion of the programme is expected to support Lakhpati Didis (women in Self-Help Groups) to engage in value-addition and small-scale industries within the rural sector.
• Date of Announcement: The scheme was officially proposed during the budget speech on 1^st February 2025, marking a shift toward long-term structural reforms in the rural landscape.
• Multi-sectoral Approach: It integrates infrastructure development (roads and storage) with skill development to ensure that the rural population is equipped for new-age employment opportunities.

The correct answer is 38.

Key Points

• The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for the year 2024 was released in February 2025 by the international non-governmental organization Transparency International.
• In this latest report, India recorded an overall score of 38 out of 100. This score represents the perceived level of public sector corruption in the country based on expert assessments and surveys.
• The CPI uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 signifies that a country is "highly corrupt" and 100 signifies that a country is "very clean." A score of 38 indicates that India continues to face significant challenges in institutional transparency and anti-corruption measures.
• Comparing the current data with previous years, India’s score has seen a slight decline from the 2023 score, which was 39. In 2022, the score was 40, indicating a downward trend in perceived integrity over the last few cycles.
• The 2024 index evaluated a total of 180 countries and territories, providing a comprehensive global overview of corruption levels.

Additional Information

• Transparency International:
• It is a global movement working in over 100 countries to end the injustice of corruption.
• The organization was founded in May 1993 and is headquartered in Berlin, Germany.
• Its primary mission is to promote transparency, accountability, and integrity at all levels and in all sectors of society.
• Methodology of CPI:
• The CPI aggregates data from 13 different data sources from 12 independent institutions.
• These institutions include the World Bank, the World Economic Forum, and private risk and consulting companies.
• The index specifically focuses on public sector corruption, including bribery, diversion of public funds, and the ability of governments to contain corruption.
• Global Performance Trends:
• Consistently top-performing countries usually include Denmark, Finland, and New Zealand, often scoring above 85.
• Countries at the bottom of the index typically include Somalia, South Sudan, and Syria, often scoring below 15 due to prolonged conflict and weak governance.

Important Points

• India’s Regional Standing:
• In the South Asian region, India’s performance is often compared with its neighbors. While it generally scores better than Pakistan and Bangladesh, it lags significantly behind Bhutan, which consistently maintains a high score and rank.
• The 2024 report highlighted that stagnation or decline in scores for many G20 nations, including India, is a cause for concern regarding global economic stability.
• Impact of Scores:
• A low score in the CPI can negatively affect a country’s Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) as investors prefer environments with high legal certainty and low corruption.
• The report often accompanies recommendations for governments to strengthen judicial independence and protect whistleblowers to improve their standing in future indices.
• The 2024 index emphasized the link between corruption and social inequality, noting that corruption often disproportionately affects the most vulnerable populations.

The correct answer is Nitish Kumar.

Key Points

• Nitish Kumar, the veteran leader of the Janata Dal (United) (JD-U), has created a historic record in Indian politics by taking the oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar for the 10^th time in November 2025.
• His long political career is marked by his tenure as the head of various coalition governments in the state of Bihar, often pivoting between different political alliances to maintain stability and governance.
• Nitish Kumar first took the oath as Chief Minister in March 2000, although that initial government lasted for only seven days as he could not prove his majority on the floor of the house.
• Over the years, he has successfully led the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) and the Mahagathbandhan (Grand Alliance) at different times, earning him the reputation of a master of coalition politics.
• The oath of office and secrecy was administered by the Governor of Bihar at the Raj Bhavan located in Patna, the state capital.

Additional Information

• Lalu Prasad Yadav: He is the founding president of the Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) and served as the Chief Minister of Bihar from 1990 to 1997. He is a former Union Railway Minister (2004–2009) and remains a highly influential figure in Bihar politics.
• Tejashwi Yadav: The younger son of Lalu Prasad Yadav, he has served as the Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar. He is the current face of the RJD and leads the opposition or holds key portfolios during coalition governments with the JD(U).
• Sushil Kumar Modi: A senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), he served as the Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar for the longest duration alongside Nitish Kumar. He played a crucial role in the GST Council and served as a member of both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• Bihar Legislative Assembly: The assembly consists of 243 seats. A party or coalition requires a minimum of 122 seats to form a majority government in the state.
• Article 164: As per the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, who also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.

Important Points

• Sushasan Babu: Nitish Kumar is popularly known by this moniker, which translates to "Man of Good Governance," a title earned during his early years as Chief Minister for focusing on infrastructure, law and order, and women's empowerment.
• Previous Tenures: Before the 2025 oath, his 9^th oath ceremony took place in January 2024 when he rejoined the NDA. His ability to navigate complex political landscapes has kept him at the center of Bihar's administration for over two decades.
• Union Ministry Experience: Before becoming a dominant figure in state politics, Nitish Kumar served as a Union Minister in the Atal Bihari Vajpayee cabinet, holding important portfolios such as Railways, Surface Transport, and Agriculture.

p>The correct answer is Mohanlal.

 

Key Points

• The legendary actor Mohanlal has been conferred with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award at the 71^st National Film Awards in 2025.
• This award is recognized as the highest honor in the field of Indian cinema, presented annually for "outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema."
• Mohanlal Viswanathan, popularly known as Mohanlal, is a prolific actor, producer, and playback singer who has predominantly worked in Malayalam cinema for over four decades.
• The selection was announced by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, highlighting his immense impact on Indian culture through more than 400 films across various languages including Tamil, Telugu, Hindi, and Kannada.
• The award acknowledges his versatility and mastery in performing diverse roles that have set benchmarks in the Indian film industry. Hence, the correct answer is Mohanlal.

Additional Information

• History of Dadasaheb Phalke Award:
• The award was instituted by the Government of India in 1969 to honor the memory of Dhundiraj Govind Phalke, popularly known as the Father of Indian Cinema.
• Dadasaheb Phalke directed India's first indigenous full-length feature film, Raja Harishchandra, in 1913.
• The first recipient of this award was the actress Devika Rani, known as the "First Lady of Indian Cinema," in 1969.
• Award Components:
• The recipient is honored with a Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion, a shawl, and a cash prize of Rs. 15 lakh (revised recently).
• It is presented by the President of India during the National Film Awards ceremony held in New Delhi.
• Significance of the National Film Awards:
• Established in 1954, these awards are the most prominent film award ceremonies in India.
• They aim to encourage the production of films of aesthetic and technical excellence and social relevance, promoting the unity and integrity of the nation.

Important Points

• Mohanlal's Career Achievements:
• Before receiving the Phalke award, Mohanlal won five National Film Awards, including two for Best Actor for his performances in Bharatham (1991) and Vanaprastham (1999).
• He was also honored with the Padma Shri in 2001 and the Padma Bhushan in 2019, India's fourth and third highest civilian honors respectively, for his contribution to the arts.
• He holds the honorary rank of Lieutenant Colonel in the Territorial Army of India, awarded in 2009.
• Recent Recipients:
• The award has recently been conferred upon other stalwarts such as Waheeda Rehman (2021) and Mithun Chakraborty (2023).
• The Directorate of Film Festivals, an organization under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, oversees the selection process involving a jury of eminent film personalities.

The correct answer is Shafali Verma.

Key Points

• The ICC Women's Cricket World Cup 2025 final was held at the Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad, India.
• Shafali Verma was named the Player of the Match for her exceptional batting performance in the final against South Africa.
• She scored a match-defining 102 runs off 85 balls, which included 12 boundaries and 3 sixes, helping India set a formidable target.
• Her aggressive start at the top of the order allowed the Indian Women's Team to exert pressure on the opposition bowlers from the very first over. Hence, the correct answer is Shafali Verma.
• This victory marked India's first-ever title in the history of the ICC Women's ODI World Cup, ending a long wait for the silverware in the 50-over format.

Additional Information

• Smriti Mandhana:
• The elegant left-handed opener and vice-captain of the Indian team had a stellar tournament.
• She was awarded the Player of the Tournament for being the highest run-getter, accumulating over 520 runs across the event.
• In the final, she provided a solid opening partnership with Shafali Verma, scoring 48 runs.
• Marizanne Kapp:
• A world-class all-rounder from South Africa who was instrumental in her team's journey to the finals.
• In the final match, she contributed with 2 wickets and scored a fighting 42 runs, though it was not enough to secure a win for the Proteas Women.
• She remains one of the most experienced players in women's international cricket.
• Deepti Sharma:
• The spinning all-rounder played a crucial role in the bowling department during the final.
• She picked up 3 wickets for 35 runs in her 10-over quota, breaking the back of the South African middle order.
• Her off-break bowling and economical spells were a highlight for India throughout the 2025 World Cup.

Important Points

• Tournament Hosting: India hosted the 13^th edition of the ICC Women's Cricket World Cup in September-October 2025.
• Venues: Matches were played across major cities including Bengaluru, Mumbai, and the final in Ahmedabad.
• Shafali Verma's Record: At the age of 21, Shafali Verma became one of the youngest players to score a century in a World Cup final, further cementing her status as a global cricketing star.
• Impact of WPL: The success of the Women's Premier League (WPL) was widely credited for the improved performance and temperament of the Indian players on the world stage.

The correct answer is 2024.

Key Points

• The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on August 1, 2024, to update the nearly two-decade-old Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• The bill aims to bring greater clarity and convergence among the various authorities and committees working in the field of disaster management at National, State, and District levels.
• One of the primary features of the 2024 Bill is the creation of a National Disaster Database and State Disaster Databases to facilitate better planning and response during emergency situations.
• It proposes the establishment of Urban Disaster Management Authorities for state capitals and metropolitan cities having Municipal Corporations, recognizing the increasing risks of urban flooding and infrastructure failure.
• The bill empowers the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) to prepare their respective Disaster Management Plans, a responsibility that was previously vested with the executive committees. Hence, the correct answer is 2024.

Additional Information

• Disaster Management Act, 2005:
• This Act was enacted in December 2005 following the 2004 Tsunami to provide a legal framework for disaster response and mitigation in India.
• It mandated the creation of the NDMA, headed by the Prime Minister, and the SDMAs, headed by the Chief Ministers of respective states.
• The District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMAs) are co-chaired by the District Collector and the elected representative of the local authority.
• The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):
• Established under Section 44 of the 2005 Act, the NDRF is a specialized multi-disciplinary force for disaster response.
• It currently consists of 16 battalions stationed across India to provide immediate relief during natural and man-made disasters.
• Modernizing the Legal Framework:
• The 2024 amendment seeks to address new-age challenges such as climate change, extreme weather events, and the need for digital integration in disaster monitoring.
• It also aims to provide statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC), which is the highest executive body for disaster coordination in the country.

Important Points

• Statutory Committees: The 2024 Bill seeks to formalize the High-Level Committee consisting of the Home Minister, Finance Minister, and Agriculture Minister to oversee financial aid from the National Disaster Response Fund.
• Penal Provisions: To ensure strict adherence to safety guidelines, the amendment includes provisions for penalties against individuals or entities that obstruct the functions of the authorities or fail to comply with emergency directions.
• State Disaster Response Force (SDRF): The amendment further encourages states to strengthen their SDRFs, ensuring a two-tier response system where state forces act as the first responders alongside local authorities.
• Finance and Budgeting: The Disaster Management Act manages the National Disaster Mitigation Fund and the National Disaster Response Fund, which are essential for recovery and reconstruction post-disaster.

The correct answer is Space startups.

Key Points

• The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) formally signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in November 2025 to operationalize a ₹1,000 crore venture capital fund.
• The primary objective of this fund is to provide critical financial support to space startups in India, enabling them to scale their operations and develop cutting-edge technologies. Hence, the correct answer is Space startups.
• The establishment of this Venture Capital (VC) fund follows a recommendation and approval process by the Union Cabinet, aimed at addressing the funding gap in the high-risk, capital-intensive space technology sector.
• Under this agreement, SIDBI will serve as the fund manager, utilizing its extensive experience in managing Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to identify and invest in promising space-tech enterprises.
• This initiative is part of a broader strategy to increase the private sector's contribution to India’s space economy, moving from a government-led model to a more collaborative ecosystem.

Additional Information

• IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre):
• It is an autonomous nodal agency under the Department of Space (DoS), headquartered in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
• Launched in June 2020, its mandate is to promote, authorize, and supervise the activities of Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) in the space sector.
• It acts as a single-window interface between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and private players to share infrastructure and expertise.
• SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India):
• Established on April 2, 1990, under an Act of Parliament, it is the principal financial institution for the promotion and financing of MSMEs in India.
• Headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, it plays a vital role in managing various government-backed funds and credit guarantee schemes.
• By partnering with IN-SPACe, SIDBI brings institutional credibility and professional fund management to the space-tech domain.
• Indian Space Policy 2023:
• This policy was introduced to provide clarity on the roles of ISRO, NSIL, and IN-SPACe, officially encouraging private sector participation in end-to-end space activities.
• The policy aims to grow India's share in the global space economy from the current 2% to approximately 10% by the end of the decade.

Important Points

• Fund Deployment: The ₹1,000 crore fund is expected to be deployed over a period of 3 to 5 years, focusing on startups involved in satellite manufacturing, launch vehicle development, and ground segment operations.
• Strategic Significance: By fostering space startups, the Indian government intends to create a robust supply chain that can cater to both domestic requirements and international markets.
• Aatmanirbhar Bharat: This venture fund is a major step toward self-reliance in strategic technologies, reducing dependency on foreign space components and services.
• Job Creation: The growth of the space sector through these startups is anticipated to create thousands of high-skill employment opportunities in STEM fields across India.

The correct answer is Marileidy Paulino.

Key Points

• The elite athlete Marileidy Paulino from the Dominican Republic set a new meet record in the women’s 400 m at the Paris Diamond League held in June 2025.
• She clocked a remarkable time of 48.81 seconds, demonstrating her continued dominance in the one-lap sprint on the global stage.
• The Meeting de Paris, part of the prestigious Wanda Diamond League circuit, saw Paulino outperform a world-class field to secure the top spot and the meet record.
• This performance solidified her ranking as one of the fastest women in the history of the 400-meter event, following her successful campaign at the 2024 Paris Olympics.
• The Diamond League is the premier annual series of outdoor track and field competitions, and setting a meet record in Paris is considered a significant achievement in the athletics calendar.

Additional Information

• Marileidy Paulino:
• She is the first female athlete from the Dominican Republic to win an individual Olympic gold medal, achieved at the Paris 2024 Games with an Olympic record time of 48.17 seconds.
• She also secured the World Championship title in Budapest in 2023.
• Diamond League Circuit:
• The Diamond League was established in 2010 to replace the IAAF Golden League.
• It consists of 15 meetings held across various countries, culminating in a final where athletes compete for the Diamond Trophy and prize money.
• The 400 m event requires athletes to maintain high speed while managing lactic acid buildup over a full lap of the 400-meter track.
• Analysis of Other Options:
• Salwa Eid Naser: A Bahraini sprinter who won the 2019 World Championship with the third-fastest time in history (48.14 s). She remains a top competitor but did not set the record mentioned in the 2025 Paris meet.
• Mara Yamauchi: A retired British long-distance runner. She is famous for her marathon performances, including a personal best of 2:23:12, and is not a 400 m sprinter.
• Faith Cherotich: A Kenyan athlete specializing in the 3000 m steeplechase. She won the bronze medal at the 2023 World Athletics Championships and the 2024 Olympics, making her irrelevant to the 400 m sprint record.

Important Points

• Venue: The Paris Diamond League is traditionally hosted at the Stade Charléty, known for its fast track surface which favors sprinters.
• Record Significance: A time of 48.81 seconds is exceptionally rare; historically, only a handful of women have consistently broken the 49-second barrier in the 400 m.
• Timing: The June 2025 timeframe is crucial as athletes prepare for the World Athletics Championships, using the Diamond League as a platform to test their form and speed.
• Global Rankings: Marileidy Paulino's victory earns her maximum points (8 points) in the Diamond League standings, helping her qualify for the season finale.

The correct answer is AU Small Finance Bank.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) received an application from AU Small Finance Bank in August 2024 for a transition from a Small Finance Bank (SFB) to a Universal Bank.
• This move followed the RBI's circular issued in April 2024, which laid down the eligibility criteria for SFBs to apply for a universal banking license under the "on-tap" licensing window.
• To be eligible for this transition, an SFB must have a minimum net worth of ₹1,000 crore, a satisfactory track record of performance for at least five years, and listed status on a stock exchange. Hence, the statement regarding AU SFB's transition is correct.
• The bank must also maintain Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) and Net Non-Performing Assets (NNPA) of less than or equal to 3% and 1%, respectively, for the last two financial years.
• AU Small Finance Bank is currently the largest SFB in India by balance sheet size and was the first to formally apply under the new 2024 guidelines.

Additional Information

• Universal Bank:
• A Universal Bank is a financial institution that offers a wide range of financial services, including commercial banking, investment banking, and other financial services like insurance.
• Unlike SFBs, Universal Banks do not have a restrictive 75% Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target; instead, they follow the 40% PSL norm applicable to commercial banks.
• Transitioning to a Universal Bank allows an entity to diversify its loan portfolio and reduces the cost of funds by attracting more CASA (Current Account Savings Account) deposits.
• AU Small Finance Bank Background:
• The institution was originally founded as AU Rentors and Cashors in 1996 by Sanjay Agarwal in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
• It received the SFB license from the RBI in 2015 and commenced operations as a bank in April 2017.
• In April 2024, Fincare Small Finance Bank was successfully merged into AU Small Finance Bank, further strengthening its capital base and geographical reach.
• Small Finance Banks (SFBs):
• SFBs were established to further financial inclusion by providing basic banking activities to unserved and underserved sections, including small business units, small farmers, and micro and small industries.
• They are required to extend 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the Priority Sector.

Important Points

• Regulatory Requirements for Transition:
• The RBI requires that the Chairman and Managing Director of the applying bank meet the "Fit and Proper" criteria.
• The bank must have a diversified loan portfolio and should not be concentrated in a single sector, which AU SFB has achieved through its presence in vehicle finance, MSME loans, and housing finance.
• As of 2024, other major SFBs like Equitas and Ujjivan have also expressed interest or are evaluating the transition to a universal banking license based on these regulatory milestones.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Assam state cabinet, under the leadership of Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma, approved the Polygamy Prohibition Bill, 2025 in November 2025 to legally ban the practice of multiple marriages.
• The bill defines polygamy as the act of a person marrying more than one spouse while the first spouse is still living and the marriage has not been legally dissolved. Hence, the statement regarding the bill's approval by Assam is correct.
• The legislation was drafted following the recommendations of a high-level committee headed by Justice (Retd) Rumi Phukan, which examined the legislative competence of the state to enact such a law.
• The primary objective of the Polygamy Prohibition Bill is to promote gender equality and protect the rights of women by ending a practice that often leads to social and economic exploitation.
• Before the final approval, the Assam government sought public feedback and received over 3,900 suggestions, with a vast majority expressing support for the ban.

Additional Information

• Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Connection:
• The Polygamy Prohibition Bill is often viewed as a stepping stone toward a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in the state of Assam.
• Article 44 of the Constitution of India establishes the Directive Principle that the State shall endeavor to secure for its citizens a uniform set of civil laws.
• In February 2024, Uttarakhand became the first state in India to pass a comprehensive UCC bill that included the prohibition of polygamy.
• Legal Framework in India:
• The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 already prohibits polygamy for Hindus, Jains, Buddhists, and Sikhs, making such marriages void and punishable.
• Provisions under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), contain sections related to bigamy (marrying again during the lifetime of a husband or wife).
• The Special Marriage Act, 1954 also mandates monogamy for any individual, regardless of religion, who chooses to register their marriage under this secular law.

Important Points

• Legislative Competence: Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, "Marriage and Divorce" falls under the Concurrent List (List III), allowing both the Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws.
• Presidential Assent: Since the bill deals with personal laws that may overlap with central legislations, it typically requires the President's assent under Article 254(2) to become effective in the state.
• Social Impact: The Assam government emphasized that the law aims to eradicate social evils and ensure that women from all communities enjoy equal protection under the law, aligning with the principles of Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas.
• Penalties: The Polygamy Prohibition Bill, 2025 includes stringent penalties and imprisonment for individuals found violating the monogamy mandate, ensuring the law acts as a strong deterrent.

The correct answer is Arya Borse and Arjun Babuta.

Key Points

• The Indian shooting duo of Arya Borse and Arjun Babuta secured the gold medal in the 10m air rifle mixed team event at the ISSF World Cup held in Munich, Germany.
• The victory took place in June 2025, marking a significant achievement for Indian shooting on the international stage.
• In a high-pressure final, Arya Borse and Arjun Babuta demonstrated exceptional precision and mental fortitude to defeat their opponents and claim the top spot on the podium.
• This gold medal win is a testament to the rigorous training programs facilitated by the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) and the Sports Authority of India (SAI).
• Arjun Babuta, a seasoned rifle shooter, and Arya Borse, an emerging talent, have further solidified India's reputation as a dominant force in 10m rifle shooting.

Additional Information

• International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF):
• The ISSF is the governing body of the Olympic shooting events in rifle, pistol, and shotgun, and several non-Olympic shooting sport events.
• Headquartered in Munich, Germany, the federation was founded in 1907 and manages world championships and world cup series across the globe.
• 10m Air Rifle Mixed Team Event:
• This discipline features teams consisting of one male and one female shooter. It was introduced to the Olympic program during the Tokyo 2020 Games to promote gender equality in sports.
• Shooters use 4.5 mm (0.177 in) caliber air rifles to fire at a target at a distance of 10 meters.
• Arjun Babuta:
• He is a prominent Indian shooter who specializes in the 10m air rifle. He represented India at the Paris 2024 Olympics, where he narrowly missed a medal by finishing in 4^th place.
• His consistent performance in ISSF World Cups has made him one of the highest-ranked shooters in the world.
• Venue - Munich, Germany:
• Munich is considered the "Mecca" of international shooting sports. The Olympic Shooting Range in Garching-Hochbrück is one of the largest and most advanced facilities in the world.

Important Points

• The success of the mixed team format is crucial for India as it provides multiple medal opportunities in major multisport events like the Asian Games and the Olympic Games.
• NRAI (National Rifle Association of India): Founded in 1951, it is the primary body responsible for the development of shooting sports in India. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi.
• Shooting has historically been one of India's most successful individual sports at the Olympics, with legends like Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (Silver, 2004), Abhinav Bindra (Gold, 2008), Gagan Narang (Bronze, 2012), and Vijay Kumar (Silver, 2012).
• The win in June 2025 serves as a pivotal point for the 2028 Olympic cycle, showcasing the depth of talent in the Indian shooting contingent.

The correct answer is World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH).

Key Points

• The World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) officially approved India’s first Equine Disease-Free Compartment (EDFC) on July 3, 2025.
• The recognized EDFC is located at the Army Service Corps (ASC) Centre and College in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• This approval signifies that the specific facility maintains a sub-population of horses with a distinct health status regarding specific diseases, protected by strict biosecurity management.
• The establishment of the EDFC was a collaborative effort involving the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD), the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, and the Indian Army.
• This recognition is a milestone for the equestrian sports sector in India, as it facilitates the seamless international movement of horses for global competitions like the Asian Games and the Olympics.

Additional Information

• World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH):
• Formerly known as the Office International des Epizooties (OIE), it was established on January 25, 1924.
• It is an intergovernmental organization responsible for improving animal health worldwide and is headquartered in Paris, France.
• In May 2022, the organization adopted the common name WOAH to improve global brand recognition.
• It sets international standards for animal health and zoonoses, which are recognized by the World Trade Organization (WTO).
• Concept of Compartmentalization:
• Unlike Zoning, which defines an animal sub-population based on geographical boundaries, Compartmentalization defines it based on management practices and biosecurity protocols.
• It allows a country to continue international trade from a specific "compartment" even if the disease is present elsewhere in the country.
• The WOAH Terrestrial Animal Health Code provides the guidelines for establishing these compartments.

Important Points

• Significance for India:
• The EDFC status helps in overcoming SPS (Sanitary and Phytosanitary) barriers in international trade.
• It ensures that Indian horses can be exported or sent for international events without the lengthy and rigorous quarantine periods previously required due to the country's general disease status.
• Major equine diseases monitored for this status include Glanders, Equine Infectious Anaemia (EIA), Equine Influenza, and African Horse Sickness.
• Economic and Sporting Impact:
• India has a rich heritage in equestrian activities, and this certification will boost the stud farm industry and equine tourism.
• The Remount Veterinary Corps (RVC) of the Indian Army plays a pivotal role in maintaining the high standards of veterinary care and surveillance required for such international recognition.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The 8^th Assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is scheduled to be hosted by India in October 2025.
• The Assembly is the supreme decision-making body of the ISA, where each Member Country is represented to deliberate on the progress of solar energy deployment and institutional matters.
• Traditionally, the ISA Assembly is held annually in New Delhi, India, which serves as the host nation and the permanent President of the alliance.
• During the 8^th Assembly, delegates from over 100 member nations and signatory countries are expected to discuss various initiatives, including solar technology transfer, capacity building, and the mobilization of green finance.
• The Union Minister for New and Renewable Energy of India usually presides over the session as the President of the ISA Assembly, while France serves as the Co-President.

Additional Information

• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• The ISA was conceived as a joint effort by India and France to mobilize efforts against climate change through the deployment of solar energy solutions.
• It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the then-President of France, François Hollande, on 30 November 2015, during the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP21) in Paris.
• The primary objective of the alliance is to work for efficient consumption of solar energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
• Headquarters and Leadership:
• The Headquarters of the ISA is located in Gurugram, Haryana, India. It is the first international intergovernmental organization to be headquartered in India.
• The current Director General of the ISA is Dr. Ajay Mathur, who leads the secretariat in implementing the alliance's strategic plans.
• The "Towards 1000" Strategy:
• The ISA aims to mobilize 1,000 billion USD of investments in solar energy solutions by 2030.
• The goal includes delivering energy access to 1,000 million people using clean energy solutions and installing 1,000 GW of solar energy capacity.

Important Points

• Major Initiatives:
• One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG): This initiative aims to connect different regional grids through a common global grid that will be used to transfer solar power from one region to another.
• Global Solar Facility: It is a payment guarantee fund aimed at boosting solar investments in Africa and other underserved regions.
• SolarX Startup Challenge: An initiative to promote entrepreneurship and innovation in the solar sector across member countries.
• Membership Status:
• The ISA has recently seen an expansion in its membership, with countries like Panama, Chile, and Malta becoming full members.
• Any Member State of the United Nations can now join the ISA, following an amendment to the Framework Agreement in 2020 that opened membership to all UN members regardless of their geographical location relative to the Tropics.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• Delhi, the capital city of India, frequently appears in global rankings of the most polluted cities, especially during the winter season.
• On December 28, 2025, global air quality monitoring platforms like IQAir and the World Air Quality Index reported that Delhi was among the top 10 most polluted cities in the world based on real-time PM2.5 concentrations.
• The Air Quality Index (AQI) in Delhi during late December often reaches the "Severe" or "Hazardous" category, frequently exceeding the 400 or 500 mark on the scale.
• While other Indian metropolitan cities like Mumbai and Kolkata have seen rising pollution levels, the geographical and climatic conditions of Delhi make its pollution significantly more persistent and dangerous during the winter months.
• The Particulate Matter (PM2.5) levels in Delhi during this period were recorded at levels many times higher than the safety limits prescribed by the World Health Organization (WHO).

Additional Information

• Sources of Pollution in Delhi:
• The primary contributors to Delhi's poor air quality include vehicular emissions, industrial discharge, and construction dust within the National Capital Region (NCR).
• Seasonal factors such as stubble burning (parali) in neighboring states like Punjab and Haryana significantly spike pollution levels between October and December.
• In late December, the use of biomass burning for heating and firecrackers during various festivals also adds to the toxic load.
• Meteorological Factors:
• Temperature Inversion: During winter, a layer of warm air traps cooler air near the ground. This prevents pollutants from dispersing, creating a smog layer over the city.
• Low wind speeds and high humidity further prevent the dilution of particulate matter, keeping the AQI high for extended periods.
• Impact of PM2.5:
• PM2.5 refers to atmospheric particulate matter that has a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers.
• Because of their small size, these particles can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, causing respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

Important Points

• Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP): To combat severe pollution, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) implements GRAP in Delhi-NCR. This includes measures like banning diesel generators, stopping construction activities, and implementing the odd-even vehicle scheme when AQI crosses certain thresholds.
• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): Launched in 2019, this Government of India initiative aims for a 20% to 30% reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations by 2024 (later extended to 2026) across 131 non-attainment cities.
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB): The CPCB is the statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change that monitors air quality across India and provides the official National Air Quality Index.
• WHO Air Quality Guidelines: The World Health Organization tightened its guidelines in 2021, stating that annual average concentrations of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. Most Indian cities, including Delhi, struggle to meet even the more relaxed national standards.

The correct answer is Too Good to Be True.

Key Points

• Prajakta Koli, the popular digital content creator known as MostlySane, officially released her debut romance novel titled Too Good to Be True in January 2025.
• The book was published by HarperCollins India and represents Koli’s first foray into long-form fictional writing after years of storytelling through digital media.
• The plot centers around the character Avni, exploring the complexities of modern-day relationships, the evolution of love, and the challenges of self-discovery in a fast-paced world.
• The announcement of the book was made in 2023, creating significant anticipation among her millions of followers, with pre-orders opening in late 2024.
• The novel is categorized under Contemporary Romance and aims to resonate with young adults through its relatable narrative and emotional depth.

Additional Information

• Digital Career: Prajakta Koli started her YouTube channel, MostlySane, in 2015. She rose to fame with her relatable comedy sketches and observational humor, becoming one of India's most influential female creators.
• Acting Career: Koli is well-known for her role as Dimple Ahuja in the Netflix romantic drama series Mismatched, which premiered in 2020. The series is based on Sandhya Menon's novel "When Dimple Met Rishi."
• Film Debut: She made her Bollywood debut in 2022 with the film Jugjugg Jeeyo, produced by Dharma Productions, where she shared the screen with stars like Varun Dhawan and Anil Kapoor.
• Global Recognition: In 2023, she was appointed as the UNDP India Youth Climate Champion. In this capacity, she works to mobilize young people on issues like climate action and sustainability.
• Awards and Honors: She has been featured on Forbes' 30 Under 30 list and has represented India at various international forums, including the United Nations.

Important Points

• Literary Influence: Too Good to Be True reflects Koli’s personal interest in the romance genre, a theme often mirrored in her acting roles in Mismatched.
• Marketing: The book launch was supported by an extensive digital marketing campaign, leveraging her Instagram and YouTube presence to reach a global audience.
• Themes: The novel emphasizes the difference between idealized love and realistic relationships, a common theme in contemporary young adult (YA) literature in India.

The correct answer is Indranil Bhattacharyya.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in August 2025, announced the appointment of Indranil Bhattacharyya as an ex-officio member of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).
• Indranil Bhattacharyya currently serves as an Executive Director at the Reserve Bank of India.
• He was nominated by the Central Board of the RBI to replace Rajiv Ranjan, following the latter's transition or retirement from the role. Hence, the statement regarding the appointee is correct.
• This appointment was strategically timed ahead of the October policy meeting to ensure the committee reached its full legislative strength of six members for interest rate deliberations.
• The MPC is the statutory body responsible for determining the policy repo rate required to achieve the inflation target while keeping the objective of growth in mind.

Additional Information

• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) Structure:
• The committee consists of six members: three from the RBI (including the Governor) and three external members appointed by the Central Government.
• The Governor of the RBI acts as the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
• The Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy also serves as an ex-officio member.
• Legal Framework:
• The MPC was constituted under Section 45ZB of the amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The framework for the MPC was officially adopted in 2016 to bring more transparency and accountability to India's monetary policy decisions.
• Inflation Targeting:
• The Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, sets the inflation target once every five years.
• The current target is 4% Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation, with an upper tolerance limit of 6% and a lower tolerance limit of 2%.
• Decision-making Process:
• Each member of the MPC has one vote. In the event of a tie, the RBI Governor has a casting vote.
• The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.

Important Points

• Indranil Bhattacharyya: As an Executive Director, he represents the internal expertise of the RBI in the committee, focusing on economic research and policy strategy.
• Rajiv Ranjan: He previously served as the Executive Director and was the nominated ex-officio member before Indranil Bhattacharyya took over the responsibility in 2024/2025.
• Meeting Frequency: The MPC is required to meet at least four times a year, though it typically meets bi-monthly (six times a year) to review the macroeconomic situation.
• External Members: These members are typically experts in the field of economics, banking, or finance and hold office for a period of four years.

The correct answer is Virat Kohli.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli was officially named the Player of the Match in the Final of the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2024.
• The Final took place on June 29, 2024, at the Kensington Oval in Bridgetown, Barbados, where India faced South Africa.
• Kohli played a match-defining innings of 76 runs off 59 balls. His performance included six boundaries and two sixes, anchoring the Indian innings after the team suffered early setbacks.
• His steady knock helped India post a total of 176/7, which is the highest score ever recorded in a T20 World Cup Final.
• India successfully defended the target, winning the match by 7 runs to clinch their second T20 World Cup title.
• Immediately after receiving the award, Virat Kohli announced his retirement from T20 International (T20I) cricket, making the final win a historic conclusion to his career in the format.

Additional Information

• Tournament Overview: The ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2024 was the 9^th edition of the biennial tournament. It was co-hosted by the United States and the West Indies from June 1 to June 29, 2024.
• Player of the Tournament: Jasprit Bumrah was named the Player of the Tournament for his exceptional bowling. He took 15 wickets in 8 matches with an extraordinary economy rate of 4.17.
• Leading Run-scorer: Rahmanullah Gurbaz from Afghanistan finished as the leading run-scorer of the tournament, accumulating 281 runs across 8 innings.
• Leading Wicket-takers: Fazalhaq Farooqi of Afghanistan and Arshdeep Singh of India were the joint-highest wicket-takers, both claiming 17 wickets.
• Team Achievement: By winning the 2024 edition, India became the first team in history to win the T20 World Cup by remaining undefeated throughout the entire competition.

Important Points

• End of an Era: Alongside Virat Kohli, the Indian captain Rohit Sharma and all-rounder Ravindra Jadeja also announced their retirement from T20Is following the World Cup triumph.
• Title History: This victory ended India's 11-year wait for an ICC trophy and marked their first T20 World Cup win since the inaugural tournament in 2007 under the captaincy of MS Dhoni.
• South Africa's Milestone: The 2024 Final marked the first time South Africa had ever reached the final of a Senior Men's ICC World Cup (both ODI and T20I).
• Expanded Format: The 2024 World Cup featured a record 20 teams, up from the previous 16, organized into four groups of five, showcasing the International Cricket Council's (ICC) initiative to globalize the sport.
• Match Turning Point: While Kohli set the target, the death bowling of Hardik Pandya, Jasprit Bumrah, and a spectacular catch by Suryakumar Yadav in the final over were critical in securing the win for India.