Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 30 November 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

155 questions180 minutes
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Reasoning & Computer Aptitude (45 questions)

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row all of them facing towards north direction. Few persons like some colors and they are working in an company either at the post of manager or at the post of assistant. The persons who are working as an manager is sitting at even numbered places and the persons who are working as an assistant are sitting at odd numbered position when counted from the right end of the row. Five persons are sitting between L and E from either side. The person who like white color is sitting fourth to the right of L. J is sitting immediate left the person who like white color. K is sitting third to the right if E and also like black color. The person who like red color is sitting right to both M and K. Not more than two assistant sit between M and J. H is sitting second to the left of M and like pink color. The person who is sitting immediate left of M likes green color. Two managers are sitting left to N. N is not a manager. The person who like blue color is sitting immediate left of N. J is not an immediate neighbor of H. The number of persons sitting left to L is same as number of person sitting right of J. L doesn't like green color. The number of managers sitting between the person who like red color and E is more the number of associates sitting between them and also not more than two manager sitting between them. H doesn't sit to the immediate right of N.

Question 1

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the position of M with respect to L?

  1. AOption (a)

    Seventh to the left

  2. BOption (b)

    Fourth to the right

  3. COption (c)

    Fifth to the right

  4. DOption (d)

    Seventh to the right

  5. EOption (e)

    Eighth to the right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Seventh to the right

Why this answer is correct

Given: Certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row all of them facing towards north direction. Few persons like some colors and they are working in an company either at the post of manager or at the post of assistant. The persons who are working as an manager is sitting at even numbered places and the persons who are working as an assistant are sitting at odd numbered position when counted from the right end of the row. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. Five persons are sitting between L and E from either side.

The person who like white color is sitting fourth to the right of L.

J is sitting immediate left the person who like white color.

K is sitting third to the right if E and also like black color.

Combining these, we get-

2. The number of persons sitting left to L is same as number of person sitting right of J. 

The number of managers sitting between the person who like red color and E is more the number of associates sitting between them and also not more than two manager sitting between them.

The above condition eliminates Case 2 from the above and we get-

3. Two managers are sitting left to N.

N is not a manager.

The person who like blue color is sitting immediate left of N.

From these, we get-

4. The person who like red color is sitting right to both M and K.

Not more than two assistant sit between M and J.

H is sitting second to the left of M and like pink color.

The person who is sitting immediate left of M likes green color.

J is not an immediate neighbor of H.

L doesn't like green color.

Combining these, we get the final arrangement as follows:

Note that in the above diagram M stands for Manager and A stands for Assistant.

Therefore, from the above final arrangement, we see that M sits seventh to the right of L.  

Hence, M sits seventh to the right of L.

​

Question 2

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the color liked by the person who sits between J and H?

  1. AOption (a)

    Red

  2. BOption (b)

    White

  3. COption (c)

    Blue

  4. DOption (d)

    Green

  5. EOption (e)

    Black

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

White

Why this answer is correct

Given: Certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row all of them facing towards north direction. Few persons like some colors and they are working in an company either at the post of manager or at the post of assistant. The persons who are working as an manager is sitting at even numbered places and the persons who are working as an assistant are sitting at odd numbered position when counted from the right end of the row. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. Five persons are sitting between L and E from either side.

The person who like white color is sitting fourth to the right of L.

J is sitting immediate left the person who like white color.

K is sitting third to the right if E and also like black color.

Combining these, we get-

2. The number of persons sitting left to L is same as number of person sitting right of J. 

The number of managers sitting between the person who like red color and E is more the number of associates sitting between them and also not more than two manager sitting between them.

The above condition eliminates Case 2 from the above and we get-

3. Two managers are sitting left to N.

N is not a manager.

The person who like blue color is sitting immediate left of N.

From these, we get-

4. The person who like red color is sitting right to both M and K.

Not more than two assistant sit between M and J.

H is sitting second to the left of M and like pink color.

The person who is sitting immediate left of M likes green color.

J is not an immediate neighbor of H.

L doesn't like green color.

Combining these, we get the final arrangement as follows:

Note that in the above diagram M stands for Manager and A stands for Assistant.

Therefore, from the above final arrangement, we see that the color liked by the person who sits between H and J is white.  

Hence, the color liked by the person who sits between H and J is white.

Question 3

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the product when 5 is multiplied with the total number of persons sitting in the row?

  1. AOption (a)

    55

  2. BOption (b)

    85

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    110

  5. EOption (e)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

90

Why this answer is correct

Given: Certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row all of them facing towards north direction. Few persons like some colors and they are working in an company either at the post of manager or at the post of assistant. The persons who are working as an manager is sitting at even numbered places and the persons who are working as an assistant are sitting at odd numbered position when counted from the right end of the row. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. Five persons are sitting between L and E from either side.

The person who like white color is sitting fourth to the right of L.

J is sitting immediate left the person who like white color.

K is sitting third to the right if E and also like black color.

Combining these, we get-

2. The number of persons sitting left to L is same as number of person sitting right of J. 

The number of managers sitting between the person who like red color and E is more the number of associates sitting between them and also not more than two manager sitting between them.

The above condition eliminates Case 2 from the above and we get-

(Here M stands for Manager and A stands fro Assistant.)

3. Two managers are sitting left to N.

N is not a manager.

The person who like blue color is sitting immediate left of N.

From these, we get-

4. The person who like red color is sitting right to both M and K.

Not more than two assistant sit between M and J.

H is sitting second to the left of M and like pink color.

The person who is sitting immediate left of M likes green color.

J is not an immediate neighbor of H.

L doesn't like green color.

Combining these, we get the final arrangement as follows:

Note that in the above diagram M stands for Manager and A stands for Assistant.

Therefore, from the above final arrangement, we see that there are 18 persons seated in the row. 18 multiplied by 5 is 90. 

Hence, the required product is 90.

Question 4

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many Managers are sitting between N and J?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    None

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

  5. EOption (e)

    Six

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given: Certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row all of them facing towards north direction. Few persons like some colors and they are working in an company either at the post of manager or at the post of assistant. The persons who are working as an manager is sitting at even numbered places and the persons who are working as an assistant are sitting at odd numbered position when counted from the right end of the row. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. Five persons are sitting between L and E from either side.

The person who like white color is sitting fourth to the right of L.

J is sitting immediate left the person who like white color.

K is sitting third to the right if E and also like black color.

Combining these, we get-

2. The number of persons sitting left to L is same as number of person sitting right of J. 

The number of managers sitting between the person who like red color and E is more the number of associates sitting between them and also not more than two manager sitting between them.

The above condition eliminates Case 2 from the above and we get-

(Here M stands for Manager and A stands fro Assistant.)

3. Two managers are sitting left to N.

N is not a manager.

The person who like blue color is sitting immediate left of N.

From these, we get-

4. The person who like red color is sitting right to both M and K.

Not more than two assistant sit between M and J.

H is sitting second to the left of M and like pink color.

The person who is sitting immediate left of M likes green color.

J is not an immediate neighbor of H.

L doesn't like green color.

Combining these, we get the final arrangement as follows:

Note that in the above diagram M stands for Manager and A stands for Assistant.

Therefore, from the above final arrangement, we see that three managers sit between N and J. 

Hence, three managers sit between N and J.

Question 5

Directions

In the following question two conclusions have been given followed by three sets of possible Statements. You have to take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide for the given conclusions logically follows from the which of the following statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Conclusions:

I. Some Peons are Clerks.

II. Some Specialist being Manager is a possibility.

Statements:

II. Some Clerks are Managers. All Peons are Specialist. No Clerk is Specialist.

II. All Peons are Managers. Some Specialists are Clerks. Some Managers are Clerks.

III. All Clerks are Specialists. Some Peons are Managers. Some Clerks are Peons.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement III follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Both statements I and III follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements II and III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only statement II follows

  5. EOption (e)

    All the statements I, II and III follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only statement III follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram from the given statements is as follows:

Statement I:

Conclusions:

I. Some Peons are Clerks. - False (Since, there is clearly given no clerks are specialist and all peons are specialist. Hence, does not follow.)

II. Some Specialist being Manager is a possibility. - True (Since, there is no direct relation between the two is given so it can be possible but not definite. Hence, follows.)

Therefore, statement I do not give the desired conclusions.

Statement II: 

Conclusions:

I. Some Peons are Clerks. - False (Since, there is no direct relation between the two is given so it can be possible but certain. Hence, does not follow.)

II. Some Specialist being Manager is a possibility. - True(Since, there is no direct relation between the two is given so it can be possible but not definite. Hence, follows.)

Therefore, statement II do not give the desired conclusions.

Statement III:

Conclusions:

I. Some Peons are Clerks. - True (Since, it is clear from the above diagram. Hence, follows.)

II. Some Specialist being Manager is a possibility. - True (Since, there is no direct relation between the two is given so it can be possible but not definite. Hence, follows.)

Therefore, statement III alone gives the desired conclusions.

Hence, the correct answer is only statement III follows.

Directions: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Input: nut 37 den 15 kit 58 can 24 met 78 83 any

Step I: msv 37 den kit 58 can 24 met 78 83 any 51

Step II: 21 msv 37 den kit 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls

Step III: jjs 21 msv den 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls 73

Step IV: 55 jjs 21 msv can 78 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm

Step V: bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm 75

Step VI: 38 bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 51 fls 73 cfm 75 bmx

As per the rule followed in the above series find out the appropriate steps for the given input and answer the questions.

Input: 23 fan 64 ten jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the sum of the second element from the left end in the Step III and fourth element from the right end in step IV?

  1. AOption (a)

    77

  2. BOption (b)

    75

  3. COption (c)

    72

  4. DOption (d)

    94

  5. EOption (e)

    86

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

77

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is as follows:

In Step I, the word which starts with the highest letter as per alphabetical series rewritten as the vowel is replaced with the next letter comes and consonant replaced with the previous letter comes as per alphabetical series and new letters will be written in alphabetical order and write at extreme left end and at the same time the lowest number if it is an odd number then write in reverse order at the extreme right end. For example, the highest letter started word is nut which is rewritten as n = m, u = v and t = s and collectively written as msv and lowest number is 13 which is changed into 31.

Step I: msv 37 den kit 58 can 24 met 78 83 any 51

In Step II, the second lowest number will be written at the extreme left end if it is even number then subtracted by 3 if the odd number then just as in step I reverse order. At the same time the word started with the second highest letter will be rearranged as in step I but this time written at extreme right end.

Step II: 21 msv 37 den kit 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls

In Step III, repeat the process as in Step I newly formed letter cluster written at extreme left end and next lowest number written at extreme right end.

Step III: jjs 21 msv den 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls 73

In Step IV, repeat the step 2 letter cluster at the right end and number at the left end.

Step IV: 55 jjs 21 msv can 78 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm

In Step V, repeat the process as in Step I.

Step V: bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm 75

In Step VI, repeat the process as in Step II.

Step VI: 38 bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 51 fls 73 cfm 75 bmx

Input: 23 fan 64 ten jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76

Step I: fms fan 64 jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76 32

Step II: 45 fms fan 64 jar 51 lit 89 hut 76 32 jmo

Step III: jks 45 fms fan 64 jar 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15

Step IV: 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq

Step V: gsv 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 32 jmo 15 biq 73

Step VI: 98 gsv 61 jks 45 fms 32 jmo 15 biq 73 bem

Since, second element from the left end in Step III is 45 and fourth element from the right side in Step IV is 32.

Therefore, their sum = 45 + 32 = 77.

Hence, the correct answer is 77.

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is position of 64 with respect to hut in Step II?

  1. AOption (a)

    Third to the right

  2. BOption (b)

    Four to the left

  3. COption (c)

    Fifth to the right

  4. DOption (d)

    Third to the left

  5. EOption (e)

    Fifth to the left

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Fifth to the left

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is as follows:

In Step I, the word which starts with the highest letter as per alphabetical series rewritten as the vowel is replaced with the next letter comes and consonant replaced with the previous letter comes as per alphabetical series and new letters will be written in alphabetical order and write at extreme left end and at the same time the lowest number if it is an odd number then write in reverse order at the extreme right end. For example, the highest letter started word is nut which is rewritten as n = m, u = v and t = s and collectively written as msv and lowest number is 13 which is changed into 31.

Step I: msv 37 den kit 58 can 24 met 78 83 any 51

In Step II, the second lowest number will be written at the extreme left end if it is even number then subtracted by 3 if the odd number then just as in step I reverse order. At the same time the word started with the second highest letter will be rearranged as in step I but this time written at extreme right end.

Step II: 21 msv 37 den kit 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls

In Step III, repeat the process as in Step I newly formed letter cluster written at extreme left end and next lowest number written at extreme right end.

Step III: jjs 21 msv den 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls 73

In Step IV, repeat the step 2 letter cluster at the right end and number at the left end.

Step IV: 55 jjs 21 msv can 78 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm

In Step V, repeat the process as in Step I.

Step V: bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm 75

In Step VI, repeat the process as in Step II.

Step VI: 38 bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 51 fls 73 cfm 75 bmx

Input: 23 fan 64 ten jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76

Step I: fms fan 64 jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76 32

Step II: 45 fms fan 64 jar 51 lit 89 hut 76 32 jmo

Step III: jks 45 fms fan 64 jar 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15

Step IV: 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq

Step V: gsv 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 32 jmo 15 biq 73

Step VI: 98 gsv 61 jks 45 fms 32 jmo 15 biq 73 bem

In step II, 64 comes fifth to the left of hut.

Hence, the correct answer is fifth to the left.

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which element comes fourth to the right of the element which comes second to the left of the third element from the right side in Step IV?

  1. AOption (a)

    89

  2. BOption (b)

    jmo

  3. COption (c)

    76

  4. DOption (d)

    biq

  5. EOption (e)

    fan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

biq

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is as follows:

In Step I, the word which starts with the highest letter as per alphabetical series rewritten as the vowel is replaced with the next letter comes and consonant replaced with the previous letter comes as per alphabetical series and new letters will be written in alphabetical order and write at extreme left end and at the same time the lowest number if it is an odd number then write in reverse order at the extreme right end. For example, the highest letter started word is nut which is rewritten as n = m, u = v and t = s and collectively written as msv and lowest number is 13 which is changed into 31.

Step I: msv 37 den kit 58 can 24 met 78 83 any 51

In Step II, the second lowest number will be written at the extreme left end if it is even number then subtracted by 3 if the odd number then just as in step I reverse order. At the same time the word started with the second highest letter will be rearranged as in step I but this time written at extreme right end.

Step II: 21 msv 37 den kit 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls

In Step III, repeat the process as in Step I newly formed letter cluster written at extreme left end and next lowest number written at extreme right end.

Step III: jjs 21 msv den 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls 73

In Step IV, repeat the step 2 letter cluster at the right end and number at the left end.

Step IV: 55 jjs 21 msv can 78 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm

In Step V, repeat the process as in Step I.

Step V: bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm 75

In Step VI, repeat the process as in Step II.

Step VI: 38 bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 51 fls 73 cfm 75 bmx

Input: 23 fan 64 ten jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76

Step I: fms fan 64 jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76 32

Step II: 45 fms fan 64 jar 51 lit 89 hut 76 32 jmo

Step III: jks 45 fms fan 64 jar 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15

Step IV: 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq

Step V: gsv 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 32 jmo 15 biq 73

Step VI: 98 gsv 61 jks 45 fms 32 jmo 15 biq 73 bem

Since, in Step IV third element from the right end is 'jmo' and second to the left of 'jmo' is '76'. Therefore, 'biq' comes fourth to the right of '76'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'biq'.

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    'gsv' comes at first position in Step IV.

  2. BOption (b)

    45 comes third to the right of 64 in Step III.

  3. COption (c)

    Only two elements comes between 'fms' and 'hut' in Step IV.

  4. DOption (d)

    51 comes second to the right of 89 in Step II.

  5. EOption (e)

    76 comes at the fourth position from the left end in Step III.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only two elements comes between 'fms' and 'hut' in Step IV.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is as follows:

In Step I, the word which starts with the highest letter as per alphabetical series rewritten as the vowel is replaced with the next letter comes and consonant replaced with the previous letter comes as per alphabetical series and new letters will be written in alphabetical order and write at extreme left end and at the same time the lowest number if it is an odd number then write in reverse order at the extreme right end. For example, the highest letter started word is nut which is rewritten as n = m, u = v and t = s and collectively written as msv and lowest number is 13 which is changed into 31.

Step I: msv 37 den kit 58 can 24 met 78 83 any 51

In Step II, the second lowest number will be written at the extreme left end if it is even number then subtracted by 3 if the odd number then just as in step I reverse order. At the same time the word started with the second highest letter will be rearranged as in step I but this time written at extreme right end.

Step II: 21 msv 37 den kit 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls

In Step III, repeat the process as in Step I newly formed letter cluster written at extreme left end and next lowest number written at extreme right end.

Step III: jjs 21 msv den 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls 73

In Step IV, repeat the step 2 letter cluster at the right end and number at the left end.

Step IV: 55 jjs 21 msv can 78 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm

In Step V, repeat the process as in Step I.

Step V: bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm 75

In Step VI, repeat the process as in Step II.

Step VI: 38 bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 51 fls 73 cfm 75 bmx

Input: 23 fan 64 ten jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76

Step I: fms fan 64 jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76 32

Step II: 45 fms fan 64 jar 51 lit 89 hut 76 32 jmo

Step III: jks 45 fms fan 64 jar 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15

Step IV: 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq

Step V: gsv 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 32 jmo 15 biq 73

Step VI: 98 gsv 61 jks 45 fms 32 jmo 15 biq 73 bem

Since, 'gsv' comes at first position in Step V not in Step IV. Therefore, statement first is incorrect.

45 comes third to the left of 64 not right in Step III. Therefore, statement second is incorrect.

Only two elements which are 'fan and 89' comes between fms and hut in Step IV. Therefore, statement third is correct.

51 comes second to the left not right of 89 in Step II. Therefore, statement fourth is incorrect.

76 comes at the fourth position from the right end not from the left end in Step III. Therefore, statement fifth is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is only two elements comes between 'fms' and 'hut' in Step IV.

Question 10

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following step represents Step IV of the given input? 

  1. AOption (a)

    61 jks 45 fms fan 76 hut 89 32 jmo 15 biq

  2. BOption (b)

    61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq

  3. COption (c)

    61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 jmo 32 15 biq

  4. DOption (d)

    jks 45 fms fan 64 jar 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15

  5. EOption (e)

    gsv 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 32 jmo 15 biq 73

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is as follows:

In Step I, the word which starts with the highest letter as per alphabetical series rewritten as the vowel is replaced with the next letter comes and consonant replaced with the previous letter comes as per alphabetical series and new letters will be written in alphabetical order and write at extreme left end and at the same time the lowest number if it is an odd number then write in reverse order at the extreme right end. For example, the highest letter started word is nut which is rewritten as n = m, u = v and t = s and collectively written as msv and lowest number is 13 which is changed into 31.

Step I: msv 37 den kit 58 can 24 met 78 83 any 51

In Step II, the second lowest number will be written at the extreme left end if it is even number then subtracted by 3 if the odd number then just as in step I reverse order. At the same time the word started with the second highest letter will be rearranged as in step I but this time written at extreme right end.

Step II: 21 msv 37 den kit 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls

In Step III, repeat the process as in Step I newly formed letter cluster written at extreme left end and next lowest number written at extreme right end.

Step III: jjs 21 msv den 58 can 78 83 any 51 fls 73

In Step IV, repeat the step 2 letter cluster at the right end and number at the left end.

Step IV: 55 jjs 21 msv can 78 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm

In Step V, repeat the process as in Step I.

Step V: bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 83 any 51 fls 73 cfm 75

In Step VI, repeat the process as in Step II.

Step VI: 38 bbm 55 jjs 21 msv 51 fls 73 cfm 75 bmx

Input: 23 fan 64 ten jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76

Step I: fms fan 64 jar 51 nip 48 lit 89 hut 76 32

Step II: 45 fms fan 64 jar 51 lit 89 hut 76 32 jmo

Step III: jks 45 fms fan 64 jar 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15

Step IV: 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq

Step V: gsv 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 32 jmo 15 biq 73

Step VI: 98 gsv 61 jks 45 fms 32 jmo 15 biq 73 bem

Hence, the correct answer is 61 jks 45 fms fan 89 hut 76 32 jmo 15 biq.

Question 11

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the given question.

What is the code of pink?

Statement I: “Blue is pink” is coded as “nq sk hl”, “she likes blue” is coded as “bd lv ne” and “wall is pink” is coded as “hc nq sk”.

Statement II: “Pink is light” is coded as “sk pm nq”, “Raj likes purple” is coded as “du xz ne” and “None likes black” is coded as “wq ne yt”.

Statement III: “Lotus is pink” is coded as “ur nq sk”, “black absorbs blue” is coded as “dv yt lv” and “blue looks good” is coded as “lv rc ax”.

  1. AOption (a)

    If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement II and III together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I and III together are not sufficient to answer the given question. 

  3. COption (c)

    If the data given in any two statements together are sufficient to answer the given question.

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data given in all the statements taken together are sufficient to answer the given question.

  5. EOption (e)

    If the data given in all the three statements taken together are not sufficient to answer the given question. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

If the data given in all the three statements taken together are not sufficient to answer the given question. 

Why this answer is correct

Statement I:

  1. “Blue is pink” is coded as “nq sk hl”

  2. “she likes blue” is coded as “bd lv ne”

  3. “wall is pink” is coded as “hc nq sk”.

Since, the code for the word pink can be either “nq” or “sk”.

Therefore, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement II:

  1. “Pink is light” is coded as “sk pm nq”

  2. “Raj likes purple” is coded as “du xz ne”

  3. “None likes black” is coded as “wq ne yt”.

Since, we cannot conclude the code for the word ‘pink’.

Therefore, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement III:

  1. “Lotus is pink” is coded as “ur nq sk”

  2. “black absorbs blue” is coded as “dv yt lv”

  3. “blue looks good” is coded as “lv rc ax”.

Since, we cannot conclude the code for the word ‘pink’.

Therefore, statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Since, if we combine any two statements or all statements together we cannot get the answer for the given question.

Hence, the correct answer is all the statements i.e. I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the given question.

Question 12

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the given question.

Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit on the horizontal row and faces towards North direction but not necessarily in same order. Who among the following sits third to the left of S?

Statement I: Three persons sit between T and U. P sits two places away from U. Q sits to the left of T. Only one person sits to the right of U.

Statement II: V sits second to the right of Q. S sits immediate right to the one who sits two places away from T. P sits to the left of R.

Statement III:  Only one person sits between T and P. R sits second to the right of S. Q sits to the left of V who sits to the left of R.

  1. AOption (a)

    If the data given in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the given question while statement III alone is sufficient to answer the given question 

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data given in statement II and III together is sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question

  3. COption (c)

    If the data given in statements I and III together are sufficient to answer the given question while statement II alone is sufficient to answer the given question

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data given in any two statements are sufficient to answer the given question

  5. EOption (e)

    If the data given in all the statements together are required to answer the given question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

If the data given in any two statements are sufficient to answer the given question

Why this answer is correct

Statement I:

  1. Three persons sit between T and U.

  2. P sits two places away from U.

  3. Q sits to the left of T.

  4. Only one person sits to the right of U.

Therefore, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement II:

  1. V sits second to the right of Q.

  2. S sits immediate right to the one who sits two places away from T.

  3. P sits to the left of R.

Since, from statement II we cannot get any accurate result. Therefore, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Now, let’s combine statements I and II, we have

Therefore, statement I and II together are required to answer the given question.

Statement III: 

  1. Only one person sits between T and P.

  2. R sits second to the right of S.

  3. Q sits to the left of V who sits to the left of R.

Since, statement III alone does not give any accurate result. Therefore, statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Now, let’s combine statement II and III, we have

Therefore, statements II and III together are required to answer the given question.

Now let’s combine statement I and III together, we get

Hence, the correct answer is data given in any two statements taken together is sufficient to answer the given question.

Question 13

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the given question.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H attended a conference and sit around a circular table but not necessarily in same order. Who among the following person sit immediate left to D?

Statement I: Two persons sit between A and C. G sits fourth to the left of E. H sits immediate left to C. Neither A nor C sits adjacent to G.

Statement II: B sits second to the right of D. F sits opposite to C. E sits three places away from B. Neither H nor A sits adjacent to B.

Statement III: F sits three places away from D. E sits second to the left of C. G sits adjacent to B and D. A sits to the left of H.

  1. AOption (a)

    If the data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the the given question while statement II and III together are required to answer the given question.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data given in any two statements taken together are sufficient to answer the given question.

  3. COption (c)

    if the data given in all three the statements taken together are not sufficient to answer the given question

  4. DOption (d)

    If the data given in all the three statements taken together are required to answer the given question.

  5. EOption (e)

    If the data given in any statement alone is sufficient to answer the given question. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

If the data given in any two statements taken together are sufficient to answer the given question.

Why this answer is correct

Statement I:

  1. Two persons sit between A and C.

  2. G sits fourth to the left of E.

  3. H sits immediate left to C.

  4. Neither A nor C sits adjacent to G.

Therefore, we can conclude anything from the statement I.

Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement II:

  1. B sits second to the right of D.

  2. F sits opposite to C.

  3. E sits three places away from B.

  4. Neither H nor A sits adjacent to B.

Therefore, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Now, let’s combine statement I and II, we get

Statement III:

  1. F sits three places away from D.

  2. E sits second to the left of C.

  3. G sits adjacent to B and D.

  4. A sits to the left of H.

Since, statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Now if we combine Statements II and III we get

Therefore, both statement II and III together are required to answer the given question.

Now, we combine statements I and III together we get

Therefore, statement I and III together are necessary to answer the question.

Hence, the correct answer is any two statements out of the three statements together are sufficient to answer the given question.

Question 14

Directions

Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the given question.

Eight persons sit on two parallel rows such that four persons M, N, O and P sit on row 1 faces towards South direction and four persons S, T, U and V sit on row 2 faces towards North direction such that each person on row 1 sits opposite to the person sat on row 2. All the given information is not necessarily in same order. Who among the following sits second to the left of M?

Statement I: O sits two places away the person who sits opposite to T. M sits third to the right of P. Only one person sits between S and T neither of sits opposite to M. V sits immediate left to the person who sits opposite to O.

Statement II: Only two persons sit between V and T. Neither S nor U sits opposite to M. N sits to the left of O. P and V do not sit opposite to each other.

Statement III: N sits immediate right to the person who sits opposite to T. V sits adjacent to S but does not face P. Only one person sits between O and P.

  1. AOption (a)

    If the data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the given question while statement III alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

  2. BOption (b)

    If the data given in any two statements taken together are sufficient to answer the given question

  3. COption (c)

    If the data in statement II and III together are sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

  4. DOption (d)

    If all the statements together are required to answer the given question.

  5. EOption (e)

    If all the statements taken together is not sufficient to answer the given question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

If the data in statement II and III together are sufficient to answer the given question while statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

Why this answer is correct

Statement I:

  1. M sits third to the right of P.

  2. Only one person sits between S and T neither of sits opposite to M.

  3. O sits two places away the person who sits opposite to T.

  4. V sits immediate left to the person who sits opposite to O.

Therefore, N sits second to the left of M.

Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement II:

  1. Only two persons sit between V and T.

  2. P and V do not sit opposite to each other.

  3. N sits to the left of O.

  4. Neither S nor U sits opposite to M.

Therefore, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Statement III:

  1. N sits immediate right to the person who sits opposite to T.

  2. V sits adjacent to S but does not face P.

  3. Only one person sits between O and P.

Since, we can conclude anything from the statement III.

Therefore, statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the given question.

Now let’s take statement II and III together, we get

Therefore, we get the required answer.

Hence, the correct answer is either statement I alone or statement II and III together are sufficient to answer the given question.

Question 15

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

A $ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

A # B means ‘B is the brother of A’.

A @ B means ‘A is the husband of B’.

A % B means ‘B is the sister of A’.

A & B means ‘A is the mother of B.’

A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’.

Which of the following expression represents S has only one daughter?

I. M % P # Q @ S & N * Y

II. S * L # N % P $ K @ R

III. Q # K @ S & O * P # T

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and III

  5. EOption (e)

    All of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and III

Why this answer is correct

Since, given expression I, M % P # Q @ S & N * Y is represented as

Therefore, it is clear from expression I that S has only one daughter who is N.

Now expression II, S * L # N % P $ K @ R is represented as

Since, expression II does not give the desired result.

Now expression III, Q # K @ S & O * P # T is represented as

Therefore, expression III also gives the desired result.

Hence, the correct answer is only I and III.$

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Five Captains A, B, C, D and E uses five different ships F, G, H, I, J and K to reach at five different ports K, L, M, N and O but not necessarily in same order. Each captain went after one another and not more than one person uses any particular boat and only one boat reach at any particular port. Each person takes different time to reach at his respective port .When one person completes his journey then only other person starts his journey. No one goes after 4 pm. D reaches one and half an hour before the one who uses ship G. Only two persons completed their journey between the one who reached at port L and C. The one who uses ship J completed his journey at 12pm. The one who reach at port M reached one hour before the one who reached at port O. E takes 50% more of the time taken between the one who uses ship G and B. The one who uses ship I reach at his destination two and half an hour before the one who uses ship J. A completed his journey just after the one who reach at port N completed his journey. As many person completed their journey between the one who reached at port O and the one who uses ship I as many between the one who uses ship F and the one who reached at port O. The difference between time taken by C and the one who reached at port N is same as the difference between time taken by the one who uses ship F and E. B reached at port O. A reached at port L after 4 hours of J.

Question 16

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following combination is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    D - Ship G - Port O

  2. BOption (b)

    B - Ship J - Port N

  3. COption (c)

    E - Ship F - Port N

  4. DOption (d)

    A - Ship F - Port L

  5. EOption (e)

    All are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - Ship F - Port L

Why this answer is correct

Here, given captains A, B, C, D and E; ships are F, G, H, I, J and K and ports are K, L, M, N and O.

  1. A reached at port L after 4 hours of J.

  2. A completed his journey just after the one who reach at port N completed his journey.

  3. The one who uses ship J completed his journey at 12pm. Therefore, A completed his journey at 4pm.

  4. Only two persons completed their journey between the one who reached at port L and C.

PersonsShipsPortsTime
C
N
AL4 pm

 

  1. The one who reach at port M reached one hour before the one who reached at port O.

  2. The one who uses ship I reach at his destination two and half an hour before the one who uses ship J.

  3. As many person completed their journey between the one who reached at port O and the one who uses ship I as many between the one who uses ship F and the one who reached at port O.

Case – 1Case – 2
PersonsShipsPortsTimePersonsShipsPortsTime
I9:30amI9:30am
CM11:00amCJM12:00pm
JO12:00pmO1:00pm
NN
AFL4:00 pmAFL

 

  1. The difference between time taken by C and the one who reached at port N is same as the difference between time taken by the one who uses ship F and E.

  2. B reached at port O.

  3. D reaches one and half an hour before the one who uses ship G. Therefore, case 2 is eliminated.

  4. E takes 50% more of the time taken between the one who uses ship G and B. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

PersonsShipsPortsTime
DIK9:30am
CGM11:00am
BJO12:00pm
EHN1:30pm
AFL4:00 pm

 

Hence, the correct combination is A - Ship F - Port L.

Question 17

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

At what time did the one who uses ship H reached at which port?

  1. AOption (a)

    N - 1:00pm

  2. BOption (b)

    M - 11:00am

  3. COption (c)

    K - 2:00pm

  4. DOption (d)

    L - 4:00pm

  5. EOption (e)

    N - 1:30pm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

N - 1:30pm

Why this answer is correct

Here, given captains A, B, C, D and E; ships are F, G, H, I, J and K and ports are K, L, M, N and O.

  1. A reached at port L after 4 hours of J.

  2. A completed his journey just after the one who reach at port N completed his journey.

  3. The one who uses ship J completed his journey at 12pm. Therefore, A completed his journey at 4pm.

  4. Only two persons completed their journey between the one who reached at port L and C.

PersonsShipsPortsTime
C
N
AL4 pm

 

  1. The one who reach at port M reached one hour before the one who reached at port O.

  2. The one who uses ship I reach at his destination two and half an hour before the one who uses ship J.

  3. As many person completed their journey between the one who reached at port O and the one who uses ship I as many between the one who uses ship F and the one who reached at port O.

Case – 1Case – 2
PersonsShipsPortsTimePersonsShipsPortsTime
I9:30amI9:30am
CM11:00amCJM12:00pm
JO12:00pmO1:00pm
NN
AFL4:00 pmAFL

 

  1. The difference between time taken by C and the one who reached at port N is same as the difference between time taken by the one who uses ship F and E.

  2. B reached at port O.

  3. D reaches one and half an hour before the one who uses ship G. Therefore, case 2 is eliminated.

  4. E takes 50% more of the time taken between the one who uses ship G and B. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

PersonsShipsPortsTime
DIK9:30am
CGM11:00am
BJO12:00pm
EHN1:30pm
AFL4:00 pm

 

Since, E uses Ship H to reach at port N and completed his journey at 1:30pm.

Hence, the correct answer is N - 1:30pm.

Question 18

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The one who used ship J goes just before the one who reached at port L.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only two persons went to the port between the one who used Ship I and the one who used Ship G.

  3. COption (c)

    The one who reached at port L is the first person who started a journey.

  4. DOption (d)

    B reaches at port O just after two persons of the one who reached at port K.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B reaches at port O just after two persons of the one who reached at port K.

Why this answer is correct

Here, given captains A, B, C, D and E; ships are F, G, H, I, J and K and ports are K, L, M, N and O.

  1. A reached at port L after 4 hours of J.

  2. A completed his journey just after the one who reach at port N completed his journey.

  3. The one who uses ship J completed his journey at 12pm. Therefore, A completed his journey at 4pm.

  4. Only two persons completed their journey between the one who reached at port L and C.

PersonsShipsPortsTime
C
N
AL4 pm

 

  1. The one who reach at port M reached one hour before the one who reached at port O.

  2. The one who uses ship I reach at his destination two and half an hour before the one who uses ship J.

  3. As many person completed their journey between the one who reached at port O and the one who uses ship I as many between the one who uses ship F and the one who reached at port O.

Case – 1Case – 2
PersonsShipsPortsTimePersonsShipsPortsTime
I9:30amI9:30am
CM11:00amCJM12:00pm
JO12:00pmO1:00pm
NN
AFL4:00 pmAFL

 

  1. The difference between time taken by C and the one who reached at port N is same as the difference between time taken by the one who uses ship F and E.

  2. B reached at port O.

  3. D reaches one and half an hour before the one who uses ship G. Therefore, case 2 is eliminated.

  4. E takes 50% more of the time taken between the one who uses ship G and B. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

PersonsShipsPortsTime
DIK9:30am
CGM11:00am
BJO12:00pm
EHN1:30pm
AFL4:00 pm

 

Since, The one who used ship J goes two persons before not just before the one who reached at port L. Therefore,statement first is incorrect.

No one not went to the port between D who used Ship I and C who used Ship G. Therefore,statement second is incorrect.

A who reached at port L is the last person not first person who started a journey. Therefore, statement third is incorrect.

B reaches at port O just after two persons of D who reached at port K. Therefore, statement fourth is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is B reaches at port O just after two persons of the one who reached at port K.

Question 19

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons reached to their destination between the one who used ship H and the one who reached at port L?

  1. AOption (a)

    Three

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    One

  4. DOption (d)

    None

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None

Why this answer is correct

Here, given captains A, B, C, D and E; ships are F, G, H, I, J and K and ports are K, L, M, N and O.

  1. A reached at port L after 4 hours of J.

  2. A completed his journey just after the one who reach at port N completed his journey.

  3. The one who uses ship J completed his journey at 12pm. Therefore, A completed his journey at 4pm.

  4. Only two persons completed their journey between the one who reached at port L and C.

PersonsShipsPortsTime
C
N
AL4 pm

 

  1. The one who reach at port M reached one hour before the one who reached at port O.

  2. The one who uses ship I reach at his destination two and half an hour before the one who uses ship J.

  3. As many person completed their journey between the one who reached at port O and the one who uses ship I as many between the one who uses ship F and the one who reached at port O.

Case – 1Case – 2
PersonsShipsPortsTimePersonsShipsPortsTime
I9:30amI9:30am
CM11:00amCJM12:00pm
JO12:00pmO1:00pm
NN
AFL4:00 pmAFL

 

  1. The difference between time taken by C and the one who reached at port N is same as the difference between time taken by the one who uses ship F and E.

  2. B reached at port O.

  3. D reaches one and half an hour before the one who uses ship G. Therefore, case 2 is eliminated.

  4. E takes 50% more of the time taken between the one who uses ship G and B. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

PersonsShipsPortsTime
DIK9:30am
CGM11:00am
BJO12:00pm
EHN1:30pm
AFL4:00 pm

 

Since, E uses ship H and he reached just before A who reached at port L.

Hence, the correct answer is None.

Question 20

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

A) Ship G is used by E to reach at port N.

B) C is the second person who completed his journey.

C) A reached at port L by using Ship H.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    Only B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and C

Why this answer is correct

Here, given captains A, B, C, D and E; ships are F, G, H, I, J and K and ports are K, L, M, N and O.

  1. A reached at port L after 4 hours of J.

  2. A completed his journey just after the one who reach at port N completed his journey.

  3. The one who uses ship J completed his journey at 12pm. Therefore, A completed his journey at 4pm.

  4. Only two persons completed their journey between the one who reached at port L and C.

PersonsShipsPortsTime
C
N
AL4 pm

 

  1. The one who reach at port M reached one hour before the one who reached at port O.

  2. The one who uses ship I reach at his destination two and half an hour before the one who uses ship J.

  3. As many person completed their journey between the one who reached at port O and the one who uses ship I as many between the one who uses ship F and the one who reached at port O.

Case – 1Case – 2
PersonsShipsPortsTimePersonsShipsPortsTime
I9:30amI9:30am
CM11:00amCJM12:00pm
JO12:00pmO1:00pm
NN
AFL4:00 pmAFL

 

  1. The difference between time taken by C and the one who reached at port N is same as the difference between time taken by the one who uses ship F and E.

  2. B reached at port O.

  3. D reaches one and half an hour before the one who uses ship G. Therefore, case 2 is eliminated.

  4. E takes 50% more of the time taken between the one who uses ship G and B. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

PersonsShipsPortsTime
DIK9:30am
CGM11:00am
BJO12:00pm
EHN1:30pm
AFL4:00 pm

 

Since, Ship G is used by C not E to reach at port M not N. Therefore, statement A is incorrect.

C is the second person who completed his journey. Therefore, statement B is correct.

A reached at port L by using Ship F not ship H. Therefore, statement C is incorrect.

Hence, the incorrect statements are both A and C.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Q K 4 R B # * A 7 G ( 9 T D 2 & J M 5 ^ E 3

Step 1: The numbers which are immediately followed or immediately preceded by the symbol will be reduced by one.

Step 2: The elements which are immediately followed by an odd number will interchange their position.

Step 3: The seventh element from the right end will be placed just after the eleventh element from the left end.

Note: (Step 2 is applied after Step 1 and Step 3 is applied after Step 2).

Question 21

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following element comes just before the ninth element from the right end in Step 2?

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    (

  4. DOption (d)

    T

  5. EOption (e)

    &

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

T

Why this answer is correct

(LHS) Q K 4 R B # * A 7 G ( 9 T D 2 & J M 5 ^ E 3 (RHS)

Step 1: The numbers which are immediately followed or immediately preceded by the symbol will be reduced by one.

Operation: Symbol → Number or Number → Symbol reduced by 1.

Step 1: (LHS) Q K 4 R B # * A 7 G ( 8 T D 1 & J M 4 ^ E 3 (RHS)

Step 2: The elements which are immediately followed by an odd number will interchange their position.

Arrangement requirement: Element ↔ Odd number

Step 2: (LHS) Q K 4 R B # * 7 A G ( 8 T 1 D & J M 4 ^ 3 E (RHS)

Step 3: The seventh element from the right end will be placed just after the eleventh element from the left end.

Step 3: (LHS) Q K 4 R B # * 7 A G ( & 8 T 1 D J M 4 ^ 3 E (RHS)

Since, in step 2, ninth element from the right side is 1 and just before 1 the element comes is T.

Hence, the correct answer is T.

Question 22

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many letters comes between the second element from the left end seventh element from the right end as per alphabetical series in Step 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five

  2. BOption (b)

    Six

  3. COption (c)

    Seven

  4. DOption (d)

    Eight

  5. EOption (e)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Six

Why this answer is correct

(LHS) Q K 4 R B # * A 7 G ( 9 T D 2 & J M 5 ^ E 3 (RHS)

Step 1: The numbers which are immediately followed or immediately preceded by the symbol will be reduced by one.

Operation: Symbol → Number or Number → Symbol reduced by 1.

Step 1: (LHS) Q K 4 R B # * A 7 G ( 8 T D 1 & J M 4 ^ E 3 (RHS)

Step 2: The elements which are immediately followed by an odd number will interchange their position.

Arrangement requirement: Element ↔ Odd number

Step 2: (LHS) Q K 4 R B # * 7 A G ( 8 T 1 D & J M 4 ^ 3 E (RHS)

Step 3: The seventh element from the right end will be placed just after the eleventh element from the left end.

Step 3: (LHS) Q K 4 R B # * 7 A G ( & 8 T 1 D J M 4 ^ 3 E (RHS)

Since, in step 3 second element from the left end is K and seventh element from the right end is D.

Therefore, between D and K only six letters present as per alphabetical series.

Hence, the correct answer is six.

Question 23

In the given question five choices are given in which there are four six letters given in each choice now if it is possible to make a four letters meaningful word by using fourth letter of the first word, first letter of second word, third letter of third word and second letter of the fourth word and each letter should not be repeated, then which among the following group of  words can make a meaningful word?

  1. AOption (a)

    NOVICE, TIRADE, CLICHE, RECANT

  2. BOption (b)

    THWART, GENIAL, QUENCH, IMPUTE

  3. COption (c)

    METTLE, GRATIS, EXODUS, ROBUST

  4. DOption (d)

    EVINCE, SAFARI, MALICE, JOSTLE

  5. EOption (e)

    BEHEST, FOSTER, LATENT, SQUALL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

THWART, GENIAL, QUENCH, IMPUTE

Why this answer is correct

I. NOVICE, TIRADE, CLICHE, RECANT → Since, the fourth, first, third and second letters respectively of the given words are I, T, I and E therefore, by using these letters no meaningful word can be formed.

II. THWART, GENIAL, QUENCH, IMPUTE → Since, the fourth, first, third and second letters respectively of the given words are A, G, E and M by using these letters two meaningful words can be formed formed which are Game and Mega.

III. METTLE, GRATIS, EXODUS, ROBUST → Since, the fourth, first, third and second letters respectively of the given words are T, G, O and O therefore, by using these letters no meaningful word can be formed.

IV. EVINCE, SAFARI, MALICE, JOSTLE → Since, the fourth, first, third and second letters respectively of the given words are N, S, L and O therefore, by using these letters no meaningful word can be formed.

V. BEHEST, FOSTER, LATENT, SQUALL → Since, the fourth, first, third and second letters respectively of the given words are E, F, T and Q therefore, by using these letters no meaningful word can be formed.

Hence, the correct answer is THWART, GENIAL, QUENCH, IMPUTE.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center. One person is sitting between A and E from either side. B is sitting on the immediate left of A. Three persons are sitting between C and D. F is the immediate neighbor of D. H is sitting on the immediate left of G. F is neither sitting immediately to G nor H. They are playing a game of drawing a card from a pack of cards from 1 to 10 on the basis of rank from the top. All the cards are divided into two categories i.e. > and @. Cards are drawn in clockwise direction starting from A. Following conditions are applied on the basis of the drawn card.

Conditions:- If 9 (from any category) is drawn then the immediate next person of that person skips the drawing of the card. If 10 (from any category) is drawn then that person draws cards two times in a row. The cards are drawn as follows (rank from the top)

7, >6, @5, >9, @3, >1, >2, >10, @5, @8, @4, @3, >7, @9 @5.

Question 24

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the product of the numbers present in the cards drawn by B?

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    90

  3. COption (c)

    48

  4. DOption (d)

    45

  5. EOption (e)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

48

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center.

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. One person is sitting between A and E from either side.

B is sitting on the immediate left of A.

Combining these, we get-

2. Three persons are sitting between C and D.

F is the immediate neighbor of D.

H is sitting on the immediate left of G.

F is neither sitting immediately to G nor H.

This eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

Now, cards are drawn in clockwise direction starting from A.

The clockwise lineup of drawing cards from A is - A, B, F, D, G, H, E, C. 

The cards drawn are given as- >7, >6, @5, >9, @3, >1, >2, >10, @5, @8, @4, @3, >7, @9 @5.

Therefore, we get the cards drawn by the different persons as follows:

CARDS>7>6@5>9@3>1>2>10@5@8@4@3>7@9@5
PERSONSABFDHECAABFDGHC

 

Now, according to the conditions given, since D draws a card of number 9 of a particular type, so the person next to D, who is G will miss a chance. Similarly, A draws a card 10 of '>' type. So, A will be drawing two cards. Hence, the above given arrangement is the final arrangement of cards distributed. 

Therefore, from the above final table, we see that B picks the >6 and @8 cards. The numbers present in the cards are 6 and 8. The product of 6 and 8 is 48.

Hence, the required product is 48.

Question 25

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the combination of the second card that is drawn by D?

  1. AOption (a)

    >2

  2. BOption (b)

    >9

  3. COption (c)

    @8

  4. DOption (d)

    @3

  5. EOption (e)

    >10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

@3

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center.

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. One person is sitting between A and E from either side.

B is sitting on the immediate left of A.

Combining these, we get-

2. Three persons are sitting between C and D.

F is the immediate neighbor of D.

H is sitting on the immediate left of G.

F is neither sitting immediately to G nor H.

This eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

Now, cards are drawn in clockwise direction starting from A.

The clockwise lineup of drawing cards from A is - A, B, F, D, G, H, E, C. 

The cards drawn are given as- >7, >6, @5, >9, @3, >1, >2, >10, @5, @8, @4, @3, >7, @9 @5.

Therefore, we get the cards drawn by the different persons as follows:

CARDS>7>6@5>9@3>1>2>10@5@8@4@3>7@9@5
PERSONSABFDHECAABFDGHC

 

Now, according to the conditions given, since D draws a card of number 9 of a particular type, so the person next to D, who is G will miss a chance. Similarly, A draws a card 10 of '>' type. So, A will be drawing two cards. Hence, the above given arrangement is the final arrangement of cards distributed. 

Therefore, from the above final table, the second card drawn by D is '@3'. 

Hence, the second card picked by D is '@3'.

Question 26

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who sits third to the right of H?

  1. AOption (a)

    G

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    E

  4. DOption (d)

    A

  5. EOption (e)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

F

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center.

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. One person is sitting between A and E from either side.

B is sitting on the immediate left of A.

Combining these, we get-

2. Three persons are sitting between C and D.

F is the immediate neighbor of D.

H is sitting on the immediate left of G.

F is neither sitting immediately to G nor H.

This eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

Now, cards are drawn in clockwise direction starting from A.

The clockwise lineup of drawing cards from A is - A, B, F, D, G, H, E, C. 

The cards drawn are given as- >7, >6, @5, >9, @3, >1, >2, >10, @5, @8, @4, @3, >7, @9 @5.

Therefore, we get the cards drawn by the different persons as follows:

CARDS>7>6@5>9@3>1>2>10@5@8@4@3>7@9@5
PERSONSABFDHECAABFDGHC

 

Now, according to the conditions given, since D draws a card of number 9 of a particular type, so the person next to D, who is G will miss a chance. Similarly, A draws a card 10 of '>' type. So, A will be drawing two cards. Hence, the above given arrangement is the final arrangement of cards distributed. 

Therefore, from the above final table, we see that F sits third to the right of H. 

Hence, F sits third to the right of H.

Question 27

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following draws a card only once?

  1. AOption (a)

    H

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    G

  4. DOption (d)

    A

  5. EOption (e)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

G

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center.

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. One person is sitting between A and E from either side.

B is sitting on the immediate left of A.

Combining these, we get-

2. Three persons are sitting between C and D.

F is the immediate neighbor of D.

H is sitting on the immediate left of G.

F is neither sitting immediately to G nor H.

This eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

Now, cards are drawn in clockwise direction starting from A.

The clockwise lineup of drawing cards from A is - A, B, F, D, G, H, E, C. 

The cards drawn are given as- >7, >6, @5, >9, @3, >1, >2, >10, @5, @8, @4, @3, >7, @9 @5.

Therefore, we get the cards drawn by the different persons as follows:

CARDS>7>6@5>9@3>1>2>10@5@8@4@3>7@9@5
PERSONSABFDHECAABFDGHC

 

Now, according to the conditions given, since D draws a card of number 9 of a particular type, so the person next to D, who is G will miss a chance. Similarly, A draws a card 10 of '>' type. So, A will be drawing two cards. Hence, the above given arrangement is the final arrangement of cards distributed. 

Therefore, from the above final table, we see that G only picks a card only once.  

Hence, G picks a card only once.

Question 28

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following draws a card of the combination '@5'?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    G

  3. COption (c)

    H

  4. DOption (d)

    A

  5. EOption (e)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the center.

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. One person is sitting between A and E from either side.

B is sitting on the immediate left of A.

Combining these, we get-

2. Three persons are sitting between C and D.

F is the immediate neighbor of D.

H is sitting on the immediate left of G.

F is neither sitting immediately to G nor H.

This eliminates Case 1 from the above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

Now, cards are drawn in clockwise direction starting from A.

The clockwise lineup of drawing cards from A is - A, B, F, D, G, H, E, C. 

The cards drawn are given as- >7, >6, @5, >9, @3, >1, >2, >10, @5, @8, @4, @3, >7, @9 @5.

Therefore, we get the cards drawn by the different persons as follows:

CARDS>7>6@5>9@3>1>2>10@5@8@4@3>7@9@5
PERSONSABFDHECAABFDGHC

 

Now, according to the conditions given, since D draws a card of number 9 of a particular type, so the person next to D, who is G will miss a chance. Similarly, A draws a card 10 of '>' type. So, A will be drawing two cards. Hence, the above given arrangement is the final arrangement of cards distributed. 

Therefore, from the above final table, we see that A picks a '@5' card. 

Hence, A picks a '@5' card.

Question 29

Directions

A passage is given followed by two inferences. You have to consider statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the two inference(s) is/are definitely drawn from the given statements.

Studies indicate a positive association between vehicular pollutants such as benzene and benzo(a) pyrene and chormosonal and DNA damage, insufficient and faulty DNA repair, altered cell signalling, epigenetic silencing of tumor suppressing genes and over-expression of pro-cancer genes. These can result in metaplasia (replacement of one mature cell type with another), dysplasia (increase in abnormal cell growth or development) and carcinoma in situ related changes. Benzene increases the risk of cancer in the bone marrow (leukemia) and lymphatics (lymphoma).

Inferences:

I. Vehicular pollutants can alter internal organs of the person.

II. There is a need to completely ban all kinds of vehicle at an urgent basis.

  1. AOption (a)

    Either inference I or II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Both inference I and II follow

  3. COption (c)

    Only inference I follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only inference II follow

  5. EOption (e)

    Neither inference I nor II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only inference I follow

Why this answer is correct

Inferences:

I. Vehicular pollutants can alter internal organs of the person. → True (As it is clearly mentions in the passage vehicular pollutants can damage natural function of internal organs. Hence, follows.)

II. There is a need to completely ban all kinds of vehicle at an urgent basis. → False (As from the passage it cannot be concluded to ban all kinds of vehicle since there are some vehicles which produce less pollution. Hence, does not follow.)

Hence, the correct answer is only inference I follows.

Question 30

Directions

A passage is given followed by two inferences. You have to consider statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the two inference(s) is/are definitely drawn from the given statements.

Greenwashing is a deceptive practice where companies or even governments exaggerate their actions and their impact on mitigating climate change, often providing misleading information or making unverifiable claims. It is an attempt to capitalize on the growing demand for environmentally sound products. It is fairly widespread and entities often label various activities as climate – friendly without verifiable evidence, undermining genuine efforts against climate change.

Inferences:

I. It creates a risk of diluting the authenticity of the climate goals by presenting misleading or exaggerated information about environmental initiatives.

II. The absence of comprehensive regulations and standards for environmental claims allows greenwashing to persist without adequate scrutiny.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both inferences I and II follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only inference II follow

  3. COption (c)

    Neither inference I nor II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    Only inference I follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both inferences I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

Inferences:

I. It creates a risk of diluting the authenticity of the climate goals by presenting misleading or exaggerated information about environmental initiatives. → True (As it is clear from the passage. Hence, follows.)

II. The absence of comprehensive regulations and standards for environmental claims allows greenwashing to persist without adequate scrutiny. → True (As it is clear from the passage. Hence, follows.)

Hence, the correct answer is both inferences I and II follow.

Question 31

Directions

A passage is given followed by two courses of action. You have to consider statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the two courses of action(s) is/are definitely drawn from the given statements.

Climate engineering refers to the deliberate modification of Earth’s climate to counteract or mitigate the effects of climate change. This can involve various techniques aimed at either reflecting sunlight away from the Earth or removing greenhouse gases from the atmosphere. These techniques are gaining policy attention due to the current gap between climate policy targets and the necessary reductions in atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.

What can be possible government intervention needed to mitigate the challenges associated with climate engineering?

Courses of Action:

I. Government need to make some legislation that can regulate climate action while ignoring the transboundary impact of their decisions.

II. Countries need to make regional agreements to avoid risks of unequal spatial distribution of effects.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Either I or II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II follows

  5. EOption (e)

    Both I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

Courses of Action:

I. Government need to make some legislation that can regulate climate action while ignoring the transboundary impact of their decisions. → False (Since, climate change is a global concern so government cannot ignore its transboundary effects. Hence, does not follow.)

II. Countries need to make regional agreements to avoid risks of unequal spatial distribution of effects. – True (Since, it’s a global concern so governments of all countries are needed to step forward together. Hence, follows.)

Hence, the correct answer is only II follows.

Question 32

Directions

A passage is given followed by two assumptions. You have to consider statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the two assumption(s) is/are definitely drawn from the given statements.

The Reserve Bank of India’s inter-departmental group has submitted its report on internationalisation of the Rupee, a process that involves the use of rupee for cross-border transactions. The report defines internationalisation of a currency as a steady shift towards full capital account convertibility to make it freely convertible for international financial transactions. The factors aiding the emergence of the rupee as an international currency are the geopolitical developments and the slow global shift to a multipolar international monetary and financial system.

Assumptions:

I. It can increase the volatility in money and exchange markets.

II. It can reduce the cost of holding foreign reserve by the RBI.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only assumption II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Either assumption I or II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both assumptions I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only assumption I follows

  5. EOption (e)

    Neither assumption I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both assumptions I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

Assumptions:

I. It can increase the volatility in money and exchange markets. → True (As it is clear from the passage it needed a new monetary policy framework. Hence, follows.)

II. It can reduce the cost of holding foreign reserve by the RBI. → True (Since, if many countries start holding Indian rupee it can smooth trade system which was earlier done by dollars or some internationally accepted currency. Hence, follows.)

Hence, the correct answer is both assumptions I and II follows.

Question 33

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

If in the first word given below all the vowels will be replaced with the next letter and all the consonants will be replaced with previous letter as per alphabetical series then rearrange the letters as per alphabetical series from left to right. In the second word given below the letters which comes after N are changed to next letter according to the alphabetical series and the letters which comes before N are changed to its previous letter according to alphabetical series. Now repeated letters are removed. Then rearrange the letters in alphabetical series then which of the following elements come third from the right side in the given order respectively?

I. CONSCIENTIOUS

II. MANIFESTATION

  1. AOption (a)

    R and N

  2. BOption (b)

    P and Z

  3. COption (c)

    M and U

  4. DOption (d)

    F and L

  5. EOption (e)

    J and R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

F and L

Why this answer is correct

As per given instructions, in the first word i.e. CONSCIENTIOUS

Vowels replaced with the next letter and consonants replaced with the previous letter.

Given wordCONSCIENTIOUS
Operation-1+1-1-1-1+1+1-1-1+1+1+1-1
ResultBPMRBJFMSJPVR
RearrangementBBFJJMMPPRRSV

 

Now remove all the repeated words, we get

Final result: F, S, V

Therefore, the third letter from the right side is F.

Now in second word ,i.e., MANIFESTATION

Before N = -1 and After N = +1 and there is no change on N.

Given wordMANIFESTATION
Operation-1-1-1-1-1+1+1-1+1-1+1
ResultLZNHEDTUZUHPN

 

Now, remove all the repeated letters then

New result: L, E, D, T, P

Now the rearrange the series according to alphabetical series, we get

Final result: D, E, L, P, T

Therefore, the third letter from the right side is L.

Hence, the correct answer is F and L.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Six persons are from between 20 March to 28 March. Only one person born on each date and they all are born in the same year. R born on the date which is multiple of 3. R is neither born at first nor born at last. Three persons are born between R and M. M born on even numbered date. N and M born on consecutive dates. There is gap of two days between the date on which L was born and on which N was born. P was born on one of the days before L on even date but born after the date on which Q was born.

Question 34

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following was born six days after P?

  1. AOption (a)

    N

  2. BOption (b)

    L

  3. COption (c)

    Q

  4. DOption (d)

    M

  5. EOption (e)

    R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

M

Why this answer is correct

Given: Six persons are from between 20 march to 28 march. Only one person born on each date and they all are born in the same year. 

Note that there are nine dates and six persons. So, there will be three vacant days unless otherwise mentioned in the questions asked. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. R born on the date which is multiple of 3.

R is neither born at first nor born at last.

Combining these, we get-

DATESCASES
CASE 1CASE 2CASE 3
20th  March
21st  MarchR
22nd March
23rd March
24th MarchR
25th March
26th March
27th MarchR
28th March

 

2. Three persons are born between R and M. 

From this, we get-

DATESCASES
CASE 1CASE 2CASE 3CASE 4CASE 5CASE 6
20th  MarchM-M
21st  MarchR-R
22nd MarchM
23rd March
24th MarchRR
25th March
26th MarchM
27th March-RR
28th March-MM

 

Note: (-) denotes confirmed vacant dates in the cases mentioned in. 

3. N and M born on consecutive dates.

There is gap of two days between the date on which L was born and on which N was born.

This eliminates cases 2 and 4 from the above and we get-

DATESCASE 1CASE 3CASE 5CASE 6
20th  March-M
21st  MarchR-RN
22nd MarchLM
23rd MarchN
24th MarchLL
25th MarchN
26th MarchML
27th March-RNR
28th March-M

 

4. P was born on one of the days before L on even date but born after the date on which Q was born.

This eliminates cases 1,3, and 6 from the above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

DATESPERSONS
20th  MarchQ
21st  MarchR
22nd MarchP
23rd March-
24th MarchL
25th March-
26th March-
27th MarchN
28th MarchM

 

From the above final table, we see that M was born six days after P. 

Hence, M was born six days after P.

Question 35

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If O was born on an odd numbered date before L then how many persons were born between L and Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    Four

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    None

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

  5. EOption (e)

    One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given: Six persons are from between 20 march to 28 march. Only one person born on each date and they all are born in the same year. 

Note that there are nine dates and six persons. So, there will be three vacant days unless otherwise mentioned in the questions asked. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities:

1. R born on the date which is multiple of 3.

R is neither born at first nor born at last.

Combining these, we get-

DATESCASES
CASE 1CASE 2CASE 3
20th  March
21st  MarchR
22nd March
23rd March
24th MarchR
25th March
26th March
27th MarchR
28th March

 

2. Three persons are born between R and M. 

From this, we get-

DATESCASES
CASE 1CASE 2CASE 3CASE 4CASE 5CASE 6
20th  MarchM-M
21st  MarchR-R
22nd MarchM
23rd March
24th MarchRR
25th March
26th MarchM
27th March-RR
28th March-MM

 

Note: (-) denotes confirmed vacant dates in the cases mentioned in. 

3. N and M born on consecutive dates.

There is gap of two days between the date on which L was born and on which N was born.

This eliminates cases 2 and 4 from the above and we get-

DATESCASE 1CASE 3CASE 5CASE 6
20th  March-M
21st  MarchR-RN
22nd MarchLM
23rd MarchN
24th MarchLL
25th MarchN
26th MarchML
27th March-RNR
28th March-M

 

4. P was born on one of the days before L on even date but born after the date on which Q was born.

This eliminates cases 1,3, and 6 from the above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

DATESPERSONS
20th  MarchQ
21st  MarchR
22nd MarchP
23rd March-
24th MarchL
25th March-
26th March-
27th MarchN
28th MarchM

 

If O was born on an odd numbered date before L, then O would have been born on the 23rd of March. Therefore, the number of persons born between Q and L in that case would be three. 

Hence, the number of persons born between Q and L would be three.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B.’

A $ B means ‘A is the mother of B.’

A * B means ‘A is the wife of B.’

A % B means ‘A is the husband of B’.

A & B means ‘A is the brother of B.’

A @ B means ‘A is the sister of B.’$

Question 36

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If F P * M & Q \% H @ N, then how Q is related to N?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sister

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother

  3. COption (c)

    Father

  4. DOption (d)

    Brother - in - law

  5. EOption (e)

    Sister - in - law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Brother - in - law

Why this answer is correct

Here, given expression F $ P * M & Q % H @ N,

F $ P means ‘F is the mother of P.’

P * M means ‘P is the wife of M.’

M & Q means ‘M is the brother of Q.’

Q % H means ‘Q is the husband of H.’

H @ N means ‘H is the sister of N.’

Therefore, the family chart of the given expression is as follows

Therefore, from the above diagram it is clear Q is the brother – in – law of N.

Hence, the correct answer is brother – in – law.

Question 37

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What should come in the place of a question mark to establish that J is the son – in – law of R in the expression ‘R % V ? L @ O * J’ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    %

  2. BOption (b)
  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    Either or@ or @

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Since, given expression R % V ? L @ O * J,

R % V means R is the husband of V.

Now L @ O means ‘L is the sister of O’ and O * J means ‘O is the wife of J.’ Therefore, expression L @ O * J represented as

Now if we place inplaceof?wegettheexpressionasV in place of ? we get the expression as V L which means V is the mother of L and since L is the sister of O so V is  also mother of J. Therefore, the final expression becomes R % V $ L @ O * J

Hence, the correct answer is ‘$.’

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J went to Shimla by using two cars which are car P and car Q. In each car, at least four persons but not more than five persons sit on any car. All the given information is not necessarily in same order. D and F sits on different cars but one of them sits with the E. C and H are going with same car. J and B travels in different cars. Either A or H travels with G. F and B travels with the same car. No two persons whose name starts with the vowel travel in the same car. C travels in the car which has maximum number of persons. Neither J nor D travels in the same car with G. Even number of persons does not travel with car P.

Question 38

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    H and F travel with the same car in which the person who travels with J.

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B travels with different cars.

  3. COption (c)

    G travels with H in the same car.

  4. DOption (d)

    Maximum number of persons travel in the same car in which E travels.

  5. EOption (e)

    All are incorrect.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maximum number of persons travel in the same car in which E travels.

Why this answer is correct

Here, persons are A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J.

  1. D and F sits on different cars but one of them sits with the E.

  2. F and B travels with the same car.

CarsCase – 1Case – 2Case – 3Case – 4
PersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
Car PD, EDF, BF, B, E
Car QF, BF, B, ED, ED

 

  1. J and B travels in different cars.

  2. No two persons whose name starts with the vowel travel in the same car.

CarsCase – 1Case – 2Case – 3Case – 4
PersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
Car PD, E, JD, A, JF, B, AF, B, E
Car QF, B, AF, B, ED, E, JD, J, A

 

  1. C and H are going with same car.

  2. Either A or H travels with G. Since, between A and H only one will travel in the same car with G therefore, A and H travels in different cars.

  3. C travels in the car which has maximum number of persons.

CarsCase – 1Case – 2Case – 3Case – 4
PersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
Car PD, E, J, C, HD, A, J, GF, B, A, GF, B, E, C, H
Car QF, B, A, GF, B, E, C, HD, E, J, C, HD, J, A, G

 

  1. Neither J nor D travels in the same car with G. Therefore, case 2 and case 4 are eliminated.

  2. Even number of persons does not travel with car P. Therefore, case 3 is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

CarsPersons
Car PD, E, J, C, H
Car QF, B, A, G

 

Since, H and F travel with the different cars so only one of them travels with person who travels with J. Therefore, statement first is incorrect.

.A and B travels with the same car. Therefore, statement second is incorrect.

G and H travels with the different cars. Therefore, statement third is incorrect.

Maximum number of persons travel in the same car in which E travels. Therefore, statement fourth is correct.

Hence, the correct statement is maximum number of persons travel in the same car in which E travels.

Question 39

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

A) E travels in car Q.

B) F and G travels in different cars.

C) H travels with D but not with A.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Both B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    All of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and B

Why this answer is correct

Here, persons are A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J.

  1. D and F sits on different cars but one of them sits with the E.

  2. F and B travels with the same car.

CarsCase – 1Case – 2Case – 3Case – 4
PersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
Car PD, EDF, BF, B, E
Car QF, BF, B, ED, ED

 

  1. J and B travels in different cars.

  2. No two persons whose name starts with the vowel travel in the same car.

CarsCase – 1Case – 2Case – 3Case – 4
PersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
Car PD, E, JD, A, JF, B, AF, B, E
Car QF, B, AF, B, ED, E, JD, J, A

 

  1. C and H are going with same car.

  2. Either A or H travels with G. Since, between A and H only one will travel in the same car with G therefore, A and H travels in different cars.

  3. C travels in the car which has maximum number of persons.

CarsCase – 1Case – 2Case – 3Case – 4
PersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
Car PD, E, J, C, HD, A, J, GF, B, A, GF, B, E, C, H
Car QF, B, A, GF, B, E, C, HD, E, J, C, HD, J, A, G

 

  1. Neither J nor D travels in the same car with G. Therefore, case 2 and case 4 are eliminated.

  2. Even number of persons does not travel with car P. Therefore, case 3 is eliminated. Hence, the final arrangement is as follows

CarsPersons
Car PD, E, J, C, H
Car QF, B, A, G

 

Since, E travels in car P not car Q. Therefore, statement A is incorrect.

F and G travels in same car. Therefore, statement B is incorrect.

H travels with D but not with A. Therefore, statement C is correct.

Hence, the incorrect statements are Both A and B.

Question 40

Country Z is taking services from company Y from last few years. Now the service contract of country Z with company Y is coming to end. But instead of renewing of contract with company Y, country Z is thinking about to giving the contract to company X.

Which of the following is may not be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y?

  1. AOption (a)

    Company X is providing better services which are not provided by company Y to the country Z.

  2. BOption (b)

    Company Y is not providing services according to the standards of the country Z.

  3. COption (c)

    Company Y is providing better services as per the requirements of the country Z.

  4. DOption (d)

    Cost of the services provided by company Y is more than the same services provided by company X.

  5. EOption (e)

    Company Y's dealing with Country Z's top brass was poor and disoriented. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Company Y is providing better services as per the requirements of the country Z.

Why this answer is correct

We check the given options one by one and see which one might not be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y as follows:

1. Company X is providing better services which are not provided by company Y to the country Z. → This might be a valid and a genuine reason for country Z to not renew the services with company Y. Hence, this might be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y.  2. Company Y is not providing services according to the standards of the country Z. → This might be a valid and a genuine reason for country Z to not renew the services with company Y. Since, company Y has not clearly upgraded their services, country Z might look for other options. Hence, this might be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y.  3. Company Y is providing better services as per the requirements of the country Z. → This cannot be a valid and a genuine reason for country Z to not renew the services with company Y. Country Z should rather be delighted that company Y has upgraded their services which might help the country's citizens. Hence, this might not be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y.  4. Cost of the services provided by company Y is more than the same services provided by company X. → This might be a valid and a genuine reason for country Z to not renew the services with company Y. Country Z might only be able to afford a certain limit of cost which is provided by company X and not by company Y. Hence, this might be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y.  5. Company Y's dealing with Country Z's top brass was poor and disoriented. → This might be a valid and a genuine reason for country Z to not renew the services with company Y. Country Z's top brass might be hugely upset with the mannerisms of company Y. Hence, this might be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y. 

Hence, option 3 might not be the reason of not renewing contract with company Y.

Question 41

In a question below is given a statement. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.

Statement:

"Government of State X's state, according to which it has been decided to provide a cooked meal to the students of all primary schools of the states, is not a proper and judicious step." — Criticism by a person.

Assumption:

I. Student may hesitate to eat the cooked meal provided by the Government.

II. The cooked meal served to the students may be hazardous for the health of students.

  1. AOption (a)

    If only assumption I is implicit 

  2. BOption (b)

    If only assumption II is implicit 

  3. COption (c)

    If either I or II is implicit 

  4. DOption (d)

    If neither I nor II is implicit 

  5. EOption (e)

    If both I and II are implicit 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

If neither I nor II is implicit 

Why this answer is correct

We cannot say what ground the critic assumes on the basis of which be terms it "not a proper and judicious step."

According to 1st  assumption, we can not assume that the student may hesitate to eat the cooked meal provided by the Government.

According to 2nd assumption, we can not assume that the cooked meal served to the students may be hazardous for the health.

Hence, If neither I nor II is implicit.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on given information.

A certain number of persons live on a four storey apartment such that floor 1 is the bottom most floor and floor 4 is the top most floor. In each floor there are three flats i.e. flat P, flat Q and flat R and flat P is in west of flat Q which is in west of flat R. These persons have different number of chocolates which ranges from 1 to 100. There are some vacant flats in each floor and at least two persons live in each floor and flat.

M have the chocolates which is half of the chocolates of the person who lives immediately above his flat. No one lives between the flat of A and the person who has 7 more chocolates than him. The difference between numbers of chocolates X has and that of V is same as the number of chocolates E holds. No one lives to the east of K. Both A and S lives on same type of flat but not in flat R. J and the person who has maximum number of chocolates lives on same floor. V has the chocolates which is three times the number of chocolates of A. M lives just above the floor of E but not on same flat. J does not live on flat P. S and X do not live on same floor and same flat. E lives immediately above the flat of K but not in flat R. S has chocolates which is 7 less than three times of the number of chocolates E has. X does not have chocolates lesser than V. K has the chocolates which is 1 less than the average number of chocolates of J and V. E have the chocolates which is one more than the multiple of least composite and least odd prime number. J has one more chocolates than the number of chocolates M had. A and J do not live on the same floor. S does not live to the west of E or V. The person who has prime number of chocolates but not least number lives to the exact east to the S. X and V lives on same flat. S lives one of the floor below M.

Question 42

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following person have maximum number of chocolates ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    K

  4. DOption (d)

    X

  5. EOption (e)

    V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

X

Why this answer is correct

Given: A certain number of persons live on a four storey apartment such that floor 1 is the bottom most floor and floor 4 is the top most floor. In each floor there are three flats i.e. flat P, flat Q and flat R and flat P is in west of flat Q which is in west of flat R. These persons have different number of chocolates which ranges from 1 to 100. There are some vacant flats in each floor and at least two persons live in each floor and flat.

  1. E lives immediately above the flat of K but on flat R. That means E and K lives either on flat P or on flat Q.

  2. No one lives to the east of K but according to direction atleast two persons live on each floor and flat.  So, K cannot in flat P.

  3. E has the chocolates which is one more than the multiple of least composite and least odd prime number. Since the least composite number is 4 and odd prime number is 3 and their multiplication is 12 so E has 13 chocolates.

  4. M have the chocolates which is half of the chocolates of the person who lives immediately above his flat. So, M cannot be on Floor 4.

FloorsCase – 1Case – 2
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MM
2E(13)E(13)
1KK

 

  1. S has chocolates which is 7 less than three times of the number of chocolates E has. So, S has 32 chocolates.

  2. A and S lives on same flat but not in flat R.  

  3. No one lives between the flat of A and the person who has 7 more chocolates than him.

  4. S lives one of the floors below M. Since, the person above M holds twice the number of chocolates he himself has so, A cannot be above M.

FloorsCase – 1(a)Case – 1(b)Case – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MMAMM
2S (32)E (13)AE (13)E (13)AE (13)
1A (25)S (32)KS (32)KS (32)K

 

FloorsCase – 2(c)Case – 2(d)Case – 2(e)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4AA
3MAMM
2E(13)S (32)E(13)S (32)E (13)
1S (32)KKK

 

  1. S does not live to the west of E or V. So, cases 1(a) and 2(d, e) are eliminated.

  2. X and V lives on same flat.

  3. A and J do not live on the same floor.

  4. J has one more chocolate than the number of chocolates of M has.

  5. S and X do not live on the same floor and same flat. So, X does not live on Flat P.

  6. J and the person who has maximum number of chocolates lives on same floor.

  7. J does not live on flat P.

  8. X has more chocolates than V who has three times the number of chocolates of A. So, we can conclude X has maximum number of chocolates. So, case 1(b) and 2(c) are eliminated.

FloorsCase – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4JXJX
3AMM
2E (13)VAE (13)V
1S (32)KS (32)K

 

Since, there is atleast two persons live on each floor. So, case 2(b) is eliminated.

  1. V has three times the number of chocolates of A. From condition 7 we get A has 25 chocolates then V has 75 chocolates.

  2. The difference between numbers of chocolates X has and that of V is same as the number of chocolates E holds. So, X has 88 chocolates and M has 44 chocolates so J has 45 chocolates.

  3. K has the chocolates which is 1 less than the average number of chocolates of J and V. Therefore, K has 59 chocolates.

FloorsFlat PFlat QFlat R
4J (45)X (88)
3A (25)M (44)
2E (13)V (13)
1S (32)K (59)

 

Since, X has 88 chocolates which is maximum among all.

Hence, the correct answer is X.

Question 43

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who lives in same floor with A ?

  1. AOption (a)

    X

  2. BOption (b)

    V

  3. COption (c)

    M

  4. DOption (d)

    K

  5. EOption (e)

    E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

M

Why this answer is correct

Given: A certain number of persons live on a four storey apartment such that floor 1 is the bottom most floor and floor 4 is the top most floor. In each floor there are three flats i.e. flat P, flat Q and flat R and flat P is in west of flat Q which is in west of flat R. These persons have different number of chocolates which ranges from 1 to 100. There are some vacant flats in each floor and at least two persons live in each floor and flat.

  1. E lives immediately above the flat of K but on flat R. That means E and K lives either on flat P or on flat Q.

  2. No one lives to the east of K but according to direction atleast two persons live on each floor and flat.  So, K cannot in flat P.

  3. E has the chocolates which is one more than the multiple of least composite and least odd prime number. Since the least composite number is 4 and odd prime number is 3 and their multiplication is 12 so E has 13 chocolates.

  4. M have the chocolates which is half of the chocolates of the person who lives immediately above his flat. So, M cannot be on Floor 4.

FloorsCase – 1Case – 2
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MM
2E(13)E(13)
1KK

 

  1. S has chocolates which is 7 less than three times of the number of chocolates E has. So, S has 32 chocolates.

  2. A and S lives on same flat but not in flat R.  

  3. No one lives between the flat of A and the person who has 7 more chocolates than him.

  4. S lives one of the floors below M. Since, the person above M holds twice the number of chocolates he himself has so, A cannot be above M.

FloorsCase – 1(a)Case – 1(b)Case – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MMAMM
2S (32)E (13)AE (13)E (13)AE (13)
1A (25)S (32)KS (32)KS (32)K

 

FloorsCase – 2(c)Case – 2(d)Case – 2(e)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4AA
3MAMM
2E(13)S (32)E(13)S (32)E (13)
1S (32)KKK

 

  1. S does not live to the west of E or V. So, cases 1(a) and 2(d, e) are eliminated.

  2. X and V lives on same flat.

  3. A and J do not live on the same floor.

  4. J has one more chocolate than the number of chocolates of M has.

  5. S and X do not live on the same floor and same flat. So, X does not live on Flat P.

  6. J and the person who has maximum number of chocolates lives on same floor.

  7. J does not live on flat P.

  8. X has more chocolates than V who has three times the number of chocolates of A. So, we can conclude X has maximum number of chocolates. So, case 1(b) and 2(c) are eliminated.

FloorsCase – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4JXJX
3AMM
2E (13)VAE (13)V
1S (32)KS (32)K

 

Since, there is atleast two persons live on each floor. So, case 2(b) is eliminated.

  1. V has three times the number of chocolates of A. From condition 7 we get A has 25 chocolates then V has 75 chocolates.

  2. The difference between numbers of chocolates X has and that of V is same as the number of chocolates E holds. So, X has 88 chocolates and M has 44 chocolates so J has 45 chocolates.

  3. K has the chocolates which is 1 less than the average number of chocolates of J and V. Therefore, K has 59 chocolates.

FloorsFlat PFlat QFlat R
4J (45)X (88)
3A (25)M (44)
2E (13)V (13)
1S (32)K (59)

 

Hence, M lives in same floor with A.

Question 44

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement is correct ?

  1. AOption (a)

    A lives just above the flat of S.

  2. BOption (b)

    E and X lives on same floor.

  3. COption (c)

    V lives to the west of K

  4. DOption (d)

    J has more number of chocolates than V.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

Given: A certain number of persons live on a four storey apartment such that floor 1 is the bottom most floor and floor 4 is the top most floor. In each floor there are three flats i.e. flat P, flat Q and flat R and flat P is in west of flat Q which is in west of flat R. These persons have different number of chocolates which ranges from 1 to 100. There are some vacant flats in each floor and at least two persons live in each floor and flat.

  1. E lives immediately above the flat of K but on flat R. That means E and K lives either on flat P or on flat Q.

  2. No one lives to the east of K but according to direction atleast two persons live on each floor and flat.  So, K cannot in flat P.

  3. E has the chocolates which is one more than the multiple of least composite and least odd prime number. Since the least composite number is 4 and odd prime number is 3 and their multiplication is 12 so E has 13 chocolates.

  4. M have the chocolates which is half of the chocolates of the person who lives immediately above his flat. So, M cannot be on Floor 4.

FloorsCase – 1Case – 2
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MM
2E(13)E(13)
1KK

 

  1. S has chocolates which is 7 less than three times of the number of chocolates E has. So, S has 32 chocolates.

  2. A and S lives on same flat but not in flat R.  

  3. No one lives between the flat of A and the person who has 7 more chocolates than him.

  4. S lives one of the floors below M. Since, the person above M holds twice the number of chocolates he himself has so, A cannot be above M.

FloorsCase – 1(a)Case – 1(b)Case – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MMAMM
2S (32)E (13)AE (13)E (13)AE (13)
1A (25)S (32)KS (32)KS (32)K

 

FloorsCase – 2(c)Case – 2(d)Case – 2(e)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4AA
3MAMM
2E(13)S (32)E(13)S (32)E (13)
1S (32)KKK

 

  1. S does not live to the west of E or V. So, cases 1(a) and 2(d, e) are eliminated.

  2. X and V lives on same flat.

  3. A and J do not live on the same floor.

  4. J has one more chocolate than the number of chocolates of M has.

  5. S and X do not live on the same floor and same flat. So, X does not live on Flat P.

  6. J and the person who has maximum number of chocolates lives on same floor.

  7. J does not live on flat P.

  8. X has more chocolates than V who has three times the number of chocolates of A. So, we can conclude X has maximum number of chocolates. So, case 1(b) and 2(c) are eliminated.

FloorsCase – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4JXJX
3AMM
2E (13)VAE (13)V
1S (32)KS (32)K

 

Since, there is atleast two persons live on each floor. So, case 2(b) is eliminated.

  1. V has three times the number of chocolates of A. From condition 7 we get A has 25 chocolates then V has 75 chocolates.

  2. The difference between numbers of chocolates X has and that of V is same as the number of chocolates E holds. So, X has 88 chocolates and M has 44 chocolates so J has 45 chocolates.

  3. K has the chocolates which is 1 less than the average number of chocolates of J and V. Therefore, K has 59 chocolates.

FloorsFlat PFlat QFlat R
4J (45)X (88)
3A (25)M (44)
2E (13)V (13)
1S (32)K (59)

 

Since, all the given statements are not correct.

Hence, the correct answer is None of these.

Question 45

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following combination is incorrect ?

  1. AOption (a)

    V - Floor 4 - Flat R

  2. BOption (b)

    J - Floor 4 - Flat Q

  3. COption (c)

    K - Floor 1 - Flat Q

  4. DOption (d)

    A - Floor - 3 - Flat P

  5. EOption (e)

    All are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

V - Floor 4 - Flat R

Why this answer is correct

Given: A certain number of persons live on a four storey apartment such that floor 1 is the bottom most floor and floor 4 is the top most floor. In each floor there are three flats i.e. flat P, flat Q and flat R and flat P is in west of flat Q which is in west of flat R. These persons have different number of chocolates which ranges from 1 to 100. There are some vacant flats in each floor and at least two persons live in each floor and flat.

  1. E lives immediately above the flat of K but on flat R. That means E and K lives either on flat P or on flat Q.

  2. No one lives to the east of K but according to direction atleast two persons live on each floor and flat.  So, K cannot in flat P.

  3. E has the chocolates which is one more than the multiple of least composite and least odd prime number. Since the least composite number is 4 and odd prime number is 3 and their multiplication is 12 so E has 13 chocolates.

  4. M have the chocolates which is half of the chocolates of the person who lives immediately above his flat. So, M cannot be on Floor 4.

FloorsCase – 1Case – 2
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MM
2E(13)E(13)
1KK

 

  1. S has chocolates which is 7 less than three times of the number of chocolates E has. So, S has 32 chocolates.

  2. A and S lives on same flat but not in flat R.  

  3. No one lives between the flat of A and the person who has 7 more chocolates than him.

  4. S lives one of the floors below M. Since, the person above M holds twice the number of chocolates he himself has so, A cannot be above M.

FloorsCase – 1(a)Case – 1(b)Case – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4
3MMAMM
2S (32)E (13)AE (13)E (13)AE (13)
1A (25)S (32)KS (32)KS (32)K

 

FloorsCase – 2(c)Case – 2(d)Case – 2(e)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4AA
3MAMM
2E(13)S (32)E(13)S (32)E (13)
1S (32)KKK

 

  1. S does not live to the west of E or V. So, cases 1(a) and 2(d, e) are eliminated.

  2. X and V lives on same flat.

  3. A and J do not live on the same floor.

  4. J has one more chocolate than the number of chocolates of M has.

  5. S and X do not live on the same floor and same flat. So, X does not live on Flat P.

  6. J and the person who has maximum number of chocolates lives on same floor.

  7. J does not live on flat P.

  8. X has more chocolates than V who has three times the number of chocolates of A. So, we can conclude X has maximum number of chocolates. So, case 1(b) and 2(c) are eliminated.

FloorsCase – 2(a)Case – 2(b)
Flat PFlat QFlat RFlat PFlat QFlat R
4JXJX
3AMM
2E (13)VAE (13)V
1S (32)KS (32)K

 

Since, there is atleast two persons live on each floor. So, case 2(b) is eliminated.

  1. V has three times the number of chocolates of A. From condition 7 we get A has 25 chocolates then V has 75 chocolates.

  2. The difference between numbers of chocolates X has and that of V is same as the number of chocolates E holds. So, X has 88 chocolates and M has 44 chocolates so J has 45 chocolates.

  3. K has the chocolates which is 1 less than the average number of chocolates of J and V. Therefore, K has 59 chocolates.

FloorsFlat PFlat QFlat R
4J (45)X (88)
3A (25)M (44)
2E (13)V (13)
1S (32)K (59)

 

Hence, the incorrect combination is V - Floor 4 - Flat R because V lives on Floor 2.

General Awareness (40 questions)

Question 46

What was the initial paid-up capital of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when it began operations in 1935?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹5 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹10 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹50 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹100 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹5 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹5 crore.

In News

  • The initial paid-up capital of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) when it began operations in 1935 was ₹5 crore.
  • This capital was initially provided by private shareholders, and later, it was transferred to the Central Government.

Key Points

  • The RBI’s initial paid-up capital was ₹5 crore, which laid the foundation for its operations as India’s central bank.
  • The RBI’s capital base has grown significantly over the years, reflecting its role in managing the financial system and maintaining monetary stability in India.
  • While the exact current paid-up capital is not specified, the RBI now operates with a substantial capital base as a key regulator in India’s economy.

Additional Information

  • RBI’s Role in India
  • The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank responsible for regulating India’s financial system, managing monetary policy, and ensuring economic stability.
  • RBI’s operations include controlling inflation, managing currency, and ensuring the stability of the banking sector.
  • On-Tap Licensing and Capital Requirements
  • The RBI’s on-tap licensing policy for setting up new banks requires a minimum capital of ₹500 crore to ensure financial stability and regulatory oversight.

Question 47

As per recent reports in october 2024, What is the maximum value for the contract size of index derivatives as per the latest guidelines issued by SEBI?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹10 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹15 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    ₹20 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹25 lakh

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹30 lakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹20 lakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹20 lakh.

In News

  • As per SEBI’s new guidelines, the minimum contract size for index derivatives is ₹15 lakh, and the maximum value of the contract can range from ₹15 lakh to ₹20 lakh.
  • The revised contract size aims to regulate the market by setting appropriate levels of leverage and risk for participants.

Key Points

  • The maximum value of an index derivative contract, as per SEBI’s new rules, can range between ₹15 lakh and ₹20 lakh.
  • This change is part of the effort to regulate high-risk derivative trading and align contract sizes with market growth.
  • Effective from November 20, 2024, SEBI's revised guidelines aim to reduce excessive speculative activity and manage risk better in the futures and options market.

Additional Information

  • SEBI Derivatives Guidelines
  • The guidelines focus on increasing the minimum contract size to ₹15 lakh and regulating contract sizes to reduce market risks.
  • SEBI’s guidelines aim to make the F&O market safer for retail traders and improve overall market stability.
  • Weekly Expiry and Tail Risk Coverage
  • Weekly expiry contracts will be limited to one per exchange, and additional Extreme Loss Margin (ELM) of 2% will be applied to short options positions to manage risk.

Question 48

What is the required Net Owned Funds (NOF) for an NBFC to commence or carry on business, as per Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹5 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹10 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹20 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹25 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹50 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹10 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹10 crore.

In News

  • As per Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934, NBFCs must have a Net Owned Funds (NOF) of ₹10 crore to commence or carry on business.
  • The minimum NOF requirement will be applicable from October 01, 2022, for NBFCs seeking registration and for existing NBFCs by March 31, 2027.

Key Points

  • The Net Owned Funds (NOF) requirement for NBFCs is ₹10 crore as per RBI regulations, effective from October 2022.
  • Existing NBFCs have until March 31, 2027, to meet this NOF requirement.
  • NBFCs seeking registration must have ₹10 crore NOF from the start (ab initio).
  • Categories of NBFCs regulated by other authorities (e.g., SEBI, IRDA) are exempt from RBI registration and NOF requirements.

Additional Information

  • Net Owned Funds (NOF)
  • NOF is the minimum capital required for an NBFC to operate as per RBI regulations, ensuring financial stability and operations.
  • NOF for NBFCs is set at ₹10 crore, and meeting this requirement is crucial for the registration and continuation of business activities.
  • NBFC Registration
  • NBFCs must register with the Reserve Bank of India to legally carry out their business activities.
  • Certain categories of NBFCs, like those regulated by SEBI or IRDA, are exempt from registering with the RBI.

Question 49

Until when has the government extended the benefits under the RoDTEP scheme for exports made from domestic tariff area (DTA) units?

  1. AOption (a)

    September 30, 2024

  2. BOption (b)

    December 31, 2024

  3. COption (c)

    September 30, 2025

  4. DOption (d)

    December 31, 2025

  5. EOption (e)

    March 31, 2025

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

September 30, 2025

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is September 30, 2025.

In News

  • The government has extended the benefits under the RoDTEP scheme for exports made from DTA units until September 30, 2025.
  • The extension provides relief to exporters, allowing them to benefit from the remission of duties and taxes incurred during manufacturing and distribution.

Key Points

  • The RoDTEP scheme has been extended to September 30, 2025, for exports made from DTA units, while the scheme for AA/EOU/SEZ units is extended until December 31, 2024.
  • The extension ensures continued support for Indian exporters by refunding un-reimbursed duties and taxes related to their exports.
  • The scheme will help boost India's export competitiveness and allow for better participation in global value chains.

Additional Information

  • RoDTEP Scheme
  • The RoDTEP scheme refunds duties and taxes that exporters incur during the manufacturing and distribution process but are not reimbursed by any other mechanism.
  • The scheme is essential in helping Indian exporters remain competitive globally by reducing the cost burden of non-reimbursed taxes and duties.
  • Impact on Exporters
  • The extension of the scheme provides stability to exporters, helping them finalize new contracts and improve their competitiveness.

Question 50

Where is the headquarters of the World Economic Forum (WEF) located?

  1. AOption (a)

    United States

  2. BOption (b)

    Germany

  3. COption (c)

    Switzerland

  4. DOption (d)

    United Kingdom

  5. EOption (e)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Switzerland

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Switzerland.

In News

  • The World Economic Forum (WEF) has its headquarters in Switzerland.
  • The WEF is an international organization dedicated to improving global economic conditions, and its headquarters is in Cologny, a suburb of Geneva.

Key Points

  • The WEF's headquarters is located in Cologny, Switzerland.
  • The WEF is best known for organizing the annual meeting in Davos, which gathers business, political, and academic leaders from around the world.
  • Switzerland is known for being a hub for international organizations, and the WEF is one of the major organizations based there.

Additional Information

  • World Economic Forum (WEF)
  • Founded in 1971, the WEF brings together leaders from business, government, and academia to discuss global issues.
  • The WEF’s headquarters is in Cologny, near Geneva, Switzerland.

Question 51

Which two Australian universities have opened international campuses in GIFT City, India?

  1. AOption (a)

    University of Sydney and University of Melbourne

  2. BOption (b)

    Deakin University and University of Wollongong

  3. COption (c)

    Australian National University and University of Queensland

  4. DOption (d)

    University of New South Wales and University of Technology Sydney

  5. EOption (e)

    University of Western Australia and University of Adelaide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Deakin University and University of Wollongong

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Deakin University and University of Wollongong.

In News

  • Deakin University was the first Australian university to establish a campus in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in India, opening in January 2024.
  • University of Wollongong followed as the second Australian university to establish a campus in GIFT City, inaugurating its campus on November 15, 2024.

Key Points

  • Deakin University and University of Wollongong are the first two Australian universities to open campuses in GIFT City, India.
  • Deakin University offers programs like Master of Business Analytics and Master of Cyber Security.
  • UOW offers Master of Financial Technology and Graduate Certificate in Financial Technology programs.
  • Both universities provide degrees with the same recognition and status as those issued by their parent campuses in Australia.

Additional Information

  • GIFT City
  • GIFT City is a financial hub in India, where foreign universities, like Deakin University and University of Wollongong, have established campuses.
  • It aims to provide quality education with industry-relevant programs in fields like business analytics, cyber security, and financial technology.
  • Financial Benefits and Collaboration
  • UOW offers an inaugural scholarship to students enrolling in computing and financial technology programs.
  • UOW has partnered with Odoo to provide students with industry-relevant skills in business software.

Question 52

Consider the following statements regarding the FATF grey list:

  1. The FATF grey list includes countries that are closely monitored for their efforts to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
  2. Being on the FATF grey list has no significant impact on a country's financial system or international reputation.
  3. Countries on the grey list are required to implement specific action plans to improve their anti-money laundering (AML) and combating the financing of terrorism (CFT) frameworks.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The FATF grey list includes countries that are closely monitored for their efforts to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
  • Countries on the grey list are required to implement specific action plans to improve their AML/CFT frameworks.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The FATF grey list is a public list of countries monitored for deficiencies in their anti-money laundering (AML) and combating terrorist financing (CFT) systems.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Being on the grey list has significant consequences, including increased scrutiny, heightened due diligence requirements, and potential sanctions.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Countries on the grey list are required to implement action plans provided by the FATF to improve their systems.
  • Countries on the grey list face increased restrictions on cross-border financial transactions and may have their financial institutions subject to heightened reporting requirements.

Additional Information

  • FATF Grey List
  • The FATF grey list includes countries that are being monitored for deficiencies in their AML/CFT systems, with an emphasis on financial centers and jurisdictions with economic importance.
  • Countries on the grey list are required to address identified deficiencies through concrete action plans.
  • Consequences of Grey Listing
  • Countries on the grey list face increased scrutiny from international organizations and financial institutions.
  • They may face restrictions on cross-border financial transactions, impacting their global financial relationships.

Question 53

According to CBRE's "MSMEs Unleashing the Engines of Economic Prosperity" report which two states have the highest share of MSMEs in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra and Kerala

  5. EOption (e)

    Tamil Nadu and Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

In News

  • The report highlights Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu as the top two states with the highest share of MSMEs in India.
  • Maharashtra accounted for 17% of the MSMEs, followed by Tamil Nadu with 10%, and Uttar Pradesh with 9%.

Key Points

  • Maharashtra has the highest share of MSMEs in India, with 17% of the total MSMEs in the country.
  • Tamil Nadu follows with the second-highest share of 10% of the MSMEs in India.
  • Uttar Pradesh also plays a significant role, contributing 9% to the national share of MSMEs.

Additional Information

  • Udyam Scheme
  • The Udyam scheme is a government initiative designed to promote the growth of MSMEs across India.
  • It offers several incentives by both the central and state governments to foster MSME development.
  • Real Estate MSMEs
  • The real estate sector plays a vital role in the MSME landscape, with opportunities for unorganised sectors to register as MSMEs.
  • Real estate MSMEs can benefit from zero collateral loans, reduced interest rates, and electricity consumption concessions.

Question 54

India signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MOI) with which country on November 2024, to co-develop the UNICORN masts for the Indian Navy?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    China

  5. EOption (e)

    Ukraine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Japan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Japan.

In News

  • India and Japan signed a Memorandum of Implementation (MOI) on November 15, 2024, to co-develop UNICORN masts for the Indian Navy.
  • The collaboration aims to enhance the stealth capabilities of the Indian Navy by integrating advanced communication systems into a single mast structure.

Key Points

  • The MOI signed between India and Japan marks the first co-development of defense equipment between the two nations.
  • Japan will provide expertise in the design and development of the UNICORN mast, while Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) will handle the implementation and production in India.
  • This collaboration enhances the stealth features of Indian Navy ships by integrating multiple communication systems into the UNICORN mast.
  • The agreement is part of the broader India-Japan Defence Technology Cooperation framework.

Additional Information

  • UNICORN Mast
  • UNICORN stands for Unified Complex Radio Antenna, designed to enhance naval stealth capabilities by integrating communication systems.
  • The mast will be co-developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) with Japanese expertise, marking the first such collaboration between India and Japan in defense technology.
  • India-Japan Defense Cooperation
  • This agreement falls under the broader framework of the India-Japan Defence Technology Cooperation agreement.
  • The collaboration strengthens defense ties between the two countries and aims at the development of advanced military technology.

Question 55

Consider the following statements regarding the performance of public sector banks (PSBs) in the first half of the financial year 2024-25 (H1FY25):

  1. The operating profit of PSBs grew by 14.4% Y-o-Y, while net profit saw a 25.6% increase, reaching Rs 85,520 crore.
  2. The global credit portfolio of PSBs grew by 12.9% Y-o-Y to Rs 133.75 trillion, while the deposit portfolio grew by 9.5% Y-o-Y to Rs 102.29 trillion.
  3. The gross non-performing assets (NPAs) of PSBs decreased by 34 basis points Y-o-Y, standing at 3.12% as of September 2024.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The performance of public sector banks (PSBs) in H1FY25 showed robust growth in operating profit, net profit, and a reduction in NPAs.
  • The global credit portfolio grew by 12.9% and the deposit portfolio grew by 9.5% Y-o-Y.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The operating profit grew by 14.4% Y-o-Y, and net profit saw a 25.6% increase to Rs 85,520 crore in H1FY25.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The global credit portfolio grew by 12.9% Y-o-Y to Rs 102.29 trillion, while the deposit portfolio grew by 9.5% Y-o-Y to Rs 133.75 trillion, which is reversed in the statement.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The gross NPAs decreased by 108 bps Y-o-Y, standing at 3.12% as of September 2024.
  • The capital to risk-weighted average assets ratio (CRAR) for PSBs stood at 15.43%, above the regulatory requirement of 11.5%.

Additional Information

  • Public Sector Banks (PSBs) Performance
  • PSBs showed strong growth in both operating and net profits in the first half of FY25.
  • Key financial indicators like NPAs and CRAR were also improved, contributing to the robust performance of PSBs.
  • Significant Reforms in PSBs
  • Major reforms include the implementation of the Enhanced Access and Service Excellence (EASE) and the enactment of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
  • PSBs have also adopted new-age technologies like AI, cloud, and blockchain, upgrading their digital infrastructure and tackling cybersecurity risks.

Question 56

Consider the following statements regarding the "Payments Vision 2025" by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

  1. Payments Vision 2025 aims to elevate payment systems by providing users with affordable, convenient, and accessible e-payment options anytime and anywhere.
  2. The key objective of Payments Vision 2025 is to increase cheque-based payments to more than 0.25% of the total retail payments.
  3. Payments Vision 2025 includes regulating BigTechs and FinTechs in the payments space and exploring appropriate guidelines for Buy Now Pay Later (BNPL) methods.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched "Payments Vision 2025" to provide safe, secure, fast, and affordable e-payment options across the country.
  • One of the main objectives is to make e-payments accessible to everyone, everywhere, and anytime.
  • The vision also includes regulating BigTechs and FinTechs in the payments space, along with examining BNPL methods and guidelines for payments involving BNPL.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: Payments Vision 2025 aims to provide affordable, convenient, and accessible e-payment options to users at all times.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The goal of Payments Vision 2025 is to reduce the volume of cheque-based payments to less than 0.25% of total retail payments, not increase it.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Payments Vision 2025 includes regulating BigTechs and FinTechs in the payments space and exploring appropriate guidelines for BNPL methods.
  • The Payments Vision 2025 is structured around five key pillars: Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalisation, and Internationalisation.

Additional Information

  • Payments Vision 2025
  • Aims to elevate payment systems by providing affordable, convenient, and accessible e-payment options anytime and anywhere.
  • Targeting the tripling of digital payment transactions and promoting growth in UPI and IMPS/NEFT transactions.
  • Achievements of Payments Vision 2019-21
  • Accomplished goalposts of Competition, Cost, Convenience, and Confidence through initiatives like regulatory sandbox, 24/7 availability of payment systems, and waiver of charges for RTGS/NEFT transactions.
  • BNPL and Regulatory Guidelines
  • Payments Vision 2025 explores the need for appropriate guidelines around Buy Now Pay Later (BNPL) methods in the payments space.
  • Ensures a secure, user-friendly, and well-regulated environment for emerging payment solutions.

Question 57

Consider the following statements regarding the guidelines issued by the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) for the Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing and Misleading Environmental Claims:

  1. The guidelines prohibit the use of vague terms like “eco-friendly,” “green,” and “sustainable” without proper substantiation and credible scientific evidence.
  2. The guidelines mandate that all environmental claims must be substantiated with third-party certifications and must provide clear and accessible disclosures of material information.
  3. The guidelines allow companies to make environmental claims without providing adequate evidence or certifications, as long as they are related to sustainable business practices.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

In News

  • The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has issued guidelines to prevent misleading environmental claims and greenwashing in advertisements.
  • The guidelines mandate that environmental claims must be substantiated with credible evidence and third-party certifications.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The guidelines prohibit the use of vague terms like “eco-friendly,” “green,” and “sustainable” without proper substantiation and credible evidence.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The guidelines require companies to substantiate their environmental claims with credible evidence, including third-party certifications, and provide clear disclosures about the claims.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The guidelines do not allow companies to make environmental claims without providing adequate evidence or certifications. Claims must be substantiated and truthful.
  • The guidelines aim to promote transparency in environmental marketing while protecting consumers from misleading claims.

Additional Information

  • Greenwashing
  • Greenwashing refers to marketing tactics where companies exaggerate or falsely claim the environmental benefits of their products or services.
  • Such deceptive practices mislead consumers and divert attention from broader environmental efforts.
  • Third-Party Certifications
  • Third-party certifications are used to substantiate environmental claims and provide credibility to the claims made by companies.
  • Key Highlights of the Guidelines
  • Clear definitions of environmental claims and greenwashing.
  • Prohibition of misleading environmental terms without proper substantiation.
  • Transparency requirements for companies to provide accessible disclosures of their environmental claims.

Question 58

Consider the following statements regarding the BharatNet project:

  1. The BharatNet project aims to provide high-speed broadband connectivity to every Gram Panchayat (GP) across India and is one of the largest rural telecom projects globally.
  2. Phase I of the BharatNet project connected 2.5 lakh GPs using optical fiber cables and was completed in 2017.
  3. The Amended BharatNet Program (ABP), approved in 2023, focuses on providing optical fiber connectivity to 2.64 lakh GPs and non-GP villages, with the addition of 5G technologies and enhanced last-mile connectivity.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The BharatNet project aims to provide high-speed broadband connectivity to every Gram Panchayat (GP) across India, one of the largest rural telecom projects globally.
  • The Amended BharatNet Program (ABP), approved in 2023, aims to provide optical fiber connectivity to 2.64 lakh GPs and non-GP villages, with 5G technologies and improved last-mile connectivity.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: BharatNet is one of the largest rural telecom projects aimed at connecting every Gram Panchayat (GP) across India with high-speed broadband.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase I connected 1 lakh GPs, not 2.5 lakh, and was completed in 2017 using optical fiber cables and existing infrastructure.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The ABP, approved in 2023, aims to provide optical fiber connectivity to 2.64 lakh GPs and non-GP villages, as well as integrate 5G technologies and enhance last-mile connectivity.
  • As of 2025, BharatNet has made 2.18 lakh GPs service-ready, with 42 lakh route kilometers of Optical Fiber Cable (OFC) and over 12 lakh Fibre-To-The-Home (FTTH) connections.
  • The BharatNet project is executed by Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL), under the supervision of BSNL for network operations and maintenance.

Additional Information

  • BharatNet Project
  • Launched as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) in 2011 and renamed BharatNet in 2015.
  • Initially aimed to connect 2.5 lakh GPs across India, with subsequent phases expanding coverage and improving technologies.
  • Phases of Implementation
  • Phase I connected 1 lakh GPs using optical fiber and existing infrastructure.
  • Phase II is ongoing, expanding to 1.5 lakh GPs with a combination of optical fiber, radio, and satellite technologies.
  • Phase III focuses on integrating 5G technologies and enhancing bandwidth and last-mile connectivity.
  • Funding and Execution
  • BharatNet is funded through the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) and executed by Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL).
  • BSNL acts as the Project Management Agency for operating and maintaining the network.

Question 59

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM):

  1. The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) in January 2023 to achieve a production capacity of 5 million tonnes per annum of Green Hydrogen by 2030.
  2. The SIGHT programme under NGHM provides incentives for the manufacturing of electrolysers and green ammonia production.
  3. The Department of Science and Technology is leading the implementation of the Green Hydrogen Mission and has launched the Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters to foster innovation in the sector.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

In News

  • The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) in January 2023 to target a production capacity of 5 million tonnes per annum of Green Hydrogen by 2030.
  • The SIGHT programme under NGHM provides incentives for manufacturing electrolysers and producing green ammonia.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The NGHM aims to achieve 5 million tonnes per annum of Green Hydrogen production capacity by 2030, as launched by MNRE in January 2023.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The SIGHT programme under NGHM provides incentives to support the manufacturing of electrolysers and the production of green ammonia.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Department of Science and Technology is not leading the NGHM; the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) is responsible for the mission. However, the Department of Science and Technology has launched the Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters to promote innovation in the green hydrogen ecosystem.

Additional Information

  • National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM)
  • Launched in January 2023 by the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE).
  • Targeted production capacity of 5 million tonnes of Green Hydrogen per annum by 2030.
  • SIGHT Programme
  • The SIGHT programme provides financial incentives to support the production of green hydrogen and its key components like electrolysers and ammonia.
  • Hydrogen Valley Innovation Clusters
  • Initiated by the Department of Science and Technology to foster innovation and promote a green hydrogen ecosystem in India.

Question 60

What does the "R" in LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) stand for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Radio

  2. BOption (b)

    Reflectance

  3. COption (c)

    Ranging

  4. DOption (d)

    Remote

  5. EOption (e)

    Radiometry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ranging

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ranging.

In News

  • LIDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) is a remote sensing method that uses laser pulses to measure distances to objects or surfaces, creating detailed 3D models.
  • The "R" in LIDAR stands for "Ranging," which refers to the measurement of distance using laser pulses.

Key Points

  • LIDAR is a technology that uses laser pulses to measure distances to objects, creating accurate 3D models of the Earth's surface or other objects.
  • The "R" in LIDAR stands for "Ranging," referring to the measurement of distance through time-of-flight calculations of laser pulses.
  • LIDAR works by emitting laser pulses towards a target and measuring the time it takes for the light to reflect back to the sensor.
  • This technology is used in various fields, including autonomous vehicles, mapping, environmental monitoring, and archaeology.

Additional Information

  • LiDAR Technology
  • LiDAR is widely used in mapping, surveying, and various environmental studies for its accuracy in measuring distances and creating 3D models.
  • It works by calculating the time it takes for light pulses to reflect off surfaces and return to the sensor.
  • Applications of LiDAR
  • LiDAR is used in autonomous vehicles to create 3D maps of the surrounding environment.
  • It also aids in environmental monitoring, archaeology, and even oceanography to map the ocean floor.

Question 61

Consider the following statements regarding the RLV LEX-03 mission:

  1. The RLV LEX-03 mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the Pushpak vehicle under severe wind conditions.
  2. The Pushpak vehicle in the RLV LEX-03 mission was released from an altitude of 6 km from an Indian Air Force Chinook helicopter.
  3. The mission validated ISRO's advanced guidance algorithm for error corrections, which is essential for future Orbital Re-entry Missions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully completed the third and final Reusable Launch Vehicle Landing Experiment (RLV LEX-03) for the Pushpak vehicle.
  • The mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the RLV under more challenging release conditions and severe wind conditions.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The RLV LEX-03 mission demonstrated the autonomous landing capability of the Pushpak vehicle under challenging conditions, including severe winds.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Pushpak vehicle was released from an altitude of 4.5 km, not 6 km.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The mission validated ISRO's advanced guidance algorithm for error corrections, which is crucial for future Orbital Re-entry Missions.
  • The RLV LEX-03 mission successfully demonstrated autonomous flight and reusable design, marking a significant step towards ISRO's goal of a fully reusable launch vehicle.

Additional Information

  • Reusable Launch Vehicles (RLVs)
  • RLVs are rockets designed to be used multiple times, unlike traditional expendable rockets.
  • RLVs significantly reduce space mission costs by reusing key components like the first stage.
  • ISRO's RLV-TD
  • ISRO has developed the Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD), which successfully demonstrated autonomous landing capabilities.
  • ISRO's efforts in reusable space technology aim to make space access more cost-effective in the future.
  • Global RLV Developments
  • SpaceX's Falcon 9 has achieved over 220 launches, with 178 landings and 155 re-flights as of May 2023.
  • Blue Origin's New Shepard performs suborbital flights with vertical landings, demonstrating reusable technology.

Question 62

Where was the Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2024 held?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ranchi, Jharkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Raigarh, Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Raigar, Bihar

  4. DOption (d)

    Pune, Maharashtra

  5. EOption (e)

    Bhubaneswar, Odisha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Raigar, Bihar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Raigar, Bihar.

In News

  • Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2024 was held in Raigar, Bihar.

Key Points

  • The Women's Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2024 took place in Raigar, Bihar.
  • This international tournament featured top women's hockey teams from Asia.
  • The event was organized by the Asian Hockey Federation.
  • India has previously hosted this tournament in 2016 (Singapore) and 2018 (South Korea).

Additional Information

  • Asian Hockey Champions Trophy
  • Established: 2010 (Women's), 2011 (Men's)
  • Frequency: Biennial
  • 2022 Women's Champion: South Korea
  • Hockey in Bihar
  • First major international hockey event in Bihar
  • Part of Bihar's sports infrastructure development

Question 63

Consider the following statements regarding India’s ranking in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index (NCI):

  1. India ranks 176th in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index due to inefficient land management and increasing biodiversity threats.
  2. India's ranking is boosted by its strong marine conservation efforts, with a significant portion of national waterways protected.
  3. India is the fourth-largest illegal wildlife trading nation, with annual sales totaling approximately 15 billion Euros.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

  • India ranks 176th in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index due to inefficient land management and increasing biodiversity threats.
  • India is the fourth-largest illegal wildlife trading nation globally, with annual sales totaling approximately 15 billion Euros.

Key Points

  • India ranks 176th out of 180 countries in the 2024 Global Nature Conservation Index due to land management inefficiencies and biodiversity threats.
  • India is the fourth-largest illegal wildlife trading nation, with annual sales amounting to around 15 billion Euros.
  • The NCI highlights challenges such as overpopulation, deforestation, pesticide use, and soil pollution, affecting India's ecological wealth.
  • Marine conservation needs improvement in India, but the statement about a significant portion of national waterways being protected is inaccurate.
  • India's low NCI ranking also reflects a lack of protection for its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).

Additional Information

  • Nature Conservation Index (NCI)
  • The NCI evaluates conservation efforts in 180 countries and assesses key factors like land management, biodiversity threats, and governance.
  • Launched in October 2024 by the Goldman Sonnenfeldt School of Sustainability, the NCI helps monitor global conservation practices.
  • Illegal Wildlife Trade in India
  • India is a major hub for illegal wildlife trading, with sales reaching approximately 15 billion Euros annually.
  • The country's biodiversity is threatened by poaching and illegal trade in wildlife species.
  • India's Environmental Challenges
  • India faces significant environmental challenges, including deforestation, soil pollution, and unsustainable land use.
  • Overpopulation continues to exert pressure on natural resources and exacerbate ecological threats.

Question 64

Which ministry is primarily responsible for supporting initiatives like the Lakhpati Didi program that empower Self-Help Group (SHG) members and promote diversified livelihood activities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Rural Development

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Finance

  5. EOption (e)

    Ministry of Women and Child Development

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ministry of Rural Development

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ministry of Rural Development.

In News

  • Lakhpati Didi is an initiative that empowers Self-Help Group (SHG) members, helping them achieve an annual household income of Rs. 1,00,000 or more.
  • The government actively supports this initiative to promote diversified livelihood activities and empower SHG members to pursue entrepreneurial ventures.

Key Points

  • Lakhpati Didi initiative is aimed at improving the livelihood and income of Self-Help Group (SHG) members by fostering entrepreneurial ventures.
  • The initiative ensures convergence of various government departments, ministries, private sector players, and market participants.
  • It promotes diversified livelihood activities, including farm, non-farm, and service-based enterprises.
  • The government plays a key role in facilitating this transition and ensuring financial literacy, skill development, and livelihood assistance for SHG members.
  • The Ministry of Rural Development leads the charge in empowering SHG members through programs like Lakhpati Didi.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Rural Development
  • Responsible for implementing rural development programs across India, focusing on social and economic empowerment.
  • Focuses on empowering women and marginalized communities, including through initiatives like SHGs.
  • Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
  • SHGs are collective groups aimed at financial inclusion, skill development, and livelihood support.
  • SHGs often focus on improving the economic situation of women in rural areas.
  • Lakhpati Didi Program
  • Encourages SHG members to adopt sustainable livelihood practices and become financially independent.
  • Helps elevate SHG members' income, empowering them to pursue entrepreneurial activities.

Question 65

In October 2024, Which bank inaugurated its first branch in Singapore to expand its financial services?

  1. AOption (a)

    HDFC Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    ICICI Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Bank of Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Bank of India

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

HDFC Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

In News

  • HDFC Bank inaugurated its first branch in Singapore on October 15, 2024, to provide banking services in the country.
  • The bank was granted a wholesale banking license by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS).

Key Points

  • HDFC Bank opened its first branch in Singapore on October 15, 2024.
  • The branch will offer a wide range of financial products and services to residents of Singapore.
  • The bank has also been granted a wholesale banking license by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS).
  • The new branch will provide loan-related administrative services for NRIs in Singapore to avail housing loans in India.
  • HDFC Bank now has five international branches, including locations in Hong Kong, Bahrain, Dubai, and Singapore.

Additional Information

  • HDFC Bank
  • Founded in - 1994
  • Headquarters - Mumbai, India
  • MD & CEO - Sandeep Bakshi
  • Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS)
  • MAS is the central bank and financial regulatory authority in Singapore.
  • It oversees monetary policy, financial stability, and the development of Singapore's financial sector.
  • HDFC Bank's International Operations
  • HDFC Bank operates in several countries, including Hong Kong, Bahrain, Dubai, and Singapore.
  • The bank has representative offices in Kenya, Abu Dhabi, Dubai, and London.

Question 66

When is India's Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM) expected to be launched?

  1. AOption (a)

    2027

  2. BOption (b)

    2028

  3. COption (c)

    2029

  4. DOption (d)

    2030

  5. EOption (e)

    2035

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2028

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2028.

In News

  • India's Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM) is tentatively scheduled to be launched on March 29, 2028, onboard ISRO's LVM-3 rocket.
  • The mission will explore Venus' atmosphere, surface, and interaction with the Sun.

Key Points

  • The Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM) is expected to be launched on March 29, 2028, onboard ISRO's LVM-3 rocket.
  • The mission will explore Venus' atmosphere, surface, and its interaction with the Sun.
  • The VOM will carry 19 scientific instruments, including several international payloads.
  • ISRO plans to place the spacecraft in an elliptical orbit around Venus and conduct studies for a period of five years.
  • The data obtained from the mission will be processed and archived at the Indian Space Science Data Center (ISSDC).

Additional Information

  • Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM)
  • VOM will include payloads developed by international collaborators including Russia and Sweden.
  • The mission aims to study Venus' surface, atmosphere, and ionosphere.
  • ISRO's LVM-3 Rocket
  • LVM-3 is a heavy-lift rocket used by ISRO for launching large payloads into space.
  • It has been used for previous successful missions like the GSLV Mk III mission.
  • Aerobraking
  • Aerobraking will be employed for 6 to 8 months to achieve the desired low-altitude science orbit.
  • This technique will help in slowing the spacecraft by passing through the Venusian atmosphere.

Question 67

What is the current maximum interest rate offered under the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

     7.6%

  2. BOption (b)

    8.0%

  3. COption (c)

    8.2%

  4. DOption (d)

    8.5%

  5. EOption (e)

    8.9%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8.2%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 8.2%

In News

  • The Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) currently offers an interest rate of 8.2% for Q3 2024 (July-September).

Key Points

  • SSY interest rate is 8.2% for Q3 2024, revised quarterly by the Ministry of Finance.
  • Highest among all small savings schemes (higher than PPF's 7.1%).
  • Tax benefits: EET (Exempt-Exempt-Taxable) under Section 80C.
  • Account can be opened for girls below 10 years, with a maximum deposit of ₹1.5 lakh/year.

Additional Information

  • Scheme Growth:
  • AUM crossed ₹1.5 lakh crore in 2024 | 3 crore+ accounts opened since 2015.
  • Recent Changes:
  • Extended partial withdrawal facility for higher education (up to 50% of balance).
  • Other Small Savings Rates (Q3 2024):
  • Senior Citizens Savings Scheme: 8.3% | PPF: 7.1%.

Question 68

Which fintech company recently merged with North East Small Finance Bank (NESFB)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Paytm Payments Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Slice

  3. COption (c)

    BharatPe

  4. DOption (d)

    MobiKwik

  5. EOption (e)

    Jupiter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Slice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Slice

In News

  • Fintech unicorn Slice merged with North East Small Finance Bank (NESFB) in November 2024, marking RBI's first approval of a fintech-NBFC merger with a bank.

Key Points

  • Slice (a credit card-focused fintech) merged with Guwahati-based NESFB to create a digital-first small finance bank.
  • RBI approved the merger under Section 44A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
  • Combined entity will serve 5 million+ customers with enhanced digital banking services.
  • Slice's co-founder Rajan Bajaj appointed as MD & CEO of the merged entity.

Additional Information

  • About Slice:
  • Founded in 2016 | Valued at $1.5 billion | Known for its "super card".
  • NESFB:
  • Operates in 7 NE states | 150+ branches | Focused on financial inclusion.
  • Regulatory Context:
  • RBI's 2023 guidelines allowed well-run NBFCs to convert into SFBs after 3 years$.

Question 69

What are the maximum transaction limits for UPI123Pay and UPI Lite Wallet as per RBI's 2024 guidelines?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹5,000 per transaction for both

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹10,000 per transaction for both

  3. COption (c)

     ₹10,000 for UPI123Pay & ₹5,000 for UPI Lite Wallet

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹25,000 for UPI123Pay & ₹10,000 for UPI Lite Wallet

  5. EOption (e)

     ₹50,000 for UPI123Pay & ₹20,000 for UPI Lite Wallet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

 ₹10,000 for UPI123Pay & ₹5,000 for UPI Lite Wallet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹10,000 for UPI123Pay & ₹5,000 for UPI Lite Wallet

In News

  • RBI announced enhanced transaction limits for UPI123Pay (₹10,000) and UPI Lite Wallet (₹5,000) in its October 2024 MPC meeting.

Key Points

  • UPI123Pay: Maximum limit increased to ₹10,000 per transaction (from ₹5,000) for feature phone users.
  • UPI Lite Wallet: Cap maintained at ₹5,000 per transaction (with ₹50,000 monthly limit).
  • Aims to boost digital payments in rural areas and among elderly users.
  • Part of RBI's "Payment Vision 2025" to enhance financial inclusion.

Additional Information

  • UPI123Pay:
  • Launched in 2022 for feature phones | Uses IVR/USSD technology.
  • UPI Lite:
  • Offline wallet for small-value transactions | No PIN required for sub-₹200 payments.
  • Recent UPI Growth:
  • Processed 14 billion+ transactions in October 2024 (worth ₹25+ lakh crore).

Question 70

What penalty was imposed on NBFCs (Navi Finserv, Asirvad Microfinance, Arohan Financial Services, and DMI Finance) by the RBI in October 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1 crore each

  2. BOption (b)

     ₹2 crore each

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2.5 crore each

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹3 crore each

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹5 crore each

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹2.5 crore each

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹2.5 crore each

In News

  • RBI imposed penalties of ₹2.5 crore each on four NBFCs for non-compliance with lending norms in October 2024.

Key Points

  • Penalty of ₹2.5 crore each imposed on:
  • Navi Finserv
  • Asirvad Microfinance
  • Arohan Financial Services
  • DMI Finance
  • Violations included non-compliance with fair practices code and KYC norms.
  • Action taken under Section 45L(1)(b) of the RBI Act, 1934.

Additional Information

  • RBI's Crackdown:
  • 2024 saw penalties on 12+ NBFCs totaling ₹50+ crore.
  • About the NBFCs:
  • Navi Finserv: Founded by Sachin Bansal | Arohan: Focuses on Eastern India.
  • Recent RBI Measures:
  • Stricter NPA classification norms for NBFCs (effective April 2025).

Question 71

Who directed the Oscar-nominated Indian film "Laapataa Ladies"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zoya Akhtar

  2. BOption (b)

    Kiran Rao

  3. COption (c)

    Gauri Shinde

  4. DOption (d)

    Ashwiny Iyer Tiwari

  5. EOption (e)

    Meghna Gulzar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kiran Rao

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kiran Rao

In News

  • "Laapataa Ladies," directed by Kiran Rao, was selected as India's official entry for the 2025 Oscars.

Key Points

  • Directed by Kiran Rao, "Laapataa Ladies" is a satirical comedy on rural India's bride-swapping incidents.
  • Produced by Aamir Khan | Released in March 2024.
  • Selected over 14 other films by the Film Federation of India for Oscar consideration.
  • Kiran Rao's second directorial after "Dhobi Ghat" (2011).

Additional Information

  • Film Highlights:
  • Shot in Madhya Pradesh | Features newcomers Nitanshi Goel and Pratibha Ranta.
  • India at Oscars:
  • Last nomination: "RRR" (2023) for Best Original Song ("Naatu Naatu").
  • Kiran Rao's Work:
  • Co-founder of Paani Foundation | Known for promoting indie cinema.

Question 72

What is the prize money awarded to the winner of the Booker Prize?

  1. AOption (a)

    25,000 Pounds

  2. BOption (b)

    50,000 Pounds

  3. COption (c)

    75,000 Pounds

  4. DOption (d)

    100,000 Pounds

  5. EOption (e)

    150,000 Pounds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

50,000 Pounds

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 50,000 Pounds

In News

  • The Booker Prize 2024 awarded £50,000 to its winner, maintaining its longstanding prize amount.

Key Points

  • The Booker Prize awards £50,000 to the winning author.
  • Established in 1969, it is one of the most prestigious literary awards globally.
  • Open to works of fiction written in English and published in the UK/Ireland.
  • 2024 winner: [Author Name] for [Book Title].

Additional Information

  • Recent Winners:
  • 2023: Paul Lynch (Prophet Song) | 2022: Shehan Karunatilaka (The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida).
  • Judging Process:
  • Panel of 5 judges selects longlist (13 books), shortlist (6), and winner.
  • Indian Connections:
  • Arundhati Roy (1997) and Salman Rushdie (1981) are past winners.

Question 73

Where is the headquarters of Integral Coach Factory (ICF) located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chennai, Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai, Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Bengaluru, Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi, Delhi

  5. EOption (e)

    Kolkata, West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chennai, Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chennai, Tamil Nadu.

In News

  • Integral Coach Factory (ICF) is the largest rail coach manufacturer in the world, located in Perambur, Chennai.
  • ICF manufactures LHB coaches, electric multiple units, and the semi-high-speed Vande Bharat train-sets.

Key Points

  • ICF is located in Perambur, Chennai, and was established in 1955.
  • It is the oldest among the five rake production units of the Indian Railways.
  • ICF initially manufactured ICF coaches and now manufactures LHB coaches and electric multiple units.
  • ICF also manufactures the Vande Bharat semi-high-speed train-sets.

Additional Information

  • Indian Railways
  • Indian Railways is one of the largest rail networks in the world, and ICF is one of its key manufacturing units.
  • Indian Railways plays a vital role in transportation and infrastructure development in India.
  • Vande Bharat Train-sets
  • The Vande Bharat train-sets are semi-high-speed trains designed and manufactured by ICF to improve the speed and efficiency of India's rail network.
  • These trains are equipped with modern amenities and are a step towards achieving better rail transportation in India.

Question 74

Who approved the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) for the period 2019-2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Asian Development Bank and Reserve Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Financial Stability Development Council (FSDC)

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    World Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    United Nations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Financial Stability Development Council (FSDC)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Financial Stability Development Council (FSDC).

In News

  • The National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) was finalized and approved by the Financial Stability Development Council (FSDC).
  • The NSFI sets the vision and key objectives for expanding financial inclusion in India.

Key Points

  • The NSFI was formulated by the Reserve Bank of India under the guidance of the Financial Inclusion Advisory Committee (FIAC) for the period 2019-2024.
  • The strategy was based on wide-ranging discussions and feedback from various stakeholders in the financial sector.
  • The NSFI aims to improve financial inclusion in India by expanding the reach of formal financial services and ensuring their sustainability.
  • The FSDC approved the document after the finalization of inputs, and it was formally released by Shri M K Jain, Deputy Governor, RBI in January 2020.

Additional Information

  • Financial Inclusion
  • Financial inclusion refers to the availability and accessibility of financial services to all individuals, especially those from underserved and vulnerable sections.
  • It is recognized as a key enabler for achieving sustainable development and economic growth.
  • United Nations SDGs
  • Seven of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) view financial inclusion as a key enabler for achieving sustainable development by 2030.
  • National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI)
  • NSFI is a comprehensive plan formulated to promote financial inclusion in India, covering the period 2019-2024.
  • The strategy aims to expand access to formal financial services, reduce vulnerability to economic shocks, and increase investments in human capital.

Question 75

What is the new ceiling on the quantum of public deposits that a deposit-taking Housing Finance Company (HFC) can hold, as per the revised RBI guidelines?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 times its net owned fund (NoF)

  2. BOption (b)

    2 times its net owned fund (NoF)

  3. COption (c)

    1.5 times its net owned fund (NoF)

  4. DOption (d)

    5 times its net owned fund (NoF)

  5. EOption (e)

    Equal to its net owned fund (NoF)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.5 times its net owned fund (NoF)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1.5 times its net owned fund (NoF).

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised the ceiling on the quantum of public deposits that deposit-taking HFCs can hold.
  • The revised limit reduces the ceiling from 3 times to 1.5 times the net owned fund (NoF) for such companies.

Key Points

  • RBI has reduced the ceiling for public deposits held by deposit-taking HFCs from 3 times to 1.5 times their net owned funds (NoF).
  • Deposit-taking HFCs exceeding the revised limit will not accept fresh public deposits or renew existing ones until they conform to the new ceiling.
  • The revised guideline aims to harmonize the rules for NBFCs and HFCs and ensure better financial stability.
  • RBI has also directed deposit-taking HFCs to maintain higher liquid assets and ensure full asset cover for public deposits.

Additional Information

  • Net Owned Fund (NoF)
  • NoF is the difference between a company’s total assets and its total liabilities, representing the owner's equity in the company.
  • NoF is used as a key financial measure for regulatory requirements in non-banking financial companies and housing finance companies.
  • RBI's Role in HFC Regulations
  • The RBI sets guidelines for financial institutions like HFCs to maintain liquidity and financial stability.
  • RBI's revised guidelines are designed to ensure a uniform regulatory framework for HFCs and NBFCs.
  • Public Deposits and Housing Finance Companies
  • Public deposits are funds collected by HFCs from the public, which are used for lending and other financial activities.
  • RBI's regulations ensure that public deposit-taking institutions are financially sound and do not take undue risks with public money.

Question 76

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the DRI (Differential Rate of Interest) Scheme?

  1. The DRI scheme aims to improve the economic conditions of weaker sections by providing financial assistance at a concessional rate of 4% interest for productive activities.
  2. At least 40% of the total advances under the DRI scheme should go to eligible borrowers belonging to the SC/ST category, with no margin requirement.
  3. The maximum family income to be eligible for the DRI loan is Rs. 20,000 p.a. in rural areas and Rs. 30,000 p.a. in urban areas.
  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

In News

  • The DRI scheme aims to provide financial assistance to the weakest sections of the community at concessional interest rates.
  • The scheme ensures that a significant portion of loans go to the SC/ST category, and no margin is required for loan approval.

Key Points

  • The DRI scheme provides loans at a concessional rate of 4% p.a. to eligible borrowers for engaging in productive and gainful activities.
  • At least two-thirds of the DRI advances should be granted through rural and semi-urban branches, with 40% of the advances going to SC/ST borrowers.
  • Eligibility includes landholding norms: borrowers with no land or small land holdings are eligible, and SC/ST members are exempt from landholding requirements.
  • No collateral or third-party guarantee is required, and the interest subsidy in DRI advances was discontinued in November 2016.

Additional Information

  • Income Criteria
  • For rural areas, family income should not exceed Rs. 18,000 per annum.
  • For urban and semi-urban areas, family income should not exceed Rs. 24,000 per annum.
  • Margin and Security
  • No margin is required for the DRI loan.
  • Assets purchased with the loan may be hypothecated to the bank, but no collateral security is needed.
  • Objective of DRI
  • The primary objective is to assist the weaker sections by providing financial assistance for productive activities at a concessional interest rate.
  • The aim is to help improve their economic conditions and enhance financial inclusion.

Question 77

Who are the promoters of the National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE)?

  1. AOption (a)

    RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA

  2. BOption (b)

    GOI, SEBI, RBI

  3. COption (c)

    IRDAI, PFRDA, NABARD

  4. DOption (d)

    NSE, RBI, IRDAI

  5. EOption (e)

    SEBI, RBI, PFRDA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA.

In News

  • The National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) is a Section 8 company, promoted by key financial sector regulators.
  • NCFE works to improve financial literacy and awareness across India through various educational campaigns and programs.

Key Points

  • NCFE was promoted by RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, and PFRDA to implement the National Strategy for Financial Education (NSFE).
  • These financial regulators play a key role in the promotion of financial education and awareness in India.
  • NCFE aims to improve the financial literacy of Indian citizens through seminars, workshops, and campaigns.
  • The company’s mission is to help people manage money effectively by promoting financial awareness and access to appropriate financial products and services.

Additional Information

  • Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • The RBI is India's central bank, responsible for managing monetary policy and financial stability.
  • It plays a crucial role in regulating the banking sector and ensuring economic growth in India.
  • Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • SEBI is the regulator for the securities market in India, ensuring investor protection and promoting market efficiency.
  • It regulates stock exchanges, mutual funds, and other financial market entities in India.
  • Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
  • IRDAI is responsible for regulating the insurance industry in India, ensuring fair treatment for policyholders and promoting the development of the sector.
  • Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
  • PFRDA regulates and promotes pension schemes in India, including the National Pension Scheme (NPS).
  • It aims to provide social security to Indian citizens through pension schemes.

Question 78

What is the name of the Automatic Train Protection system being deployed by Indian Railways?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kavach

  2. BOption (b)

    Raksha

  3. COption (c)

    Suraksha

  4. DOption (d)

    Bheem

  5. EOption (e)

    Shield

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kavach

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kavach.

In News

  • Indian Railways has deployed the Kavach Automatic Train Protection system on just 2% of its entire network.
  • Parliamentary standing committee calls for expediting Kavach deployment on the railway network.

Key Points

  • Kavach was adopted as a National Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by Indian Railways in July 2020.
  • As of December 2024, Kavach has been deployed on 2% of the 70,000 km railway network.
  • Kavach version 3.2 has been deployed on 1465 route km on South Central Railway, and version 4.0 was approved in July 2024.
  • The slow implementation of Kavach is due to limited capacity of small agencies involved in the project and the high technology requirements for installation.

Additional Information

  • Automatic Train Protection (ATP)
  • ATP systems are designed to prevent train accidents caused by human error.
  • The system automatically applies brakes if it detects an unsafe condition, like overspeeding.

Question 79

When was the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) launched?

  1. AOption (a)

    August 9, 2015

  2. BOption (b)

    August 9, 2016

  3. COption (c)

    January 1, 2017

  4. DOption (d)

    December 1, 2016

  5. EOption (e)

    March 1, 2017

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

August 9, 2016

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is August 9, 2016.

In News

  • The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) was launched on August 9, 2016, by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
  • GeM was designed to create an open and transparent procurement platform for government buyers in India.

Key Points

  • GeM was launched with the objective of providing a transparent and efficient public procurement platform.
  • It replaced the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (DGS&D) in 2016.
  • GeM is a contactless, paperless, and cashless marketplace and is owned by the GeM Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), a 100% government-owned company.
  • GeM is mandatory for government purchases as per the General Financial Rules, 2017, with Rule No. 149 specifically authorizing its use.

Additional Information

  • GeM's Impact
  • GeM has improved visibility and transparency in public procurement, with average savings of 9.75% on the median price, as per a World Bank assessment.
  • It has driven inclusivity, usability, efficiency, and cost savings for government procurement.
  • GeM's CEO
  • The current CEO of Government e-Marketplace is Shri Mihir Kumar, a distinguished officer from the Indian Defence Accounts Service (IDAS), 1996 batch.

Question 80

What is the minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) required for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) with deposits exceeding Rs 100 crore as per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

  1. AOption (a)

    9%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    12%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

  5. EOption (e)

    20%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 12%.

In News

  • For UCBs with deposits exceeding Rs 100 crore, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandates a minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 12%.
  • The RBI has set a glide path to ensure that these UCBs meet the 12% CAR requirement by March 31, 2026.

Key Points

  • The RBI mandates a minimum CAR of 9% for all UCBs.
  • UCBs with deposits above Rs 100 crore must maintain a CAR of 12%, with a glide path to meet this by March 31, 2026.
  • UCBs failing to meet CAR requirements or facing other issues like high NPAs may face regulatory actions like Prompt Corrective Action (PCA).
  • The CAR is a measure of a bank's financial strength, ensuring it has enough capital to absorb potential losses.

Additional Information

  • Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)
  • The CAR is the ratio of a bank's capital to its risk-weighted assets, ensuring it can absorb potential losses.
  • The higher CAR for larger UCBs ensures they maintain adequate capital due to handling more significant deposits and risks.
  • Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)
  • Under PCA, banks failing to meet CAR or facing financial issues are subject to additional regulatory measures and restrictions.

Question 81

What is the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target for Small Finance Banks (SFBs)?

  1. AOption (a)

    50% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC)

  2. BOption (b)

    60% of their Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE)

  3. COption (c)

    75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher

  4. DOption (d)

    80% of their total lending

  5. EOption (e)

    85% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher.

In News

  • The Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target for Small Finance Banks (SFBs) is set at 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBE), whichever is higher.
  • This ensures that SFBs allocate a significant portion of their lending to priority sectors such as agriculture, micro and small enterprises, and other specified sectors.

Key Points

  • The PSL target for SFBs is 75% of their total lending, calculated as either ANBC or CEOBE, whichever is higher.
  • Sub-targets within the PSL target include 18% for agriculture and 7.5% for micro-enterprises.
  • The higher PSL target is designed to ensure SFBs prioritize lending to underserved and unbanked populations, thereby promoting financial inclusion.

Additional Information

  • Small Finance Banks (SFBs)
  • SFBs are designed to serve the unbanked and underserved sectors, including small farmers and micro-enterprises.
  • The PSL target ensures that SFBs allocate resources to critical sectors of the economy to promote inclusive growth.
  • Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
  • PSL is a set of targets aimed at ensuring that banks allocate a portion of their lending to specific sectors like agriculture, MSMEs, and housing.
  • It plays a key role in fostering economic development and financial inclusion across various sectors of society.

Question 82

The Llama language models are developed by which company?

  1. AOption (a)

    Google

  2. BOption (b)

    Meta AI

  3. COption (c)

    Open AI

  4. DOption (d)

    Youtube

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the given as options

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Meta AI

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Meta AI.

In News

  • Llama models are developed by Meta AI, a leading company in artificial intelligence and machine learning.
  • Meta AI has released various versions of Llama, with the latest being Llama 4, designed for natural language processing and text generation applications.

Key Points

  • Meta AI, formerly Facebook AI, developed the Llama family of language models.
  • Llama models are open-source, meaning their code and weights are freely available for research and commercial use.
  • Meta AI's Llama models are designed for applications such as chatbots, virtual assistants, text generation, and other natural language processing tasks.

Additional Information

  • Llama Models
  • Llama models are designed for tasks like translation, summarization, question answering, and code generation.
  • They are freely available for research and commercial use, fostering innovation in AI development.
  • Meta AI
  • Meta AI is part of Meta Platforms Inc., formerly known as Facebook, and focuses on developing AI technologies for various applications, including natural language processing, image recognition, and virtual reality.

Question 83

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) third Bi-Monthly Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) review in August 2024:

  1. The RBI maintained the repo rate at 6.5% for the 9th consecutive time.
  2. The RBI increased the UPI limit for tax payments from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 5 lakh.
  3. The RBI projected the real GDP growth for FY25 at 6.5%.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, and 3

  5. EOption (e)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in its third Bi-Monthly Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) review in August 2024, maintained the repo rate at 6.5% for the 9th consecutive time.

Key Points

  • The RBI also increased the UPI limit for tax payments from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 5 lakh to facilitate quicker payments for higher tax liabilities.
  • The real GDP growth for FY25 is projected by the RBI at 7.2%, not 6.5% as mentioned in statement 3.
  • Statement 1 correctly highlights the continuation of the repo rate at 6.5%.
  • Statement 2 accurately reflects the increase in the UPI limit for tax payments.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect regarding the GDP growth projection, as the actual projection is 7.2%.

Additional Information

  • The RBI's decision to maintain the repo rate at 6.5% reflects its strategy to balance inflation and growth, ensuring macroeconomic stability.
  • The increase in the UPI limit for tax payments to Rs 5 lakh is aimed at facilitating larger transactions and easing the payment process for taxpayers.
  • The real GDP growth projection of 7.2% for FY25 underscores the RBI’s optimistic outlook on economic performance despite global challenges.
  • The RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) plays a crucial role in setting the repo rate, which influences borrowing costs and overall economic activity.

Question 84

In the acronym BHISHM, which is associated with the "Aarogya Maitri Health Cube," what does the letter "H" stand for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Humanitarian

  2. BOption (b)

    Health

  3. COption (c)

    High-altitude

  4. DOption (d)

    Harmony

  5. EOption (e)

    Help

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Health

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Health.

In News

  • The Indian Air Force (IAF) and Indian Army conducted a joint operation to para-drop the “Aarogya Maitri Health Cube” under Project BHISHM at a high-altitude area.

Key Points

  • Project BHISHM stands for Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri.
  • The "H" in BHISHM stands for "Health".
  • The operation involved using a C-130J Super Hercules aircraft to drop the health cubes in high-altitude regions.
  • The cubes are designed to provide trauma care in Humanitarian Aid and Disaster Relief (HADR) situations.

Additional Information

  • Project BHISHM
  • Project BHISHM is an initiative to develop indigenous trauma care solutions like the Aarogya Maitri Health Cube.
  • The project aims to enhance India’s capability in providing medical aid during disasters and in high-risk environments.
  • C-130J Super Hercules
  • The C-130J Super Hercules is an advanced tactical transport aircraft used by the IAF for various operations, including precision para-drops.
  • Para Brigade
  • The Indian Army’s Para Brigade is known for its expertise in airborne operations and was crucial in the success of this para-drop mission.

Question 85

Which bank launched the specialized "Nari Shakti" branches to empower women entrepreneurs?

  1. AOption (a)

    State Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Union Bank of India

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab National Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Bank of Baroda

  5. EOption (e)

    HDFC Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Union Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Union Bank of India.

In News

  • Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman inaugurated five specialized “Nari Shakti” branches of Union Bank of India.

Key Points

  • Union Bank of India launched the "Nari Shakti" branches to empower women entrepreneurs.
  • The branches are located in Bengaluru, Chennai, Visakhapatnam, and Jaipur.
  • The initiative focuses on financial inclusion for women in manufacturing and service sectors.
  • Services include accessible finance, skills training, and advisory support.

Additional Information

  • Union Bank of India
  • Headquartered in Mumbai.
  • One of India’s leading public sector banks.
  • Founded in 1919.

English Language (35 questions)

Question 86

Directions

Read the passage given below and select the inference(s) that hold true based on the facts in the passage.

Passage:

Education is not just about gaining academic knowledge but also about developing life skills. Critical thinking, creativity, and emotional intelligence are now considered as important as mathematics and science. Many schools have started introducing activities like debates, art workshops, and community service to make learning more holistic. However, exam pressure still dominates the system, and many students focus more on marks than on real understanding. A shift in mindset is needed to value overall development instead of just scores.

Inferences:

I. Exams alone cannot measure a student’s true potential.

II. Schools are adding new activities to improve learning experiences.

III. Education is only about memorizing facts for exams.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Only II follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    All of them follow.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of them follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II follow.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • I. Exams alone cannot measure a student’s true potential.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage highlights that exam pressure dominates the system, and many students focus more on marks than on real understanding, implying that exams alone are insufficient to measure true potential.
  • II. Schools are adding new activities to improve learning experiences.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage explicitly mentions that schools are introducing activities like debates, art workshops, and community service to make learning more holistic.
  • III. Education is only about memorizing facts for exams.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage argues that education should also focus on critical thinking, creativity, and emotional intelligence, which contradicts the idea that education is only about memorizing facts.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both I and II follow.

 

Additional Information

  • Only III: Incorrect because III cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Only II: Incorrect because both I and II can be inferred from the passage.
  • All of them: Incorrect because III cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • None of them: Incorrect because I and II can be inferred from the passage.

Question 87

Directions

Read the passage given below and select the inference(s) that hold true based on the facts in the passage.

Passage:

Art and culture reflect the identity of a society. Museums, theaters, and cultural festivals preserve traditions while also encouraging creativity. With globalization, people are exposed to diverse forms of art from around the world. However, there is also a concern that traditional practices may be overshadowed by global trends. Many communities are now working to preserve their heritage by promoting folk art, local crafts, and classical performances. This balance ensures that cultures evolve without losing their roots.

Inferences:

I. Globalization has no impact on local traditions.

II. Communities are making efforts to protect cultural heritage.

III. Art is an important part of society’s identity.

  1. AOption (a)

    All of them follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both II and III follow.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of them follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both II and III follow.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

  • I. Globalization has no impact on local traditions.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage states that globalization exposes people to diverse forms of art but also raises concerns about overshadowing traditional practices, indicating that globalization does indeed impact local traditions.
  • II. Communities are making efforts to protect cultural heritage.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage explicitly mentions communities promoting folk art, local crafts, and classical performances to preserve their heritage.
  • III. Art is an important part of society’s identity.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage states that art and culture reflect the identity of a society, emphasizing its importance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: Both II and III follow.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (All of them follow): Incorrect because statement I cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Option 2 (Only I follows): Incorrect because statement I does not follow.
  • Option 3 (Both I and II follow): Incorrect because statement I does not follow.
  • Option 5 (None of them follow): Incorrect because statements II and III follow.

Question 88

Directions

Fill in the blanks in the conversation between Person A and Person B with the appropriate phrases provided in the options below. Choose the phrases that best complete the dialogue.

Person A: Space exploration has made remarkable progress.

Person B: Yes, but critics argue the funds could solve earthly problems.

Person A: True, poverty and hunger still need attention.

Person B: A balance is needed between _________________________, so science advances while humanity benefits _________________________.

  1. AOption (a)

    ignoring global issues, for scientific fame

  2. BOption (b)

    war preparations and nuclear testing, rapidly

  3. COption (c)

    excessive spending, without accountability

  4. DOption (d)

    abandoning innovation, to avoid risks

  5. EOption (e)

    space research and social development, equally

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

space research and social development, equally

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'space research and social development, equally'.

Key Points

  • Let us see the analysis of the options:​
  • Option 1: Ignoring global issues for scientific fame.

This option suggests ignoring global issues entirely, which is not balanced.

  • Option 2: War preparations and nuclear testing, rapidly.

Irrelevant to the context of space exploration and social development.

  • Option 3: Excessive spending, without accountability.

This option highlights a problem but does not suggest balance.

  • Option 4: Abandoning innovation to avoid risks.

This option suggests halting progress, which is not balanced.

  • Option 5: Space research and social development, equally.

This option correctly highlights the need for a balanced approach.

  • Thus, 'space research and social development, equally' is the correct answer as it emphasizes a balanced approach.

Question 89

Directions

Read the following four sentences marked as A, B, C, and D. Each sentence may or may not be based on the same theme as that of the other three. Identify the odd sentence, if there is one, that can be replaced with the sentence given in bold which follows the theme. If all four sentences align with the same theme, mark "No replacement required" as your answer.

The research aims to enhance evidence-based decision-making, promoting fair, effective, and sustainable ocean management by providing valuable insights into marine activities worldwide.

A. A newly published study in the journal Nature utilizes satellite images, vessel GPS data, and AI to unveil human industrial activities across the ocean over five years.

B. Despite advancements in monitoring ocean activities, some argue that the vastness of the sea should remain uncharted, preserving mystery and autonomy for maritime industries.

C. Approximately 75% of fishing vessels detected were missing from public AIS monitoring systems, particularly around Africa and South Asia, revealing previously invisible activity.

D. The freely available data through Global Fishing Watch supports real-world efforts in monitoring fishing in data-poor regions, combating illegal fishing, and addressing climate change impacts on oceans.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's analyze each sentence to understand the theme and identify if there is an odd one out:

  • Highlighted sentence: The research aims to enhance evidence-based decision-making, promoting fair, effective, and sustainable ocean management by providing valuable insights into marine activities worldwide.
  • This sentence emphasizes the goal of research in enhancing evidence-based decision-making for fair, effective, and sustainable ocean management, with a focus on providing valuable insights into marine activities worldwide.
  • Sentence A: A newly published study in the journal Nature utilizes satellite images, vessel GPS data, and AI to unveil human industrial activities across the ocean over five years.
  • This sentence aligns with the theme as it discusses a study using advanced technologies to reveal human industrial activities across the ocean.
  • Sentence B: Despite advancements in monitoring ocean activities, some argue that the vastness of the sea should remain uncharted, preserving mystery and autonomy for maritime industries.
  • This sentence takes a different perspective, arguing for the preservation of mystery and autonomy in the vastness of the sea, which doesn't align with the theme of enhancing evidence-based decision-making and providing insights.
  • Sentence C: Approximately 75% of fishing vessels detected were missing from public AIS monitoring systems, particularly around Africa and South Asia, revealing previously invisible activity.
  • This sentence aligns with the theme as it discusses the detection of fishing vessels missing from monitoring systems, revealing previously invisible activity in specific regions.
  • Sentence D: The freely available data through Global Fishing Watch supports real-world efforts in monitoring fishing in data-poor regions, combating illegal fishing, and addressing climate change impacts on oceans.
  • This sentence also aligns with the theme, emphasizing the use of data to support real-world efforts in monitoring fishing, combating illegal fishing, and addressing climate change impacts.
  • So, comparing all the sentences, we can see that sentence B is different from the others. While the other sentences focus on technological advancements, data-driven insights, and real-world efforts in monitoring ocean activities, sentence B takes a contrasting stance, arguing for the preservation of mystery and autonomy in the sea.
  • Therefore, sentence B is the odd one out.

Question 90

Directions

Read the following four sentences marked as A, B, C, and D. Each sentence may or may not be based on the same theme as that of the other three. Identify the odd sentence, if there is one, that can be replaced with the sentence given in bold which follows the theme. If all four sentences align with the same theme, mark "No replacement required" as your answer.

Maintaining a journal for just 20 minutes daily, at no cost, and from the comfort of your home, offers stress reduction, improved memory, and enhanced writing skills.

A. Engaging in journaling is a futile activity with no discernible benefits for students, as it neither enhances writing skills nor contributes to stress reduction or improved mental health.

B. Journaling aids students in goal-setting, fostering task prioritization, and providing a record for reflection, fostering clarity in decision-making and time management.

C. Journaling, a cost-free 20-minute activity at home, enhances memory, reduces stress, and aids goal-setting, especially beneficial for students navigating various tasks and pressures.

D. In the digital age, journaling becomes a crucial tool for students to refine communication skills, providing a safe space to experiment with language, and grammar, and develop a unique voice.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's analyze each sentence to understand the theme and identify if there is an odd one out:

  • Highlighted sentence: Maintaining a journal for just 20 minutes daily, at no cost, and from the comfort of your home, offers stress reduction, improved memory, and enhanced writing skills.
  • This sentence emphasizes the benefits of maintaining a journal, including stress reduction, improved memory, and enhanced writing skills, all achieved through a simple and cost-free daily practice at home.
  • Sentence A: Engaging in journaling is a futile activity with no discernible benefits for students, as it neither enhances writing skills nor contributes to stress reduction or improved mental health.
  • This sentence contradicts the theme by claiming that journaling is a futile activity with no discernible benefits for students. It dismisses the positive effects mentioned in the highlighted sentence.
  • Sentence B: Journaling aids students in goal-setting, fostering task prioritization, and providing a record for reflection, fostering clarity in decision-making and time management.
  • This sentence aligns with the theme, emphasizing the positive impacts of journaling on students, including goal-setting, task prioritization, reflection, decision-making, and time management.
  • Sentence C: Journaling, a cost-free 20-minute activity at home, enhances memory, reduces stress, and aids goal-setting, especially beneficial for students navigating various tasks and pressures.
  • This sentence is in line with the theme, reiterating the benefits of journaling such as enhancing memory, reducing stress, and aiding goal-setting. It specifically mentions the relevance of journaling for students dealing with various tasks and pressures.
  • Sentence D: In the digital age, journaling becomes a crucial tool for students to refine communication skills, providing a safe space to experiment with language, and grammar, and develop a unique voice.
  • This sentence also aligns with the theme, highlighting the importance of journaling in the digital age for refining communication skills and providing a safe space for language experimentation and voice development.
  • So, comparing all the sentences, we can see that sentence A is the odd one out. While the other sentences emphasize the positive impacts of journaling, sentence A dismisses it as a futile activity with no discernible benefits for students.
  • Therefore, sentence A is the odd one out.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Each question will present three words (I, II, and III) that can fill the blanks. Choose the option containing the word(s) that correctly fills the blanks to complete the passage.

The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), established in 2005, has ________ (A) improved India's disaster management capabilities following the 1999 Odisha super cyclone and the 2004 tsunami. It has ________ (B) in disaster mitigation, risk assessment, reduction, and response, evolving to address new threats like heatwaves. Nearly every state now has its disaster management agency, although their ________ (C) varies. However, the recent landslides in the Northeast after Cyclone Remal highlight the urgent need to upgrade the disaster management system. Disasters in India have increased in frequency and intensity over the past 20 years, driven by climate change, leading to more extreme weather events and multi-hazard disasters. These events, where one disaster triggers others, result in compounded destruction, as seen with heavy rainfall causing landslides and flash floods. To counter these ________ (D) , disaster management agencies need more resources and capacity-building. While natural events can't be prevented, human factors, like unregulated construction, should be controlled. India's ongoing infrastructure development must ________ (E) disaster resilience, and existing structures need retrofitting. With the establishment of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), India aims to promote global infrastructure resilience, but must first set effective examples domestically.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (A) in the passage?

l. Augmented

ll. Significantly

lll. Witnessed

  1. AOption (a)

    Both ll and lll

  2. BOption (b)

    All l, ll, and lll

  3. COption (c)

    Only ll

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

  5. EOption (e)

    Both l and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only ll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

  • The blank (A) in the sentence needs a word that indicates the improvement of India's disaster management capabilities.
  • "Significantly" is an adverb that denotes a high degree or extent of improvement, fitting well with the context.
  • The phrase "has significantly improved" is grammatically correct and contextually appropriate, indicating a notable enhancement.
  • Neither "augmented" nor "witnessed" fits the context as effectively as "significantly."
  • Given that the word in blank (A) should convey the enhancement of disaster management capabilities, "significantly" clearly communicates the extent of this improvement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only ll.

 

Additional Information

  • Augmented: While "augmented" means to enhance or increase, it does not fit as smoothly in the context of this specific sentence. The phrase "has augmented improved" would be redundant.
  • Witnessed: "Witnessed" would imply observing an improvement rather than actively making improvements, which does not fit the intended meaning of the sentence.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (B) in the passage?

l. Excelled

ll. Thrived

lll. Involved

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Both II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and III

  5. EOption (e)

    All l, ll, and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence states: "It has ________ in disaster mitigation, risk assessment, reduction, and response..."
  • The blank requires a verb that appropriately describes the performance and progress of NDMA in disaster management activities.
  • "Excelled" means performed exceptionally well, which correctly fits the context of NDMA improving and performing effectively in disaster management activities.
  • "Thrived" means developed or progressed successfully, which also fits suitably in the given context.
  • "Involved" is grammatically incorrect in this sentence because it should be written as "has been involved in".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Sentence: It has excelled / thrived in disaster mitigation, risk assessment, reduction, and response, evolving to address new threats like heatwaves.

 

Additional Information

  • Excelled (उत्कृष्ट प्रदर्शन करना): To do something extremely well.
  • Thrived (फलना-फूलना): To grow, develop, or be successful.
  • Involved (शामिल): Taking part in something; however, it does not fit grammatically in the given sentence structure.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (C) in the passage?

l. Effectiveness

ll. Efficacy

lll. Efficiency

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    All I, II and III

  5. EOption (e)

    Both ll and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The blank (C) in the passage refers to the degree of performance or functionality of state disaster management agencies.
  • "Effectiveness" refers to the degree to which something is successful in producing a desired result, which fits well with the context of disaster management.
  • "Efficacy" means the ability to produce a desired or intended result, making it a suitable choice for the blank as well.
  • "Efficiency" refers to achieving maximum productivity with minimum wasted effort or expense, which is relevant for discussing the performance of disaster management agencies.
  • All three terms appropriately describe and qualify the varying performance levels of state disaster management agencies.

Therefore, the correct answer is All I, II and III.

 

Additional Information

  • Effectiveness: This word conveys the state disaster management agencies' success in achieving their objectives. "Nearly every state now has its disaster management agency, although their effectiveness varies" indicates that some agencies are more successful than others.
  • Efficacy: Similarly, "efficacy" suggests the agencies' ability to produce desired outcomes. "Nearly every state now has its disaster management agency, although their efficacy varies" indicates varying degrees of success in meeting goals.
  • Efficiency: This term highlights the productivity and resourcefulness of the agencies. "Nearly every state now has its disaster management agency, although their efficiency varies" suggests differences in how well resources are utilized to achieve disaster management objectives.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (D) in the passage?

l. Problems

ll. Challenges

lll. Hurdles

  1. AOption (a)

    Both l and lll

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    All l, ll, and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All l, ll, and lll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 5.

 

Key Points

  • The blank (D) in the passage needs a word that represents the difficulties or obstacles faced by disaster management agencies due to the increase in frequency and intensity of disasters.
  • "Problems" refers to situations regarded as unwelcome or harmful and needing to be dealt with and overcome, which fits well within the context.
  • "Challenges" refers to difficult tasks or situations that require a great effort to overcome, which is highly relevant to the context of managing disasters.
  • "Hurdles" metaphorically refers to obstacles or difficulties that need to be overcome, also fitting well within the context.
  • All three words—problems, challenges, and hurdles—are appropriate to describe the difficulties faced by disaster management agencies.

Therefore, the correct answer is All I, II, and III.

 

Additional Information

  • Problems: "To counter these problems, disaster management agencies need more resources and capacity-building." This suggests that there are issues that need solutions.
  • Challenges: "To counter these challenges, disaster management agencies need more resources and capacity-building." This implies that there are difficult tasks to overcome.
  • Hurdles: "To counter these hurdles, disaster management agencies need more resources and capacity-building." This indicates obstacles that need to be overcome.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following word(s) can fill in the blank labelled as (E) in the passage?

l. Incorporate

ll. Enhance

lll. Integrate

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    All l, ll, and lll

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All l, ll, and lll

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 5.

 

Key Points

  • The blank (E) in the passage deals with how India's ongoing infrastructure development must handle disaster resilience.
  • "Incorporate" means to include or integrate a component into a larger whole, making it fit the context of ensuring that disaster resilience is a part of infrastructure development.
  • "Enhance" means to improve or augment, which also aligns well with making infrastructure more resilient to disasters.
  • "Integrate" means to combine or bring together different elements to form a cohesive whole, which is relevant to embedding disaster resilience into infrastructure development.
  • All three words—incorporate, enhance, and integrate—are suitable and contextually appropriate for this blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is All I, II, and III.

 

Additional Information

  • Incorporate: "India's ongoing infrastructure development must incorporate disaster resilience." This suggests that disaster resilience should be included as an integral part of new developments.
  • Enhance: "India's ongoing infrastructure development must enhance disaster resilience." This implies that infrastructure should be improved to withstand disasters better.
  • Integrate: "India's ongoing infrastructure development must integrate disaster resilience." This suggests combining disaster resilience features into the planning and building process.

Question 96

Directions

Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.**

Sentence l - She was exhausted after working late into the night.

Sentence ll - She managed to complete the project ahead of the deadline.

1. Although 

2. Because

3. Despite

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand what each sentence is talking about:
  • Sentence l - She was exhausted after working late into the night.
  • This sentence conveys that the subject was tired due to working late.
  • Sentence ll - She managed to complete the project ahead of the deadline.
  • This sentence indicates that the subject successfully finished the project before the deadline.
  • After understanding both the given sentences, we can conclude that the connection between the two sentences lies in the contrast between the subject's exhaustion and her ability to complete the project ahead of the deadline.
  • Hence, both "Although" and "Despite" can effectively link these sentences by emphasizing the unexpected accomplishment despite the exhaustion, making for a coherent single sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both 1 and 3."
  • The combined sentence would be:
  • "Although she was exhausted after working late into the night, she managed to complete the project ahead of the deadline."
  • Despite being exhausted after working late into the night, she managed to complete the project ahead of the deadline.

Question 97

Directions

Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.**

Sentence l - The weather forecast predicted heavy rain for the weekend.

Sentence ll - The most anticipated World Cup match was cancelled.

1. As

2. Due to

3. As a result of

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    All 1, 2, and 3

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All 1, 2, and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand what each sentence is talking about:
  • Sentence l - The weather forecast predicted heavy rain for the weekend.
  • This sentence conveys that the weather forecast anticipates heavy rain for the weekend.
  • Sentence ll - The most anticipated World Cup match was cancelled.
  • This sentence indicates that the highly anticipated World Cup match was cancelled.
  • After understanding both the given sentences, we can conclude that the connection between the two sentences is related to the reason or cause for the cancellation of the World Cup match.
  • Hence, all three options, "As," "Due to," and "As a result of," can effectively link these sentences to create a single coherent sentence. They all convey the causal relationship between the heavy rain forecast and the cancellation of the World Cup match.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All 1, 2, and 3."
  • The combined sentence options would be:
  • "As the weather forecast predicted heavy rain for the weekend, the most anticipated World Cup match was cancelled."
  • "Due to the weather forecast predicting heavy rain for the weekend, the most anticipated World Cup match was cancelled."
  • "As a result of the weather forecast predicting heavy rain for the weekend, the most anticipated World Cup match was cancelled."

Question 98

Directions

Select the appropriate phrase(s) or connector(s) from the three options provided that can be used to create a single sentence by connecting the two given sentences without changing their meaning.**

Sentence l - The weather was gloomy and cold at the mountain's peak.

Sentence ll - Down in the valley, the sun shone brightly, creating a warm atmosphere.

1. As a result

2. On the other hand

3. In the meantime

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 2 and 3

  5. EOption (e)

    Both 1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand what each sentence is talking about:
  • Sentence l - The weather was gloomy and cold at the mountain's peak.
  • This sentence describes the weather conditions at the mountain's peak, which are gloomy and cold.
  • Sentence ll - Down in the valley, the sun shone brightly, creating a warm atmosphere.
  • This sentence depicts a different weather condition in the valley, with the sun shining and creating a warm atmosphere.
  • After understanding both the given sentences, we can conclude that the connection between the two sentences lies in the contrast between the weather conditions at the mountain's peak and in the valley.
  • Hence, the appropriate connector to express this contrast is "On the other hand."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only 2."
  • The combined sentence would be:
  • "The weather was gloomy and cold at the mountain's peak; on the other hand, down in the valley, the sun shone brightly, creating a warm atmosphere."

Additional Information The meaning of the given connectors:

  • "As a result" - This is used to introduce a statement that explains something caused by the situation or action you have just referred to. It signifies a consequence or outcome.
  • Example: He didn't study for the exam; as a result, he failed.
  • "On the other hand" - This is used to present a contrasting or differing point of view, circumstance, or result from the one previously stated or implied. It signifies a difference or contrast.
  • Example: John loves Italian food; on the other hand, his wife prefers Chinese cuisine.
  • "In the meantime" - This phrase indicates a period of time between two events, and is used to suggest that something happens during that period or is relevant to it. It signifies something happening concurrently or during a waiting period.
  • Example: This project will take a few years to finish; in the meantime, we'll have to manage with our limited resources.

Question 99

Directions

Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase from the given options to make the sentence contextually and meaningfully correct.**

Sneha worked very hard throughout the day and now, it’s time for her to ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    vote with one's feet

  2. BOption (b)

    Hit the sack 

  3. COption (c)

    bury the hatchet

  4. DOption (d)

    Play it by ear

  5. EOption (e)

    Off the cuff 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hit the sack 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is to hit the sack.

Key Points

  • Vote with one's feet means showing disregard for something
  • Hit the sack means falling asleep
  • Bury the hatchet means to forget about the fight and become friends again
  • Play it by ear means to act according to the situation.
  • Be up with the lark means waking up early in the morning
  • Thus, the correct answer is to hit the sack

Completed Sentence: Sneha worked very hard throughout the day and now, its time for her to hit the sack

Question 100

Directions

Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase from the given options to make the sentence contextually and meaningfully correct.**

Mentors are working __________ in order to make the best content for the students.

  1. AOption (a)

    Go for the jugular 

  2. BOption (b)

    Stir up a hornet's nest

  3. COption (c)

    Out of the jaws of death

  4. DOption (d)

    Twenty four/seven 

  5. EOption (e)

    Come hell or high water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Twenty four/seven 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is twenty-four/ seven.

Key Points

  • Go for the jugular means it means to criticize someone recklessly.
  • Stir up a hornet's nest means creating a lot of trouble and discomfort
  • Out of the jaws of death means to be saved from danger.
  • Twenty-four/seven means all day long.
  • Come hell or high water means to fight with the circumstances and not give up

Completed sentence: Mentors are working twenty-four/seven in order to make the best content for the students.

Question 101

Directions

Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase from the given options to make the sentence contextually and meaningfully correct.**

Pranita made a special cake for her _____________, Krusha’s birthday.

  1. AOption (a)

    Boon companion 

  2. BOption (b)

    Cry over spilt milk

  3. COption (c)

    Sleep like a top

  4. DOption (d)

    Badger to death

  5. EOption (e)

    Make a beeline for someone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Boon companion 

Why this answer is correct

Thus, the correct answer is a boon companion.

Key Points

  • Boon companion means a close friend who is very dear to you.
  • Cry over the spilt milk means whining about a past failure.
  • Sleep like a top means sleeping well
  • Badger to death means to poke someone
  • Make a beeline for someone means heading straight toward someone

Completed sentence: Pranita made a special cake for her boon companion, Krusha’s birthday.

Question 102

Directions

Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase from the given options to make the sentence contextually and meaningfully correct.**

Have you seen Mr. Bush in the office? Oh, ___________, here he is searching for the file in the store room.

  1. AOption (a)

    Boon companion

  2. BOption (b)

    Go the whole hog

  3. COption (c)

    To iron out 

  4. DOption (d)

    Speak of the devil

  5. EOption (e)

    Hit the ceiling.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Speak of the devil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is speak of the devil

Key Points 

  • Go the whole hog means to perform a task thoroughly
  • To iron out means to remove small problems.
  • Speak of the devil means to remember someone and they come at that moment.
  • Hit the ceiling means bursting into anger
  • Boon companion means a close friend who is very dear to you.

 

Completed sentence**:** Have you seen Mr. Bush in the office? Oh, speak of the devil, here he is searching for the file in the store room.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Japan, an archipelago nation in East Asia, has intrigued global observers for decades with its cultural uniqueness and economic resilience. In the contemporary era, Japan faces a formidable challenge that threatens to reshape its socio-economic fabric: an aging population. With a median age of nearly 48 years and a birth rate substantially below replacement levels, Japan's demographic trend enunciates a looming crisis for its administrative machinery and civil service framework. Japan's governmental structure, renowned for its meticulous organization and efficiency, is struggling to adapt to the exigencies emanating from a dwindling workforce. The central bureaucratic apparatus in Tokyo, alongside prefectural and municipal governments, is witnessing unprecedented strain due to the dual pressure of a shrinking talent pool and escalating demands for elder care services. Public servants, the sine qua non of Japan's administrative efficacy, are being increasingly ensnared in an untenable web of overwork and inadequate remuneration.

The statutory age of retirement for Japanese civil servants, currently set at 60, is under reconsideration as the government grapples with the conundrum of sustaining administrative continuity in the face of mass retirements. This reconsideration, however, has ignited a contentious debate. On one hand, prolonging active service can mitigate the immediate deficit in experienced personnel; on the other, it exacerbates the already burgeoning issue of worker exploitation. Anecdotal and empirical evidence suggests that civil servants encounter relentless pressure to extend work hours, a phenomenon colloquially dubbed "service overtime." This unpaid labor not only undermines employee well-being but also reflects systemic inefficiencies within the governance structure. Moreover, the multifaceted nature of public service roles in Japan further complicates this predicament. From grassroots community welfare officers to high-ranking entities within the Ministry of Health, Labour and Welfare, civil servants are tasked with addressing the multifarious needs of an aging populace. The increasing complexity and volume of these responsibilities are starkly juxtaposed against the static, if not dwindling, human resources available. Consequently, the specter of burnout looms large, and this occupational hazard is far from being adequately addressed by current policy frameworks. Amidst these systemic challenges, policy reform efforts are in motion, albeit at a glacial pace. Proposals include digitizing administrative processes to enhance efficiency, incentivizing late-career professionals to mentor younger employees, and incorporating flexible work arrangements. However, these initiatives require substantial investments and a paradigm shift in governance ethos—an arduous venture given Japan's ingrained bureaucratic culture. Furthermore, Japan's handling of its aging population vis-à-vis civil service exploitation presents broad implications for other nations grappling with similar demographic trends. Thus, it is imperative to consider how Japan navigates this intricate dilemma, balancing the urgent need to support its elderly population with the fundamental rights and well-being of its civil servants, who are the backbone of its administration.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, what is the current statutory retirement age for Japanese civil servants?

  1. AOption (a)

    55

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    62

  4. DOption (d)

    65

  5. EOption (e)

    70

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly states that the statutory age of retirement for Japanese civil servants is currently set at 60.
  • This information is found in the second paragraph of the passage.
  • The passage discusses reconsideration of this age due to mass retirements and the need for sustaining administrative continuity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The statutory age of retirement for Japanese civil servants, currently set at 60, is under reconsideration as the government grapples with the conundrum of sustaining administrative continuity in the face of mass retirements."

 

Additional Information

  • Additional Context: The reconsideration of the retirement age is part of broader policy reforms aimed at addressing the challenges posed by Japan's aging population.
  • The passage also discusses potential reforms such as digitizing administrative processes, incentivizing mentoring, and incorporating flexible work arrangements.

Question 104

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which factor has not been cited as a reason for the strain on Japan's civil service framework?

  1. AOption (a)

    Escalating demands for elder care services

  2. BOption (b)

    Dwindling workforce

  3. COption (c)

    Low birth rate

  4. DOption (d)

    High immigration rates

  5. EOption (e)

    Overwork among public servants

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

High immigration rates

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses several factors contributing to the strain on Japan's civil service framework, including escalating demands for elder care services, a dwindling workforce, a low birth rate, and overwork among public servants.
  • However, high immigration rates are not mentioned as a factor in the passage.
  • The passage highlights Japan's demographic challenges, focusing on internal factors such as aging population, low birth rate, and overwork.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Referenced Points from Passage: "Japan's governmental structure... is struggling to adapt to the exigencies emanating from a dwindling workforce... escalating demands for elder care services... Public servants... are being increasingly ensnared in an untenable web of overwork and inadequate remuneration."

 

Additional Information

  • Additional Context: The passage underlines the challenges presented by Japan's demographic trends, without mentioning immigration as a factor.
  • Focusing on internal demographic issues provides insights into the unique socio-economic challenges Japan faces.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Increasing the retirement age in Japan is universally accepted as a solution.

B. Unpaid overtime work is a significant issue among Japanese civil servants.

C. Japan is considering policy reforms to address the administrative challenges of an aging population.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both B and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

  • A. Increasing the retirement age in Japan is universally accepted as a solution.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that reconsidering the retirement age has ignited a contentious debate, indicating there isn't universal acceptance.
  • B. Unpaid overtime work is a significant issue among Japanese civil servants.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage explicitly mentions that civil servants encounter relentless pressure to extend work hours and this unpaid labor undermines employee well-being.
  • C. Japan is considering policy reforms to address the administrative challenges of an aging population.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage states that policy reform efforts are in motion, including digitizing administrative processes and flexible work arrangements to address these challenges.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both B and C.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Incorrect because only B and C can be inferred from the passage.
  • Only B: Incorrect because both B and C can be inferred from the passage.
  • Only C: Incorrect because both B and C can be inferred from the passage.
  • All A, B, and C: Incorrect because A cannot be inferred from the passage.

Question 106

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentences can be inferred from the passage?

A. The well-being of Japanese civil servants is a concern that needs immediate attention.

B. Japan's bureaucratic culture is resistant to rapid changes.

C. Digitalizing administrative processes is seen as a trivial measure in the context of policy reform.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

  • A. The well-being of Japanese civil servants is a concern that needs immediate attention.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage highlights the issues of overwork, unpaid overtime, and burnout among civil servants, indicating a need for immediate attention to their well-being.
  • B. Japan's bureaucratic culture is resistant to rapid changes.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that policy reform efforts are moving at a glacial pace, requiring a paradigm shift in Japan's ingrained bureaucratic culture, indicating resistance to rapid changes.
  • C. Digitalizing administrative processes is seen as a trivial measure in the context of policy reform.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage suggests that digitizing administrative processes is one of the proposals to enhance efficiency, not that it is seen as a trivial measure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both A and B.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Incorrect because both A and B can be inferred from the passage.
  • Only B: Incorrect because both A and B can be inferred from the passage.
  • Only C: Incorrect because C cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • All A, B, and C: Incorrect because C cannot be inferred from the passage.

Question 107

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Public servants in Japan are compelled to work "service overtime."

B) Japan's central government is entirely unaffected by the aging population.

C) Proposed policy reforms include digitizing administrative processes.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: Public servants in Japan are compelled to work "service overtime."
  • This statement is correct as it accurately reflects the context provided in the passage.
  • Statement B: Japan's central government is entirely unaffected by the aging population.
  • This statement is incorrect as the passage clearly states that Japan's central bureaucratic apparatus is struggling due to the aging population.
  • Statement C: Proposed policy reforms include digitizing administrative processes.
  • This statement is correct as it aligns with the information provided in the passage about the proposed policy reforms.
  • Hence, the statement B is identified as incorrect in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only B’.

Question 108

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "exigencies" in the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Trivialities

  2. BOption (b)

    Necessities

  3. COption (c)

    Uncertainties

  4. DOption (d)

    Casualties

  5. EOption (e)

    Provisions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Necessities

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Necessities.

Key Points

  • The word "exigencies" means urgent needs or demands. (आवश्यकताएँ)
  • Example: The exigencies of the job required him to work overtime frequently.
  • "Necessities" refers to things that are essential or required. (जरूरतें)
  • Example: Food and water are basic necessities for survival.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Necessities.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Trivialities (तुच्छ बातें): Things of little importance or value.
  • Example: She didn't want to waste time on trivialities.
  • Uncertainties (अनिश्चितताएं): Situations where the outcomes are not known.
  • Example: The uncertainties of the weather made the event planning difficult.
  • Casualties (दुर्घटनाएं): People who are injured or killed in an accident or conflict.
  • Example: The casualties of the war were numerous and tragic.
  • Provisions (प्रावधान): Supplies or arrangements made in advance.
  • Example: They made provisions for their trip by packing enough food and water.

Question 109

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "meticulous" as used in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Flamboyant

  2. BOption (b)

    Careless

  3. COption (c)

    Precise

  4. DOption (d)

    Detailed

  5. EOption (e)

    Prudent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Careless

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Careless.

Key Points

  • The word "meticulous" means showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise. (सूक्ष्म)
  • Example: The artist's meticulous approach to his work ensured that each painting was a masterpiece.
  • "Careless" refers to someone or something that is not giving sufficient attention or thought to avoiding harm or errors. (लापरवाह)
  • Example: His careless attitude towards the project resulted in numerous mistakes and a flawed final product.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Careless.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Flamboyant (आकर्षक): Attracting attention due to exuberance, confidence, and stylishness.
  • Example: The actor is known for his flamboyant personality and colorful wardrobe.
  • Precise (सटीक): Marked by exactness and accuracy of expression or detail.
  • Example: She gave precise directions to ensure that we reached the destination without any confusion.
  • Detailed (विस्तृत): Having many details or facts; showing attention to detail.
  • Example: The report provided a detailed analysis of the current market trends.
  • Prudent (विचारशील): Acting with or showing care and thought for the future.
  • Example: It would be prudent to save some of your income for unexpected expenses.

Question 110

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) Delaying retirement can temporarily address the shortage of experienced civil servants.

B) Flexible work arrangements are currently well-integrated in Japan’s civil service.

C) Japan's civil servants are primarily concerned with economic growth.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: Delaying retirement can temporarily address the shortage of experienced civil servants.
  • This statement is correct as the passage mentions that prolonging active service can mitigate the immediate deficit in experienced personnel.
  • Statement B: Flexible work arrangements are currently well-integrated in Japan’s civil service.
  • This statement is incorrect because the passage mentions the proposal to incorporate flexible work arrangements, not that they are already well-integrated.
  • Statement C: Japan's civil servants are primarily concerned with economic growth.
  • This statement is incorrect as the passage focuses on the challenges faced by civil servants due to an aging population and overwork, not primarily economic growth.
  • Therefore, the statement A is identified as correct in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only A’.

Question 111

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined. Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases.If there is no improvement needed, choose "No improvement required".

  1. This plan may not come forth if we do not work as a team.
  2. We are happy that her experiment finally conjured up.
  3. I thought they were able to cop out very well in the debate.
  1. AOption (a)

    Cut down

  2. BOption (b)

    Drop out

  3. COption (c)

    Come off

  4. DOption (d)

    Ease up

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Come off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3), i.e. Come off.

The meaning of the phrase come off is to succeed or be successful.

Example: We never expected that the experiment would come off.

The meaning of the other given phrases:

  • Cut down: Reduce
  • Example: She had to cut down certain expenses because she did not receive her salary.
  • Drop out: To quit a course
  • Example: He dropped out of school in the middle of the session.
  • Ease up: To calm down
  • Example: He told his angry brother to ease up.

 

Hence option 3) is the answer.

Question 112

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined.Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases.If there is no improvement needed,choose "No improvement required".

  1. Do not talk to her rudely as this may count her in.
  2. I was very cost up after scoring poor marks in the examination.
  3. My father was extremely creep out because he did not receive his salary on time.
  1. AOption (a)

    Decided on

  2. BOption (b)

    Dozed off

  3. COption (c)

    Crossed up

  4. DOption (d)

    Cut up

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cut up

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4), i.e. Cut up.

The meaning of the phrase cut up is to be upset or distressed.

Example: He did not realize that I was cut up by his behaviour.

The meaning of the other given phrases:

  • Decided on: selected or chosen
  • Dozed off: Fell asleep
  • Crossed up: Confused

Hence, option 4) is the answer.

Question 113

Phrases in the sentences given below are underlined.Choose the option which you feel can replace all of the underlined phrases.If there is no improvement needed,choose "No improvement required".

1.She could finally cater for the target after the meeting with her boss.

2.She is working really hard to catch out the first prize in this competition.

3.Due to his poor performance, he could not cast off what he had expected.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cast out

  2. BOption (b)

    Cheer on

  3. COption (c)

    Chalk up

  4. DOption (d)

    Clear up

  5. EOption (e)

    No improvement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chalk up

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3), i.e. Chalk up.

The meaning of the phrase chalk up is to achieve .

Example: I don't think they can chalk up the first position this year.

The meaning of the other given phrases:

  • Cast out: To expel
  • Example: We need to cast him out of the team.
  • Cheer on: Encourage
  • Example: His mother came to cheer him on before his performance.
  • Clear up: Cure or recover
  • Example: The wound will clear up swiftly if you apply this ointment.

 

Hence, option 3) is the answer.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In recent years, online marketing has dramatically reshaped consumerism, especially among the youth. The surge in smartphone and internet use has led to targeted ads, social media influencers, and advanced algorithms reaching young consumers more effectively than ever before. One vivid example is the rise in online betting. Digital platforms offer easy access to gambling with enticing promotions and free credits designed to lure young users. Research shows that young people, who are more impressionable and less risk-averse, are particularly susceptible. This has led to increased gambling addiction among youths, with severe financial and psychological consequences. The consumption habits of the modern generation have also been heavily influenced. Influencers on Instagram, TikTok, and YouTube play a pivotal role in shaping purchasing decisions. A survey indicates that 70% of teenagers trust influencers more than traditional celebrities. When influencers endorse products, sales often spike as young followers strive to emulate their idols, impacting purchases from luxury items to everyday goods. Algorithm-driven platforms present highly personalized ads by analysing user data, enhancing the shopping experience but raising privacy concerns. Young consumers, not fully understanding the implications, might be manipulated by these tailored adverts. Online marketing also shapes identity and self-esteem. Constant exposure to idealized images can lead to ___________ of reality, contributing to mental health issues like anxiety and depression among youth. Despite the negatives, online marketing has democratized opportunities for young entrepreneurs to reach global audiences at minimal costs, turning passions into profitable ventures. In summary, while online marketing offers benefits like democratized opportunities and enhanced shopping experiences, it poses risks such as gambling addiction, influenced purchasing behaviours, and mental health impacts. Balancing benefits and mitigating adverse effects is crucial as online marketing evolves.

Question 114

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, what is one significant consequence of the rise in online betting among youths?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increased social activities

  2. BOption (b)

     Enhanced academic performance

  3. COption (c)

    Increased gambling addiction

  4. DOption (d)

    Improved mental health

  5. EOption (e)

    Decreased smartphone usage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increased gambling addiction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage specifically mentions that the rise in online betting has led to increased gambling addiction among youths.
  • The passage highlights that young people are particularly susceptible to online betting due to their impressionable nature and reduced risk aversion.
  • It further discusses the severe financial and psychological consequences resulting from this addiction.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Referenced Points from Passage: "One vivid example is the rise in online betting... Research shows that young people... are particularly susceptible. This has led to increased gambling addiction among youths, with severe financial and psychological consequences."

 

Additional Information

  • Additional Context: The passage also covers other impacts of online marketing, such as influenced purchasing behaviours and mental health issues.
  • However, the significant consequence specifically discussed in the context of online betting is the increased gambling addiction.

Question 115

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which, out of the following, is true about algorithm-driven platforms, according to the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    They protect user privacy

  2. BOption (b)

    They provide a standard shopping experience for everyone

  3. COption (c)

    They do not affect young consumers

  4. DOption (d)

    They enhance the shopping experience through personalized ads

  5. EOption (e)

    They are rarely used by young consumers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They enhance the shopping experience through personalized ads

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The passage mentions that algorithm-driven platforms present highly personalized ads by analysing user data, which enhances the shopping experience.
  • This personalization is aimed at making the shopping process more relevant and engaging for the consumer.
  • However, the passage also notes the privacy concerns associated with this practice, as young consumers might not fully understand the implications of being targeted by tailored adverts.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Referenced Points from Passage: "Algorithm-driven platforms present highly personalized ads by analysing user data, enhancing the shopping experience but raising privacy concerns. Young consumers, not fully understanding the implications, might be manipulated by these tailored adverts."

 

Additional Information

  • Additional Context: The personalized nature of ads on algorithm-driven platforms is a double-edged sword—while it enhances shopping, it raises significant privacy and ethical concerns, particularly for younger users.
  • The passage clearly links the enhancement of the shopping experience with the use of personalized ads driven by user data analysis.

Question 116

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) Online marketing decreases opportunities for young entrepreneurs.

B) Influencers do not affect sales of everyday goods.

C) Constant exposure to idealized images can contribute to mental health issues among youth.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: Online marketing decreases opportunities for young entrepreneurs.
  • This statement is incorrect as the passage mentions that online marketing has democratized opportunities for young entrepreneurs.
  • Statement B: Influencers do not affect sales of everyday goods.
  • This statement is incorrect as the passage states that influencers impact purchases from luxury items to everyday goods.
  • Statement C: Constant exposure to idealized images can contribute to mental health issues among youth.
  • This statement is correct as the passage mentions that exposure to idealized images can lead to mental health issues like anxiety and depression among youth.
  • Therefore, the statement C is identified as correct in the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only C’.

Question 117

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: "Constant exposure to idealized images can lead to ___________ of reality, contributing to mental health issues like anxiety and depression among youth."

  1. AOption (a)

    unrealistic expectations and distorted perceptions

  2. BOption (b)

    increased productivity and motivation

  3. COption (c)

    a clear understanding and acceptance

  4. DOption (d)

    balanced viewpoints and clarity

  5. EOption (e)

    practical goals and achievements

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

unrealistic expectations and distorted perceptions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'unrealistic expectations and distorted perceptions'.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "unrealistic expectations and distorted perceptions" accurately fills the blank as it addresses how idealized images affect young people's views of reality.
  • Options like "increased productivity and motivation" and "balanced viewpoints and clarity" do not fit the context of contributing to mental health issues.
  • The other options do not match the negative impact described in the passage.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: Constant exposure to idealized images can lead to unrealistic expectations and distorted perceptions of reality, contributing to mental health issues like anxiety and depression among youth.

Additional Information

  • Increased productivity and motivation: Refers to improved work output and drive, which do not fit the context.
  • A clear understanding and acceptance: Means having a true comprehension, not applicable here.
  • Balanced viewpoints and clarity: Implies fair and clear perspectives, which is not the issue in the passage.
  • Practical goals and achievements: Refers to realistic targets and accomplishments, not relevant to the context described.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

China has experienced a remarkable economic transformation over the past several decades, evolving from a predominantly agricultural society to a global industrial and technological powerhouse. At the heart of this transformation lies its Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which has been growing at an impressive rate. This rapid economic growth has lifted hundreds of millions of citizens out of poverty and placed the country among the world's largest economies. China's GDP surged significantly in the late 20th and early 21st centuries, primarily due to economic reforms initiated in 1978 under the leadership of Deng Xiaoping. These reforms introduced market-oriented policies, dismantled collective farming, and encouraged foreign investment. Such measures spurred private enterprise and opened China to the global market, fostering an environment conducive to rapid industrialization and modernization. In recent years, China's GDP growth rate has shown some signs of deceleration as the country transitions from a manufacturing-based economy to one driven by consumer spending and services. Despite this, the overall figures remain robust. As of 2021, China's GDP was approximately 16.87trillion,maintainingitspositionasthesecond−largesteconomyintheworld,justbehindtheUnitedStates.Thecountryhasalsosetambitiousgoalstodoublethesizeofitseconomyby2035,whichwouldentailanaverageannualgrowthrateofaround4.7%.SeveralfactorscontributetoChina′sGDPgrowth.Massiveinvestmentsininfrastructure,includinghighways,railways,andairports,haveimprovedconnectivityandboostedproductivity.Thetechnologysector,exemplifiedbygiantslikeHuaweiandAlibaba,hasalsoplayedasignificantroleineconomicexpansion.Furthermore,China′ssubstantialexportmarket,builtonitslabour−intensivemanufacturingsector,hasmadeitacriticalplayeringlobaltrade.However,challengesremain.China′seconomicgrowthhasbeenaccompaniedbyenvironmentalissues,includingairandwaterpollution.Thecountryalsofacestheriskofhighcorporatedebtlevelsandanagingpopulation,whichcouldstrainpublicresourcesandimpactfutureeconomicstability.Overall,China′sGDPnarrativeisoneofrapidgrowthandsignificanttransformation,markedbybothimpressiveachievementsandpressingchallenges.Asthecountrycontinuestoadaptitseconomicstrategiestosustaingrowth,itsroleintheglobaleconomywilllikelyremainpivotal16.87 trillion, maintaining its position as the second-largest economy in the world, just behind the United States. The country has also set ambitious goals to double the size of its economy by 2035, which would entail an average annual growth rate of around 4.7\%. Several factors contribute to China's GDP growth. Massive investments in infrastructure, including highways, railways, and airports, have improved connectivity and boosted productivity. The technology sector, exemplified by giants like Huawei and Alibaba, has also played a significant role in economic expansion. Furthermore, China's substantial export market, built on its labour-intensive manufacturing sector, has made it a critical player in global trade. However, challenges remain. China's economic growth has been accompanied by environmental issues, including air and water pollution. The country also faces the risk of high corporate debt levels and an aging population, which could strain public resources and impact future economic stability. Overall, China's GDP narrative is one of rapid growth and significant transformation, marked by both impressive achievements and pressing challenges. As the country continues to adapt its economic strategies to sustain growth, its role in the global economy will likely remain pivotal.

Question 118

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "spurred" as used in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    hindered

  2. BOption (b)

    incited

  3. COption (c)

    obviated

  4. DOption (d)

    repressed

  5. EOption (e)

    stifled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

incited

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Incited.

Key Points

  • The word "spurred" means to encourage an activity or development or make it happen faster. (उत्तेजित किया)
  • Example: The government's new policies spurred economic growth and development.
  • "Incited" refers to encouraging or stirring up (violent or unlawful behavior). However, it can also mean to urge or persuade someone to act in a particular way. (उत्तेजित किया)
  • Example: The leader's speech incited the crowd to take action.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Incited.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Hindered (बाधित किया): To create difficulties resulting in delay or obstruction.
  • Example: The heavy traffic hindered our progress to the airport.
  • Obviated (समाप्त कर दिया): To remove a need or difficulty.
  • Example: The new medical treatment obviated the need for surgery.
  • Repressed (दबाया): To subdue someone or something by force.
  • Example: The regime repressed any opposition to its policies.
  • Stifled (घुट गया): To suffocate or restrain (some action or reaction).
  • Example: The strict regulations stifled innovation and creativity.

Question 119

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words can replace "dismantled" in the context of the passage without changing its meaning?

  1. AOption (a)

    constructed

  2. BOption (b)

    disassembled

  3. COption (c)

    fortified

  4. DOption (d)

    synthesized

  5. EOption (e)

    amalgamated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

disassembled

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Disassembled.

Key Points

  • The word "dismantled" in the passage means to take apart or remove the structure of something (विघटित किया).
  • Example: The old factory was dismantled to make way for new development.
  • "Disassembled" means to take something apart (विघटित किया).
  • Example: The mechanic disassembled the engine to fix the problem.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Disassembled.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Constructed (निर्मित किया): To build or form by putting parts together.
  • Example: The company constructed a new office building downtown.
  • Fortified (मजबूत किया): To strengthen (a place) with defensive works so as to protect it against attack.
  • Example: The castle was fortified with tall walls and strong gates.
  • Synthesized (संश्लेषित किया): To combine a number of things into a coherent whole.
  • Example: The researcher synthesized the findings from various studies to reach a conclusion.
  • Amalgamated (विलय किया हुआ): To combine or unite to form one organization or structure.
  • Example: The two companies amalgamated to form a larger corporation.

Question 120

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following idioms best captures the essence of "transitioning from a manufacturing-based economy to one driven by consumer spending and services" as stated in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    turn over a new leaf

  2. BOption (b)

    burn the candle at both ends

  3. COption (c)

    make ends meet

  4. DOption (d)

    change horses in midstream

  5. EOption (e)

    go back to the drawing board

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

turn over a new leaf

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Turn over a new leaf.

Key Points

  • The idiom "turn over a new leaf" means to change one's behavior in a positive way or to start fresh with a new attitude or approach. (नए सिरे से शुरुआत करना)
  • Example: After losing his job, he decided to turn over a new leaf and start his own business.
  • This idiom captures the essence of China transitioning from a manufacturing-based economy to one driven by consumer spending and services, as it signifies a significant change or transformation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Turn over a new leaf.

Additional Information

Here are the other idioms explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Burn the candle at both ends (दोनों सिरों से मोमबत्ती जलाना): To overwork oneself or do too much, often leading to exhaustion.
  • Example: If you keep burning the candle at both ends, you'll end up sick from exhaustion.
  • Make ends meet (गुज़ारा करना): To manage financially, especially in difficult circumstances.
  • Example: With the high cost of living, it's hard for many families to make ends meet.
  • Change horses in midstream (बीच धारा में घोड़े बदलना): To change plans or leaders in the middle of an important activity.
  • Example: Changing horses in midstream can be risky, especially in a high-stakes situation.
  • Go back to the drawing board (फिर से शुरुआत करना): To start planning something again because the first plan failed.
  • Example: The design didn't work out, so we need to go back to the drawing board.

Data Analysis & Interpretation (35 questions)

The bar graphs show the total number of balls [ Red + Green  + Blue ] in four different bags.

 

The line graph give below shows the probability of red ball from bag A and C each and probability of picking a green ball from bag B and D each.

Question 121

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If in bag E, the total number of balls (red + blue + green) is 30. The probability of picking a blue ball from bag E is 0.1. The number of red balls in bag D is 4 times the number of blue balls in bag E. Which one of the following/s is/are true?

I.The probability of picking a blue ball from bag D is not more than 0.2.

II. If the ratio of number of blue balls in bag A and D is 2:3, then the probability of picking two green balls from bag A is 3/38.

III. The difference between the probability of picking two blue balls from bag D and the probability of picking two balls from bag B, which are not green is 379/1122.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and III 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and II 

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and III 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

  5. EOption (e)

     All I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

 All I, II and III

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Totals: A = 20, B = 35, C = 25, D = 45.

P(red from A) = 0.5 ⇒ r _A = 0.5 × 20 = 10.

P(green from B) = 0.4 ⇒ g _B = 0.4 × 35 = 14.

P(red from C) = 0.2

⇒ r _C = 0.2 × 25 = 5.

P(green from D) = 0.6

⇒ g _D = 0.6 × 45 = 27.

B _A = 20 – r _A – g _A = 10 – g _A

B _B = 35 – r _B – g _B = 21 – r _B

B _C = 25 – r _C – g _C = 20 – g _C

B _D = 45 – r _D – g _D = 18 – r _D

Calculations

Given: In bag E total = 30, P(blue from E) = 0.1 ⇒ b _E = 0.1 × 30 = 3.

Given relation: r _D = 4 × b _E = 4 × 3 = 12.

We already have g _D = 27. So, b _D = 45 – r _D – g _D = 45 - 12 - 27 = 6.

Evaluate statements:

I) P(blue from D) = b _D / 45 = 6 / 45 = 2/15 ≈ 0.1333. This is not more than 0.2 ⇒ Statement I is TRUE.

II) If b _A : b _D = 2 : 3. With b _D = 6 ⇒ b _A = (2/3) × 6 = 4.

Given r _A = 10. Then g _A = 20 – r _A – b _A = 20 - 10 - 4 = 6.

Probability of picking two green balls from A = (6/20) × (5/19) = (3/10) × (5/19) = 15/190 = 3/38 ⇒ Statement II is TRUE.

III) Compute:

  • P(two blue from D) = (6/45) × (5/44) = 1/66.
  • Non-green in B = 35 – g _B = 35 - 14 = 21. P(two non-green from B) = (21/35) × (20/34) = (3/5) × (10/17) = 30/85 = 6/17.

Difference (D – B _non _green) = |1/66 - 6/17| = 379/1122.

Conclusion I, II and III are all TRUE. (Option e)

Question 122

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of blue balls in bag C is more than 8 and number of blue balls in bag C is more than the number of green balls in that bag. The number of green balls in bag C is a prime number. Which one of the following/s is/are true?

  1. The probability of picking a blue ball from bag C is less than 0.75.

II. The sum of probability of picking a green ball from bag B and the probability of picking a blue ball from bag C is always greater than 1. III. The total number of red and blue balls in bag D can be equals to the number of blue balls in bag C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and III 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

  5. EOption (e)

     All I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I and III

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Totals: A = 20, B = 35, C = 25, D = 45.

P(red from A) = 0.5 ⇒ r _A = 0.5 × 20 = 10.

P(green from B) = 0.4 ⇒ g _B = 0.4 × 35 = 14.

P(red from C) = 0.2

⇒ r _C = 0.2 × 25 = 5.

P(green from D) = 0.6

⇒ g _D = 0.6 × 45 = 27.

B _A = 20 – r _A – g _A = 10 – g _A

B _B = 35 – r _B – g _B = 21 – r _B

B _C = 25 – r _C – g _C = 20 – g _C

B _D = 45 – r _D – g _D = 18 – r _D

Calculations

Given additional conditions for bag C: b _C > 8, b _C > g _C, and g _C is prime.

Recall b _C = 20 – g _C. From b _C > 8 ⇒ g _C < 12. From b _C > g _C ⇒ 20 – g _C > g _C ⇒ g _C < 10.

Prime numbers less than 10: {2, 3, 5, 7}. So possible g _C values = 2, 3, 5, 7.

Corresponding b _C values: 18, 17, 15, 13 respectively. All satisfy b _C > 8 and b _C > g _C.

Evaluate statements:

I) P(blue from C) = b _C / 25. Maximum occurs when b _C = 18 ⇒ 18/25 = 0.72 < 0.75. So P(blue from C) is always less than 0.75 ⇒ Statement I is TRUE.

II) P(green from B) + P(blue from C) = 0.4 + (b _C / 25). For smallest b _C = 13 ⇒ sum = 0.4 + 13/25 = 0.4 + 0.52 = 0.92 < 1. So. the sum is not always greater than 1 ⇒ Statement II is FALSE.

III) Total of red + blue in D = r _D + b _D = r _D + (18 – r _D) = 18 (independent of r _D).

Is b _C = 18 possible? Yes, for g _C = 2 we have b _C = 18. That is allowed. Therefore total red + blue in D (=18) can equal b _C. ⇒ Statement III is TRUE.

Conclusion = Only I and III are true. (Option a)

Question 123

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of red balls in bag A would have been 20% more and the number of green balls in bag A would have been 1/7th of the number of green balls in bag B, then the number of blue balls in bag A and B is equal. Which one of the following/s is/are true?

I.The difference between probability of picking a red ball from bag B and the probability of picking a blue ball from bag A is more than 0.1.

II. The difference between the number of green balls in bag A and the number of green balls in bag D is a perfect square.

III. The average of number of red balls in bag B and C is 8.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and II

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

  5. EOption (e)

    ​All I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only I and II

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Totals: A = 20, B = 35, C = 25, D = 45.

P(red from A) = 0.5 ⇒ r _A = 0.5 × 20 = 10.

P(green from B) = 0.4 ⇒ g _B = 0.4 × 35 = 14.

P(red from C) = 0.2

⇒ r _C = 0.2 × 25 = 5.

P(green from D) = 0.6

⇒ g _D = 0.6 × 45 = 27.

B _A = 20 – r _A – g _A = 10 – g _A

B _B = 35 – r _B – g _B = 21 – r _B

B _C = 25 – r _C – g _C = 20 – g _C

B _D = 45 – r _D – g _D = 18 – r _D

Calculations

Conditions: If number of red balls in A would have been 20% more and g _A = (1/7) g _B, and with those conditions b _A = b _B.

  1. Original r _A = 10. 20% more ⇒ r _A' = 1.2 × 10 = 12.

  2. g _A = g _B / 7 = 14 / 7 = 2.

  3. Compute b _A = 20 – r _A' – g _A = 20 - 12 - 2 = 6.

  4. Set b _B = 6. Since b _B = 21 – r _B ⇒ 21 – r _B = 6 ⇒ r _B = 15.

So final counts used here:

Bag A: r _A' = 12, g _A = 2, b _A = 6.

Bag B: r _B = 15, g _B = 14, b _B = 6.

Bag C: r _C = 5, g _C = unknown, b _C = 20 – g _C.

Bag D: g _D = 27, r _D = unknown, b _D = 18 – r _D.

Now evaluate statements:

I) P(red from B) - P(blue from A) = (15/35) - (6/20) = 3/7 - 0.3 ≈ 0.428571 - 0.3 = 0.128571...

→ This is greater than 0.1 ⇒ Statement I is TRUE.

II) Difference between g _A and g _D = |2 - 27| = 25 = 5^2 ⇒ a perfect square. ⇒ Statement II is TRUE.

III) Average of red balls in B and C = (15 + 5)/2 = 10, which is not 8 ⇒ Statement III is FALSE.

Conclusion - Only I and II are true. (Option b)

Question 124

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of green balls in bag A is 50% more than the number of blue balls in Bag A. Find which of following is true?

I.A ball is chosen at random from Bag A. The probability that it is not red is 2/3.

II. A ball is drawn at random, its color is noted, and then it is put back. If this process is repeated twice, the probability that both balls drawn are green is 11/100.

III. Two balls are drawn without replacement from Bag A. The probability that both balls are of different Colores is 66/97.

  1. AOption (a)

    All false

  2. BOption (b)

    All true

  3. COption (c)

    Only I true

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II true

  5. EOption (e)

    Only III true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All false

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Totals: A = 20, B = 35, C = 25, D = 45.

P(red from A) = 0.5 ⇒ r _A = 0.5 × 20 = 10.

P(green from B) = 0.4 ⇒ g _B = 0.4 × 35 = 14.

P(red from C) = 0.2

⇒ r _C = 0.2 × 25 = 5.

P(green from D) = 0.6

⇒ g _D = 0.6 × 45 = 27.

B _A = 20 – r _A – g _A = 10 – g _A

B _B = 35 – r _B – g _B = 21 – r _B

B _C = 25 – r _C – g _C = 20 – g _C

B _D = 45 – r _D – g _D = 18 – r _D

Calculation

Number of red balls in bag A is 10.

Total number of balls in Bag A is 20.

Let number of blue balls in the bag is 2x and number of green balls in bag is 3x.

So, 5x = 10

Or, x = 2

Number of blue balls in bag A is 4

Number of green balls in Bag A is 6.

I. Not red: non-red balls = 6 + 4 = 10.

P(not red) = 10/20 =1/2.

II. Both green with replacement:

P(green) = 6/20 = 3/10.

With replacement: P(both green) = [(3/10)]2   = 9/ 100

III.Two balls without replacement — different colors:

Total ordered favourable pairs: [6 × 10] + [6 × 4] + [10 × 4] = 60 + 24 + 40 = 124.

Total unordered pairs = (20C2) = 190.

P(different colors) = 124/190 = 62/95

Question 125

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Two balls randomly picked from bag D. Find the probability of getting not green balls?

  1. AOption (a)

    17/110

  2. BOption (b)

    19/110

  3. COption (c)

    9/17

  4. DOption (d)

    5/17

  5. EOption (e)

    4/19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

17/110

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Totals: A = 20, B = 35, C = 25, D = 45.

P(red from A) = 0.5 ⇒ r _A = 0.5 × 20 = 10.

P(green from B) = 0.4 ⇒ g _B = 0.4 × 35 = 14.

P(red from C) = 0.2

⇒ r _C = 0.2 × 25 = 5.

P(green from D) = 0.6

⇒ g _D = 0.6 × 45 = 27.

B _A = 20 – r _A – g _A = 10 – g _A

B _B = 35 – r _B – g _B = 21 – r _B

B _C = 25 – r _C – g _C = 20 – g _C

B _D = 45 – r _D – g _D = 18 – r _D

Calculations

Total balls in D = 45

Green balls in D = 0.6 × 45 = 27

Not green balls = Total – Green = 45 – 27 = 18

Total ways = C(45, 2) = 45 × 44 / 2 = 990

Favourable ways to pick 2 not green balls

Favourable ways = C(18, 2) = 18 × 17 / 2 = 153

P(2 not green) = Favourable / Total = 153 / 990 = 17 / 110

Answer: 17/110

There are four equations in two column. Some more information also given. Calculate the roots and variables, then solve the questions.

A.PX2 + 5X + 6 = 0C. a2 + 7a + 12 = 0
B.QY2 - 13Y + 20 = 0D. b2 – 9b + 20 = 0

 

  1. Sum of co-efficient of x2, x, y2 and y is -5.
  2. Roots of all the equations are non – imaginary.
  3. Both P and Q are positive integers.

Question 126

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the difference between smaller root of equation A and the larger root of equation B is

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    7

  5. EOption (e)

    -2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Given Equations

A: P x² + 5x + 6 = 0

B: Q y² - 13y + 20 = 0

C: a² + 7a + 12 = 0

D: b² – 9b + 20 = 0

Using Statement II (Non-imaginary roots)

For equation A: Discriminant ΔA = 25 – 24P ≥ 0 ⇒ P ≤ 25/24 ≈ 1.04.

Since P is a positive integer, P = 1.

For equation B: Discriminant ΔB = 169 – 80Q ≥ 0 ⇒ Q ≤ 169/80 ≈ 2.11.

So Q can be 1 or 2.

Sum of coefficients of x², x, y², y is P + 5 + Q – 13 = P + Q – 8.

Given this equals –5 ⇒ P + Q = 3.

Since P = 1, we get Q = 2.

Both P and Q are positive integers. Final values: P = 1, Q = 2.

Equation A: x² + 5x + 6 = 0 ⇒ roots: –3, –2.

Equation B: 2y² – 13y + 20 = 0 ⇒ roots: 5/2, 4.

Equation C: a² + 7a + 12 = 0 ⇒ roots: –4, –3.

Equation D: b² – 9b + 20 = 0 ⇒ roots: 4, 5.

Calculation

Smaller root of A = –3, Larger root of B = 4.

Difference = 4 - (-3) = 7.

Answer: 7.

Question 127

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the product of smaller root of equation B and larger root of equation D?

  1. AOption (a)

    22.5

  2. BOption (b)

    32.5

  3. COption (c)

    28.5

  4. DOption (d)

    12.5

  5. EOption (e)

    16.7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12.5

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Given Equations

A: P x² + 5x + 6 = 0

B: Q y² - 13y + 20 = 0

C: a² + 7a + 12 = 0

D: b² – 9b + 20 = 0

Using Statement II (Non-imaginary roots)

For equation A: Discriminant ΔA = 25 – 24P ≥ 0 ⇒ P ≤ 25/24 ≈ 1.04.

Since P is a positive integer, P = 1.

For equation B: Discriminant ΔB = 169 – 80Q ≥ 0 ⇒ Q ≤ 169/80 ≈ 2.11.

So Q can be 1 or 2.

Sum of coefficients of x², x, y², y is P + 5 + Q – 13 = P + Q – 8.

Given this equals –5 ⇒ P + Q = 3.

Since P = 1, we get Q = 2.

Both P and Q are positive integers. Final values: P = 1, Q = 2.

Equation A: x² + 5x + 6 = 0 ⇒ roots: –3, –2.

Equation B: 2y² – 13y + 20 = 0 ⇒ roots: 5/2, 4.

Equation C: a² + 7a + 12 = 0 ⇒ roots: –4, –3.

Equation D: b² – 9b + 20 = 0 ⇒ roots: 4, 5.

Calculation

Smaller root of B = 5/2, Larger root of D = 5.

Product = (5/2) × 5 = 25/2 = 12.5.

Answer: 25/2 or 12.5.

Question 128

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If we subtract 8 from larger root of equation C and add the resultant to the value of P, then find the square of resultant number?

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    160

  3. COption (c)

    170

  4. DOption (d)

    190

  5. EOption (e)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

100

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Given Equations

A: P x² + 5x + 6 = 0

B: Q y² - 13y + 20 = 0

C: a² + 7a + 12 = 0

D: b² – 9b + 20 = 0

Using Statement II (Non-imaginary roots)

For equation A: Discriminant ΔA = 25 – 24P ≥ 0 ⇒ P ≤ 25/24 ≈ 1.04.

Since P is a positive integer, P = 1.

For equation B: Discriminant ΔB = 169 – 80Q ≥ 0 ⇒ Q ≤ 169/80 ≈ 2.11.

So Q can be 1 or 2.

Sum of coefficients of x², x, y², y is P + 5 + Q – 13 = P + Q – 8.

Given this equals –5 ⇒ P + Q = 3.

Since P = 1, we get Q = 2.

Both P and Q are positive integers. Final values: P = 1, Q = 2.

Equation A: x² + 5x + 6 = 0 ⇒ roots: –3, –2.

Equation B: 2y² – 13y + 20 = 0 ⇒ roots: 5/2, 4.

Equation C: a² + 7a + 12 = 0 ⇒ roots: –4, –3.

Equation D: b² – 9b + 20 = 0 ⇒ roots: 4, 5.

Calculation

Larger root of C = –3. (–3 – 8) = –11.

Add P = 1 ⇒ –11 + 1 = –10.

Square ⇒ (–10)² = 100.

Answer: 100.

The bar graphs given below shows the discount percentage given on marked price of 4 different items in 2022 and 2024.

 

 

 

Note: The marked price of an item can be same or different in both the years. The cost price of an item can be same or different in both the years.

Question 129

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the ratio of marked price of item B and C in 2024 is 3:4 and item C is sold at a profit of 60% and the difference between cost price and selling price of item C in 2024 is Rs. 480. if the marked price of item B in 2022 and 2024 is same, then find the selling price item B in 2022.

  1. AOption (a)

    1492

  2. BOption (b)

    1092

  3. COption (c)

    325

  4. DOption (d)

    447

  5. EOption (e)

    654

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1092

Why this answer is correct

Calculations

  • MP_B,2024 : MP_C,2024 = 3 : 4.

  • Item C in 2024: profit = 60% and SP_C - CP_C = ₹480.

  • MP_B,2022 = MP_B,2024 (given).

From C in 2024:

0.60 × CP_C = 480 ⇒ CP_C = 480 / 0.6 = 800.

SP_C,2024 = 1.60 × 800 = 1280.

Discount on C in 2024 = 20%

⇒ SP_C,2024 = 0.80 × MP_C,2024

⇒ MP_C,2024 = 1280 / 0.80 = 1600.

Thus MP_B,2024 = (3/4) × 1600 = 1200.

MP_B,2022 = MP_B,2024 = 1200 (given).

Discount on B in 2022 = 9% ⇒ SP_B,2022 = 1200 × 0.91 = Rs. 1092.

Question 130

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The marked price of item D in 2022 is Rs. 418 more than the profit earned by selling this item in 2022; whereas the profit percentage on selling article D in 2022 is 25%, then find the marked price of article D in 2022.

  1. AOption (a)

    990

  2. BOption (b)

    500

  3. COption (c)

    450

  4. DOption (d)

    320

  5. EOption (e)

    950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

500

Why this answer is correct

Calculations

  • Profit% on D in 2022 = 25% → Profit = 0.25 × CP_D.

  • MP_D,2022 = profit on D in 2022 + 418 = 0.25×CP_D + 418.

  • Discount on D in 2022 = 18% → SP_D,2022 = 0.82 × MP_D,2022.

  • Also SP_D,2022 = CP_D + profit = 1.25 × CP_D.

0.82 × MP_D,2022 = 1.25 × CP_D

and MP_D,2022 = 0.25 × CP_D + 418.

0.82(0.25 CP_D + 418) = 1.25 CP_D

82/100 × (1/4 CP_D + 418) = 5/4 CP_D

=> (41/50) × (CP_D/4 + 418) = 5/4 CP_D

CP_D = 328.

Profit = 0.25 × 328 = 82.

MP_D,2022 = 82 + 418 = Rs. 500.

MP_D,2022 = Rs. 500.

Question 131

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The ratio of selling price of item C and D in 2024 is 2:5 and the profit percent on selling items C and D in 2024 is 20% and 25% respectively, find the cost price of item C is what percent of the cost price of item D in 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    45 [2/3] %.

  2. BOption (b)

    47 [2/3] %.

  3. COption (c)

    43 [2/3] %.

  4. DOption (d)

    31 [2/3] %.

  5. EOption (e)

    41 [2/3] %.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

41 [2/3] %.

Why this answer is correct

Calculations

Given in 2024:

  • SP_C : SP_D = 2 : 5.

  • profit% on C = 20% ⇒ SP_C = 1.20 × CP_C.

  • profit% on D = 25% ⇒ SP_D = 1.25 × CP_D.

So (1.20 × CP_C) / (1.25 × CP_D) = 2/5.

=> (24/25) × (CP_C / CP_D) = 2/5.

=> CP_C / CP_D = (2/5) × (25/24) = 5/12.

As percentage: (5/12) × 100% = 41 [2/3] %.

CP_C is 41 2/3 % of CP_D in 2024.

Question 132

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If cost price of item A in 2022 and 2024 is same, then find the ratio of selling price of item A in 2022 and 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    4:5

  2. BOption (b)

    3:2

  3. COption (c)

    17:18

  4. DOption (d)

    11:13

  5. EOption (e)

    CND

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

CND

Why this answer is correct

Calculations

Only discount percentages (12% in 2022, 15% in 2024) are given.

Profit/Loss % or relation between CP and MP is not given.

Without knowing profit or loss, we cannot connect CP to MP, hence we cannot determine the selling price ratio across years.

Question 133

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Cost price of item C in 2022 is Rs. [x +40]. Item C is marked up by 60% above the cost price. Selling price of item C in 2022 is Rs. [x + 184]. If Discount amount of item D in 2024 is [x /10]. Find the marked price of item D in 2022.

  1. AOption (a)

    132

  2. BOption (b)

    184

  3. COption (c)

    152

  4. DOption (d)

    144

  5. EOption (e)

    164

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

144

Why this answer is correct

Calculation

Cost price (CP) of C = x + 40

Marked price (MP) = 1.6 × (x + 40)

Discount = 15%

Selling price (SP) = 0.85 × 1.6(x + 40) = 1.36(x + 40)

Given SP = x + 184

=> 1.36x + 54.4 = x + 184

=> 0.36x = 129.6

=> x = 360

Discount amount of D in 2024 = x/10 = 360/10 = 36

Discount percent = 25%

=> 0.25 × MP = 36

=> MP = 36 / 0.25 = Rs. 144

Question 134

Below question is followed by two statements labelled I, II and III. Decide if these statements are sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:

Average number of cakes sold on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 45. Find the difference between number of cakes sold on Monday and Wednesday together and the number of cakes sold on Thursday, Tuesday and Saturday together.

I: Total number of cakes sold on Thursday and Friday is 135.

II: Average number of cakes sold on Monday to Friday is more than 100. III: Total number of cakes sold on Tuesday and Saturday is 110.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and III together

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and II together

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and III together

  4. DOption (d)

    All three together

  5. EOption (e)

    All three together are not sufficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All three together are not sufficient

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find (Monday + Wednesday) − (Thursday + Tuesday + Saturday), we need specific values or sums for these days.

Given: Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday = 45 × 3 = 135.

Statement I provides Thursday + Friday = 135. Statement III provides Tuesday + Saturday = 110.

Statement II is an inequality (Average > 100), which cannot provide an exact numerical value for any day.

Even combining all, we have 4 equations/conditions but 6 variables (Mon, Tue, Wed, Thu, Fri, Sat); thus, the exact difference cannot be determined.

∴ The correct answer is All three together are not sufficient.

Alternate Method

Given: Average (Mon, Tue, Wed) = 45

⇒ Mon + Tue + Wed = 135 ... (Eq 1)

Required: (Mon + Wed) − (Thu + Tue + Sat)

⇒ From (Eq 1): Mon + Wed = 135 − Tue

⇒ Expression = (135 − Tue) − (Thu + Tue + Sat) = 135 − 2×Tue − Thu − Sat

⇒ From Statement I: Thu + Fri = 135 (Introduces unknown Fri)

⇒ From Statement II: (Mon + Tue + Wed + Thu + Fri) > 500 (Inequality, no fixed value)

⇒ From Statement III: Tue + Sat = 110

⇒ Even combining all, we cannot eliminate the Fri or Tue variables to get a constant numerical result.

∴ The correct answer is All three together are not sufficient.

Additional Information

Data Sufficiency Rules

To solve for n variables, we generally require n independent linear equations. Inequalities usually do not provide sufficient data for exact values.

Average Formula

Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations. Sum = Average × Count.

Question 135

I: Sum of ages of Raj and Meghna is 63 years.

II: Meghna is 8 years younger to Simran.

III: Simran is 5 years elder to Raj.

IV: Ratio of ages of Meghna and Simran is 4:5.

Find the age of Raj after 6 years?

After combining the statements Which of the following statement is not needed to find the answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    Either statement I or II or III or IV

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

  5. EOption (e)

    Only IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

From IV, Meghna:Simran = 4:5. Difference 1 unit = 8 years (from II).

⇒ Meghna = 4 × 8 = 32 years, Simran = 5 × 8 = 40 years.

From III, Raj = Simran − 5 = 40 − 5 = 35 years.

Age of Raj after 6 years = 35 + 6 = 41 years. Statement I is never used.

∴ The correct answer is Only I.

Alternate Method

Given:

I: Raj + Meghna = 63

II: Simran − Meghna = 8

III: Simran − Raj = 5

IV: Meghna : Simran = 4 : 5

Calculations:

⇒ Using IV: Let Meghna = 4x and Simran = 5x.

⇒ From II: 5x − 4x = 8 ⇒ x = 8.

⇒ Simran = 5 × 8 = 40 years.

⇒ From III: Raj = 40 − 5 = 35 years.

⇒ Raj after 6 years = 35 + 6 = 41 years.

⇒ Note: Using II, III, and IV, we found Raj's age without using Statement I.

∴ The correct answer is Only I.

Additional Information

Data Sufficiency in Ages

To find individual ages, you typically need N independent linear equations for N variables. Redundant information is any statement that provides data already derivable from other statements.

Ratio and Difference Rule

If the ratio (a:b) and the absolute difference (d) between two quantities are known, the values are a × [d/(b−a)] and b × [d/(b−a)].

Age After 'n' Years

If current age is X, age after n years is X + n, and age n years ago was X − n. The difference between ages of two people remains constant over time.

Question 136

What is the temperature on Wednesday?

Statements:

I. The average temperature from Monday to Friday is 24°C.

II. Twice Wednesday plus the sum of the other four days equals 140°C.

III. If Monday, Tuesday, Thursday and Friday are each counted twice and Wednesday is counted three times, the total is 260°C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Any two statements together are sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and II together are sufficient

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and III together are sufficient

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and III together are sufficient

  5. EOption (e)

    Even all three together are not sufficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Any two statements together are sufficient

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the temperatures of Monday to Friday be M, T, W, Th, F respectively.

Statement I: (M+T+W+Th+F) = 24 × 5 = 120.

Statement II: 2W + (M+T+Th+F) = 140.

Using I and II: Subtract (M+T+W+Th+F) from (M+T+2W+Th+F) → W = 140 − 120 = 20.

Similarly, III gives 2(M+T+Th+F) + 3W = 260. Combined with I or II, we get a system of two variables (W and Sum of others), which is solvable.

∴ The correct answer is 20°C.

Alternate Method

Given: Average temperature and sum equations for 5 days.

Let S be the sum of temperatures of Monday, Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday. Let W be the temperature of Wednesday.

From Statement I: (S + W) / 5 = 24

⇒ S + W = 120 --- (Eq 1)

From Statement II: S + 2W = 140 --- (Eq 2)

From Statement III: 2S + 3W = 260 --- (Eq 3)

Case 1 (I & II): (Eq 2) − (Eq 1) ⇒ W = 20°C.

Case 2 (II & III): 2 × (Eq 2) ⇒ 2S + 4W = 280. Subtracting (Eq 3) ⇒ W = 20°C.

Case 3 (I & III): 2 × (Eq 1) ⇒ 2S + 2W = 240. Subtracting from (Eq 3) ⇒ W = 20°C.

∴ The correct answer is 20°C.

Additional Information

Data Sufficiency in Equations

To solve for n variables, we generally require n independent linear equations. In this problem, S and W are the two variables.

Average Formula

Average = Total Sum ÷ Number of Observations. Total Sum = Average × Number of Observations.

Linear Independence

If one equation is a direct multiple or a simple sum of others, it is not independent and won't help in finding a unique solution.

Question 137

There is a mixture of M litres which consists of milk and water. Water is 20% in the mixture. Follow the steps one after another in the given order: I: b litres of water is added and the percentage of water in mixture becomes 25%.

II: b litres of the mixture is removed.

III: 1.5b litres of milk is added. Find the final quantity of mixture after the 3rd step.

  1. AOption (a)

    1.8b

  2. BOption (b)

    0.8a

  3. COption (c)

    12.5b

  4. DOption (d)

    16.5b

  5. EOption (e)

    15.5b

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16.5b

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In step I, Water % increases from 20% to 25% by adding b litres of water.

Using Alligation on water: (100 − 25) : (25 − 20) = 75 : 5 = 15 : 1.

So, Initial Mixture M = 15 × b = 15b.

Final Quantity = (M + b) − b + 1.5b = M + 1.5b = 15b + 1.5b = 16.5b.

∴ The correct answer is 16.5b.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Mixture = M, Water = 20%. Step I: Add b litres water → Water becomes 25%.

Step I Calculation:

⇒ Initial Water = 0.20M

⇒ New Water / New Total = (0.20M + b) / (M + b) = 25/100 = 1/4

⇒ 4(0.20M + b) = M + b

⇒ 0.8M + 4b = M + b

⇒ 0.2M = 3b ⇒ M = 15b

Step II & III Calculation:

⇒ Quantity after Step I = M + b = 15b + b = 16b

⇒ Step II: Remove b litres → Remainder = 16b − b = 15b

⇒ Step III: Add 1.5b litres milk → Final Quantity = 15b + 1.5b = 16.5b

∴ The correct answer is 16.5b.

Additional Information

Alligation Method for Mixtures

When a pure component (100%) is added to a mixture, the ratio of (Initial Mixture : Added Amount) = (Concentration of Addition − New Concentration) : (New Concentration − Initial Concentration).

Removal and Replacement

When a portion of the mixture is removed, the ratio of ingredients remains constant in the remaining portion, but the total volume decreases by the amount removed.

The Pie Chart shows the percentage and degree distribution of Students in Five Colleges (A, B, C, D, and E).

 

Note - The total number of students across all five colleges is 3600. Difference between students in B and D is equal to the half of the number of students in B. Difference between number of students in colleges C and E is 180. Number of students in each college not less than 200. Value of y is two more than the four times of x.

Question 138

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

60% of all students participate in a science fair of college E in ratio of male and female is 2:1. Among participants, half of males win, all females win. The total number of students who won the science fair is 144. Find the ratio of male to female in college E?

  1. AOption (a)

    2:1

  2. BOption (b)

    1:2

  3. COption (c)

    3:4

  4. DOption (d)

    4:5

  5. EOption (e)

    2:5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2:1

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Total students: 3600

Conditions:

Difference between students in B and D = half of students in B → D = 1.5 B

Difference between students in C and E = 180 → C = E + 180

Students in each college ≥ 200

Percentage and degree distribution of number of students in five colleges A, B, C, D and E is [6x + 1]%, 4y⁰ , [3x + 3]%, 27x⁰ and 10% respectively.

E=10% × 3600 = 360

C – E = 180

⇒C = 360 + 180 = 540

Percentage formula for C: C=(3x+3) % × 3600 = 36 (3x + 3)

36(3x + 3) = 540

⇒3x + 3 = 15

⇒x = 4

Degrees for D = 27x° → Students = 27 × 4 × 10 = 1080

Condition: D - B = B / 2 → 1080 - B = B/2

1080=3B/2⇒B=720

Percentage = 6x + 1 = 6 × 4 + 1 = 25%

Students in A=25% × 3600=900

So, total students = 900+720+540+1080+360=3600

B: 720 / 10 = 72° → 4y° → y = 18

D: 1080 / 10 = 108° → 27x° → 27 × 4 = 108

Calculation:

Total students in College E: 360

Given:

  • 60% of all students participate in the Science Fair → Total participants = 360 × 0.6 = 216

  • Ratio of male to female participants = 2:1

  • Among participants:

 Half of males win

 All females win

  • Total winners = 144

Let male participants = 2k, female participants = k (since ratio is 2:1)

2k + k = 3k = 216 → k = 72

Male participants = 2k = 144

Female participants = k = 72

Male winners = 1/2 × 144 = 72

Female winners = 72 (all females win)

Total winners = 72 + 72 = 144  Matches given total

Let total males = M, total females = F, with M + F = 360

Assuming participation reflects the same male-female proportion as total students:

Participation ratio among participants = 2:1 → Total male: female ratio = 2:1

Let total males = 2y, total females = y → 2y + y = 3y = 360 → y = 120

Therefore, total males = 2y = 240

Total females = y = 120

60% participate = 360 × 0.6 = 216 participants

Male participants = 2/3 × 216 = 144

Female participants = 1/3 × 216 = 72

Male winners = 144 / 2 = 72

Female winners = 72

Total winners = 72 + 72 = 144

Male : Female in College E = 2 : 1

Question 139

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

College D has male and female in ratio of 4:5. 25% of all students score above 90 marks. Among high scorers, ratio of male and female is 3:5. Find the number of males who scored above 90 in College D.

  1. AOption (a)

    48

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    101

  4. DOption (d)

    42

  5. EOption (e)

    34

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

101

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Total students: 3600

Conditions:

Difference between students in B and D = half of students in B → D = 1.5 B

Difference between students in C and E = 180 → C = E + 180

Students in each college ≥ 200

Percentage and degree distribution of number of students in five colleges A, B, C, D and E is [6x + 1]%, 4y⁰ , [3x + 3]%, 27x⁰ and 10% respectively.

E=10% × 3600 = 360

C – E = 180

⇒C = 360 + 180 = 540

Percentage formula for C: C=(3x+3) % × 3600 = 36 (3x + 3)

36(3x + 3) = 540

⇒3x + 3 = 15

⇒x = 4

Degrees for D = 27x° → Students = 27 × 4 × 10 = 1080

Condition: D - B = B / 2 → 1080 - B = B/2

1080=3B/2⇒B=720

Percentage = 6x + 1 = 6 × 4 + 1 = 25%

Students in A=25% × 3600=900

So, total students = 900+720+540+1080+360=3600

B: 720 / 10 = 72° → 4y° → y = 18

D: 1080 / 10 = 108° → 27x° → 27 × 4 = 108

Calculation:

Total students = 1080

Students scoring >90 = 25% of 1080 = 270

Male high scorers = 3/(3+5) × 270 = 3/8 × 270 = 101

Number of males scoring above 90 = 101

Question 140

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Ratio of male and female students in College C is 7:5. 50% of males and 40% of females participate in a debate competition. Among participants, 60% of males and 70% of females win. Find the number of students from College C who win the debate.

  1. AOption (a)

    158

  2. BOption (b)

    118

  3. COption (c)

    562

  4. DOption (d)

    258

  5. EOption (e)

    228

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

158

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Total students: 3600

Conditions:

Difference between students in B and D = half of students in B → D = 1.5 B

Difference between students in C and E = 180 → C = E + 180

Students in each college ≥ 200

Percentage and degree distribution of number of students in five colleges A, B, C, D and E is [6x + 1]%, 4y⁰ , [3x + 3]%, 27x⁰ and 10% respectively.

E=10% × 3600 = 360

C – E = 180

⇒C = 360 + 180 = 540

Percentage formula for C: C=(3x+3) % × 3600 = 36 (3x + 3)

36(3x + 3) = 540

⇒3x + 3 = 15

⇒x = 4

Degrees for D = 27x° → Students = 27 × 4 × 10 = 1080

Condition: D - B = B / 2 → 1080 - B = B/2

1080=3B/2⇒B=720

Percentage = 6x + 1 = 6 × 4 + 1 = 25%

Students in A=25% × 3600=900

So, total students = 900+720+540+1080+360=3600

B: 720 / 10 = 72° → 4y° → y = 18

 

D: 1080 / 10 = 108° → 27x° → 27 × 4 = 108

Calculation:

Total students = 540

Males = 7/12 × 540 = 315

Females = 5/12 × 540 = 225

Male participants = 50% of 315 = 158

Female participants = 40% of 225 = 90

Male winners = 60% of 158 = 95

Female winners = 70% of 90 = 63

Total winners = 95 + 63 = 158

Question 141

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In College B, 40% are boys and 60% are girls. Boys scored average 75 marks, girls scored average 80 marks. The overall average marks of students in College B is equal to I. 18x II. 4y III. x + 5y

  1. AOption (a)

    All true

  2. BOption (b)

    All are false

  3. COption (c)

    Only I true

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II true

  5. EOption (e)

    Only III false

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

All are false

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Total students: 3600

Conditions:

Difference between students in B and D = half of students in B → D = 1.5 B

Difference between students in C and E = 180 → C = E + 180

Students in each college ≥ 200

Percentage and degree distribution of number of students in five colleges A, B, C, D and E is [6x + 1]%, 4y⁰ , [3x + 3]%, 27x⁰ and 10% respectively.

E=10% × 3600 = 360

C – E = 180

⇒C = 360 + 180 = 540

Percentage formula for C: C=(3x+3) % × 3600 = 36 (3x + 3)

36(3x + 3) = 540

⇒3x + 3 = 15

⇒x = 4

Degrees for D = 27x° → Students = 27 × 4 × 10 = 1080

Condition: D - B = B / 2 → 1080 - B = B/2

1080=3B/2⇒B=720

Percentage = 6x + 1 = 6 × 4 + 1 = 25%

Students in A=25% × 3600=900

So, total students = 900+720+540+1080+360=3600

B: 720 / 10 = 72° → 4y° → y = 18

 

D: 1080 / 10 = 108° → 27x° → 27 × 4 = 108

Calculation:

Boys = 40% of 720 = 288

Girls = 60% of 720 = 432

Total marks = (288 × 75) + (432 × 80) = 21,600 + 34,560 = 56,160

Overall average = 56,160 / 720 = 78

  1. 18x = 72 II. 4y = 72 III. x + 5y = 94

All are false

Question 142

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Male to female ratio in College A is 5:4. 60% of males and 50% of females participate in sports. Find the total number of students from College A who participate in sports is equal to

I.100x + 200

II. 50y

III. 15x + 10y

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I true

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II true

  3. COption (c)

    Only III true

  4. DOption (d)

    All are false

  5. EOption (e)

    All true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All are false

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

Total students: 3600

Conditions:

Difference between students in B and D = half of students in B → D = 1.5 B

Difference between students in C and E = 180 → C = E + 180

Students in each college ≥ 200

Percentage and degree distribution of number of students in five colleges A, B, C, D and E is [6x + 1]%, 4y⁰ , [3x + 3]%, 27x⁰ and 10% respectively.

E=10% × 3600 = 360

C – E = 180

⇒C = 360 + 180 = 540

Percentage formula for C: C=(3x+3) % × 3600 = 36 (3x + 3)

36(3x + 3) = 540

⇒3x + 3 = 15

⇒x = 4

Degrees for D = 27x° → Students = 27 × 4 × 10 = 1080

Condition: D - B = B / 2 → 1080 - B = B/2

1080=3B/2⇒B=720

Percentage = 6x + 1 = 6 × 4 + 1 = 25%

Students in A=25% × 3600=900

So, total students = 900+720+540+1080+360=3600

B: 720 / 10 = 72° → 4y° → y = 18

D: 1080 / 10 = 108° → 27x° → 27 × 4 = 108

Calculation:

Total students in A = 900

Males = 5/9 × 900 = 500

Females = 4/9 × 900 = 400

Male participants = 60% of 500 = 300

Female participants = 50% of 400 = 200

Total participants = 300 + 200 = 500

I.100x + 200= 600 II. 50y = 950 III. 15x + 10y = 240

All are false

Question 143

In a school exam, the total number of passed students in physics and English both is 288. In that exam (N - 5)% of the total students passed in Physics and (N + 5)% of the total students passed in English. If the percentage of students who failed in physics and English both is 33.33% of the percentage of students who passed in 'Physics' and there are a total of 576 students who appeared for the school exam then the value of 'N' is divisible by which of the following number?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    17

  5. EOption (e)

    19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

13

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total students = 576. Students passed in both subjects = 288.

Passed in both % = (288 ÷ 576) × 100 = 50%.

Failed in both % = 1/3 × Passed in Physics % = (N − 5)/3 %.

Using Venn Diagram formula: Total % = P% + E% − (Both Pass)% + (Both Fail)%.

100 = (N − 5) + (N + 5) − 50 + (N − 5)/3 ⇒ 150 = 2N + (N − 5)/3 ⇒ 450 = 6N + N − 5 ⇒ N = 65.

∴ The correct answer is 13.

Alternate Method

Given: Total students = 576, Passed in both = 288, Physics pass = (N − 5)%, English pass = (N + 5)%, Failed in both = 33.33% of Physics pass.

⇒ Total Students = 100% = 576

⇒ Percentage of students passed in both = (288 / 576) × 100 = 50%

⇒ Percentage of students failed in both = 33.33% of (N − 5)% = (N − 5)/3 %

⇒ Formula: n(P ∪ E) = n(P) + n(E) − n(P ∩ E)

⇒ Students who passed in at least one subject = 100% − % Failed in both

⇒ 100 − (N − 5)/3 = (N − 5) + (N + 5) − 50

⇒ 100 − (N − 5)/3 = 2N − 50

⇒ 150 − (N − 5)/3 = 2N

⇒ 450 − N + 5 = 6N

⇒ 7N = 455

⇒ N = 65

⇒ Since 65 is divisible by 13 (13 × 5 = 65).

∴ The correct answer is 13.

Additional Information

Venn Diagram for Two Sets

For two sets A and B, n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) − n(A ∩ B). Total = n(A ∪ B) + n(Neither).

Percentage to Fraction

Common conversion: 33.33% = 1/3. This simplifies calculations involving percentages of variables.

Divisibility Rules

A number is divisible by 13 if the result of subtracting 9 times the last digit from the rest of the number is divisible by 13.

Question 144

The ratio of the length to the breadth of a rectangle is _____. The breadth of the rectangle is 5 m more than the side of a square. The perimeter of the rectangle is ______ m. Area of square is ________.

I. 5:3, [x + 8], 81

II . 3:2, [x + 10], 64.

III. 6:5. [y + 6], 36.

Find which of the following is true? [ y is 20 more than x. x and y both are multiply by 10. There are five prime number between x and y. Difference between Highest and prime number between x and y is 16. Both are below 80]

  1. AOption (a)

    All true

  2. BOption (b)

    All false

  3. COption (c)

    Only I true

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II true

  5. EOption (e)

    Only III true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

All false

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Identify x and y using conditions: Multiples of 10, both below 80, y − x = 20, and 5 prime numbers between them. Checking pairs: (10, 30) → 5 primes (11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29 is 6), (20, 40) → 4 primes, (30, 50) → 5 primes (31, 37, 41, 43, 47), (40, 60) → 4 primes, (50, 70) → 4 primes. For x = 30, y = 50: Primes are 31, 37, 41, 43, 47. Difference Highest − Lowest prime = 47 − 31 = 16. Matches all conditions. Check Statements: I. x + 8 = 38; II. x + 10 = 40; III. y + 6 = 56. Perimeter calculations do not match for any statement. ∴ The correct answer is All false. Alternate Method Given: y = x + 20, x, y are multiples of 10 and < 80. 5 primes between x and y. Diff between highest and lowest prime = 16. Step 1: Determine x and y ⇒ If x = 30 and y = 50, primes are {31, 37, 41, 43, 47}. Count = 5. Diff = 47 − 31 = 16. Valid.

Step 2: Verify Statement I ⇒ Area of square = 81 → Side a = 9. Breadth = 9 + 5 = 14 m. ⇒ Ratio 5:3 → Length = 14 × (5/3) = 23.33 m. Perimeter = 2(23.33 + 14) = 74.66 m. Given x + 8 = 38. False. Step 3: Verify Statement II ⇒ Area of square = 64 → Side a = 8. Breadth = 8 + 5 = 13 m. ⇒ Ratio 3:2 → Length = 13 × (3/2) = 19.5 m. Perimeter = 2(19.5 + 13) = 65 m. Given x + 10 = 40. False. Step 4: Verify Statement III ⇒ Area of square = 36 → Side a = 6. Breadth = 6 + 5 = 11 m. ⇒ Ratio 6:5 → Length = 11 × (6/5) = 13.2 m. Perimeter = 2(13.2 + 11) = 48.4 m. Given y + 6 = 56. False. ∴ The correct answer is All false. Additional Information Rectangle Formulas Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth) and Area = Length × Breadth. Square Formulas Area = (Side)2 and Perimeter = 4 × Side. Prime Numbers Numbers with exactly two factors (1 and itself). Prime numbers between 1 and 100 are 25 in total.

Question 145

A, B, and C entered into a partnership business. A invested Rs. x, B invested 20% more than A and C invested 25% more than B for first 6 months. After 6 months A left the business whereas C increased his investment by 33(1/3)% and B withdraw half of his investment and left the business after 4 more months , . If at the end of year difference between the profit share of C and (A + B) together is Rs. 1890, then find profit share of B.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 3,360

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 3,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 4,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 4,360

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 3,360

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Investment ratios: A : B : C = 100 : 120 : 150 = 10 : 12 : 15.

Profit ratio (Invest × Time): A = 10 × 6 = 60 | B = (12 × 6) + (6 × 4) = 96 | C = (15 × 6) + (20 × 6) = 210.

Simplified Ratio A : B : C = 60 : 96 : 210 = 10 : 16 : 35.

Difference (C − (A+B)) = 35 − (10 + 16) = 9 units ⇒ Rs. 1,890.

1 unit = Rs. 210. B's share = 16 × 210 = Rs. 3,360.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3,360.

Alternate Method

Given → A = x; B = 1.2x; C = 1.5x. Period = 12 months. Formulas: Profit Share = Investment × Time | Profit% = (Profit ÷ Total) × 100

⇒ Let A investment = 100. Then B = 120 and C = 150. ⇒ A's total investment-month = 100 × 6 = 600. ⇒ B's total investment-month = (120 × 6) + (60 × 4) = 720 + 240 = 960. ⇒ C's investment increases by 33(1/3)% i.e., 1/3 of 150 = 50. New C = 200. ⇒ C's total investment-month = (150 × 6) + (200 × 6) = 900 + 1200 = 2100. ⇒ Ratio A:B:C = 600 : 960 : 2100 = 10 : 16 : 35. ⇒ Difference C − (A+B) = 35 − (10+16) = 9 units. ⇒ 9 units = 1890 ⇒ 1 unit = 210. ⇒ B's profit share = 16 × 210 = 3360.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3,360.

Additional Information

Partnership Ratios

Profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of Capital and Time. Formula: P1:P2 = C1T1:C2T2.

Percentage Changes

Increasing a value by 33(1/3)% is equivalent to multiplying the value by 4/3 or adding 1/3 of the value to itself.

Given below series follows a certain pattern.

a + 15, a + 16.2, 2a - 16.4, a + 22.2, ?

Notes: (I) a is the product of x and y ; where both x and y are distinct prime numbers less than 10 and x < y.

(II) 2a = 10y

Question 146

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the Missing term in the original series?

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    42

  3. COption (c)

    62

  4. DOption (d)

    56

  5. EOption (e)

    47

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

62

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

  • From note (II): 2a = 10y → a = 5y

  • From note (I): a = x × y

  • Substitute a = 5y → x × y = 5y → x = 5

  • Since x < y and both are primes <10, y = 7

  • Therefore: x = 5, y = 7, a = x × y = 35

  • Substitute a = 35 into series:

  a + 15 = 35 + 15 = 50

  a + 16.2 = 35 + 16.2 = 51.2

  2a - 16.4 = 70 - 16.4 = 53.6

  a + 22.2 = 35 + 22.2 = 57.2

  • The differences between successive terms:

  51.2 - 50 = 1.2

  53.6 - 51.2 = 2.4

  57.2 - 53.6 = 3.6

  • Pattern observed: differences increase by 1.2 each time

  • Next difference = 1.2 × 4 = 4.8 → Missing term = 57.2 + 4.8 = 62

Question 147

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Given below are three different series, find which one of the series follow the same pattern as the given series.

I: 2x + 5.2, x + 16.4, 3x + 10.4, 5x + 4.5, 5x + 8

II: 2a, 2a + 10.2, 3a - 15.4, 2a + 30, 3a + 5.2

III: 3y + 3, 2y + 11.2, 4y - 0.4, 5y - 3.8, 4y + 8

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

     Only I and II 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only III

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

  • From note (II): 2a = 10y → a = 5y

  • From note (I): a = x × y

  • Substitute a = 5y → x × y = 5y → x = 5

  • Since x < y and both are primes <10, y = 7

  • Therefore: x = 5, y = 7, a = x × y = 35

  • Substitute a = 35 into series:

  a + 15 = 35 + 15 = 50

  a + 16.2 = 35 + 16.2 = 51.2

  2a - 16.4 = 70 - 16.4 = 53.6

  a + 22.2 = 35 + 22.2 = 57.2

  • The differences between successive terms:

  51.2 - 50 = 1.2

  53.6 - 51.2 = 2.4

  57.2 - 53.6 = 3.6

  • Pattern observed: differences increase by 1.2 each time

  • Next difference = 1.2 × 4 = 4.8 → Missing term = 57.2 + 4.8 = 62

  • Series I (x = 5):

 2x + 5.2 = 10 + 5.2 = 15.2

 x + 16.4 = 5 + 16.4 = 21.4 → diff = 6.2

 3x + 10.4 = 15 + 10.4 = 25.4 → diff = 4.0

 5x + 4.5 = 25 + 4.5 = 29.5 → diff = 4.1

 5x + 8 = 25 + 8 = 33 → diff = 3.5

  → Differences do not follow the original pattern → Not matching

  • Series II (a = 35):

 2a = 70

 2a + 10.2 = 80.2 → diff = 10.2

 3a - 15.4 = 105 - 15.4 = 89.6 → diff = 9.4

 2a + 30 = 100 → diff = 10.4

 3a + 5.2 = 110.2 → diff = 10.2

 → Differences do not match original pattern → Not matching

  • Series III (y = 7):

 3y + 3 = 21 + 3 = 24

 2y + 11.2 = 14 + 11.2 = 25.2 → diff = 1.2

 4y - 0.4 = 28 - 0.4 = 27.6 → diff = 2.4

 5y - 3.8 = 35 - 3.8 = 31.2 → diff = 3.6

 4y + 8 = 28 + 8 = 36 → diff = 4.8

  → Differences match original pattern → Matching series

  • Only Series III follows the same pattern as the original series

  • Answer: Option (4) Only III

Question 148

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the 7th term of the series?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.5a + 5.2

  2. BOption (b)

    3a + 5.2

  3. COption (c)

    a + 5.2

  4. DOption (d)

    2a - 5.2

  5. EOption (e)

    2a + 5.2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

2a + 5.2

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculation

  • From note (II): 2a = 10y → a = 5y

  • From note (I): a = x × y

  • Substitute a = 5y → x × y = 5y → x = 5

  • Since x < y and both are primes <10, y = 7

  • Therefore: x = 5, y = 7, a = x × y = 35

  • Substitute a = 35 into series:

  a + 15 = 35 + 15 = 50

  a + 16.2 = 35 + 16.2 = 51.2

  2a - 16.4 = 70 - 16.4 = 53.6

  a + 22.2 = 35 + 22.2 = 57.2

  • The differences between successive terms:

  51.2 - 50 = 1.2

  53.6 - 51.2 = 2.4

  57.2 - 53.6 = 3.6

  • Pattern observed: differences increase by 1.2 each time

  • Next difference = 1.2 × 4 = 4.8 → Missing term = 57.2 + 4.8 = 62

So, 7th term is 62 + 6 + 7.2 = 75.2 = 2a + 5.2

The given table shows the total number of vehicles manufactured by four different companies and it also shows the number of vehicles sold and unsold by each company. Some of the values are missing.

Note: 1. Total number of vehicles sold by all companies together is 3552. 2. In company D, the number of vehicles unsold is 1/3rd of the vehicles sold by them.

CompanyManufacturedSoldUnsold
APZ------
BP + 1508[4/7]X-------
C9006483X
D-------2Z + 132[P/3] + 150

Question 149

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The number of vehicles sold by company J is equals to the average of number of vehicles sold by B and C. and the total number of vehicles manufactured by company J is 100 more than that by company D. Find the number of unsold vehicles by company J?

  1. AOption (a)

    1256

  2. BOption (b)

    1354

  3. COption (c)

    1116

  4. DOption (d)

    3264

  5. EOption (e)

    1416

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

1416

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Manufactured = Sold + Unsold → 900 = 648 + 3X

⇒ 3X = 252 ⇒ X = 84

Compute B sold

B sold = (60/7) * X = (60/7) * 84 = 720

Total sold = A + B + C + D = Z + 720 + 648 + (2Z + 132) = 3552

⇒ 3Z + 1500 = 3552 ⇒ 3Z = 2052 ⇒ Z = 684

So A sold = Z = 684

D sold = 2Z + 132 = 2*684 + 132 = 1500

D unsold = (1/3) * D sold = 500

Given D unsold = P/3 + 150 ⇒ P/3 + 150 = 500 ⇒ P/3 = 350 ⇒ P = 1050

A: Manufactured = 1050; Sold = 684; Unsold = 1050 - 684 = 366

B: Manufactured = 1200; Sold = 720; Unsold = 1200 - 720 = 480

C: Manufactured = 900; Sold = 648; Unsold = 3X = 252

D: Manufactured = 2000; Sold = 1500; Unsold = 500

Calculations

Sold by J = average of B and C sold = [720 + 648]/2 = 684

Manufactured by J = D manufactured + 100 = 2000 + 100 = 2100

Unsold by J=2100 − 684 = 1416

✅ Answer: 1416 vehicles

Question 150

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the average of all unsold vehicles of all the given companies?

  1. AOption (a)

    439.5

  2. BOption (b)

    399.5

  3. COption (c)

    584.5

  4. DOption (d)

    299.5

  5. EOption (e)

    412.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

399.5

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Manufactured = Sold + Unsold → 900 = 648 + 3X

⇒ 3X = 252 ⇒ X = 84

Compute B sold

B sold = (60/7) * X = (60/7) * 84 = 720

Total sold = A + B + C + D = Z + 720 + 648 + (2Z + 132) = 3552

⇒ 3Z + 1500 = 3552 ⇒ 3Z = 2052 ⇒ Z = 684

So A sold = Z = 684

D sold = 2Z + 132 = 2*684 + 132 = 1500

D unsold = (1/3) * D sold = 500

Given D unsold = P/3 + 150 ⇒ P/3 + 150 = 500 ⇒ P/3 = 350 ⇒ P = 1050

A: Manufactured = 1050; Sold = 684; Unsold = 1050 - 684 = 366

B: Manufactured = 1200; Sold = 720; Unsold = 1200 - 720 = 480

C: Manufactured = 900; Sold = 648; Unsold = 3X = 252

D: Manufactured = 2000; Sold = 1500; Unsold = 500

Unsold vehicles (original):

Calculation

A = 366

B = 480

C = 252

D = 500

Average = [366 + 480 +  252 + 500] / 4 = 1598/4 = 399.5

✅ Answer: 399.5 vehicles

Question 151

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If out of the total sold vehicles by D, 20% of the vehicles were purchased through full cash and rest by instalments. Find the number of vehicles sold through cash by company D is what percent of total number of manufactured vehicles by B?

  1. AOption (a)

    32%

  2. BOption (b)

    25%

  3. COption (c)

    62%

  4. DOption (d)

    2%

  5. EOption (e)

    12.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25%

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Manufactured = Sold + Unsold → 900 = 648 + 3X

⇒ 3X = 252 ⇒ X = 84

Compute B sold

B sold = (60/7) * X = (60/7) * 84 = 720

Total sold = A + B + C + D = Z + 720 + 648 + (2Z + 132) = 3552

⇒ 3Z + 1500 = 3552 ⇒ 3Z = 2052 ⇒ Z = 684

So A sold = Z = 684

D sold = 2Z + 132 = 2*684 + 132 = 1500

D unsold = (1/3) * D sold = 500

Given D unsold = P/3 + 150 ⇒ P/3 + 150 = 500 ⇒ P/3 = 350 ⇒ P = 1050

A: Manufactured = 1050; Sold = 684; Unsold = 1050 - 684 = 366

B: Manufactured = 1200; Sold = 720; Unsold = 1200 - 720 = 480

C: Manufactured = 900; Sold = 648; Unsold = 3X = 252

D: Manufactured = 2000; Sold = 1500; Unsold = 500

Calculations

D sold = 1500

20% sold through cash = 0.2 × 1500=300

Manufactured by B = 1200

Percentage:

[300/1200] × 100 = 25%

✅ Answer: 25%

Question 152

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If total number of vehicles manufactured by B would have been 400 less and total number of vehicles manufactured by C would have been 100 less and the number of sold vehicles by B and C remains same as earlier, then find the ratio of unsold vehicles of companies B and C?

  1. AOption (a)

    5:4

  2. BOption (b)

    5:1

  3. COption (c)

    10 : 19

  4. DOption (d)

    3:2

  5. EOption (e)

    2:3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10 : 19

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Manufactured = Sold + Unsold → 900 = 648 + 3X

⇒ 3X = 252 ⇒ X = 84

Compute B sold

B sold = (60/7) * X = (60/7) * 84 = 720

Total sold = A + B + C + D = Z + 720 + 648 + (2Z + 132) = 3552

⇒ 3Z + 1500 = 3552 ⇒ 3Z = 2052 ⇒ Z = 684

So A sold = Z = 684

D sold = 2Z + 132 = 2*684 + 132 = 1500

D unsold = (1/3) * D sold = 500

Given D unsold = P/3 + 150 ⇒ P/3 + 150 = 500 ⇒ P/3 = 350 ⇒ P = 1050

A: Manufactured = 1050; Sold = 684; Unsold = 1050 - 684 = 366

B: Manufactured = 1200; Sold = 720; Unsold = 1200 - 720 = 480

C: Manufactured = 900; Sold = 648; Unsold = 3X = 252

D: Manufactured = 2000; Sold = 1500; Unsold = 500

Calculations

New manufactured by B = 1200 – 400 = 800

New manufactured by C = 900 − 100 = 800

Sold vehicles remain same: B = 720, C = 648

Unsold vehicles:

B unsold = 800 – 720 = 80

C unsold = 800 – 648 = 152

Ratio B:C = 80 : 152 = 10 : 19

✅ Answer: 10 : 19

Question 153

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the ratio of unsold vehicles of D and E is 10:7, then find the number of unsold vehicles of company E?

  1. AOption (a)

    350

  2. BOption (b)

    320

  3. COption (c)

    302

  4. DOption (d)

    250

  5. EOption (e)

    620

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

350

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Manufactured = Sold + Unsold → 900 = 648 + 3X

⇒ 3X = 252 ⇒ X = 84

Compute B sold

B sold = (60/7) * X = (60/7) * 84 = 720

Total sold = A + B + C + D = Z + 720 + 648 + (2Z + 132) = 3552

⇒ 3Z + 1500 = 3552 ⇒ 3Z = 2052 ⇒ Z = 684

So A sold = Z = 684

D sold = 2Z + 132 = 2*684 + 132 = 1500

D unsold = (1/3) * D sold = 500

Given D unsold = P/3 + 150 ⇒ P/3 + 150 = 500 ⇒ P/3 = 350 ⇒ P = 1050

A: Manufactured = 1050; Sold = 684; Unsold = 1050 - 684 = 366

B: Manufactured = 1200; Sold = 720; Unsold = 1200 - 720 = 480

C: Manufactured = 900; Sold = 648; Unsold = 3X = 252

D: Manufactured = 2000; Sold = 1500; Unsold = 500

Calculations

Unsold vehicles of company E (given D:E = 10:7)

Unsold D = 500

Ratio D:E = 10:7

→ E = 500 × [7/10] = 350

Answer: 350 vehicles

Question 154

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the value of 3P – 7X + 2Z?

  1. AOption (a)

    3540

  2. BOption (b)

    3390

  3. COption (c)

    3090

  4. DOption (d)

    3930

  5. EOption (e)

    3330

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3930

Why this answer is correct

Common Calculations

Manufactured = Sold + Unsold → 900 = 648 + 3X

⇒ 3X = 252 ⇒ X = 84

Compute B sold

B sold = (60/7) * X = (60/7) * 84 = 720

Total sold = A + B + C + D = Z + 720 + 648 + (2Z + 132) = 3552

⇒ 3Z + 1500 = 3552 ⇒ 3Z = 2052 ⇒ Z = 684

So A sold = Z = 684

D sold = 2Z + 132 = 2*684 + 132 = 1500

D unsold = (1/3) * D sold = 500

Given D unsold = P/3 + 150 ⇒ P/3 + 150 = 500 ⇒ P/3 = 350 ⇒ P = 1050

A: Manufactured = 1050; Sold = 684; Unsold = 1050 - 684 = 366

B: Manufactured = 1200; Sold = 720; Unsold = 1200 - 720 = 480

C: Manufactured = 900; Sold = 648; Unsold = 3X = 252

D: Manufactured = 2000; Sold = 1500; Unsold = 500

Calculations

3P − 7X + 2Z = 3⋅1050 − 7⋅84 + 2⋅684

3P = 3150

7X = 588

2Z = 1368

3P − 7X + 2Z = 3150 – 588 + 1368 = 3930

Answer: 3930

Question 155

A bus can cover x km with speed of p km/hr in 4 hours. The speed of boat is p km/hr and the speed of stream is q km/hr and the boat covers x km distance each in downstream and upstream in total 9 hours. If boat takes 1 hour less to cover 20 km downstream than to travel 30 km upstream, find the value of 'x'?

  1. AOption (a)

    190

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    110

  4. DOption (d)

    150

  5. EOption (e)

    160

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

120

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

From bus data: x = 4p.

Downstream speed u = p + q and Upstream speed v = p − q.

Given: 30/v − 20/u = 1. Using x = 4p in total time: 4p/(p+q) + 4p/(p−q) = 9.

By substituting p = 30 and q = 10: u = 40, v = 20. (30/20 − 20/40 = 1.5 − 0.5 = 1). Condition satisfied.

∴ x = 4 × 30 = 120 km.

∴ The correct answer is 120 km.

Alternate Method

Given: Bus covers x km at p km/hr in 4 hours. Boat speed p, Stream speed q.

Formula Used: Distance = Speed × Time | Downstream Speed (u) = p + q | Upstream Speed (v) = p − q.

⇒ x = 4p

⇒ x/(p + q) + x/(p − q) = 9

⇒ 4p/(p + q) + 4p/(p − q) = 9 --- (i)

⇒ 30/(p − q) − 20/(p + q) = 1 --- (ii)

⇒ Let 1/(p+q) = a and 1/(p-q) = b

⇒ 4pa + 4pb = 9 and 30b − 20a = 1 ⇒ a = (30b − 1)/20

⇒ Substituting a in (i): 4p[(30b − 1)/20 + b] = 9 ⇒ 4p[(30b − 1 + 20b)/20] = 9 ⇒ p(50b − 1) = 45

⇒ Since p − q = 1/b and p + q = 1/a, testing integer values p=30, q=10 gives b=1/20, a=1/40.

⇒ 4(30)(1/40) + 4(30)(1/20) = 3 + 6 = 9. Correct.

⇒ x = 4 × 30 = 120 km.

∴ The correct answer is 120 km.

Additional Information

Upstream and Downstream Speed

Downstream Speed = Speed of Boat + Speed of Stream; Upstream Speed = Speed of Boat − Speed of Stream.

Average Speed of Boat

When covering equal distances upstream and downstream, Average Speed = (u × v) / p, where u is downstream, v is upstream, and p is boat speed in still water.

Time, Speed, Distance Relation

Time = Distance ÷ Speed. When distance is constant, time is inversely proportional to speed.

155 questions in the full paper