Official Paper

RRB Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 6 October 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

200 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Reasoning (40 questions)

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons B, E, F, H, I, L, N and O sit around a circular table faces towards the centre and each one visited a different animal in a zoo which are Bear, Cheetah, Crocodile, Dolphin, Giraffe, Hyena, Lion and Leopard but not necessarily in same order. B sits third to the right of the person who visits Dolphin. F sits three places away from the person who visits Cheetah. H sits second right of the person who visits Leopard. N and the person who visits Cheetah sit opposite to each other. Both E and B sit adjacent to the person who visits crocodile. N visits neither Crocodile nor Giraffe. Neither E nor L visits Leopard and Cheetah. F does not sit adjacent to E. The person who visits Leopard sits immediate left to the person who visits Giraffe. The person who visits Hyena and the one who visits Bear sit opposite to each other. The person who visits Lion sits immediate right to O. L does not visit either Hyena or Crocodile.

Who among them visits Bear in the zoo?

((a))
B
((b))
O
((c))
L
((d))
E
((e))
F

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given persons B, E, F, H, I, L, N and O and given animals are Bear, Cheetah, Crocodile, Dolphin, Giraffe, Hyena, Lion and Leopard.

B sits third to the right of the person who visits Dolphin.
Both E and B sit adjacent to the person who visits crocodile.

N and the person who visits Cheetah sit opposite to each other.
F sits three places away from the person who visits Cheetah.
F does not sit adjacent to E.
N visits neither Crocodile nor Giraffe.
Neither E nor L visits Leopard and Cheetah.

The person who visits Leopard sits immediate left to the person who visits Giraffe.
H sits second right of the person who visits Leopard. By combining these two conditions case 1(a), case 1(b) and case 2(b) are eliminated.
The person who visits Hyena and the one who visits Bear sit opposite to each other.
The person who visits Lion sits immediate right to O.
L does not visit either Hyena or Crocodile. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, L visits Bear in the zoo.

Which of the following statement is/ are correct?

((a))
E sits opposite to the person who visits Bear.
((b))
N sits second to the left of the person who visits Crocodile.
((c))
O does not visit Cheetah.
((d))
I sits second to the left of O.
((e))
H faces the person who visits Hyena.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

E sits opposite to the person who visits Bear.

Given persons B, E, F, H, I, L, N and O and given animals are Bear, Cheetah, Crocodile, Dolphin, Giraffe, Hyena, Lion and Leopard.

B sits third to the right of the person who visits Dolphin.
Both E and B sit adjacent to the person who visits crocodile.

N and the person who visits Cheetah sit opposite to each other.
F sits three places away from the person who visits Cheetah.
F does not sit adjacent to E.
N visits neither Crocodile nor Giraffe.
Neither E nor L visits Leopard and Cheetah.

The person who visits Leopard sits immediate left to the person who visits Giraffe.
H sits second right of the person who visits Leopard. By combining these two conditions case 1(a), case 1(b) and case 2(b) are eliminated.
The person who visits Hyena and the one who visits Bear sit opposite to each other.
The person who visits Lion sits immediate right to O.
L does not visit either Hyena or Crocodile. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, the correct statement is E sits opposite to the person who visits Bear.

Which of the following combination is correct?

((a))
B - Cheetah
((b))
L - Leopard
((c))
F - Dolphin
((d))
E - Hyena
((e))
I - Bear

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

E - Hyena

Given persons B, E, F, H, I, L, N and O and given animals are Bear, Cheetah, Crocodile, Dolphin, Giraffe, Hyena, Lion and Leopard.

B sits third to the right of the person who visits Dolphin.
Both E and B sit adjacent to the person who visits crocodile.

N and the person who visits Cheetah sit opposite to each other.
F sits three places away from the person who visits Cheetah.
F does not sit adjacent to E.
N visits neither Crocodile nor Giraffe.
Neither E nor L visits Leopard and Cheetah.

The person who visits Leopard sits immediate left to the person who visits Giraffe.
H sits second right of the person who visits Leopard. By combining these two conditions case 1(a), case 1(b) and case 2(b) are eliminated.
The person who visits Hyena and the one who visits Bear sit opposite to each other.
The person who visits Lion sits immediate right to O.
L does not visit either Hyena or Crocodile. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, the correct combination is E - Hyena.

Who sits second to the left of the person who sits opposite to the one who visits Dolphin?

((a))
L
((b))
O
((c))
The person who visits Leopard.
((d))
The person who visits Cheetah.
((e))
More than one option.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

More than one option.

Given persons B, E, F, H, I, L, N and O and given animals are Bear, Cheetah, Crocodile, Dolphin, Giraffe, Hyena, Lion and Leopard.

B sits third to the right of the person who visits Dolphin.
Both E and B sit adjacent to the person who visits crocodile.

N and the person who visits Cheetah sit opposite to each other.
F sits three places away from the person who visits Cheetah.
F does not sit adjacent to E.
N visits neither Crocodile nor Giraffe.
Neither E nor L visits Leopard and Cheetah.

The person who visits Leopard sits immediate left to the person who visits Giraffe.
H sits second right of the person who visits Leopard. By combining these two conditions case 1(a), case 1(b) and case 2(b) are eliminated.
The person who visits Hyena and the one who visits Bear sit opposite to each other.
The person who visits Lion sits immediate right to O.
L does not visit either Hyena or Crocodile. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Since, I sits opposite to H who visits Dolphin and in his second to the left O sits who visits Cheetah.

Hence, the correct answer is more than one option.

Which of the following statement is/ are incorrect?

A) E visits Hyena in the zoo.

B) The person who visits Dolphin sits opposite to O.

C) I and H does not sit opposite to each other.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Both A and C
((c))
Both B and C
((d))
Only C
((e))
All of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Both B and C

Given persons B, E, F, H, I, L, N and O and given animals are Bear, Cheetah, Crocodile, Dolphin, Giraffe, Hyena, Lion and Leopard.

B sits third to the right of the person who visits Dolphin.
Both E and B sit adjacent to the person who visits crocodile.

N and the person who visits Cheetah sit opposite to each other.
F sits three places away from the person who visits Cheetah.
F does not sit adjacent to E.
N visits neither Crocodile nor Giraffe.
Neither E nor L visits Leopard and Cheetah.

The person who visits Leopard sits immediate left to the person who visits Giraffe.
H sits second right of the person who visits Leopard. By combining these two conditions case 1(a), case 1(b) and case 2(b) are eliminated.
The person who visits Hyena and the one who visits Bear sit opposite to each other.
The person who visits Lion sits immediate right to O.
L does not visit either Hyena or Crocodile. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Since, E visits Hyena in the zoo so, statement A is correct.

The person who visits Dolphin i.e. H sits opposite to I not to O so, statement B and C is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is both B and C.

Directions: In each question four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV have been given. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements. Give answer.

Statements:

Some Books are Pens.

Some Pens are Erasers.

No Erasers is Scales.

Only Books are Boxes.

Conclusions:

I. Some Boxes are Scales.

II. Some Pens can be Scales.

III. No Books are Erasers.

IV. Some Books are Erasers.

((a))
Only conclusion III and IV follows
((b))
Only conclusion I, II and III follows.
((c))
Either conclusion III or conclusion IV follows
((d))
Both conclusion II and either conclusion III or conclusion IV follows
((e))
None of the conclusion follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Both conclusion II and either conclusion III or conclusion IV follows

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Boxes are Scales – False (Since, there is no direct relation between them so it is not definitely true).

II. Some Pens can be Scales – True (Since, there is no direct relation between them so it can be possible).

III. No Books are Erasers – False (Since, there is no direct relation between them so it is not definitely true)

IV. Some Books are Erasers – False (Since, there is no direct relation between them so it is not definitely true)

Since, conclusion III and IV are complementary to each other.

Hence, both conclusion II and either conclusion III or conclusion IV follows.

Statements:

Some White is Black.

All Red is Grey.

Some Grey is Black.

No Red is White.

Conclusions:

I. Some Black is not Red.

II. Some White can be Grey.

III. All Black is Red.

IV. Some Grey is White.

((a))
Only conclusion I and III follows
((b))
Only conclusion IV follows
((c))
Only conclusions II, III and IV follows
((d))
All the conclusions follow
((e))
Only conclusion I and II follows

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Only conclusion I and II follows

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Black is not Red – True (Since, some Grey is Black and there is no direct relation between Red and Black so the conclusion is correct).

II. Some White can be Grey – True (Since, White is restricted with only Red so there is possibility for White being Grey).

III. All Black is Red – False (Since, there is no direct relation between Black and Red).

IV. Some Grey is White – False (Since, there is no direct relation between Grey and White so it is not definite).

Hence, both conclusion I and II are true.

Statements:

No truck is train.

Some bus is car.

Some train is bus.

All bicycles are bus.

Conclusions:

I. Some truck is bus.

II. All cars are bicycle.

III. Some car can be truck.

IV. No bus is truck.

((a))
Either conclusion I or conclusion IV is follows
((b))
Both conclusion II and conclusion III follows.
((c))
Only conclusion III follows.
((d))
Both conclusion I and conclusion III follows.
((e))
Both conclusion III and either conclusion I or conclusion IV follows.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Both conclusion III and either conclusion I or conclusion IV follows.

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. Some truck is bus – False (Since, there is no direct relation between Truck and Bus but it is a possibility).

II. All cars are bicycle – False (Since, there is no direct relation between Car and Bicycle).

III. Some car can be truck – True (Since, it is a possibility as there is no direct relation between Truck and Car).

IV. No bus is truck – False (Since, there is no direct relation between Truck and Bus but it is a possibility).

Here, conclusion I and IV are complementary.

Therefore, both statement conclusion III and either conclusion I or conclusion IV are correct.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

An uncertain number of persons sit on a horizontal row facing towards North direction. Seven persons sit between R and U. Four persons sit between M and W. K sits at the middle of V and M. U sits second to the left of V. The number of person sits between T and L is one less than that of between L and U. The number of person sit to the left of T is one less than that of to the right of M. R sits third from extreme end. More than six persons sit between L and W. L sits five places away from R. The number of person sit between U and M is single digit highest prime number. T does not sit to the right of M. Not more than three persons sit between R and T.

What is strength of the row ?

((a))
20
((b))
35
((c))
27
((d))
25
((e))
15

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Given: An uncertain number of persons sit on a horizontal row facing towards North direction.

R sits third from extreme end.
L sits five places away from R.
Seven persons sit between R and U.

U sits second to the left of V.
The number of person sit between U and M is single digit highest prime number i.e. 7.
Four persons sit between M and W.

K sits at the middle of V and M.
The number of person sits between T and L is one less than that of between L and U.
The number of person sit to the left of T is one less than that of to the right of M.
T does not sit to the right of M. So, case 2(a) and 2(b) are eliminated.
Not more than three persons sit between R and T.
More than six persons sit between L and W. So, case 1(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, the strength of the row is 25.

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct ?

((a))
W sits second from left end.
((b))
R sits third from extreme left end.
((c))
Less than four persons sit between T and K.
((d))
V sits immediate left to K.
((e))
L sits third to the right of T.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

R sits third from extreme left end.

Given: An uncertain number of persons sit on a horizontal row facing towards North direction.

R sits third from extreme end.
L sits five places away from R.
Seven persons sit between R and U.

U sits second to the left of V.
The number of person sit between U and M is single digit highest prime number i.e. 7.
Four persons sit between M and W.

K sits at the middle of V and M.
The number of person sits between T and L is one less than that of between L and U.
The number of person sit to the left of T is one less than that of to the right of M.
T does not sit to the right of M. So, case 2(a) and 2(b) are eliminated.
Not more than three persons sit between R and T.
More than six persons sit between L and W. So, case 1(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, the correct statement is R sits third from extreme left end.

How many persons can sit between T and M?

((a))
Five
((b))
Three
((c))
Two
((d))
Six
((e))
More than six

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

More than six

Given: An uncertain number of persons sit on a horizontal row facing towards North direction.

R sits third from extreme end.
L sits five places away from R.
Seven persons sit between R and U.

U sits second to the left of V.
The number of person sit between U and M is single digit highest prime number i.e. 7.
Four persons sit between M and W.

K sits at the middle of V and M.
The number of person sits between T and L is one less than that of between L and U.
The number of person sit to the left of T is one less than that of to the right of M.
T does not sit to the right of M. So, case 2(a) and 2(b) are eliminated.
Not more than three persons sit between R and T.
More than six persons sit between L and W. So, case 1(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, more than six persons sit between T and M.

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct?

A) Less than two persons sit between T and L.

B) M sits third right of K.

C) W sits second from extreme right end.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Both A and B
((c))
Both B and C
((d))
Only C
((e))
All of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of these

Given: An uncertain number of persons sit on a horizontal row facing towards North direction.

R sits third from extreme end.
L sits five places away from R.
Seven persons sit between R and U.

U sits second to the left of V.
The number of person sit between U and M is single digit highest prime number i.e. 7.
Four persons sit between M and W.

K sits at the middle of V and M.
The number of person sits between T and L is one less than that of between L and U.
The number of person sit to the left of T is one less than that of to the right of M.
T does not sit to the right of M. So, case 2(a) and 2(b) are eliminated.
Not more than three persons sit between R and T.
More than six persons sit between L and W. So, case 1(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Since, only one person can sit between T and L so, statement A is correct.

M sits third to the right of K so, statement B is also correct.

W sits second from extreme right end.

Hence, the correct answer is all of these.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In a certain code language:

‘What a pleasant day’ is written as ‘mrt uab spj lko’.

‘Day after tomorrow is Sunday’ is written as ‘vlx ndb gpy mrt ixv’.

‘Sunday is the holiday’ is written as ‘owz bgu vlx ndb’.

‘It is a good picture’ is written as ‘spj psh ndb hkn dcj’.

What is the code for the word 'good'?

((a))
mrt
((b))
spj
((c))
psh
((d))
hkn
((e))
Data inadequate

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Data inadequate

The codes are as follows:

Since, the word 'good' comes only one time in last statement so we can not find its code as in last statement except 'a' all words come only one time.

Hence, the correct answer is data inadequate.

What is the code for the word 'is'?

((a))
owz
((b))
ndb
((c))
mrt
((d))
spj
((e))
psh

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

ndb

The codes are as follows:

Hence, the code for the word 'is' is 'ndb'.

What is the code for the word 'Sunday'?

((a))
vlx
((b))
ndb
((c))
spj
((d))
ixv
((e))
Data inadequate

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

vlx

The codes are as follows:

Hence, the code for the word 'Sunday' is 'vlx'.

What is the code for the word 'day'?

((a))
gpy
((b))
lko
((c))
mrt
((d))
spj
((e))
owz

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

mrt

The codes are as follows:

Hence, the code for 'day' is 'mrt'.

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'UNASCERTAINABLE', each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English Alphabet?

((a))
Two
((b))
Four
((c))
One
((d))
None
((e))
More than four

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

More than four

unnamed (1).png

According to the question,

From the above diagram, it is clear that the given word 'UNASCERTAINABLE' has seven such pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is more than four pairs.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Nine persons B, C, G, H, M, O, R, V and Y went to the vacation on different months January, February, March, May, July, August, September, October and November one after another but not necessarily in same order. Three persons went for vacation between O and V who went in the month which has even number of days but not in least number of days. The number of persons went before M is one more than that of after R. Both Y and G went on vacation in the month which has odd number of days but not in January. G went on one of the days after R. B went on vacation two months before O. C did not go before Y. M doesn't visit in August. R doesn't visit in February.

How many person went for vacation between H and R ?

((a))
Four
((b))
Two
((c))
Five
((d))
Three
((e))
One

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Three

Given persons B, C, G, H, M, O, R, V and Y; given months January, February, March, May, July, August, September, October and November.

Three persons went for vacation between O and V who went in the month which has even number of days but not in least number of days.
B went on vacation two months before O.

Month	Case – 1	Case – 2
Persons	Persons
January	B
February
March	O
May		B
July		O
August
September	V
October
November		V

The number of persons went before M is one more than that of after R. So, case 2 is eliminated.
Both Y and G went on vacation in the month which has odd number of days but not in January.
G went on one of the days after R.
C did not go before Y. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Months	Persons
January	B
February	H
March	O
May	Y
July	M
August	R
September	V
October	G
November	C

Hence, three persons went for vacation between H and R.

Who is the last person for going vacation ?

((a))
H
((b))
B
((c))
G
((d))
C
((e))
Y

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Given persons B, C, G, H, M, O, R, V and Y; given months January, February, March, May, July, August, September, October and November.

Three persons went for vacation between O and V who went in the month which has even number of days but not in least number of days.
B went on vacation two months before O.

Month	Case – 1	Case – 2
Persons	Persons
January	B
February
March	O
May		B
July		O
August
September	V
October
November		V

The number of persons went before M is one more than that of after R. So, case 2 is eliminated.
Both Y and G went on vacation in the month which has odd number of days but not in January.
G went on one of the days after R.
C did not go before Y. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Months	Persons
January	B
February	H
March	O
May	Y
July	M
August	R
September	V
October	G
November	C

Hence, the last person who went for vacation is C.

Which of the following statement is/ are incorrect ?

((a))
B went for vacation in January.
((b))
O went for vacation two months before of Y.
((c))
G went for vacation just before M.
((d))
H went for vacation in March.
((e))
More than one option.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

More than one option.

Given persons B, C, G, H, M, O, R, V and Y; given months January, February, March, May, July, August, September, October and November.

Three persons went for vacation between O and V who went in the month which has even number of days but not in least number of days.
B went on vacation two months before O.

Month	Case – 1	Case – 2
Persons	Persons
January	B
February
March	O
May		B
July		O
August
September	V
October
November		V

The number of persons went before M is one more than that of after R. So, case 2 is eliminated.
Both Y and G went on vacation in the month which has odd number of days but not in January.
G went on one of the days after R.
C did not go before Y. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Months	Persons
January	B
February	H
March	O
May	Y
July	M
August	R
September	V
October	G
November	C

Since, B went for vacation in January so, statement 1 is correct.

O went for vacation two months before Y so, statement 2 is also correct.

G went for vacation two months after M so, statement 3 is incorrect.

H went for vacation in February so, statement 4 is also incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is more than one option.

Find the odd one out.

((a))
B
((b))
O
((c))
C
((d))
M
((e))
R

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given persons B, C, G, H, M, O, R, V and Y; given months January, February, March, May, July, August, September, October and November.

Three persons went for vacation between O and V who went in the month which has even number of days but not in least number of days.
B went on vacation two months before O.

Month	Case – 1	Case – 2
Persons	Persons
January	B
February
March	O
May		B
July		O
August
September	V
October
November		V

The number of persons went before M is one more than that of after R. So, case 2 is eliminated.
Both Y and G went on vacation in the month which has odd number of days but not in January.
G went on one of the days after R.
C did not go before Y. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Months	Persons
January	B
February	H
March	O
May	Y
July	M
August	R
September	V
October	G
November	C

Since, all except C went for vacation in the month having odd number of days whereas C went for vacation in the month which has even number of days.

Hence, the odd one is C.

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct?

A) M went for vacation four months after O.

B) H went for vacation in the months which has least number of days.

C) G was not the last person for going vacation.

((a))
Both A and B
((b))
Only C
((c))
Neither A nor B
((d))
Only A
((e))
All of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of these

Given persons B, C, G, H, M, O, R, V and Y; given months January, February, March, May, July, August, September, October and November.

Three persons went for vacation between O and V who went in the month which has even number of days but not in least number of days.
B went on vacation two months before O.

Month	Case – 1	Case – 2
Persons	Persons
January	B
February
March	O
May		B
July		O
August
September	V
October
November		V

The number of persons went before M is one more than that of after R. So, case 2 is eliminated.
Both Y and G went on vacation in the month which has odd number of days but not in January.
G went on one of the days after R.
C did not go before Y. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Months	Persons
January	B
February	H
March	O
May	Y
July	M
August	R
September	V
October	G
November	C

Since, M went for vacation four months after O. So, statement A is correct.

H went for vacation in February which has least number of days. So, statement B is correct.

G was the second last person for going vacation. So, statement C is also correct.

Hence, the correct answer is All of these.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Six persons D, H, K, M, R and T lives on a three storey building and each floors consists two flats Flat A and Flat B such that Flat A is in west to Flat B and bottom floor is floor 1 just above floor 1 is floor 2 above which is floor 3 and flat A of floor 1 is just below flat A of floor 2 which is just below flat A of floor 3 and same condition for flat B also. Each person likes a different fruits which are Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Kiwi and Orange but not necessarily in same order. No one sits to the west of the person who likes Guava. The person who likes Orange lives to the northeast of M who does not Apple. D and T do not live on same floor and same type of flat. The person who likes Banana and the one who likes Guava live on same type of flat. The person who likes Kiwi lives below the floor of M. The person who likes Apple lives to the Northwest of H who lives in the same flat as of D. There is only one floor between R and the person who likes Kiwi. Neither M nor R likes Guava. T lives neither on same floor as of R nor to the south of K, who does not like Grapes. D doesn't live on the third floor.

Which of the following statement is/ are incorrect?

A) R likes Grapes and lives with K in same floor.

B) T lives below the floor of D.

C) H lives to the southeast of M.

((a))
Only A and B
((b))
Only C
((c))
Only B and C
((d))
Only A
((e))
All of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Only A

Given persons are D, H, K, M, R and T; given fruits are Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Kiwi and Orange.

There is only one floor between R and the person who likes Kiwi.
The person who likes Kiwi lives below the floor of M.

Floor	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R		R			R		R
2
1	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)

The person who likes Orange lives to the Northeast of M who does not like Apple.
Neither M nor R likes Guava.
No one sits to the west of the person who likes Guava. So, case 1 is eliminated.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4(a)	Case – 4(b)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R	(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)		R(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)
2	M		M		M		M
1	(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)		(Guava)	(Kiwi)		(Kiwi)

The person who likes Apple lives to the Northwest of H who lives in the same flat as of D. So, case 3 and case 4(b) are eliminated.
D and T do not live on same floor and same type of flat.
The person who likes Banana and the one who likes Guava live on same type of flat.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 4(a)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R(Apple)	(Orange)	(Apple)	R(Orange)
2	M(Banana)		M(Banana)
1	T(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Guava)	(Kiwi)

T lives neither on same floor as of R nor to the south of K, who does not like Grapes. So, case 4(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Floor	Flat A	Flat B
3	R (Apple)	K (Orange)
2	M (Banana)	D (Grapes)
1	T (Guava)	H (Kiwi)

Since, R likes Apple not Grapes and lives with K in the same floor so statement A is incorrect, T lives the floor of D so statement B is correct, H lives to the southeast of M so, statement C is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is only A.

Which of the following statement is/ are correct ?

((a))
The person who likes Guava lives on third floor.
((b))
M lives on floor 1 in Flat A.
((c))
T and H lives on different floors.
((d))
The person who likes Grapes lives on Flat A.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of these

Given persons are D, H, K, M, R and T; given fruits are Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Kiwi and Orange.

There is only one floor between R and the person who likes Kiwi.
The person who likes Kiwi lives below the floor of M.

Floor	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R		R			R		R
2
1	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)

The person who likes Orange lives to the Northeast of M who does not like Apple.
Neither M nor R likes Guava.
No one sits to the west of the person who likes Guava. So, case 1 is eliminated.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4(a)	Case – 4(b)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R	(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)		R(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)
2	M		M		M		M
1	(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)		(Guava)	(Kiwi)		(Kiwi)

The person who likes Apple lives to the Northwest of H who lives in the same flat as of D. So, case 3 and case 4(b) are eliminated.
D and T do not live on same floor and same type of flat.
The person who likes Banana and the one who likes Guava live on same type of flat.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 4(a)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R(Apple)	(Orange)	(Apple)	R(Orange)
2	M(Banana)		M(Banana)
1	T(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Guava)	(Kiwi)

T lives neither on same floor as of R nor to the south of K, who does not like Grapes. So, case 4(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Floor	Flat A	Flat B
3	R (Apple)	K (Orange)
2	M (Banana)	D (Grapes)
1	T (Guava)	H (Kiwi)

Since, the person who likes Guava i.e. T lives on first floor so statement first is incorrect, M lives on Flat A but in second floor so second statement is incorrect, Both T and H lives on same floor so statement third is incorrect and the person who likes Grapes lives on Flat B so fourth statement is also incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is none of these.

Find the odd one out.

((a))
RD
((b))
MK
((c))
TD
((d))
RH
((e))
MD

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Given persons are D, H, K, M, R and T; given fruits are Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Kiwi and Orange.

There is only one floor between R and the person who likes Kiwi.
The person who likes Kiwi lives below the floor of M.

Floor	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R		R			R		R
2
1	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)

The person who likes Orange lives to the Northeast of M who does not like Apple.
Neither M nor R likes Guava.
No one sits to the west of the person who likes Guava. So, case 1 is eliminated.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4(a)	Case – 4(b)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R	(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)		R(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)
2	M		M		M		M
1	(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)		(Guava)	(Kiwi)		(Kiwi)

The person who likes Apple lives to the Northwest of H who lives in the same flat as of D. So, case 3 and case 4(b) are eliminated.
D and T do not live on same floor and same type of flat.
The person who likes Banana and the one who likes Guava live on same type of flat.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 4(a)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R(Apple)	(Orange)	(Apple)	R(Orange)
2	M(Banana)		M(Banana)
1	T(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Guava)	(Kiwi)

T lives neither on same floor as of R nor to the south of K, who does not like Grapes. So, case 4(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Floor	Flat A	Flat B
3	R (Apple)	K (Orange)
2	M (Banana)	D (Grapes)
1	T (Guava)	H (Kiwi)

Since, both M and D lives on same floor rest of the pair shows persons lives on different floor.

Hence, the odd one is MD.

Which of the following combination is correct?

((a))
R - Flat B - Apple
((b))
H - Floor 2 - Grapes
((c))
T - Flat B - Kiwi
((d))
M - Floor 2 - Banana
((e))
All are correct

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

M - Floor 2 - Banana

Given persons are D, H, K, M, R and T; given fruits are Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Kiwi and Orange.

There is only one floor between R and the person who likes Kiwi.
The person who likes Kiwi lives below the floor of M.

Floor	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R		R			R		R
2
1	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)

The person who likes Orange lives to the Northeast of M who does not like Apple.
Neither M nor R likes Guava.
No one sits to the west of the person who likes Guava. So, case 1 is eliminated.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4(a)	Case – 4(b)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R	(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)		R(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)
2	M		M		M		M
1	(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)		(Guava)	(Kiwi)		(Kiwi)

The person who likes Apple lives to the Northwest of H who lives in the same flat as of D. So, case 3 and case 4(b) are eliminated.
D and T do not live on same floor and same type of flat.
The person who likes Banana and the one who likes Guava live on same type of flat.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 4(a)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R(Apple)	(Orange)	(Apple)	R(Orange)
2	M(Banana)		M(Banana)
1	T(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Guava)	(Kiwi)

T lives neither on same floor as of R nor to the south of K, who does not like Grapes. So, case 4(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Floor	Flat A	Flat B
3	R (Apple)	K (Orange)
2	M (Banana)	D (Grapes)
1	T (Guava)	H (Kiwi)

Since, R lives on Flat A not in Flat B and likes Apple so combination first is incorrect, H lives on Floor 1 and likes Kiwi so second combination is incorrect, since T lives on Flat A and likes Guava so third combination is incorrect and M lives on Floor 2 and likes Banana so combination fourth is correct.

Hence, the correct combination is M - Floor 2 - Banana.

Who among them likes Grapes?

((a))
R
((b))
D
((c))
M
((d))
K
((e))
H

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given persons are D, H, K, M, R and T; given fruits are Apple, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Kiwi and Orange.

There is only one floor between R and the person who likes Kiwi.
The person who likes Kiwi lives below the floor of M.

Floor	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R		R			R		R
2
1	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)			(Kiwi)

The person who likes Orange lives to the Northeast of M who does not like Apple.
Neither M nor R likes Guava.
No one sits to the west of the person who likes Guava. So, case 1 is eliminated.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4(a)	Case – 4(b)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R	(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)		R(Orange)	(Guava)	R(Orange)
2	M		M		M		M
1	(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Kiwi)		(Guava)	(Kiwi)		(Kiwi)

The person who likes Apple lives to the Northwest of H who lives in the same flat as of D. So, case 3 and case 4(b) are eliminated.
D and T do not live on same floor and same type of flat.
The person who likes Banana and the one who likes Guava live on same type of flat.

Floor	Case – 2	Case – 4(a)
Flat A	Flat B	Flat A	Flat B
3	R(Apple)	(Orange)	(Apple)	R(Orange)
2	M(Banana)		M(Banana)
1	T(Guava)	(Kiwi)	(Guava)	(Kiwi)

T lives neither on same floor as of R nor to the south of K, who does not like Grapes. So, case 4(a) is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Floor	Flat A	Flat B
3	R (Apple)	K (Orange)
2	M (Banana)	D (Grapes)
1	T (Guava)	H (Kiwi)

Hence, D likes Grapes.

In the given number 90273465, if each even digit is added by 2 and each odd digit is subtracted by 2 then arrange the number according to the numeric series, then which digit comes third from right end?

((a))
4
((b))
3
((c))
6
((d))
8
((e))
1

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

According to the given condition, in the given number 90273465 when we add 2 in each even digits and subtract 2 from each odd digits then the number becomes 72451683.

Now, we arrange the new number according to numeric series it becomes 12345678.

Hence, the digit comes third from right end is 6.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons B, D, H, J, M, P, R and U born on a same date but in different years viz, 1987, 1992, 1996, 1998, 2004, 2006, 2009 and 2011 but not necessarily in same order. Their ages are calculated with respect to the year 2024. As many persons born before P as many persons after H. D born in a leap year. The difference between ages of H and U is one more than that of between P and M. J does not born before R but born before D. The age of M is twice the age of B.

Which of the following statement is/ are incorrect ?

((a))
The age of R is a prime number.
((b))
M born just before D.
((c))
J born in a leap year.
((d))
U is two years older than B.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

None of these

Given, persons B, D, H, J, M, P, R and U; given years are 1987, 1992, 1996, 1998, 2004, 2006, 2009 and 2011.

The age of M is twice the age of B.
D born in a leap year.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3
Persons	Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28		D
1998	26	M	M	M
2004	20			D
2006	18
2009	15
2011	13	B	B	B

The difference between ages of H and U is one more than that of between P and M. So, case 2 is eliminated.
As many persons born before P as many persons after H.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 3
Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28	P	P
1998	26	M	M
2004	20		D
2006	18	H	H
2009	15	U	U
2011	13	B	B

J does not born before R but born before D. So, case 1 is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Year	Ages	Persons
1987	37	R
1992	32	J
1996	28	P
1998	26	M
2004	20	D
2006	18	H
2009	15	U
2011	13	B

Since, statement first the age of R is a prime number is correct, statement second M born just before D is correct, statement third J born in a leap year is correct and statement fourth U is two years older than B is also correct. Therefore, all the given statements are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is None of these.

Who among them is the youngest person?

((a))
J
((b))
D
((c))
U
((d))
B
((e))
H

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Given, persons B, D, H, J, M, P, R and U; given years are 1987, 1992, 1996, 1998, 2004, 2006, 2009 and 2011.

The age of M is twice the age of B.
D born in a leap year.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3
Persons	Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28		D
1998	26	M	M	M
2004	20			D
2006	18
2009	15
2011	13	B	B	B

The difference between ages of H and U is one more than that of between P and M. So, case 2 is eliminated.
As many persons born before P as many persons after H.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 3
Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28	P	P
1998	26	M	M
2004	20		D
2006	18	H	H
2009	15	U	U
2011	13	B	B

J does not born before R but born before D. So, case 1 is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Year	Ages	Persons
1987	37	R
1992	32	J
1996	28	P
1998	26	M
2004	20	D
2006	18	H
2009	15	U
2011	13	B

Hence, B is the youngest person.

Who among them born in a prime number year but not after D?

((a))
J
((b))
R
((c))
P
((d))
M
((e))
U

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given, persons B, D, H, J, M, P, R and U; given years are 1987, 1992, 1996, 1998, 2004, 2006, 2009 and 2011.

The age of M is twice the age of B.
D born in a leap year.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3
Persons	Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28		D
1998	26	M	M	M
2004	20			D
2006	18
2009	15
2011	13	B	B	B

The difference between ages of H and U is one more than that of between P and M. So, case 2 is eliminated.
As many persons born before P as many persons after H.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 3
Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28	P	P
1998	26	M	M
2004	20		D
2006	18	H	H
2009	15	U	U
2011	13	B	B

J does not born before R but born before D. So, case 1 is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Year	Ages	Persons
1987	37	R
1992	32	J
1996	28	P
1998	26	M
2004	20	D
2006	18	H
2009	15	U
2011	13	B

Hence, R born in a prime year before D.

Which of the following statement is/ are correct?

A) P born in a leap year.

B) U is the second youngest person.

C) M born just before P.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only B
((c))
Both A and B
((d))
Only C
((e))
All of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Both A and B

Given, persons B, D, H, J, M, P, R and U; given years are 1987, 1992, 1996, 1998, 2004, 2006, 2009 and 2011.

The age of M is twice the age of B.
D born in a leap year.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3
Persons	Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28		D
1998	26	M	M	M
2004	20			D
2006	18
2009	15
2011	13	B	B	B

The difference between ages of H and U is one more than that of between P and M. So, case 2 is eliminated.
As many persons born before P as many persons after H.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 3
Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28	P	P
1998	26	M	M
2004	20		D
2006	18	H	H
2009	15	U	U
2011	13	B	B

J does not born before R but born before D. So, case 1 is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Year	Ages	Persons
1987	37	R
1992	32	J
1996	28	P
1998	26	M
2004	20	D
2006	18	H
2009	15	U
2011	13	B

Since, P born in a leap year so statement A is correct, U is the second youngest person so statement B is correct and M born just after P not just before so statement C is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Both A and B.

How many person born between U and M?

((a))
Three
((b))
Four
((c))
Two
((d))
None
((e))
One

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Two

Given, persons B, D, H, J, M, P, R and U; given years are 1987, 1992, 1996, 1998, 2004, 2006, 2009 and 2011.

The age of M is twice the age of B.
D born in a leap year.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3
Persons	Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28		D
1998	26	M	M	M
2004	20			D
2006	18
2009	15
2011	13	B	B	B

The difference between ages of H and U is one more than that of between P and M. So, case 2 is eliminated.
As many persons born before P as many persons after H.

Years	Ages	Case – 1	Case – 3
Persons	Persons
1987	37
1992	32	D
1996	28	P	P
1998	26	M	M
2004	20		D
2006	18	H	H
2009	15	U	U
2011	13	B	B

J does not born before R but born before D. So, case 1 is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Year	Ages	Persons
1987	37	R
1992	32	J
1996	28	P
1998	26	M
2004	20	D
2006	18	H
2009	15	U
2011	13	B

Hence, two persons born between U and M.

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Eight persons G, H, I, J, R, S, T and U sit on two parallel rows such that on row 1 R, S, T and U sit and faces towards North direction whereas on row 2 G, H, I and J sit and face towards South direction so that each person on row 1 faces each person on row 2 but not necessarily in same order. Who sits immediate left to T ?

Statement I. J sits two places away from I who sits opposite to T. Two persons sit between R and S who does not sit opposite to H.

Statement II. Neither U nor S sits opposite to J. S does not sit to the left of T. G sits three places away from the person who sits opposite to R.

((a))
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
((b))
Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question
((c))
Both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer the given question.
((d))
Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((e))
Both statement I and statement II together is not sufficient to answer the given question

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer the given question.

From the question, Eight persons G, H, I, J, R, S, T and U sit on two parallel rows such that on row 1 R, S, T and U sit and faces towards North direction whereas on row 2 G, H, I and J sit and face towards South direction so that each person on row 1 faces each person on row 2.

From statement I, J sits two places away from I who sits opposite to T. Two persons sit between R and S who does not sit opposite to H.

Therefore, statement I alone in not sufficient to answer the given question.

From statement II, Neither U nor S sits opposite to J. S does not sit to the left of T. G sits three places away from the person who sits opposite to R.

Therefore, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Now by combining both the statements, we get

Therefore, both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.

Hence, both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer the question.

Direction: In the following question, a given questions is followed by information in two statements. You have to find out the data in which statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question and mark your answer accordingly. Seven boxes D, J, N, O, T, U and V are stacked one over another from bottom to top. Which box placed at third position from bottom ?

Statement I. Only two boxes placed between box J and box N which is placed just above the box D. Not more than three boxes are placed below box N.

Statement II. As many box placed above O as many box placed below it. Only one box is placed between box J and box T.

((a))
Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((b))
Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.
((c))
Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.
((d))
Both statement I and II are required to answer the given question.
((e))
Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the given question.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to answer the given question.

From the question, Seven boxes D, J, N, O, T, U and V are stacked one over another from bottom to top.

From the statement I, Only two boxes placed between box J and box N which is placed just above the box D. Not more than three boxes are placed below box N.

Case – 1	Case – 2	Case – 3	Case – 4
Boxes	Boxes	Boxes	Boxes

	J		J
J
		N	N
	N	D	D
N	D
D		J

Therefore, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

From statement II, As many box placed above O as many box placed below it. Only one box is placed between box J and box T. Since, we cannot conclude anything by second statement.

Therefore, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

If we combine both the statement we get,

Case – 1	Case – 2
Boxes	Boxes
	T

J	J
O	O
T
N	N
D	D

Both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

Hence, both statement I and statement together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Eight persons D, H, I, L, N, O, P and S sits on a horizontal row faces in north and south direction but not necessarily in same order. O sits second to the right of P who sits immediate left of L. The person who sits at extreme end faces in opposite direction. S sits second left of D. I sit second to the left of N who sits immediate right of H. Only three persons sit between O and N who faces in north direction. H sits two places away from D. I and H face in same direction but opposite to S who faces in the same direction as of N. S does not sit to the right of O.

Which of the following pair represents persons sitting at extreme end ?

((a))
PN
((b))
LD
((c))
IH
((d))
PH
((e))
SH

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Given persons D, H, I, L, N, O, P and S.

Only three persons sit between O and N who faces in North direction.
O sits second to the right of P who sits immediate left of L.
I sit second to the left of N who sits immediate right of H.

The person who sits at extreme end faces in opposite direction.
S sits second left of D.
I and H face in same direction but opposite to S who faces in the same direction as of N. Therefore, both I and H face in south direction whereas S faces in North direction. So, case – 2 is eliminated.

H sits two places away from D. So, case – 3 is eliminated.
S does not sit to the right of O. So, case – 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, the correct answer is PH.

Find the odd one out.

((a))
P
((b))
I
((c))
D
((d))
N
((e))
L

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given persons D, H, I, L, N, O, P and S.

Only three persons sit between O and N who faces in North direction.
O sits second to the right of P who sits immediate left of L.
I sit second to the left of N who sits immediate right of H.

The person who sits at extreme end faces in opposite direction.
S sits second left of D.
I and H face in same direction but opposite to S who faces in the same direction as of N. Therefore, both I and H face in south direction whereas S faces in North direction. So, case – 2 is eliminated.

H sits two places away from D. So, case – 3 is eliminated.
S does not sit to the right of O. So, case – 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Since, all except I faces towards North direction whereas I faces towards South direction.

Hence, the correct answer is I.

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct ?

((a))
I sits immediate right to D.
((b))
S and O sits immediate right to each other.
((c))
P faces towards South direction.
((d))
H sits at one of the extreme end.
((e))
L faces towards South direction.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

H sits at one of the extreme end.

Given persons D, H, I, L, N, O, P and S.

Only three persons sit between O and N who faces in North direction.
O sits second to the right of P who sits immediate left of L.
I sit second to the left of N who sits immediate right of H.

The person who sits at extreme end faces in opposite direction.
S sits second left of D.
I and H face in same direction but opposite to S who faces in the same direction as of N. Therefore, both I and H face in south direction whereas S faces in North direction. So, case – 2 is eliminated.

H sits two places away from D. So, case – 3 is eliminated.
S does not sit to the right of O. So, case – 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Hence, the correct statement is H sits at one of the extreme end.

Who sits second to the left of the person who sits immediate left to O?

((a))
H
((b))
L
((c))
P
((d))
D
((e))
None

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given persons D, H, I, L, N, O, P and S.

Only three persons sit between O and N who faces in North direction.
O sits second to the right of P who sits immediate left of L.
I sit second to the left of N who sits immediate right of H.
The person who sits at extreme end faces in opposite direction.
S sits second left of D.
I and H face in same direction but opposite to S who faces in the same direction as of N. Therefore, both I and H face in south direction whereas S faces in North direction. So, case – 2 is eliminated.

H sits two places away from D. So, case – 3 is eliminated.
S does not sit to the right of O. So, case – 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Since, S sits immediate left to O and L sits second left to S.

Hence, the correct answer is L.

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are incorrect?

A) D sits immediate left to I.

B) The number of persons faces towards North direction is more than that of facing towards South direction.

C) H sits at extreme left end.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Only C
((c))
Only B
((d))
Both A and B
((e))
More than one option.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Only C

Given persons D, H, I, L, N, O, P and S.

Only three persons sit between O and N who faces in North direction.
O sits second to the right of P who sits immediate left of L.
I sit second to the left of N who sits immediate right of H.

The person who sits at extreme end faces in opposite direction.
S sits second left of D.
I and H face in same direction but opposite to S who faces in the same direction as of N. Therefore, both I and H face in south direction whereas S faces in North direction. So, case – 2 is eliminated.

H sits two places away from D. So, case – 3 is eliminated.
S does not sit to the right of O. So, case – 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

Since, D sits immediate left to I so, statement A is correct.

Five persons faces towards North direction whereas only three persons facing towards South direction so statement B is also correct.

H sits at extreme right end not at left end so, statement C is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is More than one option.

Computer Knowledge (40 questions)

Which person is called the “Father of Internet”?

((a))
Alan Turing
((b))
Vint Cerf
((c))
Ray Tomlinson
((d))
Charles Babbage
((e))
Edward Teller

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Vint Cerf

The correct answer is Vint Cerf.

Key Points

Internet
It is a Worldwide system of Network that connects computers all over the world.
People can communicate anywhere and anyone with an internet connection.

Additional Information

Important Fathers of Science and Technology fields.

Father of Modern Computer	Alan Turing
Father of Computer	Charles Babbage
Father of Email	Ray Tomlinson
Father of Electricity	Benjamin Franklin
Father of Electronics	Michael Faraday
Father of Atom bomb	J Robert Oppenheimer
Father of Hydrogen Bomb	Edward Teller

Which of the following belongs to the category of fourth generation languages?

((a))
Machine language
((b))
High-level language
((c))
Assembly language
((d))
Query language
((e))
Domain-Specific Language (DSL)

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Query language

The correct answer is Query language.

Key Points

The various generations of computers are listed below:

Generation	Hardware	Language
1st	Vacuum Tube	Machine Language
2nd	Transistor	Assembly Language
3rd	Integrated Chips	High-Level Language e.g - FORTRAN, ALGOL, COBOL, C++, C
4th	Very Large Scale Integrated Circuit	Very High-Level Languages (Query Language) e.g - SQL, Unix Shell, Oracle etc.
5th	Ultra Large Scale Integration technology	Artificial Intelligence Language e.g - OPS5, Mercury etc.

Which of the following is not an image or graphic file format?

((a))
PNG
((b))
BMP
((c))
GIF
((d))
GUI
((e))
TIF

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

GUI

GUI is NOT an image or a graphic file format.

Important Points

GUI or Graphic user interface has nothing to do with graphic files as it is a type of interface which allows users to interact through graphical icons and visual indicators such as secondary notation, as opposed to text-based interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation.

Additional Information

PNG or portable network graphics is an extension given to a graphic file.
It was created to replace another format i.e. GIF or Graphic interchange format.
BMP or Bitmap file is another extension used to create usually image files.

Which of the following refers to the rectangular area for displaying information and running programs?

((a))
Desktop
((b))
Dialog box
((c))
Menu
((d))
Window
((e))
Icon

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Window

A window is an area on the screen that displays information for a specific program. This often includes the user interface GUI as well as the program content. Windows are used by most applications as well as the operating system itself.

A half byte is called a

((a))
Byte
((b))
Nibble
((c))
Bit
((d))
Word size
((e))
Megabyte

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Nibble

The correct answer is Nibble.

A half byte is called a Nibble.

Key Points

One byte is equal to 8 bits.
One kilobit is equal to 1000 bits.
One kilobyte is equal to 8000 bits.
One kibibit is equal to 1024 bits.
One kibibyte is equal to 8192 bits.
One Megabit is equal to 1000000 bits.
One Megabyte is equal to 8000000 bits.

Which of the following company launched the Bing search engine?

((a))
AOL
((b))
Microsoft
((c))
Yahoo!
((d))
Google
((e))
Ask.com

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Microsoft

The correct option is (2)

Microsoft

Concept:-

Bing, a search engine launched in 2009 by the American software company Microsoft Corporation.

Important Points

Microsoft is the owner of Bing. Microsoft, a competitive competitor in the high-tech industry, developed Bing to directly compete with the Google search engine.
Bing is what Microsoft refers to as a "decision engine," which means that it works to comprehend users' search terms and provide better search results than a standard search engine, assisting users in making smarter choices.
Microsoft, more than any other firm, has helped customers find ways to incorporate computing into their daily lives through its marketing and products.

Additional Information yahoo!:- Yahoo is a media and technology firm that offers users a variety of digital platforms, goods, and services.

Google:- Google is a search engine that was created in 1996 as a research project at Stanford University by Sergey Brin and Larry Page to locate files on the internet.

AOL:- AOL is a New York City-based American web portal and online service provider. The present iteration of Yahoo Inc. markets the brand.

Read the following statements about Email and choose the CORRECT option.

i. The username and the domain name are separated by @ (at) symbol.

ii. E-mail addresses are case sensitive

((a))
i is false, ii is false
((b))
i is true, ii is false
((c))
i is false, ii is true
((d))
i is true ii is true
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

i is true, ii is false

The correct answer is option 2.

Key PointsOption 1: The username and the domain name are separated by @ (at) symbol.

True, The @ (at) symbol is used to separate the user id from the domain name in the e-mail address.

Ex:

[email protected]

Here user-id is operations and ram.

The domain is Gmail and testbook.

Option 2: E-mail addresses are case-sensitive.

False, Email addresses are not case sensitive. Having letters in all lowercase makes the email address easier to read, but the oversight won't stop your messages from being delivered.

Hence the correct answer is i is true, ii is false.

A CPU directly interacts with a ______ to access data during a program’s execution.

((a))
RAM
((b))
ROM
((c))
hard disk
((d))
magnetic tape
((e))
SSD

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

RAM

The correct answer is RAM.

Key Points

The word RAM stands for Random Access Memory. It is a very fast internal memory of the CPU. It holds data temporarily. After switching off the computer, data are deleted from the RAM. A CPU directly interacts with RAM to access data during a program’s execution. There are two variants of RAM. These are SRAM and DRAM.
The word SRAM stands for Static Random Access Memory. The SRAM is comparatively the fastest memory. SRAM chips use a matrix of 6-transistors and no capacitors. There is an additional area within the matrix, thence SRAM uses a lot of chips than DRAM for an equivalent quantity of space for storing, creating the producing prices higher. SRAM is therefore used as cache memory and has no time access. The word DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory. DRAM always refresh itself to maintain the organised data. This is done by putting the memory on a refresh circuit that rewrites the information many hundred times per second. DRAM is employed for many system memory because it is affordable and tiny in size. DRAMs are created from memory cells, that are composed of 1 capacitor and one electronic transistor.

Thus the correct answer is RAM.

Additional Information

ROM: The word ROM stands for Read Only Memory. It is permanent memory that the user will solely read but cannot write of it. This sort of memory is non-volatile. The data is kept for good in such recollections throughout manufacture. A memory stores such directions that are needed to begin a computing system. This operation is remarked as bootstrap. Memory chips don't seem to be solely utilized in the computing system however conjointly in different electronic things like cleaning machines and microwave ovens. MROM, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM are the types of ROM.
Hard disk: The hard disk is recognised as secondary memory. It is permanent in nature. The size of the hard disk is depending on the users' requirements.
Magnetic tape: The magnetic tape is the primary storage unit which is circular in size. Audio files, video files are recorded by using the magnetic tapes.

The binary equivalent of decimal value (10)10 is:

((a))
(1011)₂
((b))
(1001)2
((c))
(1100)2
((d))
(1000)2
((e))
(1010)2

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

(1010)2

A number system includes the number of independent digits used in the number system (the base), the place values of the different digits constituting the number and the maximum numbers that can be written with the given number of digits.

The Binary Number System: The binary number system with only two independent digits, 0 and 1, is a base-2 number system. All larger binary numbers are represented in terms of ‘0’ and ‘1’.

Decimal to Binary Conversion:

Step 1: Divide 10 by 2 to get the Quotient. Keep the Whole part for the next step and set the Remainder aside.

10 / 2 = 5 with 0 remainder

Step 2: Divide the Whole part of the Quotient from Step 1 by 2. Again, keep the Whole part and set the Remainder aside.

5/ 2 = 2 with 1 remainder

Step 3: Repeat Step 2 above until the Whole part is 0.

2 / 2 = 1 with 0 remainder

1 / 2 = 1 with 1 remainder

Step 4: Write down the Remainders in reverse order to get the answer to 10 as a binary.

When we put the remainders together in reverse order, we get the answer 1010

Hence, the binary equivalent of decimal number 10is 1010.

NOTE:

The decimal number system has a base of 10 as it has 10 independent digits, i.e. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9. The octal and hexadecimal number systems have a radix (or base) of 8 and 16, respectively.

Which of the following is Math and trigonometric functions available in MS-Excel 365?

((a))
Text function
((b))
ABS function
((c))
Logical function
((d))
Financial function
((e))
SUM Function

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

ABS function

The Math and Trigonometric functions available in MS-Excel 365 include:

ABS function: Returns the absolute value of a number.
Trigonometric functions: These include SIN, COS, TAN, ASIN, ACOS, and ATAN, which are used to calculate the sine, cosine, tangent, arcsine, arccosine, and arctangent of an angle.
LOG function: Returns the natural logarithm of a number.
EXP function: Returns e raised to the power of a given number.
SQRT function: Returns the square root of a number.
RAND function: Returns a random number between 0 and 1.
INT function: Rounds a number down to the nearest integer.
ROUND function: Rounds a number to a specified number of decimal places.
CEILING and FLOOR functions: Round numbers up or down to the nearest integer or multiple of a given value.
POWER function: Raises a number to a specified power.
MOD function: Returns the remainder when one number is divided by another.
SUM, AVERAGE, MAX, and MIN functions: These are basic statistical functions used to calculate the sum, average, maximum, and minimum of a range of numbers.

Note: The text function and logical function are not considered Math and Trigonometric functions, but rather fall under the categories of Text and Logical functions, respectively. Financial functions are also not classified as Math and Trigonometric functions, but rather as Financial functions.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Which of the following is not an Image File Extension?

((a))
.svg
((b))
.png
((c))
.jpeg
((d))
.pdf
((e))
.jpg

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

.pdf

The correct answer is .pdf.

Key Points

PDF stands for 'portable document format'.
.pdf is a type of Text File Extension.
This format is used when you need to save files that cannot be modified but still need to be easily shared and printed.

<br>

File Extensions	Meaning
Executable File Extensions	.exe	Executable file
.apk	Android package file
.com	MS-DOS command file
Audio File Extension	.mp3	MP3 audio file
Video File Extensions	.avi	Audio Video Interleave File
.mkv	Matroska Multimedia Container
.mp4	MPEG-4 Video File
Text File Extensions	.doc and .docx	Microsoft Word file
.txt	Plain text file
Spreadsheet File Extension	.xls	Microsoft Excel file
Presentation File Extensions	.ppt	PowerPoint presentation
.pptx	PowerPoint Open XML presentation
Image File Extensions	.jpeg or .jpg	JPEG image
.png	PNG / Portable Network Graphic image
.svg	Scalable Vector Graphics file
.gif	GIF/Graphical Interchange Format image
.tif or .tiff	TIFF image

Which of the following shortcut key is used to go to the top of an MS Word document?

((a))
Ctrl + HOME
((b))
Ctrl + End
((c))
Alt + End
((d))
Alt + Home
((e))
Ctrl + ↑ (Up Arrow)

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + HOME

The correct answer is Ctrl + HOME.

Ctrl + HOME is used to go to the top of an MS Word document.

Key Points

The shortcut Control+Home/ C-Home, or Ctrl+Home is used to move the cursor to the beginning of a document.

Additional Information

Ctrl + End is a shortcut key that moves the cursor to the end of a document.
Alt+End is a keyboard shortcut used to move to the last cell of a column in a Microsoft Word table.
Alt+Home shortcut is used to open the homepage in the active tab.

What is a "system hang"?

((a))
The system is infected by virus
((b))
The system is unresponsive to keyboard inputs
((c))
The system is shutdown
((d))
The system is on sleep mode
((e))
The system is in hibernate mode

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The system is unresponsive to keyboard inputs

The correct answer is The system is unresponsive to keyboard inputs.

Key Points

System hang means the system is unresponsive to keyboard inputs.
A hang may be temporary or permanent.
Temporary hang: If it is a temporary hang the system resolves itself.
Slow hardware is a kind of temporary hang.
Permanent hang: If it is a permanent hang it requires manual intervention.
It may be due to the hardware or software logic error.
'End Task' button on the windows task manager is a mechanism for terminating hang processes.
The computer's graphical user interface no longer responds to the user inputs like typing on the keyboard or moving the mouse is a typical example for hang.

In windows, SHIFT, CTRL (control), and ALT (alternate) keys are called ___________.

((a))
Special keys
((b))
Lock keys
((c))
Window keys
((d))
Modifier keys
((e))
Hotkeys

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Modifier keys

The correct answer is option 4 i.e Modifier keys.

Special keys
A special key or media key is a keyboard key that performs a special function not included with the traditional 104-key keyboard.
For e.g, the first four buttons are shown to control the volume of the speakers and the computer's brightness.
Lock keys
These keys are related to the lock part of a keyboard keys for a distinct mode of operation, depending on the lock settings selected.
Number Lock: It allows the user to type numbers by pressing the keys on the number pad, rather than having them act as up, down, left, right, page up, end, and so forth.
Capital Lock: It is used to type the letters in uppercase by default rather than lowercase. Located at the left end of the keyboard, above the left shift key.
Scrolling Lock: In some applications, such as spreadsheets, the lock mode is used to change the behaviour of the cursor keys to scroll the document instead of the cursor.
Window keys
The Windows logo key such as win, start, logo, flag, or super key.
This key became a standard key on PC keyboards.
In Windows tapping the key brings up the start menu.
Ctrl + Esc performs the same function, in case the keyboard lacks this key.
Modifier keys
It is a special key on a computer keyboard that temporarily modifies the normal action of another key when pressed together.
For e.g, Shift, Alt, or Ctrl keys are the modifier keys. Hence option 4 is correct.

Which one of the following is an impact printer and is commonly used for printing in applications like payroll and accounting?

((a))
Plotter
((b))
Laser Printer
((c))
Inkjet Printer
((d))
Dot-matrix Printer
((e))
Daisy Wheel Printer

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Dot-matrix Printer

The correct answer is the "Dot-matrix printer".

Key Points

Plotter: The plotter is a kind of printer which is used for printing vector lines. It uses a simple pen and paper.
Laser printer: The laser printer is an example of a non-impact printer. It uses laser technology to print the content. This kind of printer is used mostly in large companies.
Inkjet printer: The inkjet printer is an example of a non-impact printer. This kind of printer is used mostly in homes, businesses and so on. It uses a different pattern of ink droplets to print the content.
Dot-matrix printer: The dot-matrix printer is an example of an impact printer. It has 9-24 pins which are situated at the printer head. It is commonly used for printing in applications like payroll and accounting.

The correct answer is the Dot-matrix printer.

Additional Information

Printer is referred to as an output device. The printer is divided into two parts. These are impact printers and non-impact printers.
Impact printers use a kind of pin and hammer system to print a document. It is less costly than the non-impact printer.
Non-impact printers use ink in any form to print a document. It is the best for printing photographs.

Which of the following keys is used to refresh the active window?

((a))
F1
((b))
F7
((c))
F3
((d))
F5
((e))
F6

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

The correct answer is F5.

Key Points

Computer keyboards have the F5 function key at the top.
In Internet browsers, the key is frequently used to refresh a web page.
F5 has additional applications depending on the computer and program.

Additional Information

A function key is a type of soft key that can be programmed on a computer or terminal keyboard to cause an operating system command interpreter or application program to perform specific actions.
Function keys are used to carry out specific tasks.
F1, F2, F3, .. to F12 the functionality of these keys varies depending on the program.
F1 key, always used as the help key, every program opens a help screen when this key is pressed.
F3 function key is used to access a program's or operating system's find or search feature.
F7 is commonly used in Microsoft programs such as Microsoft Word, Outlook, and others to spell and grammar check a document.

The shortcut to add new slide in power point is

((a))
Ctrl + N
((b))
Ctrl + Z
((c))
Alt + N
((d))
Ctrl + S
((e))
Ctrl + M

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Ctrl + M

The correct answer is Ctrl + M.

In Microsoft PowerPoint, the Ctrl+M shortcut key inserts a new blank slide after the selected slide.

Additional Information

Important MS PowerPoint shortcuts:
CTRL + G - To group items
Ctrl + Q - To save and close a presentation
Ctrl + E - To centre align the text
CTRL + SHIFT + < -To decrease the text size
Ctrl + Up To move a slide up
SHIFT + F5 To start presentation mode from the current slide.
CTRL + N - to create a new presentation.
CTRL + M - to insert a new slide.
CTRL + D - to duplicate the slide.
CTRL + K - to insert a link.

Mistake Points

In Microsoft PowerPoint, the Ctrl+N shortcut key opens a new blank presentation slide in a new PowerPoint window.

Which among the following is a Flash memory device?

((a))
Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
((b))
Random Access Memory (RAM)
((c))
USB drive
((d))
Blu-Ray disc
((e))
CD Drive

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

USB drive

The correct option is (3)

USB drive

Key Points

A flash memory device is a type of non-volatile storage medium that stores data electronically. It is commonly used in a variety of electronic devices such as USB drives, memory cards, and solid-state drives (SSDs).
Multi-Media Card (MMC), a Flash-based memory card standard used for solid-state storage in cellphones, digital cameras, music players, video camcorders, and personal computers, is one of the most well-known examples of Flash memory.
A plug-and-play portable storage device that employs flash memory and is small enough to hang from a keychain is referred to as a USB flash drive. It is also referred to as a USB stick, USB thumb drive, or pen drive.

Additional InformationHard Disk Drive (HDD):- Your computer's operating system, software, and data files, including documents, images, and music, are all stored on a hard drive, often known as a hard disc or HDD.

Random Access Memory (RAM):- A type of computer memory called random-access memory, which can be read and updated in any sequence, is often used to store operational data and program code.

Blue-Ray disc:- A digital optical disc data storage technology, the Blu-ray Disc (BD), is frequently referred to as just "Blu-ray."

The system software which is significant for managing the computer by acting as an interface between the hardware and the user is known as_______.

((a))
System software
((b))
Utility program
((c))
Translator program
((d))
Operating system
((e))
Kernel

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Operating system

The correct answer is Operating system

Important Points

The operating system is a complex set of programs widely dependent on each other for acting as an interface between the components and the user. It also has to manage the resources and provide the platform for the application software to run.

Key Points

The system software is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer’s hardware and application programs. If we think of the computer system as a layered model, the system software is the interface between the hardware and user applications. The operating system (OS) is the best-known example of system software. The OS manages all the other programs on a computer.
Utility programs, commonly referred to as just "utilities," are software programs that add functionality to your computer or help your computer perform better. These include antivirus, backup, disk repair, file management, security, and networking programs. Utilities can also be applications such as screensavers, font and icon tools, and desktop enhancements. Some utility programs help keep your computer free from unwanted software such as viruses or spyware, while others add functionality that allows you to customize your desktop and user interface.
A program written in a high-level language is called a source code. To convert the source code into machine code, translators are needed. A translator takes a program written in the source language as input and converts it into a program in the target language as output. It also detects and reports the error during translation.

In which generation of computer the high level programming languages like FORTRAN and COBOL are used?

((a))
1st generation
((b))
2nd generation
((c))
3rd generation
((d))
4th generation
((e))
5th generation

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

3rd generation

The correct answer is 3rd generation.

Important Points

There are a total of 5 generations of computers.
The 3rd generation computers are the extension of 2nd generation computers.
The period of the third generation was from 1965-1971.
In third-generation computers, Integrated circuits were used.
An IC has many transistors and resistors attached to a single circuitry.
These generation computers are smaller in size and more reliable than 2nd generation computers.
High-level Languages such as COBOL, FORTRAN, PASCAL, BASIC, ALGOL-68 were used in these generations.
IBM-360 series
Honeywell-6000 series
PDP (Personal Data Processor)
IBM-370/168
TDC-316

Key Points

Main features of 3rd Generation

These computers are smaller in size than 2nd generation.
These computers are faster and generate less heat.
Computers of this generation involve low maintenance.
Computers of this generation support high-level languages.

Operating system, editors, and debuggers comes under?

((a))
Application Software
((b))
Utilities
((c))
System Software
((d))
Firmware
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

System Software

The correct answer is System Software.

Key Points

System software:- System software controls internal computer operations. In either case, the system software area is characterized by heavy interaction with computer hardware; heavy usage by multiple users; a concurrent operation that requires scheduling, resource sharing, and sophisticated process management; complex data structure; and multiple external interfaces.

Additional Information

System software is a collection of programs written to service other programs.
Some system software (e.g., compilers, editors, and file management utilities) processes complex, but determinate, information structures.
System software is programs that manage the resources of the computer system and simplify applications programming.
System software is made to be as fast as possible to provide an effective platform for higher-level software.a
The system has three basic types of software:
Application programs
device drivers
operating systems

Which of the following units is used to measure the speed of the processor?

((a))
Kilobytes (KB)
((b))
Gigabytes (GB)
((c))
Gigahertz (GHz)
((d))
Kilobites (Kb)
((e))
Megabytes (MB)

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Gigahertz (GHz)

The correct answer is Gigahertz (GHz).

Key Points

The speed that a CPU works at is measured in hertz (Hz). Modern processors often run so fast that gigahertz (GHz) is used instead.
One gigahertz is one billion cycles per second.

The term gigabyte refers to __________.

((a))
1024 bytes
((b))
1024 kilobytes
((c))
1024 megabytes
((d))
1024 terabytes
((e))
1024 Gigabytes

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

1024 megabytes

The correct answer is 1024 megabytes.

Gigabyte(GB) refers to 1024 megabytes(MB).

Key Points

Computer memory and disk space are measured in these units,etc.
Tabular Representation of various Memory Size.
| Name | Equal To | | --- | --- | | Bit | 1 Bit | | Nibble | 4 Bits | | Byte | 8 Bits | | Kilobyte | 1024 Bytes | | Megabyte | 1, 024 Kilobytes | | Gigabyte | 1, 024 Megabytes | | Terrabyte | 1, 024 Gigabytes | | Petabyte | 1, 024 Terabytes | | Exabyte | 1, 024 Petabytes | | Zettabyte | 1, 024 Exabytes | | Yottabyte | 1, 024 Zettabytes |

Which of the following options states the correct storage device hierarchy in terms of decreasing access time?

((a))
magnetic tape, magnetic disk, cache, main memory
((b))
magnetic disk, optical disk, main memory, register
((c))
magnetic tape, magnetic disk, main memory, register
((d))
main memory, register, magnetic disk, magnetic tape
((e))
register, main memory, magnetic disk, magnetic tape

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

magnetic tape, magnetic disk, main memory, register

The correct answer is magnetic tape, magnetic disk, main memory, register

Key Points

The hierarchy of storage devices in terms of decreasing access time. Answer covered: register, main memory, magnetic disk, magnetic tape

Additional Information

Registers: These are the smallest and fastest type of memory in a computer. They sit within the CPU (Central Processing Unit) itself and are used for storing the immediate data that the CPU needs to perform computations. The number of registers, which can vary depending on the CPU's architecture, is limited because they are expensive and consume more power.
Cache memory (or CPU Cache): This is a very fast and small amount of memory that is built directly into the CPU or located next to it. It is used to store frequently used data to decrease the time needed to access this data. The cache memory is faster to access than RAM. There are usually multiple levels of cache (L1, L2, L3, etc.), with L1 being the fastest and smallest, and each subsequent level being larger and moderately slower.
Main memory (RAM - Random Access Memory): Main memory is a type of computer memory that can be read and changed in any order, typically used to store working data and machine code. It is much larger than the cache but slower to access. RAM is volatile, which means it loses its content once power is turned off.
Secondary memory (Hard Disk, Solid State Drives): Also known as storage, it is non-volatile, meaning it retains its contents even when the computer is turned off. Magnetic Hard Disk Drives (HDD) and Solid State Drives (SSD) are the most common examples. SSDs are faster but more expensive than HDDs.
Optical Disks: Storage devices which use lasers to read/write data, such as CDs, DVDs, and Blu-Ray discs. They usually have less storage capacity and slower access times than hard drives but are useful for distributing software, music, and movies due to their portability.
Magnetic Tape: These are used primarily for data backup and archiving. They can store larges amounts of data affordably but have very slow access times because they are a sequential access data storage device, meaning data must be read in the order it was originally written which is slower than the direct access provided by disks.

All these types of memory and storage form part of a system's memory hierarchy, which manages access speed, cost, size, and volatility.

________ are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying their identity.

((a))
Phishing trips
((b))
Computer viruses
((c))
Spyware scams
((d))
Viruses
((e))
Phishing scams

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Phishing scams

The correct answer is option 5.

Concept:

Phishing scams are online fraud that targets customers by sending them an e-mail that looks to come from a trusted source, such as an internet service provider, bank, or mortgage firm. It requests personally identifying information from the customer. Phishing scams are attempts by individuals to access confidential data from you by falsifying their identity.

The information is then used by a fraudster to establish new accounts or infiltrate the consumer's current accounts. Consumers may prevent phishing scams by avoiding replying to e-mails or pop-up messages that solicit personal or financial information, among other things.
Phishing is a hacker's effort to deceive you into exposing personal information such as online banking passwords or credit card numbers.

Hence the correct answer is Phishing scams*.*

Which one of the following is a key function of a firewall?

((a))
Monitoring
((b))
Deleting
((c))
Copying
((d))
Moving
((e))
Blocking Unauthorized Access

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Blocking Unauthorized Access

A firewall acts like a security guard for a computer or network.
It checks incoming and outgoing data traffic.
If the traffic is unauthorized or unsafe, the firewall blocks it.
Therefore, the main function of a firewall is blocking unauthorized access.

Which of the following is a small piece of software that uses computer networks and security holes to replicate itself?

((a))
Worm
((b))
Trojan horse
((c))
Application
((d))
Operating System
((e))
Virus

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Worm

The correct answer is Worm.

Key Points

Worm
A worm is a small piece of software that uses computer networks and security holes to replicate itself.
A copy of the worm scans the network for another machine that has a specific security hole.
Worm Uses computer networks and security holes to replicate itself.
Many worms are designed only to spread and do not attempt to change the systems they pass through.
The first-ever computer worm was devised to be anti-virus software.

Additional Information

Trojan horse
A Trojan horse is a type of malicious code or software that looks legitimate but takes control of your computer.
A Trojan is designed to damage, disrupt, steal, or in general, inflict some other harmful action on your data or network.
A Trojan acts as a bona fide application or file to trick you.
Application
An application program is a computer program designed to carry out a specific task other than one relating to the operation of the computer itself, typically to be used by end-users.
Applications may be bundled with the computer and its system software or published separately and may be coded as proprietary, open-source, or projects.
Operating System
An operating system is a software program required to manage and operate a computing device like smartphones, tablets, computers, supercomputers, web servers, cars, network towers, etc.
It is the operating system that eliminates the need to know coding language to interact with computing devices.

Bluetooth technology allows

((a))
sending of files within the range of 10 km
((b))
sending an e-mail
((c))
wireless connectivity between various devices/equipment over short distances
((d))
downloading of movies from Internet
((e))
Audio Streaming

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

wireless connectivity between various devices/equipment over short distances

The correct answer is wireless connectivity between various devices/equipment over short distances.

Key Points

Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows the exchange of data within a short distance.
It uses short-wavelength UHF radio waves.
Bluetooth waves don't travel very far and keep switching frequencies constantly.

Additional Information

The maximum connectivity range of a Bluetooth device is about 30 feet.
Jaap Haartsen invented Bluetooth technology while working in conjunction with Ericsson.

Which of the following is a multiuser and open-source operating system?

((a))
Linux
((b))
Solaris
((c))
Unix
((d))
Windows 7
((e))
FreeBSD

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Linux

The correct answer is Linux.

Key Points

Linux is a multiuser and open-source operating system.
Open Source operating systems are released under a license where the copyright holder allows others to study, change as well as distribute the software to other people.
Linux
It was invented by Linus Torvalds in the year 1991.
It builds communication between the hardware and the software.
It is released under the GNU General Public License (GPL).
It is a very secure operating system, hence malware and viruses cannot attack the operating system.
It is also multiprogramming, and multitasking like other kinds of operating systems and as well as it supports multi-user.
The Linux operating system is free to install in the system.
Solaris
It is a Unix-like operating system developed by Sun Microsystems (later acquired by Oracle).
Solaris is developed under a proprietary development model, and only the source for open-source components of Solaris 11 is available for download from Oracle.
Solaris is known for its scalability, especially on SPARC systems, and for originating many innovative features such as DTrace, ZFS and Time Slider.
Unix
It is a computer operating system developed in the 1960s at the Bell Labs research centre.
It was written in Assembly Language.
UNIX can support a large number of users and processes simultaneously, making it well-suited for use on servers and other high-performance systems.
UNIX was designed to be portable, meaning that it can be easily adapted to run on different hardware platforms. This has made it a popular choice for use on a wide variety of computers, including mainframes, servers, and desktop systems.
Windows 7
It is the Microsoft Windows operating system (OS) released commercially in October 2009 as the successor to Windows Vista.
It is built on the Windows Vista kernel.
Windows 7 also includes a feature called "Windows Touch" that supports touchscreen input and multitouch functionality.
It was replaced in November 2012 by Windows 8.

What is the shortcut key for "Find and Replace" dialog box in MS word?

((a))
Ctrl + H
((b))
Ctrl + Shift + F
((c))
Ctrl + F
((d))
Ctrl + R
((e))
Ctrl + G

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ctrl + H

The correct answer is Ctrl + H.

Use the shortcut Ctrl+H or navigate to Home > Editing > Replace to reach the Find and Replace dialog box.

Important Points

SHORTCUT KEY	ACTION
Ctrl + Shift + F	Open the Font dialog box to change the font.
Ctrl + F	Open the search box in the Navigation task pane.
Ctrl + R	Switch a paragraph between right-aligned and left-aligned.
Ctrl + O	Open a document.
Ctrl + N	Create a new document.
Ctrl + S	Save the current document.
Ctrl + W	Save and Close the document.
Ctrl + Y	Repeat the last Action.

The shortest access time is there in ____ memory.

((a))
Cache memory
((b))
Magnetic bubble memory
((c))
Magnetic core memory
((d))
RAM
((e))
Register Memory

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is : option 5 ( Register Memory)

Key Points

Access time refers to the time taken to read from or write to a memory location. The memory hierarchy is designed such that the fastest memories are closest to the CPU.

Register Memory: Registers are the smallest and fastest memory locations located directly inside the CPU. They have the shortest access time (typically 1 clock cycle) because they are integrated into the CPU and are used to hold data that is being processed immediately.

Cache memory: This is very fast memory (SRAM) that sits between the CPU and main memory (RAM). It has a longer access time than registers but is faster than RAM.

RAM (Random Access Memory): This is the main volatile memory (DRAM) with access times slower than cache and registers.

Magnetic core memory: This is an obsolete type of memory used in early computers. It is non-volatile but has much slower access times compared to modern semiconductor memories.

Magnetic bubble memory: This is a non-volatile memory technology from the past that uses magnetic domains. It is slower than semiconductor memories like RAM and cache.

Why Register Memory has the shortest access time:

Registers are part of the CPU itself and are accessed directly during execution. Their access time is minimal (often within a single CPU clock cycle), making them the fastest memory in the hierarchy.

________ is the other name for concentric circles on the platter of hard disk.

((a))
Platter
((b))
Circles
((c))
Tracks
((d))
Tyre
((e))
Cylinders

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Tracks

The correct answer is Tracks.

Tracks are the other name for concentric circles on the platter of the hard disk. A disk drive track is a circular path on the surface of a disk or diskette on which information is magnetically recorded and from which recorded information is read.
A track is a physical division of data in a disk drive, as used in the Cylinder-Head-Record (CHR) addressing mode of a CKD disk. The concept is concentric, through the physical platters, being a data circle per each cylinder of the whole disk drive.
In other words, the number of tracks on a single surface in the drive exactly equals the number of cylinders of the drive.
A hard disk drive (HDD), hard disk, hard drive or fixed disk is a data storage device that uses magnetic storage to store and retrieve digital information using one or more rigid rapidly rotating disks (platters) coated with magnetic material.
The platters are paired with magnetic heads, usually arranged on a moving actuator arm, which read and write data to the platter surfaces

Where was India's first computer installed and when?

((a))
Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, 1953
((b))
Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi, 1961
((c))
Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta, 1955
((d))
Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi, 1951
((e))
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hyderabad, 1958

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta, 1955

The correct answer is Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta, 1955

Key Points

India’s first computer was installed in 1955 in Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta (now called Kolkata).

History of India’s first computer

The age of computers in India began in 1955 with the installation of HEC-2M
HEC-2M was a computer designed by A.D.Booth in England
The Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) at Calcutta (now Kolkata) was the first institute to have the privilege.
India bought its first computer for the amount of Rs 10 lakh.
It was also recognized as a number-crunching machine with a huge size.

The computer age in India began in 1955 with the installation of HEC-2M (a computer designed by A.D.Booth in England) at the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) at Calcutta (now Kolkata)

Which of the following is an input device used to enter motion data into computers or other electronic devices?

((a))
Monitor
((b))
Trackball
((c))
Joystick
((d))
Plotter
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Trackball

The correct answer is Trackball.

Key Points

A trackball is an input device used to enter motion data into computers or other electronic devices.
Trackballs designed for computers usually serve as mouse replacements and are essentially used to move the cursor on the screen.
An input device forwards information to a computer system for processing. Input devices only allow for input of data to a computer.
Output device reproduces or displays the results of the processing. Output devices only receive the output of data from another device.

Input Devices	Keyboard, Touchpad, Mouse, Digital Camera etc.
Output Devices	Monitor, Printer, Plotter, Speaker, Headphones, Projectors etc.

Device which takes an input from graphical images and pictures and send it to computer?

((a))
Plotter
((b))
Scanner
((c))
Mouse
((d))
Printer
((e))
Keyboard

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Scanner

Scanner takes input from graphical images and pictures by scanning and send it to computer..

With reference to a microprocessor, CISC stands for

((a))
Current Instruction Set Computer
((b))
Copied Instruction Set Computer
((c))
Complex Instruction Set Computer
((d))
Control Instruction Set Computer
((e))
Calculating Instruction Set Computer

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Complex Instruction Set Computer

Explanation:

A microprocessor is an integrated circuit (IC) which incorporates all the core functions of CPU (Central Processing Unit).
RISC stands for reduced instruction set computer.
A reduced instruction set computer (RISC) is a computer instruction set that allows a computer's microprocessor to have fewer cycles per instruction (CPI) than a complex instruction set computer (CISC).

Which feature of Microsoft Excel is used to automate the data entered in a defined sequence?

((a))
Autofill
((b))
Styles
((c))
Alignment
((d))
Intending
((e))
Flash Fill

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Autofill

The correct answer is Autofill.

Key Points

Autofill in spreadsheet applications, such as Microsoft Excel, provides an easy way to fill in empty cells. After entering information in one or two cells, you can drag the fill handle (the small box in the lower-right corner of the current selection) across multiple cells to automatically fill them in with similar data. Autofill can be used for both rows (horizontally) and columns (vertically).
For example, if you enter "1" in cell A1, then drag the fill handle downwards, autofill will automatically fill in the selected cells with the number 1. If you enter "1" in A1 and "2" in A2, then select both A1 and A2, then drag the fill handle downwards, it will increment the values in the cells. A3 will become "3," A4 will become "4," etc. If you enter "2" in A1 and "4" in A2, the values will increment by two. For example, A3 will become "6," A4 will become "8," etc.

Additional Information

Autofill is a software function that automatically enters data in web forms and spreadsheets. It should not be confused with autocomplete or autocorrect, which perform separate functions. Autocomplete finishes words or phrases while typing, and autocorrect automatically fixes spelling mistakes.
While both web browsers and spreadsheet applications support autofill, the functionality is different.

Shortcut key ___ can be used to select entire document?

((a))
Ctrl+A
((b))
Ctrl+C
((c))
Ctrl+D
((d))
Ctrl+E
((e))
Ctrl+S

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Ctrl+A

The correct answer is Ctrl+A

To select the entire document the keyboard shortcut CTRL+A is used.

Additional Information

Word shortcut keys

Ctrl + A -- Select all contents of the page.
Ctrl + B -- Bold highlighted selection.
Ctrl + C -- Copy selected text.
Ctrl + X -- Cut selected text.
Ctrl + N -- Open new/blank document.
Ctrl + O -- Open options.
Ctrl + P -- Open the print window.
Ctrl + F -- Open find box.

By clicking on______ folder we can retrieve the earlier email message that we work on but not yet completed or plan to send at a later time.

((a))
Sent
((b))
Snoozed
((c))
Draft
((d))
Inbox
((e))
Chat

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Draft

The correct answer is Draft.

Key Points

A draft is simply an email message you haven't yet sent.
The Drafts folder is where you keep email messages that you have not yet completed or plan to send at a later time.
It is an email message you close by choosing File→Save or closing the window rather than clicking the Send button.
This act places the message into the Drafts folder.
Drafts in Gmail contains the emails which are composed but not sent.

Additional Information

Inbox by Gmail scans the user's incoming Gmail messages for information.
It gathers email messages related to the same overall topic to an organized bundle with a title describing the bundle's content.
The service highlights key details and important information in messages, such as flight itineraries, event information, and photos and documents.
Sent- The message successfully sent to the recipient.
Once the message has been sent, most e-mail programs move the message to the "Sent" or "Sent Messages" folder.

Which of the following is the keyboard shortcut to save the contents of the currently open Word document in MS Word 2007?

((a))
Alt + S
((b))
Shift + S
((c))
Ctrl + Alt + S
((d))
Ctrl + S
((e))
F12

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Ctrl + S

The correct option is (4)

Ctrl + S

Key Points

The options in the File menu, Save the page, or Save As page, which you can access from the normal or editing view, are included in this table along with the shortcuts for saving and renaming Microsoft 365 files using those options. Use Ctrl+S to rapidly save a file.
If you want to create a new document, change the filename, or file format, or save the file in a different location on your computer, you must save the current document first. use the Ctrl+Shift+S keyboard shortcut.
Save a Copy has taken the position of Word, Excel, and PowerPoint's Save As feature. Do the following in order to save a copy of a file: Choose File > Save a Copy. Choose a location to save the file. After entering a file name, select Save a Copy.

Additional Information

To open the slide show settings in PowerPoint, use Alt+S on the keyboard.
The system information window is opened by pressing Ctrl, Alt, and S.

General Awareness (40 questions)

Ms. Rezwana Choudhary Bannya, a Bangladeshi woman, was awarded the Padma Shri in 2024 for her contributions to which field?

((a))
Literature
((b))
Science & Technology
((c))
Art (Music)
((d))
Social Work
((e))
Sports

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Art (Music)

The correct answer is Art (Music)

In News

Rezwana Choudhary Bannya received the Padma Shri 2024 for her contributions to Bangladeshi classical music.

Key Points

Awarded in the Art category for her excellence in Rabindra Sangeet and Nazrul Geeti.
One of the few Bangladeshi nationals to receive India’s Padma Shri.
Recognized for promoting cultural ties between India and Bangladesh through music.
Padma Awards 2024 included 132 recipients (5 Padma Vibhushan, 17 Padma Bhushan, 110 Padma Shri).

Additional Information

Rezwana Choudhary Bannya:
Renowned exponent of Tagore’s and Kazi Nazrul Islam’s compositions.
Founder of Surer Dhara, a music school in Dhaka.
Padma Awards:
India’s highest civilian honors after Bharat Ratna.
2024 saw 9 posthumous awardees and 30 women recipients.

Skyroot Aerospace successfully test-fired the Stage 2 of the Vikram-1 space launch vehicle named ______ from ISRO’s Propulsion Test Bed at SDSC.

((a))
Agni-250
((b))
Kalam-250
((c))
Vikas-250
((d))
Prithvi-250
((e))
BrahMos-250

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Kalam-250

The correct answer is Kalam-250

In News

Skyroot Aerospace tested Stage 2 of Vikram-1 rocket engine "Kalam-250" at ISRO’s SDSC (March 2024).

Key Points

The Stage 2 engine of Vikram-1 is named "Kalam-250", honoring Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
Test conducted at ISRO’s Propulsion Complex, Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota.
Kalam-250 is a high-thrust cryogenic engine using liquid natural gas (LNG) and liquid oxygen (LoX).
Vikram-1 is India’s first private orbital launch vehicle, capable of carrying 300 kg payloads to LEO.

Additional Information

Skyroot Aerospace:
India’s first private space company to launch a rocket (Vikram-S, November 2022).
Founded in 2018; headquartered in Hyderabad.
Vikram-1:
Three-stage launch vehicle with carbon-fiber structure.
Maiden flight expected in 2024.
ISRO Collaboration:
Skyroot leverages ISRO’s facilities under IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre).

Which state’s traditional products recently received Geographical Indications (GI) certification with support from NABARD? (August 2023)

((a))
Gujarat
((b))
Rajasthan
((c))
Maharashtra
((d))
Punjab
((e))
Madhya Pradesh

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Rajasthan

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

In News

NABARD supported the GI certification for five traditional artworks from Rajasthan including Jodhpur Bandhej, Koftagiri Metal Craft, Nathdwara Pichhwai, Bikaner Usta Kala, and Hand embroidery art of Bikaner.
The project aims to preserve disappearing traditional crafts and empower local communities by increasing their income levels.

Key Points

GI certification was granted for five traditional Rajasthan crafts to protect cultural heritage.
NABARD’s support aims at rural off-farm development through product differentiation and brand building.
The initiative enhances local employment, market access, and safeguards traditional knowledge.
During FY 2022-23, NABARD disbursed Rs. 31.04 crore for developmental interventions in Rajasthan.
The project helps promote regional branding, tourism, and biodiversity conservation.

Additional Information

Geographical Indications (GI) Tag
GI tag protects unique products linked to a specific geographic region.
It helps in legal recognition and prevents unauthorized use.
NABARD Initiatives in Rajasthan
Skill development, watershed and wadi development for tribal communities.
Promotion of farm and off-farm producer organizations.
Traditional Crafts in Rajasthan
Jodhpur Bandhej: Traditional tie and dye textile.
Koftagiri Metal Craft: Metal engraving from Udaipur.
Nathdwara Pichhwai: Religious textile art.
Bikaner Usta Kala: Intricate art using gold and silver.

The Global Risk Index is released by which of the following organizations?

((a))
World Bank
((b))
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
((c))
World Economic Forum (WEF)
((d))
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
((e))
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

World Economic Forum (WEF)

The correct answer is World Economic Forum (WEF)

In News

The Global Risk Report 2024 was released during the 54th WEF Annual Meeting in Davos.

Key Points

The Global Risk Report (including the Risk Index) is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
It assesses economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal, and technological risks over short/long terms.
2024 report highlights misinformation, climate change, and geopolitical conflicts as top risks.
Based on surveys of 1,400+ global experts and leaders.

Additional Information

WEF's 54th Annual Meeting (2024):
Theme: "Rebuilding Trust".
Held in Davos, Switzerland (15–19 January 2024).
Other WEF Reports:
Global Gender Gap Report, Global Competitiveness Report.
Top 2024 Risks:
Climate change, AI-driven misinformation, and economic volatility.

Which of the following statements about the amended PLI Scheme for Automobile and Auto Components is/are correct?

The incentive disbursement will occur in the same financial year as the production.
Companies failing to meet the sales threshold in a year are ineligible for incentives that year but can qualify next year with 10% YoY growth.
The scheme now requires a minimum of 30% domestic value addition for Advanced Automotive Technology (AAT) products.

((a))
1 only
((b))
2 only
((c))
1 and 2 only
((d))
1 and 3 only
((e))
2 and 3 only

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

2 only

The correct answer is 2 only.

In News

MHI extended the PLI-Auto Scheme till FY28 with amendments for flexibility.

Key Points

Statement 2 is correct: Companies missing annual sales thresholds lose incentives for that year but regain eligibility if they achieve 10% YoY growth subsequently.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Incentives are disbursed in the subsequent financial year (e.g., FY24 production → FY25 disbursement).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The scheme mandates 50% (not 30%) domestic value addition for AAT products.

Additional Information

Amended PLI-Auto Scheme:
Duration: FY24–FY28 (extended by 1 year).
Budget: ₹25,938 crore (approved in 2021).
Objective:
Boost manufacturing of Advanced Automotive Technology (AAT) products like EVs and hydrogen fuel cells.
Approval Body:
Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS).

Under PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY), coir weavers are categorized under which group for skill development and financial support?

((a))
Farmers
((b))
Artisans
((c))
Industrial Workers
((d))
Retail Traders
((e))
Service Providers

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Artisans

The correct answer is Artisans

In News

PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY) supports traditional artisans, including coir weavers.

Key Points

Coir weavers are classified as Artisans under PM Vishwakarma Yojana.
PMVY is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of MSME in 2023.
Provides skill training, toolkits, and subsidized loans (up to ₹2 lakh at 5% interest).
Targets 18 traditional crafts, including cobblers, potters, and coir weavers.

Additional Information

Coir Industry:
India produces ~80% of global coir, primarily in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.
PMVY Benefits:
₹15,000 for skill training + ₹500/day stipend during training.
₹1 lakh first-tranche loan with credit guarantee.
Other Covered Artisans:
Blacksmiths, carpenters, goldsmiths, and boat makers.

NABARD partnered with Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) to fast-track digital agri-lending by integrating its e-Kisan Credit Card (e-KCC). This integration will primarily benefit which institutions?

((a))
Private Banks
((b))
Foreign Banks
((c))
District & State Cooperative Banks, RRBs
((d))
Payment Banks
((e))
Small Finance Banks

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

District & State Cooperative Banks, RRBs

The correct answer is District & State Cooperative Banks, RRBs

In News

NABARD and RBIH partnered to digitize agri-lending via e-KCC integration (April 2024).

Key Points

The integration will benefit District & State Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
Aims to streamline credit flow to farmers through paperless e-KCC processing.
Leverages RBIH’s digital infrastructure for real-time loan approval and disbursal.
Part of RBI’s broader agenda to achieve 100% digital KCC coverage by 2025.

Additional Information

e-Kisan Credit Card (e-KCC):
Provides farmers with flexible credit (up to ₹3 lakh at 4% interest under PM-KISAN).
NABARD’s Role:
Refinances cooperative banks and RRBs to enhance rural credit accessibility.
RBI Innovation Hub (RBIH):
Promotes fintech solutions for financial inclusion (e.g., UPI for rural areas).

According to the World Silver Survey 2024 conducted by The Silver Institute (USA), which company has become the third-largest silver producer globally?

((a))
Fresnillo plc
((b))
KGHM Polska Miedź
((c))
Hindustan Zinc
((d))
Polymetal International
((e))
Pan American Silver

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Hindustan Zinc

The correct answer is Hindustan Zinc

In News

World Silver Survey 2024 ranked Hindustan Zinc as the third-largest silver producer globally.

Key Points

Hindustan Zinc became the third-largest silver producer globally as per the World Silver Survey 2024.
The survey is published annually by The Silver Institute, USA.
Hindustan Zinc produced ~746 metric tonnes of silver in 2023.
The company is a subsidiary of Vedanta Resources and India's largest integrated zinc producer.

Additional Information

Top Global Silver Producers (2024):
1st: Fresnillo plc (Mexico)
2nd: KGHM Polska Miedź (Poland)
Hindustan Zinc:
Headquartered in Udaipur, Rajasthan.
Operates the world's largest zinc mine (Rampura Agucha).
India's Silver Market:
India is the world's sixth-largest silver producer (2023).

Where was the 2024 Badminton Asia Team Championships held?

((a))
Jakarta, Indonesia
((b))
New Delhi, India
((c))
Shah Alam, Malaysia
((d))
Bangkok, Thailand
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Shah Alam, Malaysia

The correct answer is Shah Alam, Malaysia.

In News

The 2024 Badminton Asia Team Championships were held from 13 to 18 February 2024 at the Setia City Convention Centre in Shah Alam, Selangor, Malaysia.

Key Points

The tournament was the fifth edition of the Badminton Asia Team Championships.
It was held at the Setia City Convention Centre, Shah Alam, Selangor, Malaysia.
Organised by Badminton Asia and the Badminton Association of Malaysia.
Sanctioned by the Badminton World Federation (BWF).

Additional Information

The championships acted as qualifiers for the 2024 Thomas & Uber Cup Finals to be held in Chengdu, China.
Four semi-finalist teams from both men's and women's categories secured qualification to the Finals.
The tournament also contributed ranking points for the Race to Paris 2024 Olympic qualification.
India won its first-ever women’s team title in the event.
Malaysia and Indonesia were defending champions in the men's and women's categories respectively.

Consider the following statements regarding Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM):

DAY-NRLM is a restructured version of the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY).
It follows a top-down approach where the central government decides the poverty alleviation strategy for all states.
The mission aims to reach 7 crore rural poor households across 6000 blocks and 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

((a))
1 only
((b))
2 only
((c))
1 and 2 only
((d))
1 and 3 only
((e))
1,2 and 3

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1 and 3 only

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only

In News

Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) is the flagship program under the Ministry of Rural Development aimed at poverty reduction through institutional support to the poor, especially women.

Key Points

DAY-NRLM was renamed from the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) on March 29, 2016.
It is a restructured version of Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY).
The program follows a demand-driven approach, allowing states to formulate their own action plans.
It targets coverage of 7 crore rural poor households across 600 districts, 6000 blocks, 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats and 6 lakh villages.

Additional Information

Intensive vs Non-Intensive Blocks
All components of DAY-NRLM are implemented in intensive blocks and districts through SRLMs or NGOs.
Other regions are categorized as non-intensive.
Objective
Build self-managed SHGs and federated institutions.
Enable the poor to access rights, entitlements, public services, and finance.
Core Focus
Empower women and marginalized groups
Strengthen livelihood collectives

In which state is the Medaram Jathara, one of India's largest tribal festivals, celebrated?

((a))
Andhra Pradesh
((b))
Telangana
((c))
Odisha
((d))
Chhattisgarh
((e))
Karnataka

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Telangana

The correct answer is Telangana

In News

Medaram Jathara 2024 was celebrated in Telangana with grand tribal traditions.

Key Points

Medaram Jathara is celebrated in Telangana, primarily by the Koya tribe.
It is held biennially in Medaram village (Mulugu district) to honor tribal goddesses Sammakka and Saralamma.
Recognized as the largest tribal fair in Asia, attracting over 1 crore devotees.
The festival was declared a State Festival in 1996.

Additional Information

Cultural Significance:
Commemorates the legend of a mother-daughter duo (Sammakka-Saralamma) who fought against Kakatiya rulers.
Rituals:
Devotees offer jaggery (equivalent to gold) to the deities.
UNESCO Recognition:
Proposed for inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage list.
Other Tribal Festivals:
Hornbill Festival (Nagaland), Bhagoria Haat (Madhya Pradesh).

The Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (EDLI), 1976 provides insurance cover to members of EPFO. What is the maximum insurance benefit available under this scheme?

((a))
₹2.5 lakh
((b))
5 Lakh
((c))
₹7 lakh
((d))
₹10 lakh
((e))
₹15 lakh

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

₹7 lakh

The correct answer is ₹7 lakh

In News

EPFO celebrated its 71st Foundation Day and announced the Bhavishya Nidhi Awards 2023.

Key Points

The maximum insurance benefit under EDLI scheme is ₹7 lakh (effective from 2021).
EDLI provides life insurance cover to private sector employees who are EPFO members.
The benefit is calculated as 30 times the average monthly wages (capped at ₹7 lakh).
Minimum assured benefit is ₹2.5 lakh, even if the calculated amount is lower.

Additional Information

Eligibility:
Available to all EPF members (employees earning ≤ ₹15,000/month are auto-enrolled).
Premium:
Employers contribute 0.5% of employee's basic wages (max ₹75/month).
Recent Changes:
Increased from ₹6 lakh to ₹7 lakh in 2021 to enhance social security.
Claim Process:
Nominees can claim through EPFO's unified portal with death certificate and Form 5IF.

CDP-SURAKSHA, a digital platform launched in April 2024 for instant subsidy disbursal to farmers, is a government initiative under the Cluster Development Programme to promote which sector?

((a))
Food grains
((b))
Horticulture crops
((c))
Dairy farming
((d))
Poultry farming
((e))
Organic farming

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Horticulture crops

The correct answer is Horticulture crops

In News

CDP-SURAKSHA was launched in April 2024 to streamline subsidy disbursal for horticulture farmers.

Key Points

CDP-SURAKSHA aims to promote horticulture crops under the Cluster Development Programme (CDP).
It enables instant subsidy disbursal to farmers' bank accounts via e-RUPI vouchers.
The platform integrates with National Horticulture Board (NHB) and other agencies for seamless implementation.
Focuses on reducing delays and leakages in subsidy distribution for inputs like seeds, fertilizers, and equipment.

Additional Information

Cluster Development Programme (CDP):
Launched by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare to boost horticulture productivity.
Targets 10,000 clusters across India with financial support for infrastructure and inputs.
e-RUPI Vouchers:
Digital vouchers redeemable without bank accounts, ensuring transparency.
India's Horticulture Sector:
Contributes ~30% to agricultural GDP; top global producer of fruits like mango and banana.

What is the name of Microsoft's latest small language model?

((a))
Agnatox-1-Ultra
((b))
Phi-3-Mini
((c))
Llama-3-Lite
((d))
ChatGPT-Mini
((e))
Cortana

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Phi-3-Mini

The correct answer is Phi-3-Mini.

In News

Microsoft unveiled Phi-3-mini, its latest small language model, expanding options for AI applications.

Key Points

The Phi-3-mini is part of Microsoft's Phi-3 family, described as capable and cost-effective small language models (SLMs).
It has reportedly outperformed models of similar and larger sizes across various benchmarks including language, reasoning, coding, and math.
Language models like Phi-3-mini are essential for AI applications like ChatGPT, Claude, and Gemini, solving language problems.
Large Language Models (LLMs) have huge training data and parameter counts, defining the model's skill in problem-solving.
Phi-3-mini offers more practical choices for generative AI applications, available on platforms like Microsoft Azure AI Studio and HuggingFace.
It comes in two variants, one with a 4K context-length and another with 128K tokens.
Microsoft claims Phi-3-mini's performance surpasses several models in its category and beyond.
India’s ITC has also utilized Phi-3-mini, showcasing its effectiveness in real-world applications.
This release showcases Microsoft's commitment to advancing AI technology with smaller, more efficient models.

Additional Information

OpenAI: ChatGPT Mini
Meta: Llama-3-Lite.
There is no such thing as Agnatox-1-Ultra is in existance.

IFFCO (Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Ltd.) has expanded globally through strategic acquisitions and joint ventures. In which of the following countries does IFFCO operate?

((a))
Brazil
((b))
Canada
((c))
Australia
((d))
Senegal
((e))
All of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above

In News

IFFCO has expanded its global footprint through strategic partnerships and acquisitions.

Key Points

IFFCO operates in Brazil, Canada, Australia, and Senegal through joint ventures and subsidiaries.
In Canada, IFFCO owns a majority stake in Canada's Farmers Fertilizer Ltd..
In Australia, IFFCO has a joint venture with Wesfarmers Chemicals.
In Senegal, IFFCO established Indorama Senegal Fertilizer Company.
In Brazil, IFFCO collaborates with local firms for fertilizer distribution.

Additional Information

IFFCO's Global Presence:
Also operates in the UAE, Oman, and Jordan through subsidiaries.
Domestic Operations:
India's largest fertilizer cooperative, headquartered in New Delhi.
Key products: Urea, NPK fertilizers, and organic farming solutions.
Recent Initiatives:
Launched Nano Urea to reduce dependency on conventional urea.

Under the Ministry of MSME's Trade-Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development (TREAD) scheme, what percentage of the total project cost does the government grant as decided by lending institutions?

((a))
20%
((b))
25%
((c))
30%
((d))
35%
((e))
40%

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

30%

The correct answer is 30%

In News

The TREAD scheme provides financial support to women entrepreneurs in MSMEs.

Key Points

The government grants up to 30% of the total project cost under the TREAD scheme.
The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME).
It aims to empower women entrepreneurs through financial assistance and skill development.
The remaining 70% of the project cost is financed by lending institutions.

Additional Information

TREAD Scheme:
Focuses on women entrepreneurs in rural and urban areas.
Provides grants for project cost, skill development, and marketing support.
Eligibility:
Women entrepreneurs, self-help groups (SHGs), and NGOs are eligible.
Other MSME Schemes:
Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE).
Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP).

Which of the following statements about the Public Provident Fund (PPF) is incorrect?

((a))
PPF has a lock-in period of 15 years.
((b))
Partial withdrawals are allowed from the 7th financial year.
((c))
The current interest rate on PPF is 7.1% (as of 2024).
((d))
PPF accounts can be extended indefinitely in blocks of 5 years after maturity.
((e))
NRIs are eligible to open new PPF accounts.

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

NRIs are eligible to open new PPF accounts.

The correct answer is NRIs are eligible to open new PPF accounts.

In News

DEA issued 6 new rules for PPF, Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, and other small savings schemes, effective from 1st October 2024.

Key Points

NRIs are not eligible to open new PPF accounts (existing accounts opened before becoming NRI can continue until maturity).
PPF has a 15-year lock-in period, extendable indefinitely in 5-year blocks.
Partial withdrawals are permitted from the 7th financial year onward.
The current PPF interest rate is 7.1% (Q3 2024), revised quarterly by the government.

Additional Information

New Rules (Effective 1st Oct 2024):
Mandatory Aadhaar linkage for all small savings schemes.
Revised premature closure rules for PPF (allowed only after 5 years under specific conditions).
PPF Features:
Tax benefits under Section 80C; interest and maturity proceeds are tax-free.
Minimum annual deposit: ₹500; maximum: ₹1.5 lakh.
Other Small Savings Schemes:
Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY), NSC, KVP, etc., also covered under the new rules.

In April 2024, Razorpay and Which Payments Bank Introduces UPI Switch?

((a))
Jio Payments Bank
((b))
Airtel Payments Bank
((c))
Fino Payments Bank
((d))
India Post Payments Bank
((e))
NSDL Payments Bank

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Airtel Payments Bank

The correct answer is Airtel Payments Bank.

In News

Razorpay launches UPI switch in partnership with Airtel Payments Bank.

Key Points

Digital payments platform Razorpay launched its own Unified Payments Interface (UPI) infrastructure, or UPI switch, in partnership with Airtel Payments Bank.
The infrastructure is designed to handle up to 10,000 transactions per second, at any given time, and enable five times faster access to UPI innovations for businesses.
The infrastructure must be hosted by a bank for businesses to use it.
Airtel Payments Bank is Razorpay's banking partner for this.
Razorpay's UPI switch solves all these challenges and enhances the experience of businesses, the company claimed.
It also helps resolve disputes seven times faster — within 24 hours against the industry average of seven days — as well as processes refunds instantly compared with the standard of up to three days.

Additional Information

Razorpay
Founded in - 2013
HQ - Bengaluru
CEO - Harshil Mathur
Airtel Payments Bank
Founded in - 2017
HQ - New Delhi
CEO - Anubrata Biswas

The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS), launched in 2016 under the Startup India Action Plan, was approved with a corpus of how much?

((a))
Rs 5,000 crore
((b))
Rs 7,500 crore
((c))
Rs 10,000 crore
((d))
Rs 12,500 crore
((e))
Rs 15,000 crore

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs 10,000 crore

The correct answer is Rs 10,000 crore

In News

Prabhaav SIDBI unveiled a CRISIL study on the impact of the Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) on the startup ecosystem.

Key Points

The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) was launched in 2016 as part of the Startup India Action Plan with a corpus of Rs 10,000 crore.
FFS is managed by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
The fund does not directly invest in startups but provides capital to SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), which in turn invest in startups.
FFS aims to support innovation-driven enterprises and boost the startup ecosystem in India.

Additional Information

Startup India Initiative
Launched on January 16, 2016, to foster innovation and startups in India.
Key components include tax exemptions, simplified compliance, and funding support.
Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs)
SEBI-regulated funds that pool capital from investors to invest in startups, SMEs, and other high-growth sectors.
SIDBI
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the principal financial institution for MSME development in India.

100

Which of the following are sources of funds for Self-Help Groups (SHGs)?

Member savings
Interest income
Funds from federation
Bank loan

((a))
1, 2 and 3 only
((b))
1, 3 and 4 only
((c))
2, 3 and 4 only
((d))
1, 2, 3 and 4
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

1, 2, 3 and 4

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

In News

Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are informal voluntary associations formed by people, typically from similar socio-economic backgrounds, to work together for mutual benefit, particularly in financial matters.

Key Points

Sources of funds for SHGs include:
Member savings
Interest income earned on group loans
Funds from federations or promoting institutions
Bank loans or credit linkages from financial institutions
SHGs play a significant role in financial inclusion, especially in rural and semi-urban areas.

Additional Information

This topic is covered under the Static Banking Awareness section, specifically under the Classification of Indian Banks chapter.
It is also frequently featured in Daily Current Affairs segments.

101

In 2024, Microsoft introduced a new AI model. What is its name?

((a))
GPT-4 Turbo
((b))
Gemini
((c))
Phi-3-mini
((d))
Mistral
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Phi-3-mini

The correct answer is Phi-3-mini.

102

In which Lok Sabha elections did Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) fully replace ballot papers, marking the first time EVMs were used across all parliamentary constituencies in India?

((a))
1996
((b))
1999
((c))
2014
((d))
2004
((e))
2000

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

2004

The correct answer is 2004

In News

EVMs were fully implemented in the 2004 Lok Sabha elections, replacing ballot papers nationwide.

Key Points

The 2004 Lok Sabha elections were the first to use EVMs across all 543 parliamentary constituencies in India.
EVMs were introduced to enhance voting efficiency, reduce errors, and prevent electoral fraud.
The Election Commission of India (ECI) spearheaded the transition from ballot papers to EVMs.
EVMs were piloted in select constituencies as early as 1982 but achieved nationwide deployment in 2004.

Additional Information

Electronic Voting Machine (EVM)
Developed by the Election Commission of India in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL).
Comprises a Control Unit (managed by polling officers) and a Balloting Unit (used by voters).
Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
Introduced in 2013 to provide a paper trail for EVM votes, enhancing transparency.
First EVM Use
Tested in the 1982 Kerala Assembly elections (by-election in Paravur constituency).

103

What was the net direct tax collection for the Financial Year 2023–24, and how much growth did it register compared to the previous year?

((a))
₹19.58 lakh crore; 17.70% growth
((b))
₹23.37 lakh crore; 18.48% growth
((c))
₹18.23 lakh crore; 7.40% growth
((d))
₹19.45 lakh crore; 0.67% growth
((e))
₹10.44 lakh crore; 25.23% growth

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

₹19.58 lakh crore; 17.70% growth

The correct answer is ₹19.58 lakh crore; 17.70% growth

In News

The provisional figures for Direct Tax collections for FY 2023–24 have been released.
The net direct tax collections stood at ₹19.58 lakh crore, up from ₹16.64 lakh crore in FY 2022–23.

Key Points

Net Direct Tax Collection: ₹19.58 lakh crore
Growth: 17.70% compared to ₹16.64 lakh crore in FY 2022–23
Gross Collection (before refunds): ₹23.37 lakh crore (18.48% growth)
Refunds: ₹3.79 lakh crore (22.74% higher than previous year)
Budget Estimates (BE): ₹18.23 lakh crore
Revised Estimates (RE): ₹19.45 lakh crore
Net collection exceeded BE by: 7.40%
Net collection exceeded RE by: 0.67%

Additional Information

Corporate Tax (Net): ₹9.11 lakh crore (10.26% growth)
Personal Income Tax (Net, incl. STT): ₹10.44 lakh crore (25.23% growth)
Gross Corporate Tax: ₹11.32 lakh crore
Gross Personal Income Tax (incl. STT): ₹12.01 lakh crore

104

Which of the following are members of the GST Council?

((a))
Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India
((b))
Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance
((c))
President, RBI Governor
((d))
Lok Sabha Speaker, NITI Aayog Vice Chairman
((e))
Chief Election Commissioner, Home Minister

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance

The correct answer is Finance Minister, Union Minister of State for Finance.

In News

The 54th GST Council Meeting was held to discuss major changes in GST rates and compliance measures.

Key Points

The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution.
The Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
It includes the Union Minister of State for Finance as a member.
All state Finance Ministers or any other minister nominated by each state government are also members.

Additional Information

GST Council
Established under Article 279A by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
Recommends GST rates, exemptions, model laws, etc.
Ensures uniformity in tax structure across the country.
Union Finance Minister
Chairs the GST Council.
Currently: Nirmala Sitharaman (as of 2024).
State Representation
Each state nominates a minister to represent them in the Council.
Ensures cooperative federalism in tax governance.
Decision Making
Decisions require a 75% majority of weighted votes.
Central Government has one-third weightage; States together have two-thirds.

105

Which of the following titles are officially awarded by FIDE to chess players?

((a))
World Champion, Senior Master, Elite Player
((b))
FIDE Master, Club Master, Expert
((c))
Grandmaster, International Master, Candidate Master
((d))
Chess Olympiad Winner, Champion Master, Prodigy
((e))
International Grandmaster, FIDE Expert, Zone Champion

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Grandmaster, International Master, Candidate Master

The correct answer is Grandmaster, International Master, Candidate Master.

In News

45th FIDE Chess Olympiad 2024 was held at Budapest, Hungary.

Key Points

FIDE awards international titles to chess players based on their performance and rating thresholds.
The major titles awarded by FIDE include Grandmaster (GM), International Master (IM), and Candidate Master (CM).
These titles are recognized globally and are lifetime achievements once awarded.
The 45th Chess Olympiad is a major international chess tournament featuring national teams from across the world.

Additional Information

Grandmaster (GM)
Highest title awarded by FIDE.
Requires a FIDE rating of 2500+ and GM norms.
International Master (IM)
Second-highest title after GM.
Requires a FIDE rating of 2400+ and IM norms.
Candidate Master (CM)
Entry-level title awarded by FIDE.
Requires a FIDE rating of 2200+.
FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs)
International Chess Federation based in Lausanne, Switzerland.
Founded in 1924 and governs global chess competitions.

106

Consider the following statements about the Jeevan Raksha Padak awards:

Jeevan Raksha Padak is awarded for acts of bravery in saving life under circumstances of grave bodily injury to the rescuer.
The award is presented by the President of India.
It is classified into three categories – Sarvottam, Uttam, and Jeevan Raksha Padak.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

((a))
1 only
((b))
2 only
((c))
1 and 2 only
((d))
1 and 3 only
((e))
1,2 and 3 only

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

1,2 and 3 only

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only

In News

The Jeevan Raksha Padak series of awards are presented annually on the occasion of Republic Day to recognize acts of courage in saving lives.

Key Points

The awards include: Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak, Uttam Jeevan Raksha Padak, and Jeevan Raksha Padak.
They are given for meritorious acts of human nature in saving the life of a person.
Eligible acts include those in the face of drowning, fire, or electrocution.
The awards are presented by the President of India.

Additional Information

A medal, a certificate signed by the President, and a cash award accompany the honor.
Posthumous awards can also be conferred.

107

Nobel prize winner Peter Higgs won the oldest scientific prize for his work on the theory of which of the following?

((a))
Quantum Foam
((b))
String Theory
((c))
God's Particle
((d))
Dark Matter
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

God's Particle

The correct answer is God's Particle.

In News

Peter Higgs, a Nobel Prize-winning physicist, is widely recognized for his theoretical work on the Higgs boson, commonly referred to as the “God Particle.”

Key Points

The Higgs boson is an elementary particle in the Standard Model of particle physics.
Its discovery helps explain how other particles acquire mass.
The nickname “God Particle” was popularized due to its fundamental role in the creation of matter, though the term is not scientifically favored.

Additional Information

The Higgs boson was confirmed experimentally by CERN’s Large Hadron Collider in 2012.
Peter Higgs received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2013 for this groundbreaking work.

108

Which Indian city is also known as the Diamond City?

((a))
Surat
((b))
Patna
((c))
Kanpur
((d))
Kannauj
((e))
Banglore

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Surat

The correct answer is Surat.

In News

Surat is widely known as the "Diamond City of India" due to its flourishing diamond cutting and polishing industry.

Key Points

Over 90% of the world’s diamonds are cut and polished in Surat.
The city plays a significant role in India's diamond export economy.

Additional Information

State: Gujarat
Industry: Diamond cutting, polishing, and textile manufacturing
Recognition: Major global hub for diamond processing

109

Which company was recently (in April 2024) conferred the Outstanding Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) of the Year award at the All India Management Association (AIMA) Managing India Awards ceremony?

((a))
NTPC
((b))
BHEL
((c))
SAIL
((d))
HAL
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

HAL

The correct answer is HAL.

In News

In April 2024, Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) was conferred the Outstanding Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) of the Year award.
The award was presented at the All India Management Association (AIMA) Managing India Awards ceremony.

Key Points

HAL is a prominent aerospace and defense company under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.
The award highlights its excellence in innovation, production, and contribution to national defense.

Additional Information

Event: AIMA Managing India Awards 2024
Category: Outstanding PSU of the Year
Awardee: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

110

IPL 2024 franchise Twenty20 (T20) cricket league is annually held in India, organized by the BCCI. Which of the following team players is correctly matched with their team?

((a))
Virat Kohli – CSK
((b))
Ruturaj Gaikwad – CSK
((c))
Rohit Sharma – RCB
((d))
Shubman Gill – MI
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Ruturaj Gaikwad – CSK

The correct answer is Ruturaj Gaikwad – CSK.

In News

IPL 2024 is the latest edition of the franchise Twenty20 cricket league organized by the BCCI.
Kolkata Knight Riders won the 2024 championship defeating Sunrisers Hyderabad.

Key Points

Ruturaj Gaikwad is correctly matched with Chennai Super Kings (CSK).
He is known for his consistent performance as an opener for CSK.

Additional Information

League: Indian Premier League (IPL) 2024
Organizer: Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)
Winner: Kolkata Knight Riders
Runner-up: Sunrisers Hyderabad

111

Recently in April 2024, IRDAI has changed the age gap for buying health insurance policies, What will be the maximum age limit for new insurance policies?

((a))
60 years
((b))
65 years
((c))
70 years
((d))
75 years
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

65 years

The correct answer is 65 years.

In News

IRDAI has revised the maximum age limit for purchasing new health insurance policies to 65 years effective from April 2024.

Key Points

IRDAI introduced revised health insurance rules in April 2024.
The maximum age limit for new health insurance policy buyers is now 65 years.
This change provides clarity and standardization in health insurance eligibility across providers.
The revision aims to improve access to healthcare for senior citizens and encourage more people to opt for health coverage.

Additional Information

IRDAI
Full Form - Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
Established - 1999
Headquarters - Hyderabad, Telangana
Other Health Insurance Reforms (2024)
Reduced PED waiting period from 4 to 3 years.
Moratorium period reduced from 8 to 5 years.
Customized plans for senior citizens and specific demographics introduced.
Multiple insurers now allowed under benefit-based plans.

112

The World Health Organization (WHO) launched 'SARAH' in 2024. What does the letter ‘S’ in SARAH stand for?

((a))
Safe
((b))
Secure
((c))
Smart
((d))
Sustainable
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Smart

The correct answer is Smart.

In News

In 2024, the World Health Organization (WHO) launched 'SARAH'.
SARAH stands for Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health.
It is a digital health initiative using AI to improve access to health information.

Key Points

'SARAH' is part of WHO’s efforts to integrate technology into global healthcare delivery.
It helps users find trusted health information quickly and accurately.
Uses AI to act as a virtual assistant for health-related queries.

Additional Information

SARAH – Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health
Launched by – World Health Organization (WHO)
Year – 2024
Purpose – To leverage AI for global health education and awareness

113

As the highest law officer in India, which of the following statements about the Attorney General of India (AGI) are correct?

A. The AGI is appointed by the President of India.

B. The AGI must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.

C. The AGI is a member of the Cabinet.

D. The AGI advises the Government of India on legal matters.

((a))
A, B and D only
((b))
A and C
((c))
A,B and C
((d))
A and D
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

A, B and D only

The correct answer is A, B and D only.

In News

This is a static general knowledge question about the constitutional post of the Attorney General of India.

Key Points

The AGI is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 of the Constitution.
To be eligible, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.
The AGI advises the Government of India on legal matters.
The AGI is not a member of the Cabinet and does not have the right to vote in Parliament, though they may be invited to speak in parliamentary proceedings.

Additional Information

First AGI: M.C. Setalvad
Current AGI (as of 2024): R. Venkataramani
Tenure: No fixed term; serves at the pleasure of the President

114

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the "Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index)" as per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

The FI-Index improved to 64.2 in March 2024 from 60.1 in March 2023 due to growth across all sub-indices, particularly in the 'Usage' parameter.
The FI-Index is composed of three broad parameters: ‘Access’ (35%), ‘Usage’ (45%), and ‘Quality’ (20%).
The FI-Index is published annually with a base year to track financial inclusion progress across the country.

((a))
Only 1 and 2 are correct
((b))
Only 2 and 3 are correct
((c))
Only 1 and 3 are correct
((d))
All are correct
((e))
None are correct

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Only 1 and 2 are correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2 are correct.

In News

The "Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index)" improved to 64.2 in March 2024, up from 60.1 in March 2023, mainly due to growth in the 'Usage' parameter.
The FI-Index consists of three broad parameters: ‘Access’ (35%), ‘Usage’ (45%), and ‘Quality’ (20%).

Key Points

Statement 3 is incorrect because the FI-Index is constructed without a base year, making it a comprehensive tool for capturing financial inclusion progress across various sectors without historical comparison.
The FI-Index is published annually in July and captures data across banking, investments, insurance, postal, and pension sectors.

Additional Information

FI-Index: An index developed by the Reserve Bank of India to track financial inclusion across India, ranging from 0 (complete exclusion) to 100 (full inclusion).
Usage Parameter: A significant component of the index, with a 45% weightage, indicating how actively financial services are being used.

115

In April 2024, IREDA was granted Navratna status, allowing it to invest up to __________ without prior approval from the Government of India.

((a))
Rs. 500 crores
((b))
Rs. 750 crores
((c))
Rs. 1000 crores
((d))
Rs. 1200 crores
((e))
Rs. 1500 crores

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs. 1000 crores

The correct answer is Rs. 1000 crores.

In News

In April 2024, the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) was granted Navratna status.
This status enables IREDA to invest up to Rs. 1000 crores without seeking prior approval from the Government of India.

Key Points

IREDA was conferred with Navratna status in April 2024.
This enhances its financial autonomy and operational efficiency.
With Navratna status, IREDA joins a select group of central public sector enterprises (CPSEs).

Additional Information

IREDA
Full Form – Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
Established – 1987
Ministry – Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Navratna Status
Granted to CPSEs with financial and operational autonomy.
Allows higher investment thresholds and decision-making freedom.

116

What is the interest rate offered by SBI’s ‘Amrit Vrishti’ scheme for senior citizens?

((a))
7.10%
((b))
7.25%
((c))
7.50%
((d))
7.75%
((e))
8.00%

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

7.75%

The correct answer is 7.75%.

In News

The State Bank of India (SBI) has launched the ‘Amrit Vrishti’ scheme offering 7.25% interest on deposits for 444 days, with an additional 0.50% interest rate for senior citizens.

Key Points

The ‘Amrit Vrishti’ scheme offers a 7.25% interest rate for a term of 444 days.
Senior citizens receive an additional 0.50% interest, making the total rate 7.75% per annum.
The scheme is available for investment until March 31, 2025, for domestic retail term deposits, including NRI rupee term deposits.
SBI's previous scheme, ‘Amrit Kalash’, had a 400-day tenor and offered 7.10% interest.

Additional Information

Amrit Vrishti Scheme
A special fixed deposit scheme by SBI offering 7.25% interest on deposits for 444 days.
Senior Citizen Benefit
Senior citizens enjoy an additional benefit under this scheme, typically receiving an extra interest rate of 0.50% above the regular rate, which would make the total interest for them around 7.75% for the 444-day tenure.

117

India signed a loan package of $500 million with which organization for the ‘Maharashtra Tertiary Care and Medical Education Sector Development Program’?

((a))
World Bank
((b))
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
((c))
Asian Development Bank (ADB)
((d))
New Development Bank (NDB)
((e))
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Asian Development Bank (ADB)

The correct answer is Asian Development Bank (ADB).

In News

India signed a loan package of $500 million with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) for the ‘Maharashtra Tertiary Care and Medical Education Sector Development Program’.

Key Points

The loan agreement was signed by Juhi Mukherjee, Joint Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance; Mio Oka, Country Director of ADB’s India Resident Mission; and Dinesh Waghmare, Principal Secretary, Medical Education and Drugs Department, Government of Maharashtra.
The Program will establish 4 medical colleges attached to tertiary care teaching hospitals in under-served districts of Maharashtra.
The initiative aims to increase bed capacity in government tertiary care hospitals and hire at least 500 new doctors for the new medical colleges.
The Program incorporates climate- and disaster-resilient, gender-responsive, and socially inclusive features.

Additional Information

Asian Development Bank (ADB)
The ADB is a regional development bank established in 1966 to promote social and economic development in Asia.
ADB provides loans, technical assistance, grants, and equity investments to promote social and economic development.

118

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 5th cohort of the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) regulatory sandbox?

The theme of the 5th cohort announced in October 2023 is "neutral."
Five entities, including ‘Connectingdot Consultancy’ and ‘Signzy Technologies,’ were selected for the test phase of the 5th cohort.
The previous cohorts of the RBI sandbox included themes such as ‘retail payments’ and ‘prevention and migration of financial frauds.’

((a))
Only statement 1 is correct.
((b))
Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
((c))
Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
((d))
All statements are correct.
((e))
None of the statements are correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

All statements are correct.

The correct answer is All statements are correct.

In News

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced that five entities were selected for the test phase of the regulatory sandbox’s 5th cohort, which has a "neutral" theme and was announced in October 2023.

Key Points

The selected entities for the 5th cohort include ‘Connectingdot Consultancy’, ‘Epifi Technologies’, ‘Finagg Technologies’, ‘Indian Banks’ Digital Infrastructure Company (IBDIC)’, and ‘Signzy Technologies’.
The previous cohorts of the RBI regulatory sandbox included themes such as ‘retail payments’, ‘cross-border transactions’, ‘MSME lending’, and ‘prevention and migration of financial frauds’.

Additional Information

RBI Regulatory Sandbox
A regulatory sandbox is a controlled environment where new financial products or services can be tested under regulatory supervision.
The RBI introduced its first regulatory sandbox program in 2019 and operates on a thematic cohort basis to address specific areas of financial services.
Themes of Previous Cohorts
The first four themes of the RBI regulatory sandbox were focused on ‘retail payments’, ‘cross-border transactions’, ‘MSME lending’, and ‘prevention and migration of financial frauds’.
These themes target key areas of the financial sector that can benefit from innovation and technology.

119

Who is heading the review committee set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to revise the fee structure for white-label ATMs (WLAs)?

((a))
Shaktikanta Das
((b))
Sunil Mehta
((c))
T Rabi Sankar
((d))
Urjit Patel
((e))
Raghuram Rajan

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Sunil Mehta

The correct answer is Sunil Mehta.

In News

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has set up a review committee led by Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) CEO, Sunil Mehta, to revise the fee structure for white-label ATMs (WLAs).

Key Points

The committee aims to propose a fair and sustainable model for WLAs, assessing current policies and global best practices.
Sunil Mehta, the CEO of the Indian Banks’ Association, is leading the committee, which will report to RBI Deputy Governor T Rabi Sankar.
The ATM market in India is projected to grow at a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 9.2% from 2024 to 2032.
The primary issue under review is the interchange fee, currently Rs 17 for financial transactions and Rs 6 for non-financial transactions, which is the same for both bank-operated and white-label ATMs.

Additional Information

White-Label ATMs (WLAs): ATMs owned and operated by non-bank entities, providing ATM services to customers of different banks under a commercial agreement.
Interchange Fee: The fee paid by the bank whose cardholder uses another bank’s or entity's ATM, which is currently Rs 17 for financial and Rs 6 for non-financial transactions in India.
Indian Banks’ Association (IBA): An industry body representing the banking sector in India, which includes public sector banks, private sector banks, and foreign banks.
Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR): A measure of growth over multiple periods, used here to forecast the growth of India’s ATM market between 2024 and 2032.

120

In July 2024, Which company has been approved by the RBI for conversion from a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) to a Core Investment Company (CIC)?

((a))
Tata Capital
((b))
HDFC Ltd
((c))
Jio Financial Services
((d))
Bajaj Finance
((e))
ICICI Securities

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Jio Financial Services

The correct answer is Jio Financial Services.

In News

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the conversion of Jio Financial Services (JFSL) from a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) to a Core Investment Company (CIC).

Key Points

Jio Financial Services (JFSL) is the financial services arm of Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL), which applied for conversion to a CIC in November 2023.
The RBI directed this conversion after the demerger of JFSL from RIL, marking a significant shift in the company's structure.
JFSL was listed on stock exchanges in August 2023, adding further momentum to its growth.
The conversion signifies that JFSL will now hold most of its assets in group companies’ shares or debt instruments, rather than functioning like a typical NBFC.

Additional Information

Core Investment Company (CIC): CICs are non-deposit-taking NBFCs that primarily invest in group companies, with at least 90% of their net assets held in shares, bonds, or loans of such companies. These firms are subject to RBI regulation if their asset size exceeds Rs 100 crore.
Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC): NBFCs provide financial services like loans and credit, but unlike banks, they cannot accept demand deposits.
Demergers: This refers to the process of splitting a company into two or more entities. In this case, JFSL was demerged from Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL).
Listing on Stock Exchanges: JFSL was listed on stock exchanges in August 2023, allowing its shares to be traded publicly.

English Language (40 questions)

121

Direction: Each sentence is divided into four parts: A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e., No error as your answer.

Each of the players (A) are required to submit (B) their medical certificates (C) before the tournament. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The verb "are" is incorrect. "Each of the players" should be followed by "is" because "each" is singular.
The correct phrase should be "Each of the players is required to submit their medical certificates before the tournament."
Thus, the error is located in part B of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Sentence: "Each of the players is required to submit their medical certificates before the tournament."

Additional Information

A: "Each of the players," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
C: "their medical certificates" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
D: "before the tournament." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part B.

122

Direction: Each sentence is divided into four parts: A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e., No error as your answer.

By the time she will arrive (A) at the airport, (B) the flight would have taken off (C) an hour earlier. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the future tense "will arrive" with "By the time."
In such sentences, the present perfect tense ("has arrived") is used instead of the future tense.
The correct phrase should be "By the time she arrives", ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
Thus, the error is located in part A of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Sentence: "By the time she arrives at the airport, the flight would have taken off an hour earlier."

Additional Information

B: "at the airport," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
C: "the flight would have taken off" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
D: "an hour earlier." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part A.

123

Direction: Each sentence is divided into four parts: A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e., No error as your answer.

Everyone at the meeting (A) must bring their (B) own copy of the document (C) for discussion. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The primary issue in the sentence is the use of "their" when referring to "Everyone."
"Everyone" is a singular pronoun and should be followed by a singular pronoun, not a plural one.
The correct phrase should be "his or her" instead of "their" to maintain grammatical correctness.
Thus, the error is located in part B of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Correct Sentence: "Everyone at the meeting must bring his or her own copy of the document for discussion."

Additional Information

A: "Everyone at the meeting" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
C: "own copy of the document" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
D: "for discussion." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part B.

124

Direction: Each sentence is divided into four parts: A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e., No error as your answer.

If he would have studied harder (A), he would have passed (B) the exam with flying colors (C) easily. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the phrase "If he would have studied harder."
In conditional sentences, the correct form is "If he had studied harder."
This form correctly reflects the past perfect tense required for the condition.
Thus, the error is located in part A of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Sentence: "If he had studied harder, he would have passed the exam with flying colors easily."

Additional Information

B: "he would have passed" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
C: "the exam with flying colors" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
D: "easily." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part A.

125

Direction: Each sentence is divided into four parts: A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e., No error as your answer.

She returned back (A) to her hometown (B) after completing her (C) studies abroad. (D) No error (E)

((a))
A
((b))
B
((c))
C
((d))
D
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The primary issue in the sentence is the redundancy of the word "back" after "returned."
The word "returned" already implies going back, so "back" is unnecessary and redundant.
The correct phrase should be "She returned to her hometown," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
Thus, the error is located in part A of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Sentence: "She returned to her hometown after completing her studies abroad."

Additional Information

B: "to her hometown" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
C: "after completing her" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
D: "studies abroad." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part A.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The National Education Policy, post-pandemic, emphasizes cognitive, emotional, social, and physical development, promoting freedom of subject choice. This (1) calls for a conducive learning environment, highlighting the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in fostering these reforms. A multidisciplinary approach is vital for real-world learning and holistic progress. Educational campuses, with (2) room for student interaction, play a crucial role in shaping behavioural tendencies. Schools serve as primary interactions for children with society and the environment, (3) impacting young minds.

Such (4) education prepares students for life beyond academics, encouraging critical thinking and adaptability. The diverse range of subjects offered reflects a commitment to nurturing well-rounded individuals. Ultimately, these educational reforms aim to create an inclusive and dynamic learning ecosystem that (5) students with the skills necessary for the challenges of an ever-evolving world.

126

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (1)?

((a))
routine
((b))
philosophy
((c))
hypothesis
((d))
foundation
((e))
nostalgia

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

philosophy

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (1):

This (1) calls for a conducive learning environment, highlighting the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in fostering these reforms.

This sentence emphasizes the need for a conducive learning environment and stresses the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in implementing educational reforms.
Blank (1) should be filled with a word related to a guiding principle or belief system that guides the creation of a conducive learning environment, such as "philosophy."
Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
Routine - a sequence of actions regularly followed; a fixed program
For Example:
Her morning routine included jogging in the park and preparing a healthy breakfast.
Philosophy - the study of fundamental nature, knowledge, reality, existence, values, reason, mind, and language
For Example:
Eastern philosophy often emphasizes mindfulness and the interconnectedness of all things.
Hypothesis - a supposition or proposed explanation made based on limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation (परिकल्पना)
For Example:
Before experimenting, the scientist formulated a hypothesis to guide the research.
Foundation - the basis or groundwork of anything (आधार)
For Example:
Education is the foundation for personal and societal development.
Nostalgia - a sentimental longing or wistful affection for the past, typically for a period or place with happy personal associations (विरह)
For Example:
Looking at old photographs filled him with nostalgia for the carefree days of his youth.
So, given the context and the meanings of the words, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (1) is "philosophy." It aligns with the idea that a guiding principle or belief system is needed to create a conducive learning environment, emphasizing the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in fostering educational reforms.
Therefore, the correct answer is "philosophy."
The complete sentence would be: "This philosophy calls for a conducive learning environment, highlighting the importance of infrastructure and spatial planning in fostering these reforms."

127

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (2)?

((a))
juggle
((b))
stagnate
((c))
ample
((d))
scarce
((e))
wiggle

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

ample

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (2):

Educational campuses, with (2) room for student interaction, play a crucial role in shaping behavioural tendencies.

This sentence emphasizes the importance of educational campuses providing sufficient space for student interaction to shape behavioural tendencies positively.
Blank (2) should be filled with a word suggesting an abundance or adequacy of space, like "sufficient" or "ample," to convey the idea of a spacious environment promoting student interaction.
Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
Juggle - manage (multiple tasks or responsibilities) skillfully, especially simultaneously (बहुकार्य करना)
For Example:
She had to juggle her job, family, and personal commitments to maintain a balanced life.
Stagnate - cease to flow or move; become stagnant (स्थिर)
For Example:
Without innovation and new ideas, a business may stagnate and lose its competitive edge.
Ample - enough or more than enough; plentiful (प्रचुर)
For Example:
The buffet offered ample choices for both vegetarians and non-vegetarians.
Scarce - insufficient for the demand; not plentiful (कम)
For Example:
During the drought, water became scarce, causing hardship for the local residents.
Wiggle - move or cause to move up and down or from side to side with small, quick movements
For Example:
The toddler started to wiggle in excitement as soon as she saw the colourful balloons.
So, given the context and the meanings of the words, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (2) is "ample." It aligns with the idea that educational campuses should have sufficient room for student interaction, playing a crucial role in shaping behavioural tendencies positively.
Therefore, the correct answer is "ample."
The complete sentence would be: "Educational campuses, with ample room for student interaction, play a crucial role in shaping behavioural tendencies."

128

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (3)?

((a))
extraneously
((b))
superficially
((c))
remotely
((d))
inadvertently
((e))
profoundly

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

profoundly

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (3):

Schools serve as primary interactions for children with society and the environment, (3) impacting young minds.

This sentence emphasizes the significant impact of schools on children, stating that they are the primary interfaces with society and the environment, profoundly influencing young minds.
Blank (3) should be filled with a word conveying a deep and lasting impact, aligning with the idea that schools greatly influence young minds.
Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
Extraneously - in a manner unrelated or irrelevant to the current topic or situation (बाह्यतः)
For Example:
The speaker's extraneous comments during the presentation distracted the audience from the main points.
Superficially - on the surface or in appearance only; not thoroughly or deeply (सतही)
For Example:
She seemed confident superficially, but she was struggling with self-doubt beneath the surface.
Remotely - to a small degree; slightly; from a distance (दूरस्थ)
For Example:
The possibility of success seemed only remotely achievable given the challenging circumstances.
Inadvertently - without intention; accidentally or unintentionally (अनजाने में)
For Example:
He inadvertently offended his friend by making a thoughtless remark.
Profoundly - to a profound extent; deeply or intensely (गहिराई से)
For Example:
The loss of a loved one can profoundly impact a person's emotional well-being.
So, given the context and the meanings of the words, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (3) is "profoundly." It aligns with the idea that schools serve as primary interactions for children with society and the environment, profoundly impacting young minds. The word "profoundly" emphasizes a deep and lasting influence, which is suitable in this context.
Therefore, the correct answer is "profoundly."
The complete sentence would be: "Schools serve as primary interactions for children with society and the environment, profoundly impacting young minds."

129

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (4)?

((a))
isolated
((b))
specialized
((c))
inconsistent
((d))
holistic
((e))
superficial

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

holistic

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (4):

Such (4) education prepares students for life beyond academics, encouraging critical thinking and adaptability.

This sentence emphasizes that a comprehensive, well-rounded education prepares students for life beyond academics, fostering critical thinking and adaptability.
Blank (4) should be filled with a word that signifies comprehensive, well-rounded education that considers various aspects, not just specific or isolated elements.
Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
Isolated - separated from other things or places; remote or alone (अलग)
For Example:
The small village was isolated from major cities, making transportation and access to services challenging for its residents.
Specialized - requiring or involving detailed and specific knowledge or training (विशेषज्ञ)
For Example:
The surgeon specialized in performing delicate heart surgeries that required precision and expertise.
Inconsistent - not staying the same in behaviour, quality, or nature; lacking uniformity (असंगत)
For Example:
The athlete's inconsistent performance raised concerns among the coaching staff, as he alternated between exceptional and subpar games.
Holistic - characterized by the consideration of the whole rather than analysis or treatment of separate parts (पूर्णतावादी)
For Example:
Holistic medicine focuses on treating the entire person, considering the physical, mental, and emotional aspects of well-being.
Superficial - existing or occurring at or on the surface; not deep or profound (सतही)
For Example:
The critic argued that the movie's plot was superficial, lacking depth and meaningful character development.
So, given the context and the meanings of the words, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (4) is "holistic." It aligns with the idea that a comprehensive, well-rounded education prepares students for life beyond academics, fostering critical thinking and adaptability.
Therefore, the correct answer is "holistic."
The complete sentence would be: "Such holistic education prepares students for life beyond academics, encouraging critical thinking and adaptability."

130

Which of the following is the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (5)?

((a))
restricts
((b))
equips
((c))
hinders
((d))
confines
((e))
impedes

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

equips

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context of the sentence containing the blank labelled as (5):

Ultimately, these educational reforms aim to create an inclusive and dynamic learning ecosystem that (5) students with the skills necessary for the challenges of an ever-evolving world.

This sentence expresses the goal of educational reforms to establish an inclusive learning environment that empowers students with skills for an ever-changing world.
Blank (5) requires a word that conveys the idea of providing or supplying, aligning with the theme of empowering students in the sentence.
Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
Restrict - to limit or control something, typically to prevent it from going beyond certain boundaries (प्रतिबंधित)
For Example:
The new policies aim to restrict unauthorized access to sensitive information.
Equip - to provide with necessary tools, equipment, or resources for a particular purpose (सुसज्जित करना)
For Example:
The government plans to equip schools with modern technology to enhance the learning experience.
Hinder - to create obstacles or difficulties that slow down or impede progress (रोकना)
For Example:
Heavy traffic can hinder the timely arrival of emergency services.
Confine - to keep within certain limits or boundaries; to restrict the movement or freedom of someone or something (सीमित करना)
For Example:
The quarantine measures were implemented to confine the spread of the contagious disease.
Impede - to obstruct or interfere with the progress, movement, or development of something (रोकना)
For Example:
The construction work was temporarily impeded by adverse weather conditions.
So, given the context and the meanings of the words, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank labelled as (5) is "equips." It aligns with the idea that educational reforms aim to provide or supply students with the skills necessary for the challenges of an ever-evolving world.
Therefore, the correct answer is "equips."
The complete sentence would be: "Ultimately, these educational reforms aim to create an inclusive and dynamic learning ecosystem that equips students with the skills necessary for the challenges of an ever-evolving world."

131

Directions: The following question contains three sentences labelled as A, B, and C, each with a highlighted word. Identify the word from the given options that is the antonym of all three highlighted words.

A: After the crisis, the community became more cohesive, coming together as never before.

B: The group decided to unify their efforts to achieve a common goal.

C: The announcement aimed to consolidate support from all factions within the party.

((a))
Divide
((b))
Gather
((c))
Integrate
((d))
Amalgamate
((e))
Join

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Divide

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

"Cohesive" refers to something that is united or sticks together firmly. (संबद्ध)
Example: The team was very cohesive, working together smoothly and efficiently.
"Unify" means to make or become united, uniform, or whole. (एकीकृत करना)
Example: The new leader aims to unify the different factions within the party.
"Consolidate" means to combine several things into a single more effective or coherent whole. (सुदृढ़ करना)
Example: The company decided to consolidate its various departments to improve efficiency.
The word "divide" means to separate or cause to separate into parts or groups. (विभाजित करना)
Example: The teacher decided to divide the class into small groups for the project.
Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'cohesive', 'unify', and 'consolidate' is 'divide'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Divide.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Gather (इकट्ठा करना): To collect or accumulate.
Example: She went out to gather flowers for the bouquet.
Integrate (एकीकृत करना): To combine one thing with another to become a whole.
Example: The new policy aims to integrate immigrants into the community.
Amalgamate (मिलाना): To combine or unite to form one organization or structure.
Example: The two companies decided to amalgamate to improve their market position.
Join (शामिल होना): To connect or fasten things together.
Example: He decided to join the local chess club.

132

Directions: The following question contains three sentences labelled as A, B, and C, each with a highlighted word. Identify the word from the given options that is the synonym of all three highlighted words.

A: Winning the tournament was a significant watershed moment in his career.

B: Her retirement marked an important turning point in the company’s history.

C: The new policy became a decisive milestone for governmental reforms.

((a))
Regression
((b))
Eclipse
((c))
Shift
((d))
Obstacle
((e))
Hurdle

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Shift

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

The word "watershed" means a critical turning point in time where important changes occur. (महत्वपूर्ण मोड़)
Example: The invention of the internet was a watershed in the history of communication.
"Turning point" refers to a specific moment when a significant change happens. (टर्निंग पॉइंट)
Example: The discovery of penicillin was a turning point in medical science.
"Milestone" is a significant event or stage in the development of something. (मील का पत्थर)
Example: Graduating from college was a major milestone in her life.
Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'watershed, turning point, and milestone' is 'shift'. (पुनर्स्थापन)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Shift.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Regression (अवनति): The act of going back to a previous place or state.
Example: The patient's condition showed signs of regression after the initial improvement.
Eclipse (ग्रहण): A loss of significance, power, or prominence in relation to another person or thing.
Example: His career experienced an eclipse after the scandal.
Obstacle (बाधा): Something that blocks or hinders progress.
Example: The biggest obstacle to their success was a lack of funding.
Hurdle (अवरोध): A problem or difficulty that must be overcome.
Example: She faced many hurdles on her way to becoming a doctor.

133

A: Jannik Sinner has shown great potential and sufficient mettle to be a generational rival to Alcaraz.

B: To endure the tough training, one must have a strong fiber.

C: Her resilience was evident as she faced the competition with unwavering determination.

((a))
Weakness
((b))
Fragility
((c))
Grit
((d))
Flexibility
((e))
Doubt

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Grit

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

The word "mettle" means the ability to cope well with difficulties or to face a demanding situation in a spirited and resilient way. (हिम्मत)
Example: The soldiers showed their mettle in the face of adversity.
"Fiber" refers to the strength of character or moral qualities that enable a person to face adversity. (साहस)
Example: It takes a lot of fiber to stand up for what you believe in.
"Resilience" is the capacity to recover quickly from difficulties; toughness. (लचीलापन)
Example: Her resilience was remarkable after facing numerous challenges.
Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'mettle', 'fiber', and 'resilience' is 'grit'. (साहस)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Grit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Weakness (कमजोरी): The state or condition of lacking strength.
Example: His weakness in mathematics was evident in his test scores.
Fragility (नाजुकता ): The quality of being easily broken or damaged.
Example: The fragility of the glass vase made it difficult to transport.
Flexibility (लचीलापन): The quality of bending easily without breaking.
Example: Yoga can improve your flexibility and strength.
Doubt (संदेह): A feeling of uncertainty or lack of conviction.
Example: She had a moment of doubt before making her final decision.

134

Directions: Given below is a sentence containing an underlined idiom. You have to determine whether the idiom is best suited for the sentence or not. If not, choose the correct idiom from the given options that fits the sentence most appropriately.

Despite his remarkable achievements, he always carries a monkey on his back, harboring a constant sense of insecurity and a need to prove himself to others.

((a))
Carries a skeleton in his closet
((b))
Wears his heart on his sleeve
((c))
Carries a chip on his shoulder
((d))
Has his head in the clouds
((e))
No change is required

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Carries a chip on his shoulder

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's understand the meaning of all the given idioms -
Carry a monkey on one's back - to have a burdensome or persistent problem or responsibility.
For Example -
Despite his success, he still carries a monkey on his back in the form of a troubled past.
Carry a skeleton in one's closet - to have a secret or shameful past that one does not want others to know about
For Example -
Despite his polished image, the famous politician carries a skeleton in his closet, a scandalous affair from his early years.
Wear one's heart on their sleeve - openly displaying or expressing one's emotions or feelings.
For Example -
Sarah always wears her heart on her sleeve, making it easy to know how she truly feels.
Carry a chip on one's shoulder - to be easily provoked or to harbor a grudge.
For Example -
Despite his success, Mark always carries a chip on his shoulder, constantly seeking validation from others.
Have one's head in the clouds - to be impractical or unaware of the reality
For Example -
Despite his intelligence, he often has his head in the clouds when it comes to practical matters.
Therefore, after looking at the meaning of all the given idioms, we can conclude that in the given context, the idiom 'carry a chip on his shoulder' aligns more accurately with the individual's feelings and need for validation.
The correct sentence would be, 'Despite his remarkable achievements, he always carries a chip on his shoulder, harboring a constant sense of insecurity and a need to prove himself to others.'

135

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Antique

A. The antique vase in the museum dates back to the 18th century.

B. She bought an antique car at the auction and plans to restore it.

C. He wore an antique jacket to the party, which was a gift from his uncle.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Both A & B
((c))
Only C
((d))
All A, B & C
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

All A, B & C

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the word given in the question:
Antique: a collectible object such as a piece of furniture or work of art that has a high value because of its considerable age. (पुराना, प्राचीन वस्तु)
Now, let's examine the given sentences:
Sentence A: The antique vase in the museum dates back to the 18th century.
This sentence correctly uses the word "antique" to describe a vase that is old and valuable, dating back to the 18th century.
Sentence B: She bought an antique car at the auction and plans to restore it.
This sentence also correctly uses the word "antique" to describe an old car that has considerable age and is valuable.
Sentence C: He wore an antique jacket to the party, which was a gift from his uncle.
This sentence accurately uses the word "antique" to describe an old and valuable jacket that he wore to the party.
So, all three sentences correctly use the word "antique" to illustrate different contexts of valuable old objects.

Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C."

136

Direction: Evaluate the following word, accompanied by three sentences containing it. Determine the sentence(s) that accurately convey the meaning of the given word.

Eccentric

A. His eccentric behaviour often leaves people puzzled and amused.

B. The town's eccentric architecture attracts tourists from around the world.

C. The bakery's eccentric selection of pastries includes flavours like lavender and cardamom.

((a))
Only A
((b))
Both A & B
((c))
Only C
((d))
All A, B & C
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

All A, B & C

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the word given in the question:
Eccentric: unconventional and slightly strange. (अजीब, असामान्य)
Now, let's examine the given sentences:
Sentence A: His eccentric behaviour often leaves people puzzled and amused.
This sentence correctly uses the word "eccentric" to describe unconventional and slightly strange behaviour.
Sentence B: The town's eccentric architecture attracts tourists from around the world.
This sentence also correctly uses the word "eccentric" to describe unconventional and slightly strange architecture.
Sentence C: The bakery's eccentric selection of pastries includes flavours like lavender and cardamom.
This sentence accurately uses the word "eccentric" to describe an unconventional and slightly strange selection of pastry flavours.
So, all three sentences correctly use the word "eccentric" to illustrate different contexts of being unconventional and slightly strange.

Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C."

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

For over fifteen centuries, the Silk Road, a sprawling network of trade routes stretching from the eastern shores of Asia to the Mediterranean Sea, served as the lifeblood of intercultural exchange. More than just a conduit for silk, spices, and precious metals, it facilitated the transmission of ideas, religions, technologies, and even diseases, shaping the destinies of empires and civilizations. From the bustling markets of Chang'an to the vibrant ports of Constantinople, a complex web of merchants, artisans, monks, and adventurers traversed treacherous terrains, forging connections that transcended geographical boundaries. The zenith of the Silk Road era spanned roughly from the Han Dynasty in China (206 BCE - 220 CE) to the Mongol Empire (13th-14th centuries). During this period, powerful empires along the route provided relative stability and security, fostering trade and cultural diffusion. Buddhism, originating in India, spread eastward along these pathways, leaving an indelible mark on East Asian societies. Islamic scholarship and scientific advancements flowed westward, enriching the intellectual landscape of Europe. Chinese inventions like paper and gunpowder gradually made their way across the continents, revolutionizing communication and warfare.

However, the intricate tapestry of the Silk Road began to unravel in the late mediaeval period. Several factors contributed to its gradual decline. The fragmentation of large empires, such as the Mongol Empire, disrupted the established trade networks and increased insecurity. The rise of powerful maritime powers in Europe, particularly Portugal and Spain, led to the exploration of sea routes to Asia. Vasco da Gama's voyage to India in 1498, circumnavigating Africa, offered a faster and potentially cheaper alternative to the arduous overland journey. The focus of global trade gradually shifted from land-based routes to oceanic ones. European powers established direct sea connections with the East, bypassing the traditional intermediaries along the Silk Road. This shift in trade dynamics had profound consequences for the regions and cities that had once thrived along the Silk Road. Inland trading centres lost their prominence, and the economic and political power shifted towards the coastal nations of Europe. While the Silk Road as a dominant global trade artery faded, its legacy endures. The historical interactions fostered along these routes left an indelible mark on the cultural, linguistic, and genetic makeup of the regions they connected. The memory of its vibrant past continues to inspire scholarly inquiry and reminds us of ______________ on the course of human history. The modern "Belt and Road Initiative" launched by China can even be seen as a contemporary echo, albeit on a vastly different scale and nature, of the ancient pathways that once connected East and West.

137

According to the passage, which of the following was a key factor in the decline of the Silk Road during the late mediaeval period?

((a))
The spread of Buddhism across Asia
((b))
The rise of powerful maritime powers in Europe
((c))
The expansion of the Mongol Empire
((d))
The invention of gunpowder
((e))
The establishment of direct land routes to Europe

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The rise of powerful maritime powers in Europe

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The passage discusses the decline of the Silk Road during the late mediaeval period.
Several factors contributed to this decline, as mentioned in the passage.
One of the key factors highlighted is the rise of powerful maritime powers in Europe.
The exploration of sea routes offered a faster and cheaper alternative to the land-based Silk Road.
Therefore, the rise of European maritime powers significantly impacted the Silk Road's prominence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

Additional Information

1) The spread of Buddhism across Asia - This occurred during the Silk Road's active period, not its decline.
3) The expansion of the Mongol Empire - This initially fostered trade along the Silk Road; its fragmentation later contributed to decline.
4) The invention of gunpowder - While transmitted via the Silk Road, it wasn't a primary cause of its decline.
5) The establishment of direct land routes to Europe - The Silk Road itself was a network of land routes. The rise of sea routes was the key factor.

138

The passage states that the zenith of the Silk Road era spanned roughly from:

((a))
The fall of the Roman Empire to the rise of the Mongol Empire
((b))
The Han Dynasty to the Roman Empire
((c))
The Han Dynasty to the Mongol Empire
((d))
The Gupta Empire to the Ming Dynasty
((e))
The rise of the Mongol Empire to the decline of the Ottoman Empire

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The Han Dynasty to the Mongol Empire

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The passage explicitly mentions the time frame for the zenith of the Silk Road era.
It states that this period spanned roughly from the Han Dynasty in China (206 BCE - 220 CE).
The zenith continued up to the Mongol Empire (13th-14th centuries).
Therefore, the period of the Silk Road's peak activity was between the Han Dynasty and the Mongol Empire.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

1) The fall of the Roman Empire to the rise of the Mongol Empire - The Han Dynasty predates the fall of the Western Roman Empire (476 CE).
2) The Han Dynasty to the Roman Empire - While the Roman Empire was a contemporary of the later Han Dynasty and connected to the Silk Road's western end, the zenith extended beyond the Roman Empire's existence as a unified entity.
4) The Gupta Empire to the Ming Dynasty - The Gupta Empire (roughly 3rd to 6th centuries CE) falls within the Silk Road's zenith, but the starting point is earlier (Han Dynasty), and the end point is earlier than the Ming Dynasty (1368-1644 CE).
5) The rise of the Mongol Empire to the decline of the Ottoman Empire - The rise of the Mongol Empire marks the end of the zenith, not the beginning, and the decline of the Ottoman Empire is much later than the Silk Road's decline as a major artery.

139

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: "The historical interactions fostered along these routes left an indelible mark on the cultural, linguistic, and genetic makeup of the regions they connected. The memory of its vibrant past continues to inspire scholarly inquiry and reminds us of ____________ on the course of human history."

((a))
the tremendous challenges faced
((b))
the profound impact of intercultural exchange
((c))
the devastating effects of disease
((d))
the economic success of global trade
((e))
the technological advances in transportation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

the profound impact of intercultural exchange

The correct answer is 'the profound impact of intercultural exchange'.

Key Points

The blank in the passage asks what the memory of the Silk Road's vibrant past reminds us of regarding human history.
The passage emphasizes the exchange of ideas, religions, technologies, and cultures along the Silk Road.
This exchange had a significant and lasting effect on the regions connected by the routes.
Therefore, the blank should be filled with a phrase that reflects the significant influence of this intercultural exchange.
Options 1, 3, 4, and 5 focus on specific aspects that are mentioned but are not the central theme the passage concludes with regarding its lasting reminder.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "The historical interactions fostered along these routes left an indelible mark on the cultural, linguistic, and genetic makeup of the regions they connected. The memory of its vibrant past continues to inspire scholarly inquiry and reminds us of the profound impact of intercultural exchange on the course of human history."

Additional Information

Option 1: "the tremendous challenges faced" is mentioned in the context of traversing the terrain but isn't the ultimate reminder of its legacy.
Option 3: "the devastating effects of disease" is mentioned as something transmitted but isn't the overarching impact the passage emphasizes as a reminder.
Option 4: "the economic success of global trade" is a part of the Silk Road's history, but the passage highlights the broader cultural and intellectual exchange as its profound impact.
Option 5: "the technological advances in transportation" is relevant to the Silk Road but not the central theme of its lasting impact on human history as summarized at the end.

140

The tone of the passage can best be described as:

((a))
Sarcastic
((b))
Nostalgic and reflective
((c))
Critical and judgmental
((d))
Informative and objective
((e))
Optimistic and hopeful

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Informative and objective

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

The passage discusses the Silk Road, a historical network of trade routes.
It highlights the Silk Road's role in facilitating intercultural exchange, including goods, ideas, religions, and technologies.
The passage also explains the reasons for the Silk Road's decline, such as the fragmentation of empires and the rise of European maritime powers.
Despite its decline as a dominant trade route, the passage emphasizes the Silk Road's lasting legacy on the cultural and historical landscape.
The tone of the passage is informative and objective, presenting historical information without strong emotions or biases.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Correct Answer Explanation: The passage provides a factual account of the Silk Road, its significance, its decline, and its lasting impact. It avoids expressing personal opinions or biases, focusing on presenting historical information in a neutral and informative manner. Therefore, the tone is best described as informative and objective.

Additional Information

1) Sarcastic: The passage does not employ irony or mockery.
2) Nostalgic and reflective: While the passage discusses a historical period, its primary aim is to inform rather than evoke sentimental longing for the past.
3) Critical and judgmental: The passage does not express negative opinions or evaluations of the historical events or entities discussed.
5) Optimistic and hopeful: The passage concludes by mentioning the modern "Belt and Road Initiative" but does not express a particularly optimistic or hopeful tone about it in relation to the Silk Road's past. The overall tone remains focused on presenting historical information.

141

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "treacherous" in the context of the passage?

((a))
Safe
((b))
Dangerous
((c))
Straightforward
((d))
Smooth
((e))
Stable

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Dangerous

The correct answer is: Dangerous.

Key Points

The word "treacherous" means hazardous or full of dangers or risks. (खतरनाक)
Example: The mountain pass was treacherous due to icy conditions.
"Dangerous" means able or likely to cause harm or injury. (खतरनाक)
Example: It is dangerous to walk alone in that part of the city at night.
Hence, we can infer that a word similar in meaning to 'treacherous' is 'dangerous'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dangerous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

Safe (सुरक्षित): Protected from or not exposed to danger or risk; not likely to cause harm.
Example: The children are safe playing in the fenced yard.
Straightforward (सीधा): Uncomplicated and easy to understand or follow.
Example: The instructions for assembling the furniture were straightforward.
Smooth (चिकना): Having an even and regular surface or consistency; not rough, rugged, or bumpy.
Example: The surface of the table was smooth and polished.
Stable (स्थिर): Not likely to change or fail; firmly established.
Example: The chair felt stable when I sat on it.

142

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the options is appropriate, mark (5) i.e. None of these as the answer.

The cinema is not only entertaining but has educational purposes too. It brings the history to us in flesh and blood. It is a powerful tool of instruction, primarily because it teaches while entertaining. The lessons taught are easily engraved on the mind. _______

((a))
Films are, therefore, didactic in nature.
((b))
There lie a number of good values under the tag of 'entertainment'.
((c))
The minute details are therefore easily remembered and it is fun getting to learn new things this way.
((d))
Films on human psychology and physiology have proved most instructive.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The minute details are therefore easily remembered and it is fun getting to learn new things this way.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Since the last sentence in the passage states how the things taught in films are easily remembered by us, option 3 is the best fit here. The details are remembered clearly.
Options 1 and 2 are redundant somehow as the objective of these options is already mentioned in the passage.
Option 4 is irrelevant.

143

Scientifically explained, the air around us is full of waves that we cannot see or hear. When a broadcast is made sound is turned into radio waves which are transmitted in the space. They pass through air and solid objects._______

((a))
Thus air around us is very important.
((b))
Any important event occurring anywhere in the world is broadcast in this manner.
((c))
The radio sets catches these waves and turns them into an exact copy of the sound that was broadcast.
((d))
Broadcasting happens at different radio stations.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The radio sets catches these waves and turns them into an exact copy of the sound that was broadcast.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Since the passage explains the process of sound waves getting transmitted.
The conclusion sentence should be option 3, so the sentence which is mentioning how we get it.
Option 1 is not very appropriate.
Option 2 and 4 are not relevant here.
Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

144

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the options is appropriate, mark (5) i.e. None of these as the answer.

Air pollution means there is no pure air to breathe in and this results in a host of health problems. The body does not get its required supply of oxygen and we hear complaints of people __________

((a))
with pale faces having anaemia.
((b))
feeling sick and unable to work efficiently.
((c))
against deforestation.
((d))
having a check on pollution.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

feeling sick and unable to work efficiently.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The sentence is talking about health problems that are caused by air pollution.
Hence, the complaints of the people can be about their health and inability to work efficiently, which is caused due to the inefficiency of oxygen. Thus option 2 is the correct answer.
Option 1 does not sound apt.
Option 3 is about deforestation which is totally out of context.
Option 4 is also irrelevant since it is not related to health.
Thus option 2 is the correct answer.

145

In the social sphere women have to face numerous problems because the basic attitude towards them remains unchanged. Customs which denigrate the position of women continue to flourish. _______

((a))
The dowry system is one such custom which has pestered girls since ancient times.
((b))
The girl often feels dejected and degraded thereby leading to suicides.
((c))
Women are severely discriminated on property matters.
((d))
Laws have been generated and amended to secure the position of women in society.
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The dowry system is one such custom which has pestered girls since ancient times.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Since the last line of the passage is about customs which hamper the position of women the best line that would follow it is option 1.
Option 1 is talking about one such custom - i.e. dowry system - that was mentioned in the previous sentence.
The rest of the options are not related to the passage or are less apt.
Hence, option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

The meaning of the word denigrate means "to criticize somebody/something in an unfair way; to state that somebody/something is not good and does not have any importance or value"
For example: We were surprised at the way he denigrated his colleague at the meeting.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow accordingly:

Have you ever wondered if it's better to try many new things or to become really good at just one thing? Imagine you want to learn something new, like playing the guitar or kicking a football. There's a simple idea that can help you learn faster and better: practicing one thing 1000 times is often much better than trying 1000 different things just once.

When you practice something repeatedly, like playing the same song on the guitar every day, your fingers remember exactly where to go. Your brain understands the small details. This is called "deep practice." You learn from your mistakes each time, and your body builds "muscle memory." This means your movements become smooth and easy without you even having to think too hard. If you practice a single football kick many times, you'll learn how to make it stronger, more accurate, and with the right spin. You become a master of that one kick.

Now, imagine trying 1000 different things, but only doing each one once. You might touch a guitar, then a drum, then try drawing, then juggling, then coding, all for just a minute each. What happens? You get a tiny idea of many things, but you don't become good at any of them. Your brain doesn't have enough time to remember or correct mistakes. You won't build any deep understanding or skill. This is like trying to learn many languages by just saying "hello" in each one – you can't have a real conversation!

Focusing your practice means you build a strong foundation in one area. When you truly master one skill, you gain confidence. This deep understanding can then help you learn related things more easily in the future. For example, if you become a brilliant guitar player, learning the piano might feel a bit simpler because you understand music better.

So, the next time you want to learn something, think about trying to practice that one thing over and over. It's the best way to move from just knowing a little to becoming truly amazing at something. Quality practice beats quantity of different tries every time.

146

What is the main idea the passage wants you to think about when learning something new?

((a))
Learning many things quickly is best.
((b))
It's better to practice one thing many times than many things once.
((c))
Trying new things is more exciting than repeating old ones.
((d))
You should always learn to play a musical instrument.
((e))
Only smart people can learn many things.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

It's better to practice one thing many times than many things once.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The question asks for the main idea or the central point the passage wants to convey about learning.
The very first paragraph introduces this core idea: "There's a simple idea that can help you learn faster and better: practicing one thing 1000 times is often much better than trying 1000 different things just once."
This idea is then elaborated upon and reinforced throughout the entire passage, comparing "deep practice" with superficial attempts at many things.
Option 2: "It's better to practice one thing many times than many things once." directly and accurately states the main idea presented in the passage.
Let's analyze why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: "Learning many things quickly is best." This contradicts the passage's emphasis on deep, repeated practice for mastery, which takes time for one skill.
Option 3: "Trying new things is more exciting than repeating old ones." The passage focuses on effectiveness and skill acquisition, not the excitement factor of different approaches.
Option 4: "You should always learn to play a musical instrument." Learning guitar is used as an example to illustrate the main idea, not the main idea itself.
Option 5: "Only smart people can learn many things." The passage does not discuss the role of intelligence in learning, but rather the effectiveness of different practice methods.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

147

According to the passage, what is "deep practice" and what does your body build when you do it?

((a))
Deep practice is meditating, and your body builds calmness.
((b))
Deep practice is trying many new things, and your body builds strength.
((c))
Deep practice is practicing something repeatedly, and your body builds muscle memory.
((d))
Deep practice is thinking hard, and your body builds new ideas.
((e))
Deep practice is only for musicians, and it builds good rhythm.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Deep practice is practicing something repeatedly, and your body builds muscle memory.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The question asks for the definition of "deep practice" and what the body builds during it, as stated in the passage.
The second paragraph of the passage explains: "When you practice something repeatedly... This is called 'deep practice.' You learn from your mistakes each time, and your body builds 'muscle memory.'"
Option 3: "Deep practice is practicing something repeatedly, and your body builds muscle memory." directly and accurately reflects this information from the passage.
Let's look at why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: "Deep practice is meditating, and your body builds calmness." The passage describes deep practice in terms of physical or mental skill repetition, not meditation.
Option 2: "Deep practice is trying many new things, and your body builds strength." The passage contrasts deep practice (repeatedly practicing one thing) with trying many things. While strength might be a byproduct, "muscle memory" is specifically mentioned.
Option 4: "Deep practice is thinking hard, and your body builds new ideas." While thinking is involved, the primary focus is on repetition and skill development, leading to muscle memory.
Option 5: "Deep practice is only for musicians, and it builds good rhythm." The passage gives examples like guitar and football, indicating it's not only for musicians, and "muscle memory" is the general benefit mentioned, not just rhythm.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

148

The passage gives an example of trying to learn many languages by just saying "hello" in each one. What is this an example of, and what does it suggest about learning?

((a))
It's an example of effective language learning, suggesting speed is key.
((b))
It's an example of "deep practice," showing how to master many skills.
((c))
It's an example of trying many things superficially, suggesting you won't become good at any.
((d))
It's an example of how easy languages are to learn.
((e))
It suggests that saying "hello" in many languages is the first step to fluency.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

It's an example of trying many things superficially, suggesting you won't become good at any.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The question refers to the example in the third paragraph of the passage: "This is like trying to learn many languages by just saying "hello" in each one – you can't have a real conversation!"
This example is given immediately after discussing the outcome of trying "1000 different things, but only doing each one once." The passage states that in such a scenario, "you get a tiny idea of many things, but you don't become good at any of them. Your brain doesn't have enough time to remember or correct mistakes. You won't build any deep understanding or skill."
Option 3: "It's an example of trying many things superficially, suggesting you won't become good at any." accurately captures both what the example represents (superficial trying) and what it suggests (lack of mastery).
Let's analyze why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: "It's an example of effective language learning, suggesting speed is key." This directly contradicts the passage, which shows this as an ineffective way to learn.
Option 2: "It's an example of 'deep practice,' showing how to master many skills." This is the opposite of what the passage describes. Deep practice involves repetition and mastery of one thing.
Option 4: "It's an example of how easy languages are to learn." The example highlights the difficulty of achieving real competence without proper practice, not the ease.
Option 5: "It suggests that saying "hello" in many languages is the first step to fluency." The passage explicitly states "you can't have a real conversation!", indicating it's not a path to fluency.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

149

How can becoming really good at one skill help you learn other things later on?

((a))
It makes other things seem boring.
((b))
You gain confidence and a deep understanding that can make related learning simpler.
((c))
You will never need to learn anything else once you master one skill.
((d))
It allows you to become a teacher for others.
((e))
It means you don't need to try new things anymore.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

You gain confidence and a deep understanding that can make related learning simpler.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The question asks how mastering one skill can help in learning other things later.
The fourth paragraph of the passage directly addresses this: "Focusing your practice means you build a strong foundation in one area. When you truly master one skill, you gain confidence. This deep understanding can then help you learn related things more easily in the future."
Option 2: "You gain confidence and a deep understanding that can make related learning simpler." directly reflects this explanation from the passage.
Let's look at why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: "It makes other things seem boring." The passage does not suggest this; in fact, it implies that mastery can open doors to more learning.
Option 3: "You will never need to learn anything else once you master one skill." This contradicts the idea that mastering one skill helps you learn related things in the future.
Option 4: "It allows you to become a teacher for others." While a possible outcome of mastery, the passage focuses on the learner's benefit in acquiring new skills, not on teaching.
Option 5: "It means you don't need to try new things anymore." This is incorrect as the passage implies continuous learning, especially of related skills.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

150

What is the overall message about practice that the passage wants to share?

((a))
That all practice is equally good.
((b))
That learning should always be fun and easy.
((c))
That quality practice, focusing on repetition and mastery, is more effective than trying many different things superficially.
((d))
That you should only ever learn one thing in your life.
((e))
That quantity of different tries is more important than quality.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

That quality practice, focusing on repetition and mastery, is more effective than trying many different things superficially.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The question asks for the overall message about practice that the passage conveys.
The entire passage emphasizes the benefit of repeated practice of one thing over trying many things briefly.
The concluding paragraph explicitly states: "Quality practice beats quantity of different tries every time."
Option 3: "That quality practice, focusing on repetition and mastery, is more effective than trying many different things superficially." perfectly summarizes this main message.
Let's look at why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: "That all practice is equally good." This contradicts the passage, which argues for a specific type of effective practice (deep practice).
Option 2: "That learning should always be fun and easy." While learning can be fun, the passage focuses on the method of practice, not solely on fun or ease.
Option 4: "That you should only ever learn one thing in your life." The passage advocates for mastering one thing at a time or deep practice, not limiting oneself to a single skill for life. It even says mastering one skill can help learn related things later.
Option 5: "That quantity of different tries is more important than quality." This is the opposite of the passage's central argument.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

151

In the following sentence, four words have been printed in bold. One of these words might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the sentence context, then mark (5) i.e. ‘No error’ as your answer.

This, unfortunately, is still far short of the pace required to attain the Centre’s target of inoculatying the country’s entire adult population by the end of the year.

((a))
unfortunately
((b))
attain
((c))
inoculatying
((d))
population
((e))
no error

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

inoculatying

The correct answer is 'inoculatying'.

Key Points

The correct spelling is inoculating.
It means to protect a person or animal from a disease by giving him/her/it a mild form of the disease with a needle which is put under the skin (an injection).
Example- Inoculation protects against attack, and greatly modifies the illness when it fails to protect.
Unfortunately- used to say that something is sad, disappointing, or has a bad effect. (दुर्भाग्य से)
Example- Unfortunately, I didn't have my credit card with me, or else I would have bought it.
Attain- to succeed in getting or achieving something, especially after a lot of effort. ((किसी कार्य या वस्‍तु को) करने या पाने में सफल होना, विशेषतः काफ़ी प्रयत्‍न के बाद)
Example- The car can attain a top speed of 200 mph.
Population- the number of people who live in a particular area, city or country. (किसी विशेष क्षेत्र, नगर, देश में रहने वालों की संख्‍या; जनसंख्‍या, आबादी)
Example- India has a population of more than 1 billion.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

152

I'm not really interested in history, but the lecture was quite interesting neverthless.

((a))
interested
((b))
lecture
((c))
quite
((d))
neverthless
((e))
no error

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

neverthless

The correct answer is 'neverthless'.

Key Points

The correct spelling is 'nevertheless'.
It means in spite of that.
It is a conjunction and can be also used as an adverb.
Lecture- a talk that is given to a group of people to teach them about a particular subject, especially as part of a university course.
Quite- not very; to a certain degree; rather.
Interested- wanting to know or hear more about something/somebody; enjoying or liking something/somebody.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

153

It may intensify because the timing of the attack suggests that the objective is to sabotage the India-Pakistan backchannel dialogue, as well as the Delhi-Srinagar thaw.

((a))
intensify
((b))
sabotage
((c))
backchannel
((d))
thaw
((e))
No error

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

No error

The correct answer is 'no error'.

Key Points

Intensify- to become or to make something greater or stronger.
Example- He intensified his training, running 45 miles a week.
Sabotage- to damage or destroy equipment, weapons, or buildings in order to prevent the success of an enemy or competitor.
Example- The rebels had tried to sabotage the oil pipeline.
Backchannel- a secondary or covert route for the passage of information.
Example- Here he encourages this line of development with backchannel utterances.
Thaw- to become or to make something become soft or liquid again after freezing.
Example- It was frozen, but it would soon thaw in this heat.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

154

The State is concsious it has to defeat the politics of terror, irrespective of sources and motivation.

((a))
concsious
((b))
defeat
((c))
irrespective
((d))
motivation
((e))
none of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

concsious

The misspelled word is 'concsious'.

Key Points

The correct spelling is 'conscious'.
Conscious means noticing or realizing that something exists; aware of something.
Example - I wasn't even conscious that I had drunk too much until I started to feel sick.
Its synonyms are - aware, awake, wide awake, alert, responsive, etc.
Its antonyms are - careless, heedless, inattentive, insensible, mindless, etc.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

Defeat- the act of losing or not being successful.
Irrespective- not taking (something) into account; regardless of.
Motivation- enthusiasm for doing something.

155

Unfortunately, scientific reality hasn’t detterred some public figures from acting irresponsibly.

((a))
Unfortunately
((b))
detterred
((c))
figures
((d))
irresponsibly
((e))
none of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

detterred

The correct answer is 'detterred'.

Key Points

The correct spelling is 'deterred' instead of 'detterred'.
Deter means to make somebody decide not to do something, especially by telling him/her that it would have bad results.
Example- Ants can be deterred with cider vinegar.
Its synonyms are- put off, discourage, dissuade, scare off, warn, caution, etc.
Its antonyms are- encouraged, persuaded.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

Unfortunately- used to say that something is sad, disappointing, or has a bad effect.
Figures- an amount (in numbers) or a price.
Irresponsibly- in a way that shows that you are not thinking or worrying enough about the possible results of what you do.

Directions: Given below is a set of six sentences, which when properly sequenced, form a comprehensible paragraph. The fourth sentence is fixed while the rest of the sentences are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that follow.

A. Harry and his new friends then had to face many challenges throughout their first year.

B. They all quickly became friends.

C. Harry received a letter inviting him to attend Hogwarts.

D. On the train to Hogwarts, Harry met Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger.

E. He learned this from Hagrid, who came to take him to Diagon Alley.

F. Harry was surprised to find out he was a wizard.

156

Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
A
((b))
C
((c))
E
((d))
B
((e))
F

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The paragraph begins by introducing Harry's initial step into the magical world with a letter from Hogwarts:
"Harry received a letter inviting him to attend Hogwarts."
Sentence F comes next as it highlights Harry's surprise at discovering his wizard status:
"Harry was surprised to find out he was a wizard."
Sentence E follows as it describes how Harry learned about being a wizard:
"He learned this from Hagrid, who came to take him to Diagon Alley."
Sentence D is fixed as the fourth sentence, detailing Harry's journey to Hogwarts:
"On the train to Hogwarts, Harry met Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger."
Sentence B follows to describe the newfound friendships:
"They all quickly became friends."
Sentence A concludes the sequence by highlighting the challenges Harry and his friends face:
"Harry and his new friends then had to face many challenges throughout their first year."
The correct sequence is CFEDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Harry received a letter inviting him to attend Hogwarts. Harry was surprised to find out he was a wizard. He learned this from Hagrid, who came to take him to Diagon Alley. On the train to Hogwarts, Harry met Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger. They all quickly became friends. Harry and his new friends then had to face many challenges throughout their first year."

157

Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
F
((b))
E
((c))
A
((d))
C
((e))
B

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The paragraph begins by introducing Harry's initial step into the magical world with a letter from Hogwarts:
"Harry received a letter inviting him to attend Hogwarts."
Sentence F comes next as it highlights Harry's surprise at discovering his wizard status:
"Harry was surprised to find out he was a wizard."
Sentence E follows as it describes how Harry learned about being a wizard:
"He learned this from Hagrid, who came to take him to Diagon Alley."
Sentence D is fixed as the fourth sentence, detailing Harry's journey to Hogwarts:
"On the train to Hogwarts, Harry met Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger."
Sentence B follows to describe the newfound friendships:
"They all quickly became friends."
Sentence A concludes the sequence by highlighting the challenges Harry and his friends face:
"Harry and his new friends then had to face many challenges throughout their first year."
The correct sequence is CFEDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

158

Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
E
((b))
A
((c))
C
((d))
F
((e))
B

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

The paragraph begins by introducing Harry's initial step into the magical world with a letter from Hogwarts:
"Harry received a letter inviting him to attend Hogwarts."
Sentence F comes next as it highlights Harry's surprise at discovering his wizard status:
"Harry was surprised to find out he was a wizard."
Sentence E follows as it describes how Harry learned about being a wizard:
"He learned this from Hagrid, who came to take him to Diagon Alley."
Sentence D is fixed as the fourth sentence, detailing Harry's journey to Hogwarts:
"On the train to Hogwarts, Harry met Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger."
Sentence B follows to describe the newfound friendships:
"They all quickly became friends."
Sentence A concludes the sequence by highlighting the challenges Harry and his friends face:
"Harry and his new friends then had to face many challenges throughout their first year."
The correct sequence is CFEDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

159

Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
E
((b))
A
((c))
C
((d))
F
((e))
B

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

The correct answer is Option 5.

Key Points

The paragraph begins by introducing Harry's initial step into the magical world with a letter from Hogwarts:
"Harry received a letter inviting him to attend Hogwarts."
Sentence F comes next as it highlights Harry's surprise at discovering his wizard status:
"Harry was surprised to find out he was a wizard."
Sentence E follows as it describes how Harry learned about being a wizard:
"He learned this from Hagrid, who came to take him to Diagon Alley."
Sentence D is fixed as the fourth sentence, detailing Harry's journey to Hogwarts:
"On the train to Hogwarts, Harry met Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger."
Sentence B follows to describe the newfound friendships:
"They all quickly became friends."
Sentence A concludes the sequence by highlighting the challenges Harry and his friends face:
"Harry and his new friends then had to face many challenges throughout their first year."
The correct sequence is CFEDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

160

Which of the following is the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

((a))
F
((b))
A
((c))
B
((d))
C
((e))
E

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

The paragraph begins by introducing Harry's initial step into the magical world with a letter from Hogwarts:
"Harry received a letter inviting him to attend Hogwarts."
Sentence F comes next as it highlights Harry's surprise at discovering his wizard status:
"Harry was surprised to find out he was a wizard."
Sentence E follows as it describes how Harry learned about being a wizard:
"He learned this from Hagrid, who came to take him to Diagon Alley."
Sentence D is fixed as the fourth sentence, detailing Harry's journey to Hogwarts:
"On the train to Hogwarts, Harry met Ron Weasley and Hermione Granger."
Sentence B follows to describe the newfound friendships:
"They all quickly became friends."
Sentence A concludes the sequence by highlighting the challenges Harry and his friends face:
"Harry and his new friends then had to face many challenges throughout their first year."
The correct sequence is CFEDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

Numerical Ability (40 questions)

161

The ratio of difference between CI and SI at r% for three years and 2 years is 25:8. Find the compound interest for Rs. 3200 2 years at [r + 7.5] % for 2 years?

((a))
1160
((b))
1408
((c))
1250
((d))
1640
((e))
1860

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

1408

Calculation

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years at rate r% on principal P:

CI - SI (2 years) = [P × r2 / 1002]

For 3 years:

CI - SI (3 years) = [P × r2 / 1002] × [(300 + r) / 100]

Take ratio:

[ CI - SI for 3 years]/[CI - SI for 2 years] = 25/8

[(300 + r) / 100] = 25/8

So, 2400 + 8r = 2500

So, ⇒ r = 100 / 8 = 12.5%

Now rate of interest is 12.5 + 7.5 = 20%

Successive CI for 2 years at 20% per annum is 44%

So, required interest amount is 3200 × 44 /100 = 1408

162

Volume of the cylinder is 9240 m³. Radius of the cylinder [r + 4] m and height is 15 m. Find the sum of the volume of the cube and sphere if the side of the cube is 2r - 4 m and the radius of the sphere is r + 11?

((a))
48907
((b))
44504
((c))
46504
((d))
45804
((e))
42904

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

42904

Calculation

Volume of cylinder = 9240 m³

Radius of cylinder = r+4

Height of cylinder = 15 m

Volume of cylinder = πr2h

Or, π(r + 4)2 × 15 = 9240

Or, ⇒ r + 4 = √196 = 14

⇒ r = 14 – 4 =10

Side of cube = 2r – 4 = 2 × 10 – 4 = 16

Volume = s³ =163 = 4096 m³

Radius = r + 11 = 10 + 11 = 21 m

Volume = [4/3] π r³ = [4/3] × [22/7] × 213 = 38808 m³

Total Volume (Cube + Sphere) = 4096 + 38808 = 42904 m³

163

The cost of a cap and sunglass is Rs 140 and Rs 110, respectively. The marked price of the cap and the sunglass is the same, and the discount allowed on the cap and the sunglass is 20% and 30%, respectively. If the overall profit is 20%, then find the marked price of the sunglass?

((a))
240
((b))
200
((c))
250
((d))
350
((e))
320

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

200

Given:

Cost of cap = ₹140

Cost of sunglass = ₹110

Discount on cap = 20%

Discount on sunglass = 30%

Overall profit = 20%

Formula used:

Marked price (M) = Cost price / (1 - Discount%)

Overall profit = (Total selling price - Total cost price) / Total cost price

Calculations:

Let the marked price of both cap and sunglass be M.

Selling price of cap = M × (1 - 0.20) = 0.80M

Selling price of sunglass = M × (1 - 0.30) = 0.70M

Overall profit = 20% ⇒ (Total selling price - Total cost price) / Total cost price = 0.20

⇒ (0.80M + 0.70M - 140 - 110) / (140 + 110) = 0.20

⇒ (1.50M - 250) / 250 = 0.20

⇒ 1.50M - 250 = 50

⇒ 1.50M = 300

⇒ M = 300 / 1.50 = 200

∴ The marked price of the sunglass is ₹200.

Four shops—A, B, C, and D—manufacture and sell items of the same kind. Shop A sold twice as many items as it left unsold. The number of items produced in Shop B is 20 more than Shop A, Shop C produced 33.33% less items as number of items produced by A. Number of unsold items in shop B is 25% more than the same in shop A. Number of sold item in shop C is 2/3^rd of total unsold items of shop A and B together. Number of unsold items in shop D is double of the number of unsold items in shop C. Shop D produced 12.5% more items than number of items produced in shop C. Number of item produced in shop A is 120.

164

Out of the total items produced by Shop A, the ratio of gadget items to plastic items is 5:3. If the number of plastic items sold by Shop A is 12, then find the number of unsold gadget items in Shop A.

((a))
2
((b))
7
((c))
5
((d))
4
((e))
3

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Common Calculation

Shop A produced = 120

Shop A sold = 2× unsold

Let unsold = x ⇒ sold = 2x

So, total = x + 2x = 3x ⇒ 3x = 120 ⇒ x = 40, sold = 80

Shop B:

Produced = A + 20 = 120 + 20 = 140

Unsold in B = 25% more than unsold in A = 40 + 25% of 40 = 40 + 10 = 50

Sold = 140 - 50 = 90

Shop C:

Produced = 33.33% less than A = 120 - (1/3 × 120) = 120 - 40 = 80

Now:

Total unsold in A + B = 40 + 50 = 90

Sold in C = (2/3) × 90 = 60

So, Unsold = 80 - 60 = 20

Shop D:

Unsold = 2 × unsold in C = 2 × 20 = 40

Produced = 12.5% more than produced in C = 80 + 12.5% of 80 = 80 + 10 = 90

Sold = 90 - 40 = 50

Shop	Total number of items produced	Total number of items sold	Total number of items unsold
A	120	80	40
B	140	90	50
C	80	60	20
D	90	50	40

Calculation

In shop A, Gadget : Plastic = 5 : 3 in 120 items

Total parts = 5 + 3 = 8

Gadget items = (5/8) × 120 = 75

Plastic items = (3/8) × 120 = 45

Plastic sold = 12 ⇒ Plastic unsold = 45 - 12 = 33

Total unsold in A = 40

⇒ Gadget unsold = 40 - 33 = 7

165

If the number of items sold by Shop F is [2/3]rd of the total number of items sold by Shop B and C together, Shop F sold 50% of items. Find the number of items produced in F?

((a))
290
((b))
300
((c))
200
((d))
250
((e))
260

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

200

Common Calculation

Shop A produced = 120

Shop A sold = 2× unsold

Let unsold = x ⇒ sold = 2x

So, total = x + 2x = 3x ⇒ 3x = 120 ⇒ x = 40, sold = 80

Shop B:

Produced = A + 20 = 120 + 20 = 140

Unsold in B = 25% more than unsold in A = 40 + 25% of 40 = 40 + 10 = 50

Sold = 140 - 50 = 90

Shop C:

Produced = 33.33% less than A = 120 - (1/3 × 120) = 120 - 40 = 80

Now:

Total unsold in A + B = 40 + 50 = 90

Sold in C = (2/3) × 90 = 60

So, Unsold = 80 - 60 = 20

Shop D:

Unsold = 2 × unsold in C = 2 × 20 = 40

Produced = 12.5% more than produced in C = 80 + 12.5% of 80 = 80 + 10 = 90

Sold = 90 - 40 = 50

Shop	Total number of items produced	Total number of items sold	Total number of items unsold
A	120	80	40
B	140	90	50
C	80	60	20
D	90	50	40

Calculation

Given:

Number of items sold by Shop B = 90 (from the table)

Number of items sold by Shop C = 60 (from the table)

Number of items sold by Shop F = (2/3) × (Total items sold by Shop B and C together)

Shop F sold 50% of the items it produced

Calculations:

Total items sold by Shop B and C together = 90 + 60 = 150

Number of items sold by Shop F = (2/3) × 150 = 100

Since Shop F sold 50% of the items it produced, let the total number of items produced by Shop F be x:

50% of x = 100

⇒ x = 100 × 2 = 200

The total number of items produced in Shop F is 200.

166

The number of unsold items in Shop A is approximately what percentage of the total items produced in Shop B?

((a))
44.44%
((b))
28.57%
((c))
22.5%
((d))
12.5%
((e))
37.5%

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

28.57%

Common Calculation

Shop A produced = 120

Shop A sold = 2× unsold

Let unsold = x ⇒ sold = 2x

So, total = x + 2x = 3x ⇒ 3x = 120 ⇒ x = 40, sold = 80

Shop B:

Produced = A + 20 = 120 + 20 = 140

Unsold in B = 25% more than unsold in A = 40 + 25% of 40 = 40 + 10 = 50

Sold = 140 - 50 = 90

Shop C:

Produced = 33.33% less than A = 120 - (1/3 × 120) = 120 - 40 = 80

Now:

Total unsold in A + B = 40 + 50 = 90

Sold in C = (2/3) × 90 = 60

So, Unsold = 80 - 60 = 20

Shop D:

Unsold = 2 × unsold in C = 2 × 20 = 40

Produced = 12.5% more than produced in C = 80 + 12.5% of 80 = 80 + 10 = 90

Sold = 90 - 40 = 50

Shop	Total number of items produced	Total number of items sold	Total number of items unsold
A	120	80	40
B	140	90	50
C	80	60	20
D	90	50	40

Calculation

Number of items unsold in A is 40

Number of items produced in B is 140

Percentage = (40 / 140) × 100 = 28.57%

167

Let the difference in sold items between Shop A and B be a. The number of items sold by Shop C is 2y, Find the value of a + y?

((a))
120
((b))
40
((c))
60
((d))
85
((e))
90

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Common Calculation

Shop A produced = 120

Shop A sold = 2× unsold

Let unsold = x ⇒ sold = 2x

So, total = x + 2x = 3x ⇒ 3x = 120 ⇒ x = 40, sold = 80

Shop B:

Produced = A + 20 = 120 + 20 = 140

Unsold in B = 25% more than unsold in A = 40 + 25% of 40 = 40 + 10 = 50

Sold = 140 - 50 = 90

Shop C:

Produced = 33.33% less than A = 120 - (1/3 × 120) = 120 - 40 = 80

Now:

Total unsold in A + B = 40 + 50 = 90

Sold in C = (2/3) × 90 = 60

So, Unsold = 80 - 60 = 20

Shop D:

Unsold = 2 × unsold in C = 2 × 20 = 40

Produced = 12.5% more than produced in C = 80 + 12.5% of 80 = 80 + 10 = 90

Sold = 90 - 40 = 50

Shop	Total number of items produced	Total number of items sold	Total number of items unsold
A	120	80	40
B	140	90	50
C	80	60	20
D	90	50	40

Calculation

A sold = 80, B sold = 90

⇒ Difference a = 90 - 80 = 10

C sold = 60

⇒ 60 = 2y ⇒ y = 30

a + y = 10 + 30 = 40

168

Number of items produced in Shop E is 33.33% more than the number produced in Shop D. If the ratio of sold to unsold items in E is 3:1, find the number of some unsold items in D and E.

((a))
70
((b))
75
((c))
65
((d))
55
((e))
80

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Common Calculation

Shop A produced = 120

Shop A sold = 2× unsold

Let unsold = x ⇒ sold = 2x

So, total = x + 2x = 3x ⇒ 3x = 120 ⇒ x = 40, sold = 80

Shop B:

Produced = A + 20 = 120 + 20 = 140

Unsold in B = 25% more than unsold in A = 40 + 25% of 40 = 40 + 10 = 50

Sold = 140 - 50 = 90

Shop C:

Produced = 33.33% less than A = 120 - (1/3 × 120) = 120 - 40 = 80

Now:

Total unsold in A + B = 40 + 50 = 90

Sold in C = (2/3) × 90 = 60

So, Unsold = 80 - 60 = 20

Shop D:

Unsold = 2 × unsold in C = 2 × 20 = 40

Produced = 12.5% more than produced in C = 80 + 12.5% of 80 = 80 + 10 = 90

Sold = 90 - 40 = 50

Shop	Total number of items produced	Total number of items sold	Total number of items unsold
A	120	80	40
B	140	90	50
C	80	60	20
D	90	50	40

Calculation

D produced = 90

⇒ E produced = 90 + 33.33% of 90 = 90 + 30 = 120

Sold : Unsold = 3:1 ⇒ Total = 4 parts

So, Unsold in E = (1/4) × 120 = 30

D unsold = 40

⇒ Total unsold in D and E = 40 + 30 = 70

169

A boat can cover 120 km downstream in 2.5 hours, and the speed of the boat and speed of stream in the ratio 7:5. If the boat can cover d-24 km upstream in 7.5 hours, then find the time taken by the boat to cover d km in still water?

((a))
7
((b))
5
((c))
4
((d))
3.5
((e))
3

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Given:

Downstream distance = 120 km, Time taken = 2.5 hours

Speed ratio of boat and stream = 7:5

Upstream distance = d - 24 km, Time taken = 7.5 hours

Formula used:

Speed downstream = (Speed of boat + Speed of stream)

Speed upstream = (Speed of boat - Speed of stream)

Speed = Distance / Time

Calculations:

Speed downstream = 120 km / 2.5 hours = 48 km/h

Let the speed of the boat = 7x and speed of stream = 5x

⇒ Speed downstream = 7x + 5x = 12x

⇒ 12x = 48

⇒ x = 4

Speed of boat = 7x = 7 × 4 = 28 km/h

Speed of stream = 5x = 5 × 4 = 20 km/h

Now, Speed upstream = Speed of boat - Speed of stream = 28 - 20 = 8 km/h

Distance upstream = d - 24 km, Time taken = 7.5 hours

Speed upstream = (d - 24) / 7.5

⇒ 8 = (d - 24) / 7.5

⇒ 8 × 7.5 = d - 24

⇒ 60 = d - 24

⇒ d = 84 km

Now, the time taken to cover d km in still water is given by:

Time = Distance / Speed of boat

Time = 84 km / 28 km/h = 3 hours

∴ The time taken by the boat to cover d km in still water is 3 hours.

170

P and Q started a business, and the investment of P is Rs 2000 more than that of Q. P investment for 8 months and Q investment for a year. If at the end of the year the total profit is Rs 6300, then find the investment of Q. (Note: The profit share of P is 16x, where x = 15² - 50]

((a))
12500
((b))
16500
((c))
18500
((d))
10500
((e))
10000

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

10000

Calculation

P and Q start a business.

P's investment is ₹2000 more than Q's.

P invests for 8 months, Q for 12 months.

Total profit at the end of the year = ₹6300.

Profit share of P is 16x, where

x=152 – 50 = 225 – 50 = 175

So, P's share = 16 × 175 =₹2800

Total profit = 6300

⇒Q’s share = 6300 – 2800 =3500

Let investment of Q = ₹y

→ Then P’s investment = ₹(y + 2000)

So:

P = (y+2000) ×8

Q = y×12

Profit ratio = P : Q = 2800 : 3500 = 4 : 5

So:

[ (y+2000) × 8 ]/ 12y = 4/5

So, [(5 × 8) (y + 2000)] = 4 × 12y

⇒ 40y + 80000 = 48y

⇒ 80000 = [48y − 40y] = 8y

⇒ y = 80000/8 = 10,000

Investment of Q = 10,000

171

The speed of Train E is 25% greater than that of Train B, while Train F moves 25% faster than Train A. Sum of speed of train A and B is 108 km/hr. If Trains E and F cross each other while traveling in the opposite direction in 96 seconds, and the ratio of their lengths is 3 : 2, what is the length of Train F?

((a))
1260
((b))
1650
((c))
1660
((d))
1850
((e))
1440

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

1440

Calculation

Speed of Train E is 25% greater than Train B

→ Speed of E = 1.25B

Speed of Train F is 25% greater than Train A

→ Speed of F = 1.25A

Sum of speed of Train A and B = 108 km/h

→ A + B =108

Trains E and F cross each other in 96 seconds while moving in opposite directions

Ratio of lengths of E : F = 3 : 2

→ Let lengths be: E = 3x, F = 2x

→ So total distance to cross = 5x

Time = 96 seconds

So, (A + B) =108 ---------Equation (1)

Then:

Speed of E = 1.25b

Speed of F = 1.25a

So relative speed when they cross each other =

[1.25a + 1.25b] = 1.25(a + b) =1.25 × 108 = 135 km/h = [135 × [5/18] = 37.5 m/s

Distance=Speed × Time = 37.5 × 96 = 3600 meters

But distance = E + F = 5x

So, 5x=3600

⇒ x = 3600 / 5 = 720

Train F = 2x = 2 × 720 = 1440 meters

172

Directions: Two quantities A and B are given in the following questions. You have to find the value to both A and B by using your knowledge of mathematics and choose the most suitable relation between the magnitude of A and B from the given options.

Quantity I - In a family, the father's age is 6 years more than the mother’s. The mother is twice as old as the daughter. The daughter is 4 years older than the son. The daughter’s age 5 years from now will be 30 years. What is the average age of the family (father, mother, daughter, and son)?

Quantity II – Person A is 5 years older than B. B is 3 years older than C. C is 30 years old. Person D is 2 years older than A.

What is the average age of persons C and D?

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity II
((b))
Quantity I < Quantity II
((c))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
((e))
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Quantity I > Quantity II

Calculation

Quantity I:

Daughter’s age after 5 years = 30

So, current age = 30 – 5 =25

Son = Daughter − 4 = 25 − 4=21

Mother = 2 × Daughter = 2 × 25 = 50

Father = Mother + 6 = 50 + 6 = 56

Now add all the ages:

Father + Mother + Daughter + Son = 56 + 50 + 25 + 21 = 152

Average age of 4 family members = [152/4] = 38 years

Quantity II:

C = 30

B = C + 3 = 30 + 3 = 33

A = B + 5 = 33 + 5 = 38

D = A + 2 = 38 + 2 = 40

Now average of C and D = [30 + 40] / 2 = 70/2 = 35 year

Quantity I = 38 years

Quantity II = 35 years

Quantity I > Quantity II.

173

Let m be a perfect square less than 50, and n be a perfect cube greater than 50 but less than 100. The difference between m² and n² is 1695. Another number, o, is a perfect square smaller than m and more than 20, but difference between m and o is more than difference between m and n. and p is a two-digit perfect square less than o.

Quantity I: find the value of m + n + 2p=?

Quantity II: Find the value of m + 2n + o=?

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity II
((b))
Quantity I < Quantity II
((c))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity I
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
((e))
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Quantity I < Quantity II

Given:

m is a perfect square less than 50

n is a perfect cube greater than 50 but less than 100

The difference between m² and n² is 1695

Another number, o, is a perfect square smaller than m and more than 20, but the difference between m and o is more than the difference between m and n

p is a two-digit perfect square less than o

Formula used:

Perfect square: m = x²

Perfect cube: n = y³

Difference between squares: a² - b² = (a - b)(a + b)

Calculations:

Let m be a perfect square less than 50, so m can be 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, or 49.

Let n be a perfect cube greater than 50 but less than 100. The perfect cubes between 50 and 100 are 64 and 125. So, n = 64.

We are given that the difference between m² and n² is 1695:

m² - n² = 1695

Using the difference of squares formula:

(m - n)(m + n) = 1695

Substitute n = 64:

(m - 64)(m + 64) = 1695

Let’s try different values for m (perfect squares less than 50) and see which one satisfies this equation.

For m = 49:

(49 - 64)(49 + 64) = (-15)(113) = -1695

This satisfies the equation. So, m = 49 and n = 64.

Next, we need to find the value of o, which is a perfect square smaller than m and more than 20. o must be a perfect square between 20 and 49. The possible values for o are 25 and 36. Since the difference between m and o is more than the difference between m and n, we choose o = 25 because the difference between m and 25 is 24, while the difference between m and n is 15.

Finally, p is a two-digit perfect square less than o. The perfect squares less than 25 are 1, 4, 9, 16. The largest two-digit perfect square less than 25 is 16, so p = 16.

Now, let’s compute the quantities:

Quantity I: m + n + 2p = 49 + 64 + 2 × 16 = 49 + 64 + 32 = 145

Quantity II: m + 2n + o = 49 + 2 × 64 + 25 = 49 + 128 + 25 = 202

Conclusion:

Quantity I = 145

Quantity II = 202

The relation between the magnitudes of Quantity I and Quantity II is that Quantity II is greater than Quantity I.

174

A and B can finish a task jointly in 20 days. B and C together can complete the same task in 40 days, while A and C can complete it in 30 days. Worker D is twice as efficient as C, and worker E has double the efficiency of B.

Quantity I: Find the total time taken by C and E together to complete the work?

Quantity II: Find the total time taken by A and D together to complete the work?

((a))
Quantity I > Quantity II
((b))
Quantity I < Quantity II
((c))
Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
((d))
Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
((e))
Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Quantity I < Quantity II

Given:

A and B together can finish the task in 20 days

B and C together can complete the task in 40 days

A and C together can complete the task in 30 days

Worker D is twice as efficient as C

Worker E has double the efficiency of B

Formula used:

Work done = Efficiency × Time

Efficiency of workers can be represented as the reciprocal of the time taken by them to complete the task alone.

Calculations:

Let the amount of work done by A, B, C, D, and E in one day be denoted by A, B, C, D, and E, respectively.

From the given information:

A + B = 1/20 (because they finish the task in 20 days)
B + C = 1/40 (because they finish the task in 40 days)
A + C = 1/30 (because they finish the task in 30 days)

Now, let's solve for A, B, and C's individual efficiencies (work rates):

From equations (1) and (2), subtract equation (2) from equation (1):

(A + B) - (B + C) = 1/20 - 1/40

⇒ A - C = (2 - 1) / 40

⇒ A - C = 1/40

So, A = C + 1/40.

Now, substitute A = C + 1/40 into equation (3):

(C + 1/40) + C = 1/30

⇒ 2C + 1/40 = 1/30

⇒ 2C = 1/30 - 1/40

To subtract the fractions, find the common denominator:

1/30 - 1/40 = (4 - 3) / 120 = 1/120

⇒ 2C = 1/120

⇒ C = 1/240

Now that we know C's efficiency, we can find the efficiencies of A, B, D, and E:

A = C + 1/40 = 1/240 + 1/40 = 1/240 + 6/240 = 7/240

B = (1/20 - A) = 1/20 - 7/240 = 12/240 - 7/240 = 5/240 = 1/48

D = 2 × C = 2 × 1/240 = 1/120

E = 2 × B = 2 × 1/48 = 1/24

Quantity I: Find the total time taken by C and E together to complete the work:

Efficiency of C + Efficiency of E = 1/240 + 1/24 = 1/240 + 10/240 = 11/240

Time taken by C and E together = 1 / (11/240) = 240/11 ≈ 21.82 days

Quantity II: Find the total time taken by A and D together to complete the work:

Efficiency of A + Efficiency of D = 7/240 + 1/120 = 7/240 + 2/240 = 9/240 = 3/80

Time taken by A and D together = 1 / (3/80) = 80/3 ≈ 26.67 days

Conclusion:

Quantity I = 240/11 ≈ 21.82 days

Quantity II = 80/3 ≈ 26.67 days

The relation between the magnitudes of Quantity I and Quantity II is that Quantity I is less than Quantity II.

The line graph shows the number of copper and bronze items sold in four different shops [A, B, C, and D].

The given table shows the ratio between total number of [ copper + bronze] items sold to number silver items sold.

Shop	Ratio between total number of [ copper + bronze] items sold to number silver items sold.
A	5:4
B	29:12
C	25:18
D	3:2

175

Number of copper, bronze and silver items sold in shop E is 25%, 12.5% and 30% more than the same in shop D. Find the difference between total number of items sold in shop E and C?

((a))
99
((b))
85
((c))
38
((d))
36
((e))
44

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Common Calculation

For shop A,

Number of copper items sold in shop A is 24.

Number of bronze items sold in shop A is 16.

So, total number of copper and bronze items sold in shop A is 24 + 16 = 40.

So, Ratio between total number of [ copper + bronze] items sold to number silver items sold.

So, Number of silver items sold in shop A is 40 × 4 /5 = 32

Similarly, we can calculate others values also, which is given in the table.

Shop	Number of copper items sold	Number of Bronze items sold	Number of Silver items sold
A	24	16	32
B	30	28	24
C	32	18	36
D	36	24	40

Calculation

In Shop D:

Copper = 36

→ Shop E = 36 × 1.25 = 45

Bronze = 24

→ Shop E = 24 × 1.125 = 27

Silver = 40

→ Shop E = 40 × 1.30 = 52

Total in Shop E = 45 + 27 + 52 = 124

Total in Shop C = 32 + 18 + 36 = 86

Difference = 124 – 86 = 38

Answer: 38

176

Number of tin items sold in shop D is 25% more than the number of bronze and silver items sold in same shop. Find the average tin and copper items sold in shop D?

((a))
55
((b))
56
((c))
59
((d))
62
((e))
58

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

Common Calculation

For shop A,

Number of copper items sold in shop A is 24.

Number of bronze items sold in shop A is 16.

So, total number of copper and bronze items sold in shop A is 24 + 16 = 40.

So, Ratio between total number of [ copper + bronze] items sold to number silver items sold.

So, Number of silver items sold in shop A is 40 × 4 /5 = 32

Similarly, we can calculate others values also, which is given in the table.

Shop	Number of copper items sold	Number of Bronze items sold	Number of Silver items sold
A	24	16	32
B	30	28	24
C	32	18	36
D	36	24	40

Calculation

In Shop D:

Bronze = 24, Silver = 40 ⇒ Total = 64

Tin items = 25% more than 64 = 1.25 × 64 = 80

Now, tin = 80, copper = 36

Average = (80 + 36) ÷ 2 = 116 ÷ 2 = 58

Answer: 58

177

Find the difference between number of copper sold in shop B and C together and number of silver items sold in shop B and C together?

((a))
1
((b))
3
((c))
4
((d))
2
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Common Calculation

For shop A,

Number of copper items sold in shop A is 24.

Number of bronze items sold in shop A is 16.

So, total number of copper and bronze items sold in shop A is 24 + 16 = 40.

So, Ratio between total number of [ copper + bronze] items sold to number silver items sold.

So, Number of silver items sold in shop A is 40 × 4 /5 = 32

Similarly, we can calculate others values also, which is given in the table.

Shop	Number of copper items sold	Number of Bronze items sold	Number of Silver items sold
A	24	16	32
B	30	28	24
C	32	18	36
D	36	24	40

Calculation

Copper in B + C = 30 + 32 = 62

Silver in B + C = 24 + 36 = 60

Difference = 62 – 60 = 2

Answer: 2

178

Average selling price of copper items is Rs. 750, average selling price of bronze items is Rs. 550 and average silver items is Rs. 1050 sold in shop B. Find the average (approx) selling price of all the items sold in shop B?

((a))
880
((b))
770
((c))
820
((d))
920
((e))
670

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

770

Common Calculation

For shop A,

Number of copper items sold in shop A is 24.

Number of bronze items sold in shop A is 16.

So, total number of copper and bronze items sold in shop A is 24 + 16 = 40.

So, Ratio between total number of [ copper + bronze] items sold to number silver items sold.

So, Number of silver items sold in shop A is 40 × 4 /5 = 32

Similarly, we can calculate others values also, which is given in the table.

Shop	Number of copper items sold	Number of Bronze items sold	Number of Silver items sold
A	24	16	32
B	30	28	24
C	32	18	36
D	36	24	40

Calculation

In Shop B:

Copper = 30 × 750 = 22,500

Bronze = 28 × 550 = 15,400

Silver = 24 × 1050 = 25,200

Total value = 22,500 + 15,400 + 25,200 = 63,100

Total items = 30 + 28 + 24 = 82

Average selling price = 63100 ÷ 82 = Rs. 769.51 (approx)

Answer: Rs. 770

179

Two types silver items sold in shop A, x and y. Number of x type silver items sold in shop A is 3m + 2 and number of y type silver items sold in shop A is 2n + 6. Sum of m and n is 10. Find the ratio between m and n?

((a))
4:5
((b))
6:7
((c))
7:8
((d))
2:3
((e))
4:7

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

2:3

Common Calculation

For shop A,

Number of copper items sold in shop A is 24.

Number of bronze items sold in shop A is 16.

So, total number of copper and bronze items sold in shop A is 24 + 16 = 40.

So, Ratio between total number of [ copper + bronze] items sold to number silver items sold.

So, Number of silver items sold in shop A is 40 × 4 /5 = 32

Similarly, we can calculate others values also, which is given in the table.

Shop	Number of copper items sold	Number of Bronze items sold	Number of Silver items sold
A	24	16	32
B	30	28	24
C	32	18	36
D	36	24	40

Calculation

In Shop A:

Total silver items = 32

Number of x-type silver items = 3m + 2

Number of y-type silver items = 2n + 6

So,

3m + 2 + 2n + 6 = 32

⇒ 3m + 2n = 24

Also, m + n = 10,

So, m = 4 and n = 6

⇒ Required ratio m : n

Answer: m : n = 4 : 6 = 2 : 3

180

A 60-litre solution of milk and water is mixed in the ratio 3:1. Then, 8 litres of this mixture is removed. After that, p litres of milk and q litres of water are added. The resulting mixture has milk and water in a 9:5 ratio. Given that p + q = 11, find the difference between p and q.

((a))
6
((b))
9
((c))
2
((d))
8
((e))
7

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Calculation

Initial mixture (60 litres in 3:1 ratio)

Milk = (3/4) × 60 = 45 litres

Water = (1/4) × 60 = 15 litres

8 litres of mixture removed

Ratio = 3:1 → in 8 litres:

Milk removed = (3/4) × 8 = 6 litres

Water removed = (1/4) × 8 = 2 litres

Remaining:

Milk = 45 - 6 = 39 litres

Water = 15 - 2 = 13 litres

Add p litres of milk and q litres of water

Final milk = 39 + p

Final water = 13 + q

New ratio = (39 + p) / (13 + q) = 9 / 5

So, 5(39 + p) = 9(13 + q)

So, 195 + 5p = 117 + 9q

=> 5p - 9q = -78 → [Equation 1]

Also, p + q = 11 → [Equation 2]

From Equation 2: p = 11 - q

Substitute into Equation 1:

5(11 - q) - 9q = -78

So, 55 - 5q - 9q = -78

So, 55 - 14q = -78

=> -14q = -133

=> q = 9.5

=> p = 11 - 9.5 = 1.5

Difference between p and q is 9.5 – 1.5 = 8

181

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

4, 12, 24, 96, 480, 2880, 20160

((a))
12
((b))
96
((c))
480
((d))
2880
((e))
20160

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Considering the given series,

4, 12, 24, 96, 480, 2880, 20160

The logic of above series can be explained as,

4 × 2 ≠ 12 (should be 8)

8 × 3 = 24

24 × 4 = 96

96 × 5 = 480

480 × 6 = 2880

2880 × 7 = 20160

∴ Wrong number is 12

182

In the following number series, only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

23, 30, 56, 118, 243, 458

((a))
243
((b))
56
((c))
118
((d))
30
((e))
458

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

118

The pattern of the given series is:

⇒ 23

⇒ 23 + (2³ – 1) = 30

⇒ 30 + (3³ – 1) = 56

⇒ 56 + (4³ – 1) = 119

⇒ 119 + (5³ – 1) = 243

⇒ 243 + (6³ – 1) = 458

∴ The wrong term is 118.

183

In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that number.

110, 136, 164, 194, 226, 260, 306

((a))
136
((b))
164
((c))
194
((d))
306
((e))
260

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

306

Given:

110, 136, 164, 194, 226, 260, 306

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

10² + 10 = 110

11² + 15 = 136

12² + 20 = 164

13² + 25 = 194

14² + 30 = 226

15² + 35 = 260

16² + 40 = 296 ≠ 306

∴ 306 is wrong and should be replaced by 296

184

Find the Wrong number in the given number series:

50, 25, 15, 6.25, 3.125, 1.5625

((a))
15
((b))
1.5625
((c))
25
((d))
50
((e))
6.25

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Given:

The number series:

50, 25, 15, 6.25, 3.125, 1.5625

Concept Used:

Number series following a fixed pattern.

Calculation;

The given number series follows the pattern:

50 ÷ 2 = 25

25 ÷ 2 = 12.5

12.5 ÷ 2 = 6.25

6.25 ÷ 2 = 3.125

3.125 ÷ 2 = 1.5625

∴ The Wrong Number in the given number series is 15

185

In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.

6, 9, 30, 86, 216, 528, 1248

((a))
30
((b))
86
((c))
216
((d))
1248
((e))
528

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

The series follows the following pattern:

6 × 1.5 = 9

12 × 2.5 = 30

24 × 3.5 = 84

48 × 4.5 = 216

96 × 5.5 = 528

192 × 6.5 = 1248

∴ wrong number of the series is 86

The table shows the ratio of number of items manufactured on Monday and Tuesday and Difference between number of items manufactured on Monday and Tuesday in five different companies [A, B, C, D and E].

Company	Ratio of number of items manufactured on Monday and Tuesday	Difference between number of items manufactured on Monday and Tuesday
A	5:2	45
B	7:9	30
C	3:2	25
D	4:5	30
E	6:7	40

186

Number of items manufactured on Wednesday by company B is average number of items manufactured by company B on Monday and Tuesday together. Find the number of items manufactured on Wednesday by company B?

((a))
220
((b))
180
((c))
120
((d))
145
((e))
160

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

120

Common Calculation

Let number of items manufactured on Monday is 5x and number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2x in company A.

So, ATQ, 5x – 2x = 45

Or, 3x = 45

Or, x = 45/3 = 15

So, Number of items manufactured on Monday is 5 × 15 = 75

And number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2 × 15 = 30

Similarly, we can calculate others values also which is given in the table.

Company	Number of items manufactured on Monday	Number of items manufactured on Tuesday
A	75	30
B	105	135
C	75	50
D	120	150
E	240	280

Calculation

Items manufactured Monday = 105

Items manufactured Tuesday = 135

→ Average = [105 + 135] /2 = 240/2 = 120

187

In company D, 40% items on Monday and 60% items on Tuesday is sold out of total number of items manufactured by company D in that day. Find the total number of unsold items on Monday and Tuesday together?

((a))
132
((b))
142
((c))
162
((d))
116
((e))
155

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

132

Common Calculation

Let number of items manufactured on Monday is 5x and number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2x in company A.

So, ATQ, 5x – 2x = 45

Or, 3x = 45

Or, x = 45/3 = 15

So, Number of items manufactured on Monday is 5 × 15 = 75

And number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2 × 15 = 30

Similarly, we can calculate others values also which is given in the table.

Company	Number of items manufactured on Monday	Number of items manufactured on Tuesday
A	75	30
B	105	135
C	75	50
D	120	150
E	240	280

Calculation

Monday: 40% items sold

→ Items Unsold = 60% of 120 = 0.6 × 120 = 72

Tuesday: 60% items sold

→ Unsold = 40% of 150 = 0.4 × 150 = 60

Total items unsold = 72 + 60 = 132

188

Number of items manufactured on Monday by company F is 30% more than the number of items manufactured on Monday by company E. Number of items manufactured on Tuesday by company F is 68 more than the number of items manufactured on Monday by company F. Find the number of items manufactured On Tuesday by company F?

((a))
320
((b))
399
((c))
330
((d))
360
((e))
380

Show Answer

Answer: ((e))

380

Common Calculation

Let number of items manufactured on Monday is 5x and number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2x in company A.

So, ATQ, 5x – 2x = 45

Or, 3x = 45

Or, x = 45/3 = 15

So, Number of items manufactured on Monday is 5 × 15 = 75

And number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2 × 15 = 30

Similarly, we can calculate others values also which is given in the table.

Company	Number of items manufactured on Monday	Number of items manufactured on Tuesday
A	75	30
B	105	135
C	75	50
D	120	150
E	240	280

Calculation

Company F:

Number of items manufactured on Monday by E = 240

→ Number of items manufactured on Monday by F

= 240 + [0.3 × 240] = 240 + 72 = 312

Number of items manufactured on Tuesday by F

= Monday + 68 = 312 + 68 = 380

189

Ratio between total items manufactured by company B and C together on Monday and Total items manufactured by company B and C together on Tuesday is x:y. Find the value of 7x + 8y? [ ratio is taken as lowest possible integer]

((a))
542
((b))
548
((c))
648
((d))
662
((e))
554

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

548

Common Calculation

Let number of items manufactured on Monday is 5x and number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2x in company A.

So, ATQ, 5x – 2x = 45

Or, 3x = 45

Or, x = 45/3 = 15

So, Number of items manufactured on Monday is 5 × 15 = 75

And number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2 × 15 = 30

Similarly, we can calculate others values also which is given in the table.

Company	Number of items manufactured on Monday	Number of items manufactured on Tuesday
A	75	30
B	105	135
C	75	50
D	120	150
E	240	280

Calculation

Monday total:

B = 105, C = 75

→ Total = 105 + 75 = 180

Tuesday total:

B = 135, C = 50

→ Total = 135 + 50 = 185

So, ratio = 180 : 185

Simplify: divide by 5 → 36:37

So, x = 36, y = 37:

So, 7x + 8y = [7 × 36] + [8 × 37] = 252 + 296 = 548

190

Out of total items manufactured on Monday by company A, 20% is defective. Number of non – defective items manufactured on Tuesday is 40% of non – defective items manufactured by same company. Find the defective items manufactured by company A on Tuesday?

((a))
5
((b))
9
((c))
6
((d))
8
((e))
11

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Common Calculation

Let number of items manufactured on Monday is 5x and number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2x in company A.

So, ATQ, 5x – 2x = 45

Or, 3x = 45

Or, x = 45/3 = 15

So, Number of items manufactured on Monday is 5 × 15 = 75

And number of items manufactured on Tuesday is 2 × 15 = 30

Similarly, we can calculate others values also which is given in the table.

Company	Number of items manufactured on Monday	Number of items manufactured on Tuesday
A	75	30
B	105	135
C	75	50
D	120	150
E	240	280

Calculation

Total number of items manufactured on Monday = 75

→ 20% defective = 0.2 × 75 = 15

→ Non-defective = 75 – 15 = 60

Now, non-defective on Tuesday = 40% of 60 = 24

Total number of items manufactured on Tuesday = 30

→ Defective = 30 – 24 = 6

191

Ramchandran gave 40% of his money, to his wife. He also gave each of his three daughters and 3 sons 10% of the remaining amount. Half of the amount now left was spent on shopping and the remaining amount of Rs. 24,000 was deposited in the bank. How much money did Ramchandran have initially?

((a))
Rs. 1,80,000
((b))
Rs. 1,50,000
((c))
Rs. 2,00,000
((d))
Rs. 2,50,000
((e))
None of the above

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Rs. 2,00,000

Given:

Ramchandran gave his wife = 40%

He gave his 3 daughters and 3 sons = 10% each

Amount spent on shopping = 1/2 of remaining

The amount deposited in the bank = Rs. 24,000

Calculation:

Let the initial amount with Ramchandran be Rs. x.

∴ Required equation according to the question:

⇒ (1/2) × [100 – (3 × 20)]% of (100 – 40)% of x = 24000.

⇒ 1/2 × (40/100) × (60/100) × x = 24000

⇒ 3x/25 = 24000

⇒ 3x = 24000 × 25

⇒ x = 8000 × 25

⇒ x = Rs. 2,00,000

∴ Initially Ramchandran had Rs. 2,00,000.

Alternate Method

Let, Ramchandran has 100x rupees initially.

⇒ Wife's share = 40% = 40x rupees.

Remaining Amount = 100x - 40x = 60x.

10% of remaining amount = 6x

⇒ share of 3 daughter and 3 son = 6x × 6 = 36x

Remaining Amount = 60x - 36x = 24x

⇒ Amount Spent on Shopping = (1/2) of remaining = 24x/2 = 12x

Remaining Amount = 24x - 12x = 12x = 24000 (Given)

⇒ x = 24000/12 = 2000

⇒ Initial value = 100x = 100 × 2000 = 200000

∴ Initially Ramchandran had Rs. 2,00,000

192

Given that A and B together can finish a task in 12.5 days, and B and C together can do it in 18.75 days, and also A and C together can do it in 15 days, how long would it take for A, B, C and D (with D having only 40% of C's efficiency) to complete the same task collectively?

((a))
9(1/3)
((b))
9(17/27)
((c))
9(2/3)
((d))
9(7/27)
((e))
9(1/3)

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

9(7/27)

Solution:

A and B together can finish a task in 12.5 days.

B and C together can do it in 18.75 days.

A and C together can do it in 15 days.

D having only 40% of C's efficiency.

Total work = Time × Efficiency

A + B = 12.5 = 25/2 days

B + C = 18.75 = 75/4 days

A + C = 15 days

Total work = LCM(25/2, 75/4, 15) = 75 units

Efficiency of A + B = 75/(25/2) = 6

Efficiency of B + C = 75/(75/4) = 4

Efficiency of A + C = 75/15 = 5

Efficiency of A + B + C = 15/2 = 7.5

Efficiency of C = 7.5 - 6 = 1.5

Efficiency of D = 1.5 × 0.4 = 0.6

Time taken by A, B, C and D to complete the task collectively = 75/8.1

= 750/81 = 250/27

= 9(7/27)

Hence, option(4) is correct.

193

A group of X+5 students has a average weight of 12 kg. When X students with an average of 8 kg is removed and X+3 students with an average of 14 kg is added then, the new average is increased by 3 kg what is the value of X ?

((a))
4
((b))
3
((c))
5
((d))
6
((e))
7

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Given:

A group of X+5 students has a average weight of 12 kg

X students with an average of 8 kg is removed and X+3 students with an average of 14 kg is added then, the new average is increased by 3 kg

Formula used:

Total Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

New Average = 12kg + 3 kg

= 15 kg

Latter number of students = X + 5 - X + X + 3

= X + 8

According to the question,

$\frac{(X+5)\times12 - (X) 8 + (X+3) \times 14}{X+8}=15$

$\frac{12X+60 - 8X + 14X+42}{X+8}=15$

18X + 102 = 15(X + 8)

18X + 102 = 15X + 120

18X - 15X = 120 - 102

3X = 18

X = 18/3

X = 6

Answer is 6.

194

What approximate will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

37.79 × 3.98 + 36.05 × ? = 50.40 × 1.99 + 7.01 × 27.88

((a))
2
((b))
4
((c))
3
((d))
8
((e))
5

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

⇒ 37.79 × 3.98 + 36.05 × ? = 50.40 × 1.99 + 7.01 × 27.88

⇒ 38 × 4 + 36 × ? = 50 × 2 + 7 × 28

Using BODMAS rule,

⇒ 152 + 36 × ? = 100 + 196

⇒ 36 × ? = 144

⇒ ? = 4

195

What approximate will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

(7.9899 × 7.002) + √1024.78 + (1.99086)³ = ? ÷ 1/ 5.7865

((a))
576
((b))
480
((c))
16
((d))
18
((e))
256

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

(7.9899 × 7.002) + √1024.78 + (1.99086)³ = ? ÷ 1/ 5.7865

(8 × 7) + 32 + (2)³= ? × 5.7865

(56 + 32 + 8) / 5.7865 = 96/6 = 16

196

Direction: What approximate will come in the place of ‘x’ in the following question?

12.99% of 6699.99 + (32.001 + 39.98) ÷ 8.99 × 8.001 = 999.001 – x

((a))
51
((b))
55
((c))
58
((d))
64
((e))
67

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket.

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Calculation:

12.99% of 6699.99 + (32.001 + 39.98) ÷ 8.99 × 8.001 = 999.001 – x

⇒ 13% of 6700 + (32 + 40) ÷ 9 × 8 = 999 – x

⇒ (13/100) × 6700 + 72 ÷ 9 × 8 = 999 – x

⇒ 871 + 8 × 8 = 999 – x

⇒ 935 = 999 – x

⇒ x = 999 – 935

⇒ x = 64

∴ The approximate value of x is 64

197

Direction: What approximate will come in the place of x in the following question.

√(47.99 + 15.99) ÷ 3.89 × 40.89 – 35.35 + x^1/2 = (8.22)²

((a))
279
((b))
289
((c))
297
((d))
269
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

289

Concept used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.

Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and following BODMAS rule in the bracket

Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.

Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated.

Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Calculations:

√(47.99 + 15.990) ÷ 3.89 × 40.89 – 35.35 + x^1/2 = (8.22)²

⇒ √(48 + 16) ÷ 4 × 41 – 35 + x^1/2 ≈ (8)²

⇒ √64 ÷ 4 × 41 – 35 + x^1/2 = 64

⇒ 8 ÷ 4 × 41 – 35 + x^1/2 = 64

⇒ 2 × 41 – 35 + x^1/2 = 64

⇒ 82 – 35 + x^1/2 = 64

⇒ x^1/2 = 64 – 47

⇒ x^1/2 = 17

⇒ x = (17)²

⇒ x = 289

∴ The Value of x is 289

198

What approximate value should come in place of “?” in the following equation:

{(784.03)^1/2 × 3.97} + (29.07 × 12.96) = (?)² – (7.92 × 5.01)

((a))
529
((b))
8
((c))
24
((d))
23
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Rules of Approximation:

If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated value.
If a number has digits to the right of the decimal more than 5, then just drop the digits to the right of the decimal and raise the remaining number by '1'.The number so obtained will be the approximated value.

Concept Used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

{(784)^1/2 × 4} + (29 × 13) = (?)² – (8 × 5)

⇒ {28 × 4} + (29 × 13) = (?)² – (8 × 5)

⇒ {28 × 4} + 377 = (?)² – 40

⇒ 112 + 377 = (?)² – 40

⇒ 489 = (?)² – 40

⇒ (?)² = 489 + 40

⇒ (?)² = 529

∴ ? = 23

199

Average age of P, Q and R is 90 years. When S joins them the average age becomes 86 years. A new person T whose age is 6 years more than S, replaces P and the average of Q, R, S and T becomes 84 years. What is the age of P?

((a))
88 years
((b))
90 years
((c))
99 years
((d))
95 years
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

88 years

Given :

Average age of P, Q, and R = 90 years

Average age of P, Q, R and S = 86 years

Average age of Q, R, S and T = 84 years

Formula Used :

Average = Sum of observation/No. of observation

Shortcut Trick

The age of S = Sum of age of P, Q, R, S - Sum of age of P, Q, R

The age of S = 86 × 4 - 90 × 3 = 74 years

The age of T = 74 + 6 = 80 years

The age of P = Sum of age of P, Q, R, S, T - Sum of age of Q, R, S, T

The age of P = 86 × 4 + 80 - 84 × 4 = 424 - 336 = 88 years

∴ Age of P is 88 Years

Alternate Method

Calculation :

Average age of P, Q, and R = 90 years

⇒ (P + Q + R)/3 = 90

⇒ P + Q + R = 270

Similarly, Average age of P, Q, R and S = 86 years

⇒ (P + Q + R + S)/4 = 86

⇒ P + Q + R + S = 344

⇒ Age of P, Q, and R + Age of S = 344

⇒ 270 + S = 344

⇒ S = 74 years

If the age of S is 74 year

Then the Age of T = 74 + 6 = 80 years

Similarly, Average age of Q, R, S and T = 84 years

⇒ (Q + R + S + T)/4 = 84

⇒ Q + R + S + T = 84 × 4

⇒ Q + R + S + T = 336

⇒ Q + R + 74 + 80 = 336 (Putting the value of S, and T)

⇒ Q + R = 182

⇒ Age of P, Q, and R = 270

⇒ P + Q + R = 270 (Putting the value of Q + R from above)

⇒ P + 182 = 270

⇒ P = 88 years

∴ Age of P is 88 Years.

200

The ratio of water and milk in a mixture is 2 : 3. If 'a + 20' litres of water and 'a' litres of milk are added to it, the ratio becomes 7 : 8. If half of the solution is removed the remaining mixture contain 10 litres more milk than water. Find the initial quantity of mixture.

((a))
300 litres
((b))
150 litres
((c))
200 litres
((d))
250 litres
((e))
None of these

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

200 litres

Given:

The ratio of water and milk in a mixture is 2 : 3.

Calculation:

Let the initial quantity of water and milk in the mixture be 2x and 3x litres respectively.

After adding 'a + 20' litres of water and 'a' litres of milk, the total quantity of water and milk in the mixture becomes (2x + a + 20) litres and (3x + a) litres respectively.

The ratio of water and milk in the new mixture is 7 : 8.

Therefore,

⇒ (2x + a + 20) / (3x + a) = 7 / 8

⇒ 8(2x + a + 20) = 7(3x + a)

⇒ 16x + 8a + 160 = 21x + 7a

⇒ 5x = a + 160

⇒ x = (a + 160) / 5

Now, half of the solution is removed.

Therefore, the remaining quantity of water and milk in the mixture is (2x + a + 20) / 2 litres and (3x + a) / 2 litres respectively.

The remaining mixture contains 10 litres more milk than water.

Therefore,

(3x + a) / 2 - (2x + a + 20) / 2 = 10

⇒ 3x + a - 2x - a - 20 = 20

⇒ x = 40

Therefore, the initial quantity of water in the mixture = 2x = 80 litres.

And, the initial quantity of milk in the mixture = 3x = 120 litres.

Therefore, the initial quantity of mixture = 80 + 120 = 200 litres.

Hence option (3) is correct.

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