IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

520 Total Questions13 Official PapersYears: 2018–2024Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 21–40 of 520Page 2 of 26
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 21

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In 2024, Microsoft introduced a new AI model. What is its name?

  1. AOption (a)

    GPT-4 Turbo

  2. BOption (b)

    Gemini

  3. COption (c)

    Phi-3-mini

  4. DOption (d)

    Mistral

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Phi-3-mini

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Phi-3-mini.

RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 22

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In which Lok Sabha elections did Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) fully replace ballot papers, marking the first time EVMs were used across all parliamentary constituencies in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1996

  2. BOption (b)

    1999

  3. COption (c)

    2014

  4. DOption (d)

    2004

  5. EOption (e)

    2000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2004

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2004

In News

  • EVMs were fully implemented in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections, replacing ballot papers nationwide.

Key Points

  • The 2004 Lok Sabha elections were the first to use EVMs across all 543 parliamentary constituencies in India.
  • EVMs were introduced to enhance voting efficiency, reduce errors, and prevent electoral fraud.
  • The Election Commission of India (ECI) spearheaded the transition from ballot papers to EVMs.
  • EVMs were piloted in select constituencies as early as 1982 but achieved nationwide deployment in 2004.

Additional Information

  • Electronic Voting Machine (EVM)
  • Developed by the Election Commission of India in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL).
  • Comprises a Control Unit (managed by polling officers) and a Balloting Unit (used by voters).
  • Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
  • Introduced in 2013 to provide a paper trail for EVM votes, enhancing transparency.
  • First EVM Use
  • Tested in the 1982 Kerala Assembly elections (by-election in Paravur constituency).
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 23

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What was the net direct tax collection for the Financial Year 2023–24, and how much growth did it register compared to the previous year?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹19.58 lakh crore; 17.70% growth

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹23.37 lakh crore; 18.48% growth

  3. COption (c)

    ₹18.23 lakh crore; 7.40% growth

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹19.45 lakh crore; 0.67% growth

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹10.44 lakh crore; 25.23% growth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹19.58 lakh crore; 17.70% growth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹19.58 lakh crore; 17.70% growth

In News

  • The provisional figures for Direct Tax collections for FY 2023–24 have been released.
  • The net direct tax collections stood at ₹19.58 lakh crore, up from ₹16.64 lakh crore in FY 2022–23.

Key Points

  • Net Direct Tax Collection: ₹19.58 lakh crore
  • Growth: 17.70% compared to ₹16.64 lakh crore in FY 2022–23
  • Gross Collection (before refunds): ₹23.37 lakh crore (18.48% growth)
  • Refunds: ₹3.79 lakh crore (22.74% higher than previous year)
  • Budget Estimates (BE): ₹18.23 lakh crore
  • Revised Estimates (RE): ₹19.45 lakh crore
  • Net collection exceeded BE by: 7.40%
  • Net collection exceeded RE by: 0.67%

Additional Information

  • Corporate Tax (Net): ₹9.11 lakh crore (10.26% growth)
  • Personal Income Tax (Net, incl. STT): ₹10.44 lakh crore (25.23% growth)
  • Gross Corporate Tax: ₹11.32 lakh crore
  • Gross Personal Income Tax (incl. STT): ₹12.01 lakh crore
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 24

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following are members of the GST Council?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance

  3. COption (c)

    President, RBI Governor

  4. DOption (d)

    Lok Sabha Speaker, NITI Aayog Vice Chairman

  5. EOption (e)

    Chief Election Commissioner, Home Minister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance.

In News

  • The 54th GST Council Meeting was held to discuss major changes in GST rates and compliance measures.

Key Points

  • The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
  • It includes the Union Minister of State for Finance as a member.
  • All state Finance Ministers or any other minister nominated by each state government are also members.

Additional Information

  • GST Council
  • Established under Article 279A by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
  • Recommends GST rates, exemptions, model laws, etc.
  • Ensures uniformity in tax structure across the country.
  • Union Finance Minister
  • Chairs the GST Council.
  • Currently: Nirmala Sitharaman (as of 2024).
  • State Representation
  • Each state nominates a minister to represent them in the Council.
  • Ensures cooperative federalism in tax governance.
  • Decision Making
  • Decisions require a 75% majority of weighted votes.
  • Central Government has one-third weightage; States together have two-thirds.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 25

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following titles are officially awarded by FIDE to chess players?

  1. AOption (a)

    World Champion, Senior Master, Elite Player

  2. BOption (b)

    FIDE Master, Club Master, Expert

  3. COption (c)

    Grandmaster, International Master, Candidate Master

  4. DOption (d)

    Chess Olympiad Winner, Champion Master, Prodigy

  5. EOption (e)

    International Grandmaster, FIDE Expert, Zone Champion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Grandmaster, International Master, Candidate Master

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Grandmaster, International Master, Candidate Master.

In News

  • 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad 2024 was held at Budapest, Hungary.

Key Points

  • FIDE awards international titles to chess players based on their performance and rating thresholds.
  • The major titles awarded by FIDE include Grandmaster (GM), International Master (IM), and Candidate Master (CM).
  • These titles are recognized globally and are lifetime achievements once awarded.
  • The 45th Chess Olympiad is a major international chess tournament featuring national teams from across the world.

Additional Information

  • Grandmaster (GM)
  • Highest title awarded by FIDE.
  • Requires a FIDE rating of 2500+ and GM norms.
  • International Master (IM)
  • Second-highest title after GM.
  • Requires a FIDE rating of 2400+ and IM norms.
  • Candidate Master (CM)
  • Entry-level title awarded by FIDE.
  • Requires a FIDE rating of 2200+.
  • FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs)
  • International Chess Federation based in Lausanne, Switzerland.
  • Founded in 1924 and governs global chess competitions.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 26

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements about the Jeevan Raksha Padak awards:

  1. Jeevan Raksha Padak is awarded for acts of bravery in saving life under circumstances of grave bodily injury to the rescuer.
  2. The award is presented by the President of India.
  3. It is classified into three categories – Sarvottam, Uttam, and Jeevan Raksha Padak.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1,2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1,2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 3 only

In News

  • The Jeevan Raksha Padak series of awards are presented annually on the occasion of Republic Day to recognize acts of courage in saving lives.

Key Points

  • The awards include: Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak, Uttam Jeevan Raksha Padak, and Jeevan Raksha Padak.
  • They are given for meritorious acts of human nature in saving the life of a person.
  • Eligible acts include those in the face of drowning, fire, or electrocution.
  • The awards are presented by the President of India.

Additional Information

  • A medal, a certificate signed by the President, and a cash award accompany the honor.
  • Posthumous awards can also be conferred.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 27

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Nobel prize winner Peter Higgs won the oldest scientific prize for his work on the theory of which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantum Foam

  2. BOption (b)

    String Theory

  3. COption (c)

    God's Particle

  4. DOption (d)

    Dark Matter

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

God's Particle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is God's Particle.

In News

  • Peter Higgs, a Nobel Prize-winning physicist, is widely recognized for his theoretical work on the Higgs boson, commonly referred to as the “God Particle.”

Key Points

  • The Higgs boson is an elementary particle in the Standard Model of particle physics.
  • Its discovery helps explain how other particles acquire mass.
  • The nickname “God Particle” was popularized due to its fundamental role in the creation of matter, though the term is not scientifically favored.

Additional Information

  • The Higgs boson was confirmed experimentally by CERN’s Large Hadron Collider in 2012.
  • Peter Higgs received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2013 for this groundbreaking work.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 28

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Indian city is also known as the Diamond City?

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat

  2. BOption (b)

    Patna

  3. COption (c)

    Kanpur

  4. DOption (d)

    Kannauj

  5. EOption (e)

    Banglore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Surat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Surat.

In News

  • Surat is widely known as the "Diamond City of India" due to its flourishing diamond cutting and polishing industry.

Key Points

  • Over 90% of the world’s diamonds are cut and polished in Surat.
  • The city plays a significant role in India's diamond export economy.

Additional Information

  • State: Gujarat
  • Industry: Diamond cutting, polishing, and textile manufacturing
  • Recognition: Major global hub for diamond processing
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 29

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which company was recently (in April 2024) conferred the Outstanding Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) of the Year award at the All India Management Association (AIMA) Managing India Awards ceremony?

  1. AOption (a)

    NTPC

  2. BOption (b)

    BHEL

  3. COption (c)

    SAIL

  4. DOption (d)

    HAL

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

HAL

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HAL.

In News

  • In April 2024, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) was conferred the Outstanding Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) of the Year award.
  • The award was presented at the All India Management Association (AIMA) Managing India Awards ceremony.

Key Points

  • HAL is a prominent aerospace and defense company under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.
  • The award highlights its excellence in innovation, production, and contribution to national defense.

Additional Information

  • Event: AIMA Managing India Awards 2024
  • Category: Outstanding PSU of the Year
  • Awardee: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 30

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

IPL 2024 franchise Twenty20 (T20) cricket league is annually held in India, organized by the BCCI. Which of the following team players is correctly matched with their team?

  1. AOption (a)

    Virat Kohli – CSK

  2. BOption (b)

    Ruturaj Gaikwad – CSK

  3. COption (c)

    Rohit Sharma – RCB

  4. DOption (d)

    Shubman Gill – MI

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ruturaj Gaikwad – CSK

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ruturaj Gaikwad – CSK.

In News

  • IPL 2024 is the latest edition of the franchise Twenty20 cricket league organized by the BCCI.
  • Kolkata Knight Riders won the 2024 championship defeating Sunrisers Hyderabad.

Key Points

  • Ruturaj Gaikwad is correctly matched with Chennai Super Kings (CSK).
  • He is known for his consistent performance as an opener for CSK.

Additional Information

  • League: Indian Premier League (IPL) 2024
  • Organizer: Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)
  • Winner: Kolkata Knight Riders
  • Runner-up: Sunrisers Hyderabad
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 31

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Recently in April 2024, IRDAI has changed the age gap for buying health insurance policies, What will be the maximum age limit for new insurance policies?

  1. AOption (a)

    60 years

  2. BOption (b)

    65 years

  3. COption (c)

    70 years

  4. DOption (d)

    75 years

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

65 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 65 years.

In News

  • IRDAI has revised the maximum age limit for purchasing new health insurance policies to 65 years effective from April 2024.

Key Points

  • IRDAI introduced revised health insurance rules in April 2024.
  • The maximum age limit for new health insurance policy buyers is now 65 years.
  • This change provides clarity and standardization in health insurance eligibility across providers.
  • The revision aims to improve access to healthcare for senior citizens and encourage more people to opt for health coverage.

Additional Information

  • IRDAI
  • Full Form - Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
  • Established - 1999
  • Headquarters - Hyderabad, Telangana
  • Other Health Insurance Reforms (2024)
  • Reduced PED waiting period from 4 to 3 years.
  • Moratorium period reduced from 8 to 5 years.
  • Customized plans for senior citizens and specific demographics introduced.
  • Multiple insurers now allowed under benefit-based plans.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 32

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The World Health Organization (WHO) launched 'SARAH' in 2024. What does the letter ‘S’ in SARAH stand for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Safe

  2. BOption (b)

    Secure

  3. COption (c)

    Smart

  4. DOption (d)

    Sustainable

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Smart

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Smart.

In News

  • In 2024, the World Health Organization (WHO) launched 'SARAH'.
  • SARAH stands for Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health.
  • It is a digital health initiative using AI to improve access to health information.

Key Points

  • 'SARAH' is part of WHO’s efforts to integrate technology into global healthcare delivery.
  • It helps users find trusted health information quickly and accurately.
  • Uses AI to act as a virtual assistant for health-related queries.

Additional Information

  • SARAH – Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health
  • Launched by – World Health Organization (WHO)
  • Year – 2024
  • Purpose – To leverage AI for global health education and awareness
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 33

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

As the highest law officer in India, which of the following statements about the Attorney General of India (AGI) are correct?

A. The AGI is appointed by the President of India.

B. The AGI must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.

C. The AGI is a member of the Cabinet.

D. The AGI advises the Government of India on legal matters.

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and C

  3. COption (c)

    A,B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and D

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B and D only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A, B and D only.

In News

  • This is a static general knowledge question about the constitutional post of the Attorney General of India.

Key Points

  • The AGI is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 of the Constitution.
  • To be eligible, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.
  • The AGI advises the Government of India on legal matters.
  • The AGI is not a member of the Cabinet and does not have the right to vote in Parliament, though they may be invited to speak in parliamentary proceedings.

Additional Information

  • First AGI: M.C. Setalvad
  • Current AGI (as of 2024): R. Venkataramani
  • Tenure: No fixed term; serves at the pleasure of the President
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 34

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the "Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index)" as per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

  1. The FI-Index improved to 64.2 in March 2024 from 60.1 in March 2023 due to growth across all sub-indices, particularly in the 'Usage' parameter.
  2. The FI-Index is composed of three broad parameters: ‘Access’ (35%), ‘Usage’ (45%), and ‘Quality’ (20%).
  3. The FI-Index is published annually with a base year to track financial inclusion progress across the country.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    All are correct

  5. EOption (e)

    None are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1 and 2 are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2 are correct.

In News

  • The "Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index)" improved to 64.2 in March 2024, up from 60.1 in March 2023, mainly due to growth in the 'Usage' parameter.
  • The FI-Index consists of three broad parameters: ‘Access’ (35%), ‘Usage’ (45%), and ‘Quality’ (20%).

Key Points

  • Statement 3 is incorrect because the FI-Index is constructed without a base year, making it a comprehensive tool for capturing financial inclusion progress across various sectors without historical comparison.
  • The FI-Index is published annually in July and captures data across banking, investments, insurance, postal, and pension sectors.

Additional Information

  • FI-Index: An index developed by the Reserve Bank of India to track financial inclusion across India, ranging from 0 (complete exclusion) to 100 (full inclusion).
  • Usage Parameter: A significant component of the index, with a 45% weightage, indicating how actively financial services are being used.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 35

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In April 2024, IREDA was granted Navratna status, allowing it to invest up to __________ without prior approval from the Government of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 500 crores

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 750 crores

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1000 crores

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1200 crores

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 1500 crores

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 1000 crores

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. 1000 crores.

In News

  • In April 2024, the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) was granted Navratna status.
  • This status enables IREDA to invest up to Rs. 1000 crores without seeking prior approval from the Government of India.

Key Points

  • IREDA was conferred with Navratna status in April 2024.
  • This enhances its financial autonomy and operational efficiency.
  • With Navratna status, IREDA joins a select group of central public sector enterprises (CPSEs).

Additional Information

  • IREDA
  • Full Form – Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
  • Established – 1987
  • Ministry – Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  • Navratna Status
  • Granted to CPSEs with financial and operational autonomy.
  • Allows higher investment thresholds and decision-making freedom.
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Question 36

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the interest rate offered by SBI’s ‘Amrit Vrishti’ scheme for senior citizens?

  1. AOption (a)

    7.10%

  2. BOption (b)

    7.25%

  3. COption (c)

    7.50%

  4. DOption (d)

    7.75%

  5. EOption (e)

    8.00%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7.75%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 7.75%.

In News

  • The State Bank of India (SBI) has launched the ‘Amrit Vrishti’ scheme offering 7.25% interest on deposits for 444 days, with an additional 0.50% interest rate for senior citizens.

Key Points

  • The ‘Amrit Vrishti’ scheme offers a 7.25% interest rate for a term of 444 days.
  • Senior citizens receive an additional 0.50% interest, making the total rate 7.75% per annum.
  • The scheme is available for investment until March 31, 2025, for domestic retail term deposits, including NRI rupee term deposits.
  • SBI's previous scheme, ‘Amrit Kalash’, had a 400-day tenor and offered 7.10% interest.

Additional Information

  • Amrit Vrishti Scheme
  • A special fixed deposit scheme by SBI offering 7.25% interest on deposits for 444 days.
  • Senior Citizen Benefit
  • Senior citizens enjoy an additional benefit under this scheme, typically receiving an extra interest rate of 0.50% above the regular rate, which would make the total interest for them around 7.75% for the 444-day tenure.
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Question 37

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

India signed a loan package of $500 million with which organization for the ‘Maharashtra Tertiary Care and Medical Education Sector Development Program’$?

  1. AOption (a)

    World Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    International Monetary Fund (IMF)

  3. COption (c)

    Asian Development Bank (ADB)

  4. DOption (d)

    New Development Bank (NDB)

  5. EOption (e)

    United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Asian Development Bank (ADB).

In News

  • India signed a loan package of $500 million with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) for the ‘Maharashtra Tertiary Care and Medical Education Sector Development Program’.

Key Points

  • The loan agreement was signed by Juhi Mukherjee, Joint Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance; Mio Oka, Country Director of ADB’s India Resident Mission; and Dinesh Waghmare, Principal Secretary, Medical Education and Drugs Department, Government of Maharashtra.
  • The Program will establish 4 medical colleges attached to tertiary care teaching hospitals in under-served districts of Maharashtra.
  • The initiative aims to increase bed capacity in government tertiary care hospitals and hire at least 500 new doctors for the new medical colleges.
  • The Program incorporates climate- and disaster-resilient, gender-responsive, and socially inclusive features.

Additional Information

  • Asian Development Bank (ADB)
  • The ADB is a regional development bank established in 1966 to promote social and economic development in Asia.
  • ADB provides loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development$.
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Question 38

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 5th cohort of the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) regulatory sandbox?

  1. The theme of the 5th cohort announced in October 2023 is "neutral."
  2. Five entities, including ‘Connectingdot Consultancy’ and ‘Signzy Technologies,’ were selected for the test phase of the 5th cohort.
  3. The previous cohorts of the RBI sandbox included themes such as ‘retail payments’ and ‘prevention and migration of financial frauds.’
  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement 1 is correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    All statements are correct.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the statements are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All statements are correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All statements are correct.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that five entities were selected for the test phase of the regulatory sandbox’s 5th cohort, which has a "neutral" theme and was announced in October 2023.

Key Points

  • The selected entities for the 5th cohort include ‘Connectingdot Consultancy’, ‘Epifi Technologies’, ‘Finagg Technologies’, ‘Indian Banks’ Digital Infrastructure Company (IBDIC)’, and ‘Signzy Technologies’.
  • The previous cohorts of the RBI regulatory sandbox included themes such as ‘retail payments’, ‘cross-border transactions’, ‘MSME lending’, and ‘prevention and migration of financial frauds’.

Additional Information

  • RBI Regulatory Sandbox
  • A regulatory sandbox is a controlled environment where new financial products or services can be tested under regulatory supervision.
  • The RBI introduced its first regulatory sandbox program in 2019 and operates on a thematic cohort basis to address specific areas of financial services.
  • Themes of Previous Cohorts
  • The first four themes of the RBI regulatory sandbox were focused on ‘retail payments’, ‘cross-border transactions’, ‘MSME lending’, and ‘prevention and migration of financial frauds’.
  • These themes target key areas of the financial sector that can benefit from innovation and technology.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 39

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who is heading the review committee set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to revise the fee structure for white-label ATMs (WLAs)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shaktikanta Das

  2. BOption (b)

    Sunil Mehta

  3. COption (c)

    T Rabi Sankar

  4. DOption (d)

    Urjit Patel

  5. EOption (e)

    Raghuram Rajan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sunil Mehta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sunil Mehta.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has set up a review committee led by Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) CEO, Sunil Mehta, to revise the fee structure for white-label ATMs (WLAs).

Key Points

  • The committee aims to propose a fair and sustainable model for WLAs, assessing current policies and global best practices.
  • Sunil Mehta, the CEO of the Indian Banks’ Association, is leading the committee, which will report to RBI Deputy Governor T Rabi Sankar.
  • The ATM market in India is projected to grow at a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 9.2% from 2024 to 2032.
  • The primary issue under review is the interchange fee, currently Rs 17 for financial transactions and Rs 6 for non-financial transactions, which is the same for both bank-operated and white-label ATMs.

Additional Information

  • White-Label ATMs (WLAs): ATMs owned and operated by non-bank entities, providing ATM services to customers of different banks under a commercial agreement.
  • Interchange Fee: The fee paid by the bank whose cardholder uses another bank’s or entity's ATM, which is currently Rs 17 for financial and Rs 6 for non-financial transactions in India.
  • Indian Banks’ Association (IBA): An industry body representing the banking sector in India, which includes public sector banks, private sector banks, and foreign banks.
  • Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR): A measure of growth over multiple periods, used here to forecast the growth of India’s ATM market between 2024 and 2032.
RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 40

IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In July 2024, Which company has been approved by the RBI for conversion from a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) to a Core Investment Company (CIC)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tata Capital

  2. BOption (b)

    HDFC Ltd

  3. COption (c)

    Jio Financial Services

  4. DOption (d)

    Bajaj Finance

  5. EOption (e)

    ICICI Securities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jio Financial Services

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jio Financial Services.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the conversion of Jio Financial Services (JFSL) from a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) to a Core Investment Company (CIC).

Key Points

  • Jio Financial Services (JFSL) is the financial services arm of Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL), which applied for conversion to a CIC in November 2023.
  • The RBI directed this conversion after the demerger of JFSL from RIL, marking a significant shift in the company's structure.
  • JFSL was listed on stock exchanges in August 2023, adding further momentum to its growth.
  • The conversion signifies that JFSL will now hold most of its assets in group companies’ shares or debt instruments, rather than functioning like a typical NBFC.

Additional Information

  • Core Investment Company (CIC): CICs are non-deposit-taking NBFCs that primarily invest in group companies, with at least 90% of their net assets held in shares, bonds, or loans of such companies. These firms are subject to RBI regulation if their asset size exceeds Rs 100 crore.
  • Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC): NBFCs provide financial services like loans and credit, but unlike banks, they cannot accept demand deposits.
  • Demergers: This refers to the process of splitting a company into two or more entities. In this case, JFSL was demerged from Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL).
  • Listing on Stock Exchanges: JFSL was listed on stock exchanges in August 2023, allowing its shares to be traded publicly.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in IBPS RRB Office Assistant (Clerk)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.