IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

280 Total Questions7 Official PapersYears: 2018–2024Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 1–20 of 280Page 1 of 14
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What was the initial paid-up capital of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when it began operations in 1935?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹5 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹10 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹50 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹100 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹5 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹5 crore.

In News

  • The initial paid-up capital of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when it began operations in 1935 was ₹5 crore.
  • This capital was initially provided by private shareholders, and later, it was transferred to the Central Government.

Key Points

  • The RBI’s initial paid-up capital was ₹5 crore, which laid the foundation for its operations as India’s central bank.
  • The RBI’s capital base has grown significantly over the years, reflecting its role in managing the financial system and maintaining monetary stability in India.
  • While the exact current paid-up capital is not specified, the RBI now operates with a substantial capital base as a key regulator in India’s economy.

Additional Information

  • RBI’s Role in India
  • The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank responsible for regulating India’s financial system, managing monetary policy, and ensuring economic stability.
  • RBI’s operations include controlling inflation, managing currency, and ensuring the stability of the banking sector.
  • On-Tap Licensing and Capital Requirements
  • The RBI’s on-tap licensing policy for setting up new banks requires a minimum capital of ₹500 crore to ensure financial stability and regulatory oversight.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 2

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

As per recent reports in october 2024, What is the maximum value for the contract size of index derivatives as per the latest guidelines issued by SEBI?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹10 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹15 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    ₹20 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹25 lakh

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹30 lakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹20 lakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹20 lakh.

In News

  • As per SEBI’s new guidelines, the minimum contract size for index derivatives is ₹15 lakh, and the maximum value of the contract can range from ₹15 lakh to ₹20 lakh.
  • The revised contract size aims to regulate the market by setting appropriate levels of leverage and risk for participants.

Key Points

  • The maximum value of an index derivative contract, as per SEBI’s new rules, can range between ₹15 lakh and ₹20 lakh.
  • This change is part of the effort to regulate high-risk derivative trading and align contract sizes with market growth.
  • Effective from November 20, 2024, SEBI's revised guidelines aim to reduce excessive speculative activity and manage risk better in the futures and options market.

Additional Information

  • SEBI Derivatives Guidelines
  • The guidelines focus on increasing the minimum contract size to ₹15 lakh and regulating contract sizes to reduce market risks.
  • SEBI’s guidelines aim to make the F&O market safer for retail traders and improve overall market stability.
  • Weekly Expiry and Tail Risk Coverage
  • Weekly expiry contracts will be limited to one per exchange, and additional Extreme Loss Margin (ELM) of 2% will be applied to short options positions to manage risk.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 3

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the required Net Owned Funds (NOF) for an NBFC to commence or carry on business, as per Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹5 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹10 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹20 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹25 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹50 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹10 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹10 crore.

In News

  • As per Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934, NBFCs must have a Net Owned Funds (NOF) of ₹10 crore to commence or carry on business.
  • The minimum NOF requirement will be applicable from October 01, 2022, for NBFCs seeking registration and for existing NBFCs by March 31, 2027.

Key Points

  • The Net Owned Funds (NOF) requirement for NBFCs is ₹10 crore as per RBI regulations, effective from October 2022.
  • Existing NBFCs have until March 31, 2027, to meet this NOF requirement.
  • NBFCs seeking registration must have ₹10 crore NOF from the start (ab initio).
  • Categories of NBFCs regulated by other authorities (e.g., SEBI, IRDA) are exempt from RBI registration and NOF requirements.

Additional Information

  • Net Owned Funds (NOF)
  • NOF is the minimum capital required for an NBFC to operate as per RBI regulations, ensuring financial stability and operations.
  • NOF for NBFCs is set at ₹10 crore, and meeting this requirement is crucial for the registration and continuation of business activities.
  • NBFC Registration
  • NBFCs must register with the Reserve Bank of India to legally carry out their business activities.
  • Certain categories of NBFCs, like those regulated by SEBI or IRDA, are exempt from registering with the RBI.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 4

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Until when has the government extended the benefits under the RoDTEP scheme for exports made from domestic tariff area (DTA) units?

  1. AOption (a)

    September 30, 2024

  2. BOption (b)

    December 31, 2024

  3. COption (c)

    September 30, 2025

  4. DOption (d)

    December 31, 2025

  5. EOption (e)

    March 31, 2025

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

September 30, 2025

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is September 30, 2025.

In News

  • The government has extended the benefits under the RoDTEP scheme for exports made from DTA units until September 30, 2025.
  • The extension provides relief to exporters, allowing them to benefit from the remission of duties and taxes incurred during manufacturing and distribution.

Key Points

  • The RoDTEP scheme has been extended to September 30, 2025, for exports made from DTA units, while the scheme for AA/EOU/SEZ units is extended until December 31, 2024.
  • The extension ensures continued support for Indian exporters by refunding un-reimbursed duties and taxes related to their exports.
  • The scheme will help boost India's export competitiveness and allow for better participation in global value chains.

Additional Information

  • RoDTEP Scheme
  • The RoDTEP scheme refunds duties and taxes that exporters incur during the manufacturing and distribution process but are not reimbursed by any other mechanism.
  • The scheme is essential in helping Indian exporters remain competitive globally by reducing the cost burden of non-reimbursed taxes and duties.
  • Impact on Exporters
  • The extension of the scheme provides stability to exporters, helping them finalize new contracts and improve their competitiveness.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 5

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Where is the headquarters of the World Economic Forum (WEF) located?

  1. AOption (a)

    United States

  2. BOption (b)

    Germany

  3. COption (c)

    Switzerland

  4. DOption (d)

    United Kingdom

  5. EOption (e)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Switzerland

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Switzerland.

In News

  • The World Economic Forum (WEF) has its headquarters in Switzerland.
  • The WEF is an international organization dedicated to improving global economic conditions, and its headquarters is in Cologny, a suburb of Geneva.

Key Points

  • The WEF's headquarters is located in Cologny, Switzerland.
  • The WEF is best known for organizing the annual meeting in Davos, which gathers business, political, and academic leaders from around the world.
  • Switzerland is known for being a hub for international organizations, and the WEF is one of the major organizations based there.

Additional Information

  • World Economic Forum (WEF)
  • Founded in 1971, the WEF brings together leaders from business, government, and academia to discuss global issues.
  • The WEF’s headquarters is in Cologny, near Geneva, Switzerland.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 6

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which two Australian universities have opened international campuses in GIFT City, India?

  1. AOption (a)

    University of Sydney and University of Melbourne

  2. BOption (b)

    Deakin University and University of Wollongong

  3. COption (c)

    Australian National University and University of Queensland

  4. DOption (d)

    University of New South Wales and University of Technology Sydney

  5. EOption (e)

    University of Western Australia and University of Adelaide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Deakin University and University of Wollongong

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Deakin University and University of Wollongong.

In News

  • Deakin University was the first Australian university to establish a campus in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in India, opening in January 2024.
  • University of Wollongong followed as the second Australian university to establish a campus in GIFT City, inaugurating its campus on November 15, 2024.

Key Points

  • Deakin University and University of Wollongong are the first two Australian universities to open campuses in GIFT City, India.
  • Deakin University offers programs like Master of Business Analytics and Master of Cyber Security.
  • UOW offers Master of Financial Technology and Graduate Certificate in Financial Technology programs.
  • Both universities provide degrees with the same recognition and status as those issued by their parent campuses in Australia.

Additional Information

  • GIFT City
  • GIFT City is a financial hub in India, where foreign universities, like Deakin University and University of Wollongong, have established campuses.
  • It aims to provide quality education with industry-relevant programs in fields like business analytics, cyber security, and financial technology.
  • Financial Benefits and Collaboration
  • UOW offers an inaugural scholarship to students enrolling in computing and financial technology programs.
  • UOW has partnered with Odoo to provide students with industry-relevant skills in business software.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 7

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the FATF grey list:

  1. The FATF grey list includes countries that are closely monitored for their efforts to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
  2. Being on the FATF grey list has no significant impact on a country's financial system or international reputation.
  3. Countries on the grey list are required to implement specific action plans to improve their anti-money laundering (AML) and combating the financing of terrorism (CFT) frameworks.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The FATF grey list includes countries that are closely monitored for their efforts to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
  • Countries on the grey list are required to implement specific action plans to improve their AML/CFT frameworks.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The FATF grey list is a public list of countries monitored for deficiencies in their anti-money laundering (AML) and combating terrorist financing (CFT) systems.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Being on the grey list has significant consequences, including increased scrutiny, heightened due diligence requirements, and potential sanctions.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Countries on the grey list are required to implement action plans provided by the FATF to improve their systems.
  • Countries on the grey list face increased restrictions on cross-border financial transactions and may have their financial institutions subject to heightened reporting requirements.

Additional Information

  • FATF Grey List
  • The FATF grey list includes countries that are being monitored for deficiencies in their AML/CFT systems, with an emphasis on financial centers and jurisdictions with economic importance.
  • Countries on the grey list are required to address identified deficiencies through concrete action plans.
  • Consequences of Grey Listing
  • Countries on the grey list face increased scrutiny from international organizations and financial institutions.
  • They may face restrictions on cross-border financial transactions, impacting their global financial relationships.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 8

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

According to CBRE's "MSMEs Unleashing the Engines of Economic Prosperity" report which two states have the highest share of MSMEs in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra and Kerala

  5. EOption (e)

    Tamil Nadu and Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

In News

  • The report highlights Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu as the top two states with the highest share of MSMEs in India.
  • Maharashtra accounted for 17% of the MSMEs, followed by Tamil Nadu with 10%, and Uttar Pradesh with 9%.

Key Points

  • Maharashtra has the highest share of MSMEs in India, with 17% of the total MSMEs in the country.
  • Tamil Nadu follows with the second-highest share of 10% of the MSMEs in India.
  • Uttar Pradesh also plays a significant role, contributing 9% to the national share of MSMEs.

Additional Information

  • Udyam Scheme
  • The Udyam scheme is a government initiative designed to promote the growth of MSMEs across India.
  • It offers several incentives by both the central and state governments to foster MSME development.
  • Real Estate MSMEs
  • The real estate sector plays a vital role in the MSME landscape, with opportunities for unorganised sectors to register as MSMEs.
  • Real estate MSMEs can benefit from zero collateral loans, reduced interest rates, and electricity consumption concessions.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 9

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

India signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MOI) with which country on November 2024, to co-develop the UNICORN masts for the Indian Navy?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    China

  5. EOption (e)

    Ukraine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Japan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Japan.

In News

  • India and Japan signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MOI) on November 15, 2024, to co-develop UNICORN masts for the Indian Navy.
  • The collaboration aims to enhance the stealth capabilities of the Indian Navy by integrating advanced communication systems into a single mast structure.

Key Points

  • The MOI signed between India and Japan marks the first co-development of defense equipment between the two nations.
  • Japan will provide expertise in the design and development of the UNICORN mast, while Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) will handle the implementation and production in India.
  • This collaboration enhances the stealth features of Indian Navy ships by integrating multiple communication systems into the UNICORN mast.
  • The agreement is part of the broader India-Japan Defence Technology Cooperation framework.

Additional Information

  • UNICORN Mast
  • UNICORN stands for Unified Complex Radio Antenna, designed to enhance naval stealth capabilities by integrating communication systems.
  • The mast will be co-developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) with Japanese expertise, marking the first such collaboration between India and Japan in defense technology.
  • India-Japan Defense Cooperation
  • This agreement falls under the broader framework of the India-Japan Defence Technology Cooperation agreement.
  • The collaboration strengthens defense ties between the two countries and aims at the development of advanced military technology.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 10

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the performance of public sector banks (PSBs) in the first half of the financial year 2024-25 (H1FY25):

  1. The operating profit of PSBs grew by 14.4% Y-o-Y, while net profit saw a 25.6% increase, reaching Rs 85,520 crore.
  2. The global credit portfolio of PSBs grew by 12.9% Y-o-Y to Rs 133.75 trillion, while the deposit portfolio grew by 9.5% Y-o-Y to Rs 102.29 trillion.
  3. The gross non-performing assets (NPAs) of PSBs decreased by 34 basis points Y-o-Y, standing at 3.12% as of September 2024.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The performance of public sector banks (PSBs) in H1FY25 showed robust growth in operating profit, net profit, and a reduction in NPAs.
  • The global credit portfolio grew by 12.9% and the deposit portfolio grew by 9.5% Y-o-Y.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The operating profit grew by 14.4% Y-o-Y, and net profit saw a 25.6% increase to Rs 85,520 crore in H1FY25.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The global credit portfolio grew by 12.9% Y-o-Y to Rs 102.29 trillion, while the deposit portfolio grew by 9.5% Y-o-Y to Rs 133.75 trillion, which is reversed in the statement.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The gross NPAs decreased by 108 bps Y-o-Y, standing at 3.12% as of September 2024.
  • The capital to risk-weighted average assets ratio (CRAR) for PSBs stood at 15.43%, above the regulatory requirement of 11.5%.

Additional Information

  • Public Sector Banks (PSBs) Performance
  • PSBs showed strong growth in both operating and net profits in the first half of FY25.
  • Key financial indicators like NPAs and CRAR were also improved, contributing to the robust performance of PSBs.
  • Significant Reforms in PSBs
  • Major reforms include the implementation of the Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) and the enactment of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
  • PSBs have also adopted new-age technologies like AI, cloud, and blockchain, upgrading their digital infrastructure and tackling cybersecurity risks.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 11

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the "Payments Vision 2025" by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

  1. Payments Vision 2025 aims to elevate payment systems by providing users with affordable, convenient, and accessible e-payment options anytime and anywhere.
  2. The key objective of Payments Vision 2025 is to increase cheque-based payments to more than 0.25% of the total retail payments.
  3. Payments Vision 2025 includes regulating BigTechs and FinTechs in the payments space and exploring appropriate guidelines for Buy Now Pay Later (BNPL) methods.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched "Payments Vision 2025" to provide safe, secure, fast, and affordable e-payment options across the country.
  • One of the main objectives is to make e-payments accessible to everyone, everywhere, and anytime.
  • The vision also includes regulating BigTechs and FinTechs in the payments space, along with examining BNPL methods and guidelines for payments involving BNPL.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: Payments Vision 2025 aims to provide affordable, convenient, and accessible e-payment options to users at all times.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The goal of Payments Vision 2025 is to reduce the volume of cheque-based payments to less than 0.25% of total retail payments, not increase it.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Payments Vision 2025 includes regulating BigTechs and FinTechs in the payments space and exploring appropriate guidelines for BNPL methods.
  • The Payments Vision 2025 is structured around five key pillars: Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalisation, and Internationalisation.

Additional Information

  • Payments Vision 2025
  • Aims to elevate payment systems by providing affordable, convenient, and accessible e-payment options anytime and anywhere.
  • Targeting the tripling of digital payment transactions and promoting growth in UPI and IMPS/NEFT transactions.
  • Achievements of Payments Vision 2019-21
  • Accomplished goalposts of Competition, Cost, Convenience, and Confidence through initiatives like regulatory sandbox, 24/7 availability of payment systems, and waiver of charges for RTGS/NEFT transactions.
  • BNPL and Regulatory Guidelines
  • Payments Vision 2025 explores the need for appropriate guidelines around Buy Now Pay Later (BNPL) methods in the payments space.
  • Ensures a secure, user-friendly, and well-regulated environment for emerging payment solutions.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 12

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the guidelines issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) for the Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing and Misleading Environmental Claims:

  1. The guidelines prohibit the use of vague terms like “eco-friendly,” “green,” and “sustainable” without proper substantiation and credible scientific evidence.
  2. The guidelines mandate that all environmental claims must be substantiated with third-party certifications and must provide clear and accessible disclosures of material information.
  3. The guidelines allow companies to make environmental claims without providing adequate evidence or certifications, as long as they are related to sustainable business practices.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

In News

  • The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has issued guidelines to prevent misleading environmental claims and greenwashing in advertisements.
  • The guidelines mandate that environmental claims must be substantiated with credible evidence and third-party certifications.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The guidelines prohibit the use of vague terms like “eco-friendly,” “green,” and “sustainable” without proper substantiation and credible evidence.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The guidelines require companies to substantiate their environmental claims with credible evidence, including third-party certifications, and provide clear disclosures about the claims.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The guidelines do not allow companies to make environmental claims without providing adequate evidence or certifications. Claims must be substantiated and truthful.
  • The guidelines aim to promote transparency in environmental marketing while protecting consumers from misleading claims.

Additional Information

  • Greenwashing
  • Greenwashing refers to marketing tactics where companies exaggerate or falsely claim the environmental benefits of their products or services.
  • Such deceptive practices mislead consumers and divert attention from broader environmental efforts.
  • Third-Party Certifications
  • Third-party certifications are used to substantiate environmental claims and provide credibility to the claims made by companies.
  • Key Highlights of the Guidelines
  • Clear definitions of environmental claims and greenwashing.
  • Prohibition of misleading environmental terms without proper substantiation.
  • Transparency requirements for companies to provide accessible disclosures of their environmental claims.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 13

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the BharatNet project:

  1. The BharatNet project aims to provide high-speed broadband connectivity to every Gram Panchayat (GP) across India and is one of the largest rural telecom projects globally.
  2. Phase I of the BharatNet project connected 2.5 lakh GPs using optical fiber cables and was completed in 2017.
  3. The Amended BharatNet Program (ABP), approved in 2023, focuses on providing optical fiber connectivity to 2.64 lakh GPs and non-GP villages, with the addition of 5G technologies and enhanced last-mile connectivity.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The BharatNet project aims to provide high-speed broadband connectivity to every Gram Panchayat (GP) across India, one of the largest rural telecom projects globally.
  • The Amended BharatNet Program (ABP), approved in 2023, aims to provide optical fiber connectivity to 2.64 lakh GPs and non-GP villages, with 5G technologies and improved last-mile connectivity.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: BharatNet is one of the largest rural telecom projects aimed at connecting every Gram Panchayat (GP) across India with high-speed broadband.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase I connected 1 lakh GPs, not 2.5 lakh, and was completed in 2017 using optical fiber cables and existing infrastructure.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The ABP, approved in 2023, aims to provide optical fiber connectivity to 2.64 lakh GPs and non-GP villages, as well as integrate 5G technologies and enhance last-mile connectivity.
  • As of 2025, BharatNet has made 2.18 lakh GPs service-ready, with 42 lakh route kilometers of Optical Fiber Cable (OFC) and over 12 lakh Fibre-To-The-Home (FTTH) connections.
  • The BharatNet project is executed by Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL), under the supervision of BSNL for network operations and maintenance.

Additional Information

  • BharatNet Project
  • Launched as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) in 2011 and renamed BharatNet in 2015.
  • Initially aimed to connect 2.5 lakh GPs across India, with subsequent phases expanding coverage and improving technologies.
  • Phases of Implementation
  • Phase I connected 1 lakh GPs using optical fiber and existing infrastructure.
  • Phase II is ongoing, expanding to 1.5 lakh GPs with a combination of optical fiber, radio, and satellite technologies.
  • Phase III focuses on integrating 5G technologies and enhancing bandwidth and last-mile connectivity.
  • Funding and Execution
  • BharatNet is funded through the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) and executed by Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL).
  • BSNL acts as the Project Management Agency for operating and maintaining the network.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 14

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM):

  1. The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) in January 2023 to achieve a production capacity of 5 million tonnes per annum of Green Hydrogen by 2030.
  2. The SIGHT programme under NGHM provides incentives for the manufacturing of electrolysers and green ammonia production.
  3. The Department of Science and Technology is leading the implementation of the Green Hydrogen Mission and has launched the Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters to foster innovation in the sector.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

In News

  • The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) in January 2023 to target a production capacity of 5 million tonnes per annum of Green Hydrogen by 2030.
  • The SIGHT programme under NGHM provides incentives for manufacturing electrolysers and producing green ammonia.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The NGHM aims to achieve 5 million tonnes per annum of Green Hydrogen production capacity by 2030, as launched by MNRE in January 2023.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The SIGHT programme under NGHM provides incentives to support the manufacturing of electrolysers and the production of green ammonia.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Department of Science and Technology is not leading the NGHM; the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) is responsible for the mission. However, the Department of Science and Technology has launched the Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters to promote innovation in the green hydrogen ecosystem.

Additional Information

  • National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM)
  • Launched in January 2023 by the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE).
  • Targeted production capacity of 5 million tonnes of Green Hydrogen per annum by 2030.
  • SIGHT Programme
  • The SIGHT programme provides financial incentives to support the production of green hydrogen and its key components like electrolysers and ammonia.
  • Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters
  • Initiated by the Department of Science and Technology to foster innovation and promote a green hydrogen ecosystem in India.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 15

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What does the "R" in LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) stand for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Radio

  2. BOption (b)

    Reflectance

  3. COption (c)

    Ranging

  4. DOption (d)

    Remote

  5. EOption (e)

    Radiometry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ranging

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ranging.

In News

  • LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) is a remote sensing method that uses laser pulses to measure distances to objects or surfaces, creating detailed 3D models.
  • The "R" in LIDAR stands for "Ranging," which refers to the measurement of distance using laser pulses.

Key Points

  • LIDAR is a technology that uses laser pulses to measure distances to objects, creating accurate 3D models of the Earth's surface or other objects.
  • The "R" in LIDAR stands for "Ranging," referring to the measurement of distance through time-of-flight calculations of laser pulses.
  • LIDAR works by emitting laser pulses towards a target and measuring the time it takes for the light to reflect back to the sensor.
  • This technology is used in various fields, including autonomous vehicles, mapping, environmental monitoring, and archaeology.

Additional Information

  • LiDAR Technology
  • LiDAR is widely used in mapping, surveying, and various environmental studies for its accuracy in measuring distances and creating 3D models.
  • It works by calculating the time it takes for light pulses to reflect off surfaces and return to the sensor.
  • Applications of LiDAR
  • LiDAR is used in autonomous vehicles to create 3D maps of the surrounding environment.
  • It also aids in environmental monitoring, archaeology, and even oceanography to map the ocean floor.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 16

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the RLV LEX-03 mission:

  1. The RLV LEX-03 mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the Pushpak vehicle under severe wind conditions.
  2. The Pushpak vehicle in the RLV LEX-03 mission was released from an altitude of 6 km from an Indian Air Force Chinook helicopter.
  3. The mission validated ISRO's advanced guidance algorithm for error corrections, which is essential for future Orbital Re-entry Missions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully completed the third and final Reusable Launch Vehicle Landing Experiment (RLV LEX-03) for the Pushpak vehicle.
  • The mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the RLV under more challenging release conditions and severe wind conditions.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The RLV LEX-03 mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the Pushpak vehicle under challenging conditions, including severe winds.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Pushpak vehicle was released from an altitude of 4.5 km, not 6 km.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The mission validated ISRO's advanced guidance algorithm for error corrections, which is crucial for future Orbital Re-entry Missions.
  • The RLV LEX-03 mission successfully demonstrated autonomous flight and reusable design, marking a significant step towards ISRO's goal of a fully reusable launch vehicle.

Additional Information

  • Reusable Launch Vehicles (RLVs)
  • RLVs are rockets designed to be used multiple times, unlike traditional expendable rockets.
  • RLVs significantly reduce space mission costs by reusing key components like the first stage.
  • ISRO's RLV-TD
  • ISRO has developed the Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD), which successfully demonstrated autonomous landing capabilities.
  • ISRO's efforts in reusable space technology aim to make space access more cost-effective in the future.
  • Global RLV Developments
  • SpaceX's Falcon 9 has achieved over 220 launches, with 178 landings and 155 re-flights as of May 2023.
  • Blue Origin's New Shepard performs suborbital flights with vertical landings, demonstrating reusable technology.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 17

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Where was the Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2024 held?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ranchi, Jharkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Raigarh, Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Raigar, Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Pune, Maharashtra

  5. EOption (e)

    Bhubaneswar, Odisha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Raigar, Bihar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Raigar, Bihar.

In News

  • Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2024 was held in Raigar, Bihar.

Key Points

  • The Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2024 took place in Raigar, Bihar.
  • This international tournament featured top women's hockey teams from Asia.
  • The event was organized by the Asian Hockey Federation.
  • India has previously hosted this tournament in 2016 (Singapore) and 2018 (South Korea).

Additional Information

  • Asian Hockey Champions Trophy
  • Established: 2010 (Women's), 2011 (Men's)
  • Frequency: Biennial
  • 2022 Women's Champion: South Korea
  • Hockey in Bihar
  • First major international hockey event in Bihar
  • Part of Bihar's sports infrastructure development
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 18

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding India’s ranking in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI):

  1. India ranks 176th in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index due to inefficient land management and increasing biodiversity threats.
  2. India's ranking is boosted by its strong marine conservation efforts, with a significant portion of national waterways protected.
  3. India is the fourth-largest illegal wildlife trading nation, with annual sales totaling approximately 15 billion Euros.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • India ranks 176th in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index due to inefficient land management and increasing biodiversity threats.
  • India is the fourth-largest illegal wildlife trading nation globally, with annual sales totaling approximately 15 billion Euros.

Key Points

  • India ranks 176th out of 180 countries in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index due to land management inefficiencies and biodiversity threats.
  • India is the fourth-largest illegal wildlife trading nation, with annual sales amounting to around 15 billion Euros.
  • The NCI highlights challenges such as overpopulation, deforestation, pesticide use, and soil pollution, affecting India's ecological wealth.
  • Marine conservation needs improvement in India, but the statement about a significant portion of national waterways being protected is inaccurate.
  • India's low NCI ranking also reflects a lack of protection for its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).

Additional Information

  • Nature Conservation Index (NCI)
  • The NCI evaluates conservation efforts in 180 countries and assesses key factors like land management, biodiversity threats, and governance.
  • Launched in October 2024 by the Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability, the NCI helps monitor global conservation practices.
  • Illegal Wildlife Trade in India
  • India is a major hub for illegal wildlife trading, with sales reaching approximately 15 billion Euros annually.
  • The country's biodiversity is threatened by poaching and illegal trade in wildlife species.
  • India's Environmental Challenges
  • India faces significant environmental challenges, including deforestation, soil pollution, and unsustainable land use.
  • Overpopulation continues to exert pressure on natural resources and exacerbate ecological threats.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 19

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which ministry is primarily responsible for supporting initiatives like the Lakhpati Didi program that empower Self-Help Group (SHG) members and promote diversified livelihood activities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Rural Development

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Finance

  5. EOption (e)

    Ministry of Women and Child Development

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ministry of Rural Development

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ministry of Rural Development.

In News

  • Lakhpati Didi is an initiative that empowers Self-Help Group (SHG) members, helping them achieve an annual household income of Rs. 1,00,000 or more.
  • The government actively supports this initiative to promote diversified livelihood activities and empower SHG members to pursue entrepreneurial ventures.

Key Points

  • Lakhpati Didi initiative is aimed at improving the livelihood and income of Self-Help Group (SHG) members by fostering entrepreneurial ventures.
  • The initiative ensures convergence of various government departments, ministries, private sector players, and market participants.
  • It promotes diversified livelihood activities, including farm, non-farm, and service-based enterprises.
  • The government plays a key role in facilitating this transition and ensuring financial literacy, skill development, and livelihood assistance for SHG members.
  • The Ministry of Rural Development leads the charge in empowering SHG members through programs like Lakhpati Didi.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Rural Development
  • Responsible for implementing rural development programs across India, focusing on social and economic empowerment.
  • Focuses on empowering women and marginalized communities, including through initiatives like SHGs.
  • Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
  • SHGs are collective groups aimed at financial inclusion, skill development, and livelihood support.
  • SHGs often focus on improving the economic situation of women in rural areas.
  • Lakhpati Didi Program
  • Encourages SHG members to adopt sustainable livelihood practices and become financially independent.
  • Helps elevate SHG members' income, empowering them to pursue entrepreneurial activities.
IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 20

IBPS Probationary Officer (PO) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In October 2024, Which bank inaugurated its first branch in Singapore to expand its financial services?

  1. AOption (a)

    HDFC Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    ICICI Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Bank of Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Bank of India

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

HDFC Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

In News

  • HDFC Bank inaugurated its first branch in Singapore on October 15, 2024, to provide banking services in the country.
  • The bank was granted a wholesale banking license by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS).

Key Points

  • HDFC Bank opened its first branch in Singapore on October 15, 2024.
  • The branch will offer a wide range of financial products and services to residents of Singapore.
  • The bank has also been granted a wholesale banking license by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS).
  • The new branch will provide loan-related administrative services for NRIs in Singapore to avail housing loans in India.
  • HDFC Bank now has five international branches, including locations in Hong Kong, Bahrain, Dubai, and Singapore.

Additional Information

  • HDFC Bank
  • Founded in - 1994
  • Headquarters - Mumbai, India
  • MD & CEO - Sandeep Bakshi
  • Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS)
  • MAS is the central bank and financial regulatory authority in Singapore.
  • It oversees monetary policy, financial stability, and the development of Singapore's financial sector.
  • HDFC Bank's International Operations
  • HDFC Bank operates in several countries, including Hong Kong, Bahrain, Dubai, and Singapore.
  • The bank has representative offices in Kenya, Abu Dhabi, Dubai, and London.
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How should I prepare for General Awareness in IBPS Probationary Officer (PO)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.