Given: There are three dices and each dice contains four sides.

Now, we compare the words that are formed and try to form the letters that are there on the four different sides of three dices respectively. 

Upon comparing the words RED and ERA, we see that first two letters are common and hence the letters A and D belong to the same dice. 

Now, we take the two words RIP and LIE, compare them, and see that E and P belong to the same dice, R and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice. 

If we now take the word LAB, then we see that E,B and P belong to the same dice, R and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice. 

Considering the word APT, it is noted that E,B and P belong to the same dice, R,T and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice.

Now taking the word CAT, we note that E, B, C and P belong to the same dice, R,T and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice.

Finally we take the word BUT, and we notice that E, B, C and P belong to the same dice, R,T, S and L belong to the same dice, and A,D,U and I belong to the same dice.

Therefore, the letters on the faces of the three different dices are given as follows:

 

Therefore, we see that dice 3 has three vowels in it and the consonant present is D.

Hence, the correct answer is D.

Given: There are three dices and each dice contains four sides.

Now, we compare the words that are formed and try to form the letters that are there on the four different sides of three dices respectively. 

Upon comparing the words RED and ERA, we see that first two letters are common and hence the letters A and D belong to the same dice. 

Now, we take the two words RIP and LIE, compare them, and see that E and P belong to the same dice, R and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice. 

If we now take the word LAB, then we see that E,B and P belong to the same dice, R and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice. 

Considering the word APT, it is noted that E,B and P belong to the same dice, R,T and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice.

Now taking the word CAT, we note that E, B, C and P belong to the same dice, R,T and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice.

Finally we take the word BUT, and we notice that E, B, C and P belong to the same dice, R,T, S and L belong to the same dice, and A,D,U and I belong to the same dice.

Therefore, the letters on the faces of the three different dices are given as follows:

 

Therefore, the dice containing only one vowel is dice 1, where the vowel E is present. No four letter word can be formed from the letters E, B, C, and P. 

Hence, the correct answer is Y.

Given: There are three dices and each dice contains four sides.

Now, we compare the words that are formed and try to form the letters that are there on the four different sides of three dices respectively. 

Upon comparing the words RED and ERA, we see that first two letters are common and hence the letters A and D belong to the same dice. 

Now, we take the two words RIP and LIE, compare them, and see that E and P belong to the same dice, R and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice. 

If we now take the word LAB, then we see that E,B and P belong to the same dice, R and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice. 

Considering the word APT, it is noted that E,B and P belong to the same dice, R,T and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice.

Now taking the word CAT, we note that E, B, C and P belong to the same dice, R,T and L belong to the same dice, and A,D, and I belong to the same dice.

Finally we take the word BUT, and we notice that E, B, C and P belong to the same dice, R,T, S and L belong to the same dice, and A,D,U and I belong to the same dice.

Therefore, the letters on the faces of the three different dices are given as follows:

 

Therefore, dice 2 has no vowel on it and the letter that appears in it is L. 

Hence, the correct answer is L.

The given expression is: A@B, B&C, C%D, D#E, E&F, F%R and R$A. 

From the given coded statements, we get the following:

A @ B → A is either 6 meters north of B or 6 meters south of B. 

B & C → C is 4 meters east of B. 

C % D → C is either 8 meters east of D or 8 meters west of D.

D # E → D is 3 meters north of E.

E & F →  F is 4 meters east of E.

F % R → F is either 8 meters east of R or 8 meters west of R.

R $ A → R is north east of A.

Based on the above conditions, we get the direction diagram as follows:

Now, from the above direction diagram, we check the correctness of the given statements as follows:

Statement I: If Z%D, then Z is to the west of B. → This statement is true. (Z is 8 meters to the west of D as two points cannot overlap. So, Z is to the west of D and B.)

Statement II: The distance between E and F is less than the distance between E and R. → This statement is true. (The distance between E and F is 4 meters and E and R is 12 meters.)

Statement III: More than two given points are to the north west of F. → This statement is false. (Only one point is located to the north west of F.)

Hence, both the statements I and II are true.

The given expression is: A@B, B&C, C%D, D#E, E&F, F%R and R$A. 

From the given coded statements, we get the following:

A @ B → A is either 6 meters north of B or 6 meters south of B. 

B & C → C is 4 meters east of B. 

C % D → C is either 8 meters east of D or 8 meters west of D.

D # E → D is 3 meters north of E.

E & F →  F is 4 meters east of E.

F % R → F is either 8 meters east of R or 8 meters west of R.

R $ A → R is north east of A.

Based on the above conditions, we get the direction diagram as follows:

Now, if point W is to the south east of B, then, we see that from the given options, D*W or D is to the south west of W is not a possible case. 

Hence, D*W is no true.

Given: Eight persons A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are sitting in a circular table. Some of them are sitting facing the inside whereas some of them are sitting facing the outside. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside. All of them have different ages. The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities:

1. C is sitting third to the right of the one who is 21 years old.

There is one person is sitting between C and F.

The one who is 42 years old sitting immediate left of F.

C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old.

C and F are facing opposite directions to each other. 

Combining these, we get-

2. C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old. 

C is not 36 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

B is sitting second to the left of the one who is 36 years old.

Combining these, we get-

3. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside.

The difference between B and the one who is immediate right of B is 9 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

4. There are three person sitting between G and E.

G and the one who is 14 years old are immediate neighbors. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

5. The sum of the ages of A and B is 98 years. 

Now, B's age is confirmed to be 51. So, A's age is → 98 - 51 = 47. 

From this, we get-

6. G is eight years younger than E.

From this, we get-

7. H and A are immediate neighbors of each others. This condition eliminates the cases 1A and 2 from above. 

The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

The age of G is greater than F. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

So, the only possible age of F is 11 years. 

D and G are facing same directions as that of A.

Combining these, we get-

8. The immediate neighbors of H is facing opposite directions.

This condition eliminates case 2A from above and we are left with Case 1 as the final arrangement as follows:

From the above final arrangement, we see that B is aged 51 years and F is aged 11 years. The positive difference between their ages is 40. 

Hence, the required positive difference is 40.

Given: Eight persons A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are sitting in a circular table. Some of them are sitting facing the inside whereas some of them are sitting facing the outside. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside. All of them have different ages. The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities:

1. C is sitting third to the right of the one who is 21 years old.

There is one person is sitting between C and F.

The one who is 42 years old sitting immediate left of F.

C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old.

C and F are facing opposite directions to each other. 

Combining these, we get-

2. C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old. 

C is not 36 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

B is sitting second to the left of the one who is 36 years old.

Combining these, we get-

3. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside.

The difference between B and the one who is immediate right of B is 9 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

4. There are three person sitting between G and E.

G and the one who is 14 years old are immediate neighbors. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

5. The sum of the ages of A and B is 98 years. 

Now, B's age is confirmed to be 51. So, A's age is → 98 - 51 = 47. 

From this, we get-

6. G is eight years younger than E.

From this, we get-

7. H and A are immediate neighbors of each others. This condition eliminates the cases 1A and 2 from above. 

The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

The age of G is greater than F. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

So, the only possible age of F is 11 years. 

D and G are facing same directions as that of A.

Combining these, we get-

8. The immediate neighbors of H is facing opposite directions.

This condition eliminates case 2A from above and we are left with Case 1 as the final arrangement as follows:

From the above final arrangement, we see that G is aged 13 years. B sits fifth to the right of G. 

Hence, B sits fifth to the right of the person who is aged 13 years.

Given: Eight persons A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are sitting in a circular table. Some of them are sitting facing the inside whereas some of them are sitting facing the outside. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside. All of them have different ages. The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities:

1. C is sitting third to the right of the one who is 21 years old.

There is one person is sitting between C and F.

The one who is 42 years old sitting immediate left of F.

C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old.

C and F are facing opposite directions to each other. 

Combining these, we get-

2. C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old. 

C is not 36 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

B is sitting second to the left of the one who is 36 years old.

Combining these, we get-

3. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside.

The difference between B and the one who is immediate right of B is 9 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

4. There are three person sitting between G and E.

G and the one who is 14 years old are immediate neighbors. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

5. The sum of the ages of A and B is 98 years. 

Now, B's age is confirmed to be 51. So, A's age is → 98 - 51 = 47. 

From this, we get-

6. G is eight years younger than E.

From this, we get-

7. H and A are immediate neighbors of each others. This condition eliminates the cases 1A and 2 from above. 

The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

The age of G is greater than F. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

So, the only possible age of F is 11 years. 

D and G are facing same directions as that of A.

Combining these, we get-

8. The immediate neighbors of H is facing opposite directions.

This condition eliminates case 2A from above and we are left with Case 1 as the final arrangement as follows:

From the above final arrangement, we see that H is 36 years old.  

Hence, H is 36 years old.

Given: Eight persons A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are sitting in a circular table. Some of them are sitting facing the inside whereas some of them are sitting facing the outside. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside. All of them have different ages. The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities:

1. C is sitting third to the right of the one who is 21 years old.

There is one person is sitting between C and F.

The one who is 42 years old sitting immediate left of F.

C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old.

C and F are facing opposite directions to each other. 

Combining these, we get-

2. C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old. 

C is not 36 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

B is sitting second to the left of the one who is 36 years old.

Combining these, we get-

3. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside.

The difference between B and the one who is immediate right of B is 9 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

4. There are three person sitting between G and E.

G and the one who is 14 years old are immediate neighbors. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

5. The sum of the ages of A and B is 98 years. 

Now, B's age is confirmed to be 51. So, A's age is → 98 - 51 = 47. 

From this, we get-

6. G is eight years younger than E.

From this, we get-

7. H and A are immediate neighbors of each others. This condition eliminates the cases 1A and 2 from above. 

The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

The age of G is greater than F. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

So, the only possible age of F is 11 years. 

D and G are facing same directions as that of A.

Combining these, we get-

8. The immediate neighbors of H is facing opposite directions.

This condition eliminates case 2A from above and we are left with Case 1 as the final arrangement as follows:

From the above final arrangement, we see that C is 14 years old and E is 21 years old. So, the sum of their ages is 35.  

Hence, the required sum is 35.

Given: Eight persons A,B,C,D,E,F,G, and H are sitting in a circular table. Some of them are sitting facing the inside whereas some of them are sitting facing the outside. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside. All of them have different ages. The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities:

1. C is sitting third to the right of the one who is 21 years old.

There is one person is sitting between C and F.

The one who is 42 years old sitting immediate left of F.

C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old.

C and F are facing opposite directions to each other. 

Combining these, we get-

2. C is neither adjacent to the one who is 42 years old nor 36 years old. 

C is not 36 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

B is sitting second to the left of the one who is 36 years old.

Combining these, we get-

3. The number of persons who sit facing the inside is more than the number of persons who sit facing outside.

The difference between B and the one who is immediate right of B is 9 years old.

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

4. There are three person sitting between G and E.

G and the one who is 14 years old are immediate neighbors. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

Combining these, we get-

5. The sum of the ages of A and B is 98 years. 

Now, B's age is confirmed to be 51. So, A's age is → 98 - 51 = 47. 

From this, we get-

6. G is eight years younger than E.

From this, we get-

7. H and A are immediate neighbors of each others. This condition eliminates the cases 1A and 2 from above. 

The age of the youngest person is not less than 10 years.

The age of G is greater than F. 

Both the immediate neighbors of the one who is 42 years old is of odd ages.

So, the only possible age of F is 11 years. 

D and G are facing same directions as that of A.

Combining these, we get-

8. The immediate neighbors of H is facing opposite directions.

This condition eliminates case 2A from above and we are left with Case 1 as the final arrangement as follows:

From the above final arrangement, we see that D sits opposite to A. 

Hence, D sits opposite to A.

The logic that is followed in the given steps in this input output is given as follows:

1. In case of the numbers, they are chosen according to their ascending order, that is the smallest number is chosen first. If the number is odd, then the number is reversed in the next step. If the number is even, 3 is subtracted from the given number. 
2. In case of the words, we see that all the words are three letter words. The sum of the place values of all the letters in each word is taken. Then the operations are performed on the number which has the highest sum, followed by the next highest sum. 

The operation performed on the words is that if a letter is a vowel then it is shifted to the next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and if the letter is a consonant, then it is shifted to the previous letter according to the English alphabetical series. Now, in the newly formed word, the first two letters are interchanged and we obtain the final three letter combination. 

In the first step the newly formed word is added to the left end and the number is added to the right end. Now, in the second step the reverse of it is done. That is, the new number is added to the left end and the new word is added to the right end. 

This process is repeated till we obtained the final output in Step VI.

Based on this logic we obtain the steps of the given input as follows:

Input: 29 may 76 van end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42.

Step I:  bmu may 76 end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42 92.

Step II: 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 our 42 92  mqv.

Step III: pqv 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 92 mqv 39.

Step IV: 55 pqv 53 bmu 76 end aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx.

Step V: cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx 73.

Step VI: 38 cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu 92 mqv 39 blx 73 bcj. 

Therefore, in Step VI, we see that the first three numbers from the left are 38, 55, and 53. Their sum is 146. The first number from the right is 73. Their difference is 146 - 73 = 73. 

Hence, the correct answer is 73.

The logic that is followed in the given steps in this input output is given as follows:

1. In case of the numbers, they are chosen according to their ascending order, that is the smallest number is chosen first. If the number is odd, then the number is reversed in the next step. If the number is even, 3 is subtracted from the given number. 
2. In case of the words, we see that all the words are three letter words. The sum of the place values of all the letters in each word is taken. Then the operations are performed on the number which has the highest sum, followed by the next highest sum. 

The operation performed on the words is that if a letter is a vowel then it is shifted to the next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and if the letter is a consonant, then it is shifted to the previous letter according to the English alphabetical series. Now, in the newly formed word, the first two letters are interchanged and we obtain the final three letter combination. 

In the first step the newly formed word is added to the left end and the number is added to the right end. Now, in the second step the reverse of it is done. That is, the new number is added to the left end and the new word is added to the right end. 

This process is repeated till we obtained the final output in Step VI.

Based on this logic we obtain the steps of the given input as follows:

Input: 29 may 76 van end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42.

Step I:  bmu may 76 end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42 92.

Step II: 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 our 42 92  mqv.

Step III: pqv 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 92 mqv 39.

Step IV: 55 pqv 53 bmu 76 end aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx.

Step V: cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx 73.

Step VI: 38 cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu 92 mqv 39 blx 73 bcj. 

Therefore, in the last step, we see that the element "mqv" is placed fifth from the right. 

Hence, the correct answer is fifth from the right.

The logic that is followed in the given steps in this input output is given as follows:

1. In case of the numbers, they are chosen according to their ascending order, that is the smallest number is chosen first. If the number is odd, then the number is reversed in the next step. If the number is even, 3 is subtracted from the given number. 
2. In case of the words, we see that all the words are three letter words. The sum of the place values of all the letters in each word is taken. Then the operations are performed on the number which has the highest sum, followed by the next highest sum. 

The operation performed on the words is that if a letter is a vowel then it is shifted to the next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and if the letter is a consonant, then it is shifted to the previous letter according to the English alphabetical series. Now, in the newly formed word, the first two letters are interchanged and we obtain the final three letter combination. 

In the first step the newly formed word is added to the left end and the number is added to the right end. Now, in the second step the reverse of it is done. That is, the new number is added to the left end and the new word is added to the right end. 

This process is repeated till we obtained the final output in Step VI.

Based on this logic we obtain the steps of the given input as follows:

Input: 29 may 76 van end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42.

Step I:  bmu may 76 end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42 92.

Step II: 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 our 42 92  mqv.

Step III: pqv 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 92 mqv 39.

Step IV: 55 pqv 53 bmu 76 end aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx.

Step V: cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx 73.

Step VI: 38 cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu 92 mqv 39 blx 73 bcj. 

Therefore, in Step V, we see that the first three numbers from the right end are 73, 39, and 92. Their sum is 73 + 39 + 92 = 204. 

Hence, the correct answer is 204.

The logic that is followed in the given steps in this input output is given as follows:

1. In case of the numbers, they are chosen according to their ascending order, that is the smallest number is chosen first. If the number is odd, then the number is reversed in the next step. If the number is even, 3 is subtracted from the given number. 
2. In case of the words, we see that all the words are three letter words. The sum of the place values of all the letters in each word is taken. Then the operations are performed on the number which has the highest sum, followed by the next highest sum. 

The operation performed on the words is that if a letter is a vowel then it is shifted to the next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and if the letter is a consonant, then it is shifted to the previous letter according to the English alphabetical series. Now, in the newly formed word, the first two letters are interchanged and we obtain the final three letter combination. 

In the first step the newly formed word is added to the left end and the number is added to the right end. Now, in the second step the reverse of it is done. That is, the new number is added to the left end and the new word is added to the right end. 

This process is repeated till we obtained the final output in Step VI.

Based on this logic we obtain the steps of the given input as follows:

Input: 29 may 76 van end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42.

Step I:  bmu may 76 end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42 92.

Step II: 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 our 42 92  mqv.

Step III: pqv 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 92 mqv 39.

Step IV: 55 pqv 53 bmu 76 end aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx.

Step V: cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx 73.

Step VI: 38 cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu 92 mqv 39 blx 73 bcj. 

Therefore, in Step IV, we see that the fifth element from the left end is "76'. Third to the right of "76" is "83". 

Hence, the correct answer is "83".

The logic that is followed in the given steps in this input output is given as follows:

1. In case of the numbers, they are chosen according to their ascending order, that is the smallest number is chosen first. If the number is odd, then the number is reversed in the next step. If the number is even, 3 is subtracted from the given number. 
2. In case of the words, we see that all the words are three letter words. The sum of the place values of all the letters in each word is taken. Then the operations are performed on the number which has the highest sum, followed by the next highest sum. 

The operation performed on the words is that if a letter is a vowel then it is shifted to the next alphabet according to the English alphabetical series and if the letter is a consonant, then it is shifted to the previous letter according to the English alphabetical series. Now, in the newly formed word, the first two letters are interchanged and we obtain the final three letter combination. 

In the first step the newly formed word is added to the left end and the number is added to the right end. Now, in the second step the reverse of it is done. That is, the new number is added to the left end and the new word is added to the right end. 

This process is repeated till we obtained the final output in Step VI.

Based on this logic we obtain the steps of the given input as follows:

Input: 29 may 76 van end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42.

Step I:  bmu may 76 end 35 aid 58 urn 83 our 42 92.

Step II: 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 our 42 92  mqv.

Step III: pqv 53 bmu may 76 end aid 58 83 92 mqv 39.

Step IV: 55 pqv 53 bmu 76 end aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx.

Step V: cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu aid 83 92 mqv 39 blx 73.

Step VI: 38 cfm 55 pqv 53 bmu 92 mqv 39 blx 73 bcj. 

Therefore, in Step III, we see that the element that sits exactly in the middle of "May" and "End" is 76. 

Hence, the correct answer is 76.

From Statement I, 

I. Only a few parrots are tigers. Only a few tigers are elephants. All elephants are lions. No lion is zebra.

The least possible Venn Diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All lions can never be parrots. → False. (This conclusion is false as there is no direct relation given between parrots and lions.)

II. Some elephants being zebra is a possibility. → False. (This conclusion is false as all elephants are lions and no lion can ever be a zebra.)

So, statement I does not follow. 

From Statement II, 

II. Only a few tiger are elephants. No elephants are parrots. No tiger is zebra. All lions are zebra.

The least possible Venn Diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All lions can never be parrots. → False. (This conclusion is false as there is no direct relation given between parrots and lions.)

II. Some elephants being zebra is a possibility. → False. (This conclusion is false as all no tiger is a zebra and there is no other direct relation given between elephant and zebra.)

So, statement II does not follow. 

From Statement III, 

III. All parrots are elephants. No parrots are zebra. Only a few zebra are lions.

The least possible Venn Diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. All lions can never be parrots. → True. (This is true as some lions are zebras and no zebras are parrots.)

II. Some elephants being zebra is a possibility. → True. (This conclusion is true as there is no direct relation given between elephants and zebras..)

So, statement III follows. 

Hence, only statement III follows.

Now, we take a look at the given options to check whether they weaken the given statement or not as follows:

1. Green tea has antioxidant beneficial medical properties. → If this statement is true then green tea being an antioxidant will definitely help in reducing heart related issues. So, this strengthens the given statement.  2. If some one consume three or more than three cups of green tea, it reduce inflammation. → If this statement is true then green tea reducing inflammation will definitely help in reducing the chances of cancer and heart related diseases. So, this strengthens the given statement.  3. It has some herb which reduce the risk of heart disease. → If this statement is true then the herbs will directly contribute towards improved heart health. So, this strengthens the given statement.  4. Usage of green tea reduce the cholesterol level in body. → If this statement is true then green tea reducing cholesterol levels will definitely help in reducing the chances of cancer and heart related diseases. As we know that an increase in the cholesterol levels of the body will lead to heart related problems. So, this strengthens the given statement.  5. The people are already taking precaution regarding their health. → If this statement is true then people being already aware about heart health and cancer will not pay much heed into using green tea for various medicinal purposes. They already are taking different measures to ensure their well being. So, this weakens the given statement. 

Hence**, option 5 weakens the given statement.**

Now, we take a look at the given options to check whether they will postpone the implementation of the new software or not as follows:

1. Will the company be able to control over the database? → If the answer to this question is yes, then this is a correct check mark and complete control over the database is required. So, this will not postpone the implementation.  2. Will it be accessible to valid users only? → If the answer to this question is yes, then this is a correct check mark and since this is a new feature, making it limited to valid users is a good ploy. So, this will not postpone the implementation.  3. Can the new software can be verified with a third party? → If the answer to this question is yes, then this is a correct check mark and a verification by a third party will help in making the new software foolproof. So, this will not postpone the implementation.  4. Does the company have access regarding software update? → If the answer to this question is yes, then this is a correct check mark and access to the software update is very essential. So, this will not postpone the implementation.  5. Is the new software a replica of another similar product already available in the market? → If the answer to this question is yes, then this is a genuine problem as the new product should be completely unique in order to attract customers. So, this will postpone the implementation. 

Hence, if a new product is a replica of an already available product, then it will definitely postpone the implementation of the software.

We take a look at all the statements given and check whether it can be inferred from the given passage as follows:

A) Other restaurants may become cautious and try to improve the conditions to avoid such situations. → As an effect of what happens with the mentioned restaurant, other restaurants will be cautious about surprise checks and will try to improve their conditions. So, this statement can be inferred from the given passage. 

B) Several complaints have been already lodged with the authorities against Delight Pizza company. → We cannot conclude that several complaints have been lodged against the pizza company from the passage given. So, this statement cannot be inferred from the given passage. 

C) The authorities will continue to monitor the operation of Delight Plaza for few years. → On the basis of a surprise check, we cannot infer that the authorities will keep on monitoring the pizza company for few years. So, this statement cannot be inferred from the given passage. 

D) Several members have been terminated from the company in the past. → It is nowhere mentioned in the passage about the company and its staff. So, this statement cannot be inferred from the given passage. 

E) Reputation of Delight Plaza might take hit and take a while to regain its fame. → This might be a possible effect of the sanctions and checks imposed on the pizza company. So, this statement can be inferred from the given passage. 

Hence, only statements A and E can be inferred from the given passage.

Given: 15 people performed in six days from Monday to Saturday in three different slots. Slot I, II and III.

Please note that there are 18 available slots and 15 people. So, 3 slots will remain vacant. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities as follows:

1. B performed on Wednesday.

There are two slots between B and K.

B performed after K.

G performed in slot III.

K and G performed adjacent to each other.

K performed after G.

Combining these, we get-

 

2. K and J performed on the same day.

J does not performed in the last slot.

M does not performed in the III slot.

M and D performed on the same day.

The number of slots performed before J is same as after D. 

Combining these, we get-

 

3. A performed in I slot.

No one performed between A and M.

From this, we get-

 

4. O performed immediately before H but in different days.

P, C and F performed in same slot but in different days.

D performed before P but after C.

F performed before C.

Combining this, we get two cases as follows:

 

5. The number of person performed between L and N is same as between N and E.

The slots between L and N are prime in numbers.

Combining these two conditions eliminates Case 2 from above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

 

Therefore, from the above table, we see that the slot immediately after J is vacant.  

Hence, no one performs in the slot immediately after J.

Given: 15 people performed in six days from Monday to Saturday in three different slots. Slot I, II and III.

Please note that there are 18 available slots and 15 people. So, 3 slots will remain vacant. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities as follows:

1. B performed on Wednesday.

There are two slots between B and K.

B performed after K.

G performed in slot III.

K and G performed adjacent to each other.

K performed after G.

Combining these, we get-

 

2. K and J performed on the same day.

J does not performed in the last slot.

M does not performed in the III slot.

M and D performed on the same day.

The number of slots performed before J is same as after D. 

Combining these, we get-

 

3. A performed in I slot.

No one performed between A and M.

From this, we get-

 

4. O performed immediately before H but in different days.

P, C and F performed in same slot but in different days.

D performed before P but after C.

F performed before C.

Combining this, we get two cases as follows:

 

5. The number of person performed between L and N is same as between N and E.

The slots between L and N are prime in numbers.

Combining these two conditions eliminates Case 2 from above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

 

Therefore, from the above table, we see that G, O, N, and E all perform in the third slot whereas K performs in the first slot. 

Hence, K is the odd one out.

Given: 15 people performed in six days from Monday to Saturday in three different slots. Slot I, II and III.

Please note that there are 18 available slots and 15 people. So, 3 slots will remain vacant. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities as follows:

1. B performed on Wednesday.

There are two slots between B and K.

B performed after K.

G performed in slot III.

K and G performed adjacent to each other.

K performed after G.

Combining these, we get-

 

2. K and J performed on the same day.

J does not performed in the last slot.

M does not performed in the III slot.

M and D performed on the same day.

The number of slots performed before J is same as after D. 

Combining these, we get-

 

3. A performed in I slot.

No one performed between A and M.

From this, we get-

 

4. O performed immediately before H but in different days.

P, C and F performed in same slot but in different days.

D performed before P but after C.

F performed before C.

Combining this, we get two cases as follows:

 

5. The number of person performed between L and N is same as between N and E.

The slots between L and N are prime in numbers.

Combining these two conditions eliminates Case 2 from above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

 

Therefore, from the above table, we see that only A performed on a Thursday. 

Hence, only one person performed on a Thursday.

Given: 15 people performed in six days from Monday to Saturday in three different slots. Slot I, II and III.

Please note that there are 18 available slots and 15 people. So, 3 slots will remain vacant. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities as follows:

1. B performed on Wednesday.

There are two slots between B and K.

B performed after K.

G performed in slot III.

K and G performed adjacent to each other.

K performed after G.

Combining these, we get-

 

2. K and J performed on the same day.

J does not performed in the last slot.

M does not performed in the III slot.

M and D performed on the same day.

The number of slots performed before J is same as after D. 

Combining these, we get-

 

3. A performed in I slot.

No one performed between A and M.

From this, we get-

 

4. O performed immediately before H but in different days.

P, C and F performed in same slot but in different days.

D performed before P but after C.

F performed before C.

Combining this, we get two cases as follows:

 

5. The number of person performed between L and N is same as between N and E.

The slots between L and N are prime in numbers.

Combining these two conditions eliminates Case 2 from above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

 

Therefore, from the above table, we see that O performs in the third slot on a Friday. 

Hence, O performs in the third slot on a Friday.

Given: 15 people performed in six days from Monday to Saturday in three different slots. Slot I, II and III.

Please note that there are 18 available slots and 15 people. So, 3 slots will remain vacant. 

Based on the given conditions, we get the following possibilities as follows:

1. B performed on Wednesday.

There are two slots between B and K.

B performed after K.

G performed in slot III.

K and G performed adjacent to each other.

K performed after G.

Combining these, we get-

 

2. K and J performed on the same day.

J does not performed in the last slot.

M does not performed in the III slot.

M and D performed on the same day.

The number of slots performed before J is same as after D. 

Combining these, we get-

 

3. A performed in I slot.

No one performed between A and M.

From this, we get-

 

4. O performed immediately before H but in different days.

P, C and F performed in same slot but in different days.

D performed before P but after C.

F performed before C.

Combining this, we get two cases as follows:

 

5. The number of person performed between L and N is same as between N and E.

The slots between L and N are prime in numbers.

Combining these two conditions eliminates Case 2 from above and we get the final arrangement as follows:

 

Therefore, from the above table, we see that B,C,and N performed on a Wednesday. 

Hence, B,C, and N is the required combination.

Given: There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing the north direction and each one of them holding a water bottle. John pours different quantity of water in their bottles. John pours water only once. Total quantity of water is 2 litre.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities-

1. The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water.

B is sitting at one of the ends.

There are two person between B and the one which has 300 ml water.

There are at most one person between B and the one which has 250 ml water.

Combining these, we get-

2. The one which has 350 ml water is sitting fourth to the right of F.

From this, we get-

3. A is sitting second to the left of the person which has 250 ml water in it.

A has double amount of water as compare to F. 

This eliminates Case 1 from the above an we get-

4. C is sitting to the left of D but not immediately left.

The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water. After that he pours 350 ml water in a bottle. After that he poured water in bottle E followed by bottle F. This states that E is not the first one is whose bottle water was poured. So, E cannot have 250 ml water in a bottle. Also, E is not the last person as well. So, E cannot have 500 ml of water as well. 

Combining these, we get-

5. Now, the total amount of water poured by John is 2 litres. So, E's bottle will contain → 2000 ml - 1550 ml = 450 ml of water. 

We get the final arrangement as follows:

Therefore, from the above final arrangement we see that, B has the bottle which contains the fourth lowest quantity of water. 

Hence, B has the fourth lowest quantity of water in their bottle.

Given: There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing the north direction and each one of them holding a water bottle. John pours different quantity of water in their bottles. John pours water only once. Total quantity of water is 2 litre.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities-

1. The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water.

B is sitting at one of the ends.

There are two person between B and the one which has 300 ml water.

There are at most one person between B and the one which has 250 ml water.

Combining these, we get-

2. The one which has 350 ml water is sitting fourth to the right of F.

From this, we get-

3. A is sitting second to the left of the person which has 250 ml water in it.

A has double amount of water as compare to F. 

This eliminates Case 1 from the above an we get-

4. C is sitting to the left of D but not immediately left.

The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water. After that he pours 350 ml water in a bottle. After that he poured water in bottle E followed by bottle F. This states that E is not the first one is whose bottle water was poured. So, E cannot have 250 ml water in a bottle. Also, E is not the last person as well. So, E cannot have 500 ml of water as well. 

Combining these, we get-

5. Now, the total amount of water poured by John is 2 litres. So, E's bottle will contain → 2000 ml - 1550 ml = 450 ml of water. 

We get the final arrangement as follows:

Therefore, from the above final arrangement we see that, E sits third to the right of C. 

Hence, E sits third to the right of C.

Given: There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing the north direction and each one of them holding a water bottle. John pours different quantity of water in their bottles. John pours water only once. Total quantity of water is 2 litre.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities-

1. The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water.

B is sitting at one of the ends.

There are two person between B and the one which has 300 ml water.

There are at most one person between B and the one which has 250 ml water.

Combining these, we get-

2. The one which has 350 ml water is sitting fourth to the right of F.

From this, we get-

3. A is sitting second to the left of the person which has 250 ml water in it.

A has double amount of water as compare to F. 

This eliminates Case 1 from the above an we get-

4. C is sitting to the left of D but not immediately left.

The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water. After that he pours 350 ml water in a bottle. After that he poured water in bottle E followed by bottle F. This states that E is not the first one is whose bottle water was poured. So, E cannot have 250 ml water in a bottle. Also, E is not the last person as well. So, E cannot have 500 ml of water as well. 

Combining these, we get-

5. Now, the total amount of water poured by John is 2 litres. So, E's bottle will contain → 2000 ml - 1550 ml = 450 ml of water. 

We get the final arrangement as follows:

Therefore, from the above final arrangement we see that, F has 150 ml of water. A sits to the immediate right of F.  

Hence, A sits to the immediate right of the one who has 150 ml of water.

Given: There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing the north direction and each one of them holding a water bottle. John pours different quantity of water in their bottles. John pours water only once. Total quantity of water is 2 litre.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities-

1. The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water.

B is sitting at one of the ends.

There are two person between B and the one which has 300 ml water.

There are at most one person between B and the one which has 250 ml water.

Combining these, we get-

2. The one which has 350 ml water is sitting fourth to the right of F.

From this, we get-

3. A is sitting second to the left of the person which has 250 ml water in it.

A has double amount of water as compare to F. 

This eliminates Case 1 from the above an we get-

4. C is sitting to the left of D but not immediately left.

The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water. After that he pours 350 ml water in a bottle. After that he poured water in bottle E followed by bottle F. This states that E is not the first one is whose bottle water was poured. So, E cannot have 250 ml water in a bottle. Also, E is not the last person as well. So, E cannot have 500 ml of water as well. 

Combining these, we get-

5. Now, the total amount of water poured by John is 2 litres. So, E's bottle will contain → 2000 ml - 1550 ml = 450 ml of water. 

We get the final arrangement as follows:

Therefore, from the above final arrangement we see that, the sum of water contained in the bottles of B and F is 350 ml + 150 ml = 500 ml.

Hence, the required sum is 500 ml.

Given: There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing the north direction and each one of them holding a water bottle. John pours different quantity of water in their bottles. John pours water only once. Total quantity of water is 2 litre.

Based on the conditions given, we get the following possibilities-

1. The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water.

B is sitting at one of the ends.

There are two person between B and the one which has 300 ml water.

There are at most one person between B and the one which has 250 ml water.

Combining these, we get-

2. The one which has 350 ml water is sitting fourth to the right of F.

From this, we get-

3. A is sitting second to the left of the person which has 250 ml water in it.

A has double amount of water as compare to F. 

This eliminates Case 1 from the above an we get-

4. C is sitting to the left of D but not immediately left.

The one who is second from one of the ends holds 250 ml water. After that he pours 350 ml water in a bottle. After that he poured water in bottle E followed by bottle F. This states that E is not the first one is whose bottle water was poured. So, E cannot have 250 ml water in a bottle. Also, E is not the last person as well. So, E cannot have 500 ml of water as well. 

Combining these, we get-

5. Now, the total amount of water poured by John is 2 litres. So, E's bottle will contain → 2000 ml - 1550 ml = 450 ml of water. 

We get the final arrangement as follows:

Therefore, from the above final arrangement we see that, E has the second highest quantity of water. 

Hence, E has the second highest quantity of water in his bottle.

For the word 'EARTHBOUND', we have-

The letters that comes towards the left of B are changed into their immediate succeeding letter and the letters that comes towards the right of H changes into their immediate preceding letter according to the English alphabetical series.

After performing this operation, we get-

 

For the word 'FACTORIES', we have-

The letter comes before N in alphabetical series are changes into their immediate succeeding letter and the remaining letters are changes into their immediate preceding letter according to the English alphabetical series. 

After performing this operation, we get-

 

Now, on combining all the changed letters from both the words and arranging them according to the English alphabetical series, we get-

(Left end) A B B C D F F G I J M N N Q R S S T U (Right end)

After dropping the repeated letters and vowels, we get-

(Left end) A C D G I J M Q R T U  (Right end)

Therefore, from the above sequence, we see that the fourth letter from the right end is Q. 

Hence, the fourth letter from the right end is Q.

Given: There are six persons A,B,C,D,E,and F are getting different marks.

1. B gets more marks than A but less than D. 

From this, we get-

D > B > A

2.  F gets more marks than C but lower marks than E.

From this, we get-

E > F > C

3.  B gets more marks than E. 4. C gets more marks than at least one person.

From this, we get the final sequence as follows:

D > B > E > F > C > A

The average marks of A, C, and E is 17. Therefore, the total score obtained by A, C, and E is = 17 × 3 = 51. 

Now, E scores more than F and all the marks are in whole numbers.

51 or 54 cannot be the maximum score as it will violate the condition the E scores more than F. 

18 or 49 cannot be the the maximum score as it will violate the condition that all the marks are in whole numbers and C scores more than A. 

So, from the given options, the only possible maximum score of F is 35. 

Hence, the maximum possible score of F is 35.

Given: There are six persons A,B,C,D,E,and F are getting different marks.

1. B gets more marks than A but less than D. 

From this, we get-

D > B > A

2.  F gets more marks than C but lower marks than E.

From this, we get-

E > F > C

3.  B gets more marks than E. 4. C gets more marks than at least one person.

From this, we get the final sequence as follows:

D > B > E > F > C > A

Therefore, the number of persons who score more than E is one less than the number of persons who score less than E. (2 persons score above E. 3 persons score below E.)

Hence, the number of persons who score more than E is one less than the number of persons who score less than E.

Persons – 10; Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z;

South – Q, R, S, T and U Row 1; North – V, W, X, Y and Z Row 2;

Ice Cream Flavors – Vanilla, guava, black currant, orange, strawberry, litchi, cranberry, pistachio, apple and mango.

1. T faces the one who sits third to the right of the one who likes litchi.

2. Z faces the one who likes pistachio and sit at one of the ends.

3. The one who likes pistachio sits second to the left of the one who likes guava.

4. Three persons sit between V and the one who likes vanilla.

5. Q faces the one who sits second to the left of the one who likes mango.

6. The one who likes mango sits to the left of the one who likes black currant.

7. U sits to the right of the one who likes orange and sits opposite the one who likes apple.

    From this case 2 is eliminated, as we cannot place U. In case of 1, U sits immediate left of Q.

8. W faces the one who sit third to the left of the one who likes cranberry.
9. R does not face either X or Y.
10. Y does not like mango.  

     From this we get the final arrangement as follows.

Therefore, Q sits fourth to the right of the one who likes pistachio. Q likes cranberry. 

Hence, Q likes cranberry.

Persons – 10; Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z;

South – Q, R, S, T and U Row 1; North – V, W, X, Y and Z Row 2;

Ice Cream Flavors – Vanilla, guava, black currant, orange, strawberry, litchi, cranberry, pistachio, apple and mango.

1. T faces the one who sits third to the right of the one who likes litchi.

2. Z faces the one who likes pistachio and sit at one of the ends.

3. The one who likes pistachio sits second to the left of the one who likes guava.

4. Three persons sit between V and the one who likes vanilla.

5. Q faces the one who sits second to the left of the one who likes mango.

6. The one who likes mango sits to the left of the one who likes black currant.

7. U sits to the right of the one who likes orange and sits opposite the one who likes apple.

    From this case 2 is eliminated, as we cannot place U. In case of 1, U sits immediate left of Q.

8. W faces the one who sit third to the left of the one who likes cranberry.
9. R does not face either X or Y.
10. Y does not like mango.  

     From this we get the final arrangement as follows.

Therefore, Y sits third to the left of Z. 

Hence, Y sits third to the left of Z.

Persons – 10; Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z;

South – Q, R, S, T and U Row 1; North – V, W, X, Y and Z Row 2;

Ice Cream Flavors – Vanilla, guava, black currant, orange, strawberry, litchi, cranberry, pistachio, apple and mango.

1. T faces the one who sits third to the right of the one who likes litchi.

2. Z faces the one who likes pistachio and sit at one of the ends.

3. The one who likes pistachio sits second to the left of the one who likes guava.

4. Three persons sit between V and the one who likes vanilla.

5. Q faces the one who sits second to the left of the one who likes mango.

6. The one who likes mango sits to the left of the one who likes black currant.

7. U sits to the right of the one who likes orange and sits opposite the one who likes apple.

    From this case 2 is eliminated, as we cannot place U. In case of 1, U sits immediate left of Q.

8. W faces the one who sit third to the left of the one who likes cranberry.
9. R does not face either X or Y.
10. Y does not like mango.  

     From this we get the final arrangement as follows.

Therefore, U sits opposite to the person who likes apple. 

Hence,  U sits opposite to the person who likes apple.

Persons – 10; Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z;

South – Q, R, S, T and U Row 1; North – V, W, X, Y and Z Row 2;

Ice Cream Flavors – Vanilla, guava, black currant, orange, strawberry, litchi, cranberry, pistachio, apple and mango.

1. T faces the one who sits third to the right of the one who likes litchi.

2. Z faces the one who likes pistachio and sit at one of the ends.

3. The one who likes pistachio sits second to the left of the one who likes guava.

4. Three persons sit between V and the one who likes vanilla.

5. Q faces the one who sits second to the left of the one who likes mango.

6. The one who likes mango sits to the left of the one who likes black currant.

7. U sits to the right of the one who likes orange and sits opposite the one who likes apple.

    From this case 2 is eliminated, as we cannot place U. In case of 1, U sits immediate left of Q.

8. W faces the one who sit third to the left of the one who likes cranberry.
9. R does not face either X or Y.
10. Y does not like mango.  

     From this we get the final arrangement as follows.

Therefore, we see that there are three persons who sit between the persons who like litchi and vanilla. 

Hence, 3 persons sit in between them.

Persons – 10; Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z;

South – Q, R, S, T and U Row 1; North – V, W, X, Y and Z Row 2;

Ice Cream Flavors – Vanilla, guava, black currant, orange, strawberry, litchi, cranberry, pistachio, apple and mango.

1. T faces the one who sits third to the right of the one who likes litchi.

2. Z faces the one who likes pistachio and sit at one of the ends.

3. The one who likes pistachio sits second to the left of the one who likes guava.

4. Three persons sit between V and the one who likes vanilla.

5. Q faces the one who sits second to the left of the one who likes mango.

6. The one who likes mango sits to the left of the one who likes black currant.

7. U sits to the right of the one who likes orange and sits opposite the one who likes apple.

    From this case 2 is eliminated, as we cannot place U. In case of 1, U sits immediate left of Q.

8. W faces the one who sit third to the left of the one who likes cranberry.
9. R does not face either X or Y.
10. Y does not like mango.  

     From this we get the final arrangement as follows.

Therefore, we see that T sits opposite to the person who likes black currant. S sits to the immediate right of T. 

Hence, S sits to the immediate right of T.

Statement I: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before E was the same as persons born after D. B was born in a month of 30 days. A was born one month before F.

 

Hence, two persons were born after A.

Statement II: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before C was the same as persons born after F. D was immediately born before C. C was born before F. C was born in March.

 

Hence, two persons were born after A.

Statement III: F was born after May. Three persons are born between F and D. One person was born between B and D. C was born before F.

 

From this, we cannot conclude about the number of persons who were born after A. 

Hence, the data given in either statement I or statement II is sufficient enough to answer the question.

From statement I and II, we get-

I. "Celebration at peak level" is coded as "dz hx fv jt" "festival celebration begin❞ is coded as "hx ay kr" and "at home festival offers" is coded as "pb jt ul kr".

II. "Peak celebration begin today" is coded as "ay wi hx dz", "celebration level vary" is coded as "cm hx fv" and "peak offers vary from" is coded as "ul se dz cm".

cm.

→ "Celebration at peak level" is coded as "dz hx fv jt" ; "Peak celebration begin today" is coded as "ay wi hx dz" ;  "celebration level vary" is coded as "cm hx fv". From this, we see that celebration is coded as hx and peak is coded as dz. 

→ "Celebration at peak level" is coded as "dz hx fv jt" ; "celebration level vary" is coded as "cm hx fv"; "peak offers vary from" is coded as "ul se dz cm". From this, we can deduce that the code for vary is cm and the code for level is fv. Hence, the code for level is fv. 

→ "at home festival offers" is coded as "pb jt ul kr";  "peak offers vary from" is coded as "ul se dz cm" . from this, we see that the code for offers is ul. 

So, the code for "offers level' is "ul fv". 

Therefore, the data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. 

From statement II and III, we get-

II. "Peak celebration begin today" is coded as "ay wi hx dz", "celebration level vary" is coded as "cm hx fv" and "peak offers vary from" is coded as "ul se dz cm".

cm.

III. "Festival over today" is coded as "wi kr qo", "new offers begin today" is coded as "wi ay ul gn" and "peak level over at" is coded as "fv qo jt dz".

→ "new offers begin today" is coded as "wi ay ul gn"; "peak offers vary from" is coded as "ul se dz cm". From this, we get the code for offers as ul. 

→ "celebration level vary" is coded as "cm hx fv"; "peak level over at" is coded as "fv qo jt dz". From this, we get the code for level as fv. 

So, the code for "offers level' is "ul fv". 

Therefore, the data in statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question. 

Hence, the data in statement I and statement II together or statement II and statement III together are sufficient to answer the question.

Given:

Nine boxes - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I.

The bottommost shelf is numbered 1 and the topmost shelf is numbered 9.

We have to find out how many boxes are kept between A and H.

From statement I, we get,

1. Box E is kept four shelves above C and on an even-numbered shelf.

2) Two boxes are kept between E and D, which is not kept on the third shelf.

3) I is kept two shelves below D.

 

We cannot determine how many boxes are kept between A and H. So, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement II, we get,

1) G is kept immediately below I, which is kept on an odd-numbered shelf.

2) B is kept three shelves above F, which is kept above fourth shelf.

3) A is not kept below H.

 

We cannot determine how many boxes are kept between A and H. So, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement III, we get,

1) A is kept above C, which is kept on an even-numbered shelf.

2) G is kept below A but above H.

3) B is not kept below E.

Here so many possibilities exist. We cannot determine how many boxes are kept between A and H. So, statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

On combining statements I and II together, we get,

 

We can determine five boxes are kept between A and H. So, statement I and II together is sufficient to answer the question.

On combining statements I and III together, we get,

 

Here also so many possibilities exist. We cannot determine how many boxes are kept between A and H. So, statement I and III together is not sufficient to answer the question.

On combining statements II and III together, we get,

 

Here also so many possibilities exist. We cannot determine how many boxes are kept between A and H. So, statement I and III together is not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, the correct answer is Data given in both statements I and II are sufficient to answer the given question.

Given:

Seven notebooks of different brands viz.- Status, Virat, Target, Oscar, Gold, Desire, and Racer.

We have to find notebooks of how many brands have more pages than Virat.

Let the notebook with the highest number of pages be ranked 1 and the notebook with least number of pages be ranked 7. 

From Option 1, we get,

1. Only two notebooks have more pages than the notebook of the brand Target.

2. The notebook of the brand Virat has more pages than Oscar and Desire but not as many as Racer. 

 

We cannot determine how many brands have more pages than Virat. So option 1 is insufficient to answer the question. 

From Option 2, we get,

1) The number of pages of only one notebook is less than Oscar's.

2. Notebook of Virat has more pages than Oscar and Desire but not as many as Gold and Status, who is has less pages than Target. 

3) Oscar has less pages than Target and there are two notebooks between them.

 

We can determine that two brands have more pages than Virat. So option 2 is sufficient to answer the question. 

From Option 3, we get,

1) Only three notebooks have more pages than Status.

2. The number of notebooks having more pages than Target is the same as the number of notebooks having less pages than Desire, who does not have the least number of pages.

 

We cannot determine how many brands have more pages than Virat. So option 3 is insufficient to answer the question. 

From Option 4, we get,

1. The Notebook of Target has less pages only than Gold and Racer but not as much as Oscar and Virat, who do not have the least pages.

 

We cannot determine how many brands have more pages than Virat. So option 4 is insufficient to answer the question.

Hence, the correct answer is The number of pages of only one notebook is less than Oscar's. Notebook of Virat has more pages than Oscar and Desire but not as many as Gold and Status, who is has less pages than Target. Oscar has less pages than Target and there are two notebooks between them.

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given relations: K@J%G$R, R$H#J$Q, Q@P%C.

From these, we get the family blood relation diagram as follows:

Now, it is further given that-

1. R is the only niece of P.
   

2. Gender of K is same as the gender of G.
   

3. Q is the only aunt of H.

From these, the genders are determined and we get the final blood relation diagram as follows:

Therefore, from the above final diagram, we see that if C is a male then the total number of female members in the family is three. 

Hence, if C is a male then the total number of female members in the family is three.

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given relations: K@J%G$R, R$H#J$Q, Q@P%C.

From these, we get the family blood relation diagram as follows:

Now, it is further given that-

1. R is the only niece of P.
   

2. Gender of K is same as the gender of G.
   

3. Q is the only aunt of H.

From these, the genders are determined and we get the final blood relation diagram as follows:

Therefore, from the above final diagram, we see that G is the brother of R. 

Hence, G is the brother of R.

The correct answer is option 3 Both I and II implicit.

<br>

Explanation:

I. The statement suggests that tech shaming can have adverse effects on self-esteem, especially in a society valuing tech-savviness. It may lead to feelings of isolation and exclusion. This aligns with the idea presented in the passage, making assumption I implicit.

<br>

II. The statement highlights that tech shame can impact individuals of all ages but poses a specific challenge for Gen Z employees. Colleagues' assumptions about Gen Z's tech capabilities may add pressure. This aligns with the passage's emphasis on the struggles Gen Z employees may face with older technology, supporting assumption II.

<br>

Hence, both assumptions I and II are implicit in the given context.

The scenario discussed here refers to the surge in popularity of podcasts, which have become a mainstream form of media consumption.

According to Assertion I, podcasts have a low production cost and a high accessibility, which enables more people to create and distribute their own shows.

Assertion II describes how podcasts appeal to niche markets and audiences who are looking for specialized and customized content that suits their tastes and needs.

Both assertions accurately explain the cause of the surge in popularity of podcasts.

Hence, the correct answer is Both I and II.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• The 26th anniversary of the Kudumbashree mission, a successful Self-Help Group (SHG), was celebrated in Kerala.
• SHGs have significantly empowered women by enhancing their access to microfinance, entrepreneurship opportunities, and leadership roles in local governance.

Key Points

• SHGs were supported by government schemes like the Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana and SHG-Bank Linkage Programme to promote financial inclusion and empower women.
• SHGs have faced challenges such as sustainability, dependency on external aid, and issues related to political interference and lack of access to modern technology.

Additional Information

• Origins of SHGs in India
• Self-Help Groups in India originated with informal community support groups for collective action, later formalized by organizations like SEWA and MYRADA.
• Challenges Faced by SHGs
• SHGs struggle with sustainability, over-reliance on external aid, and the lack of access to technology and larger markets for their products.

The correct answer is 200 nautical miles.

In News

• The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) extends up to 200 nautical miles from a coastal state's baseline.
• This zone grants coastal states special rights for exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing natural resources within the zone.

Key Points

• The EEZ is a maritime zone where the coastal state holds sovereign rights for resource exploration, but it must also cooperate internationally in the conservation and management of resources.
• While coastal states have special rights in their EEZ, they must also respect the rights of other states, such as freedom of navigation and overflight.

Additional Information

• UNCLOS
• The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines the EEZ and provides the legal framework for maritime activities, including the rights and responsibilities of coastal states.
• Rights and Responsibilities
• The coastal state has the responsibility to manage and conserve resources within the EEZ, ensuring sustainable use and protecting marine environments.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PMKISAN) is a government initiative that provides farmers with ₹6,000 per year as minimum income support.
• The scheme was announced by Piyush Goyal during the 2019 Interim Union Budget and was implemented in December 2018.

Key Points

• PMKISAN has a cost of ₹75,000 crore per annum and was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Gorakhpur on 24 February 2019.
• PMKISAN was inspired by Telangana's Rythu Bandhu scheme, which provided direct financial assistance to farmers and was praised for its success.

Additional Information

• PMKISAN Implementation
• The scheme aims to provide financial assistance to farmers, reducing the dependency on farm loan waivers and promoting direct investment in agriculture.
• Award Recognition
• The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare recognizes top-performing states and districts based on criteria like data correction, addressing grievances, and timely verification exercises.

The correct answer is Rs. 20 lakh.

In News

• The minimum amount for filing a case before a Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) in India is Rs. 20 lakh, which was raised by the Indian Government in 2020.
• If the disputed amount is below this threshold, the DRT may not have jurisdiction to hear the case.

Key Points

• Appeals against DRT decisions can be made to the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT) within 30 days of the DRT order.
• DRTs are governed under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act).

Additional Information

• SARFAESI Act
• The SARFAESI Act, 2002, allows banks and financial institutions to take possession of defaulting borrowers' properties for recovering loans and provides the legal framework for DRTs and DRATs.
• Jurisdiction
• The DRT's jurisdiction is based on the pecuniary limit of Rs. 20 lakh, and it can adjudicate cases only above this threshold.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• PM Gati Shakti is a National Master Plan aimed at enhancing multi-modal connectivity by integrating infrastructure initiatives from 16 Ministries, including railways and roadways, into a single digital platform.
• The plan's focus is on improving efficiency, reducing delays, and ensuring seamless connectivity between different modes of transport and infrastructure sectors.

Key Points

• The PM Gati Shakti plan includes six key pillars: Comprehensiveness, Prioritization, Optimization, Synchronization, Analytical, and Dynamic.
• It leverages ISRO's spatial planning tools, which provide real-time satellite imagery for monitoring project progress and facilitating data-driven decision-making.
• The plan ensures that infrastructure projects are executed with a common vision and reduces inefficiencies caused by departments working in silos.

Additional Information

• Vision of PM Gati Shakti
• PM Gati Shakti will create a unified digital platform for planning and executing infrastructure projects across different ministries, facilitating better coordination and improved connectivity.
• Pillars of PM Gati Shakti
• The six pillars include synchronization of activities, optimization of transport routes, and comprehensive integration of all existing and planned projects for efficient delivery and execution.

The correct answer is Ireland.

In News

• TCS has signed a 15-year contract with Ireland’s Department of Social Protection to implement and support the "My Future Fund" auto-enrolment retirement savings scheme.
• The contract involves managing the pensions of approximately 800,000 workers and providing a digital solution for automatic enrolment, record management, and disbursing benefits.

Key Points

• TCS will deliver these services through its Global Delivery Centre in Letterkenny, Ireland.
• The "My Future Fund" scheme is part of Ireland’s efforts to enhance retirement savings through automatic enrolment for workers.

Additional Information

• TCS
• Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) is a global IT services and consulting company, known for its expertise in delivering digital solutions and managing large-scale projects.
• My Future Fund
• "My Future Fund" is Ireland's auto-enrolment retirement savings scheme, designed to help workers save for retirement through automatic enrolment in pension schemes.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 are correct.

In News

• The National Pension System (NPS) is a defined-contribution pension scheme in India, regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
• Initially designed for government employees, NPS was later opened to all Indian citizens aged 18 to 70, including NRIs and OCI holders.
• NPS provides tax exemptions under Sections 80C, 80CCC, and 80CCD(1) of the Income Tax Act, along with an additional deduction of ₹50,000 under Section 80CCD(1B).

Key Points

• In 2018, NPS became a tax-free instrument in India, with the entire corpus being exempt from tax at maturity, and 40% of the annuity becoming tax-free as well.
• The scheme allows up to ₹1.5 lakh exemption under Section 80C, with an additional ₹50,000 deduction for NPS contributions in the Tier I account.
• The changes to the tax rules were implemented through amendments in The Income-tax Act, 1961, in the 2019 Union Budget of India.

Additional Information

• NPS Trust
• The NPS Trust is responsible for overseeing the assets and funds under NPS and ensuring the best interests of the subscribers.
• Tax Exemptions
• The tax benefits under NPS contribute to its popularity as a tax-saving instrument, making it one of the top choices after Equity Linked Savings Schemes (ELSS).
• Private Fund Managers
• Private fund managers play an essential role in the NPS, managing the investments and ensuring optimal returns for the subscribers.

The correct answer is Amortization.

In News

• Premium, underwriting, claim, and dividend are all terms directly related to the insurance industry.
• Amortization refers to the gradual repayment of a debt over time, which is not specifically related to insurance.

Key Points

• Premium is the amount paid by policyholders to maintain their insurance coverage.
• Underwriting is the process used by insurers to assess the risk and determine policy terms.
• A claim is a request made by a policyholder for compensation from the insurance company following a loss.
• Dividend is the distribution of a portion of an insurer’s profit to policyholders in some types of insurance plans.

Additional Information

• Insurance Terms
• Insurance terminology includes terms like premium, underwriting, claims, and dividends, which are essential for understanding policies and insurance processes.
• Amortization
• Amortization is more commonly used in finance and accounting, related to loan repayments or the gradual reduction of an asset's value, not specifically insurance.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• CERSAI is a central online security interest registry created to check frauds in lending against equitable mortgages, where people could take multiple loans on the same asset from different banks.
• CERSAI was established on 11th March 2011 under the provisions of Chapter IV of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act).
• It is a public sector company owned by the Government of India, the National Housing Bank, and other stakeholders.

Key Points

• CERSAI provides an online registry service for recording and tracking security interests in financial assets to enhance transparency in the lending process.
• The system helps prevent fraud by ensuring that multiple loans cannot be secured against the same asset without proper documentation.
• The registered office of CERSAI is located in New Delhi, India, and it serves the entire country.

Additional Information

• CERSAI's Role
• CERSAI plays a crucial role in the financial infrastructure sector by providing an online platform for financial institutions to register and track security interests.
• SARFAESI Act
• CERSAI operates under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, which governs the enforcement of security interests and the regulation of asset reconstruction in India.

Correct option is an option (4) i.e 20 lakh

• Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by RBI to redress complaints of customers in certain banking services.
• It comes under section 35 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949.
• If you have made written complain to the bank and bank has not responded to the complaint in 30 days then you can go to Ombudsman. And the maximum 20 lakhs can be given as a compensation to the customer.
• At present, there are 21 Banking Ombudsman.
• All scheduled commercial banks including RRBs come under it.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 are only.

In News

• The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) focuses on securing domestic and foreign critical mineral supply chains, with the goal of increasing self-reliance in mineral resources.
• India will explore 1,200 projects to identify and assess reserves of critical minerals, with the Geological Survey of India (GSI) leading the efforts from 2024 to 2030.

Key Points

• The NCMM mission includes the establishment of 4 Mineral Processing Parks and 3 Centres of Excellence to foster research and innovation in the critical mineral sector.
• The mission supports the expansion of India's clean energy sector, including the utilization of critical minerals for solar, wind, EVs, and energy storage technologies.
• India is investing in international critical mineral assets through collaborations with countries like Argentina, Australia, and other resource-rich nations.

Additional Information

• Critical Minerals in Clean Energy
• Critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements are essential for clean energy technologies like solar panels, wind turbines, and electric vehicles.
• India’s Climate Goals
• India aims to reduce emissions intensity by 45% by 2030 and achieve 50% of electric power capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030, with a focus on the role of the NCMM in ensuring a stable supply of critical minerals for these goals.

The correct answer is William Dalrymple.

In News

• "The Golden Road: How Ancient India Transformed the World" is a 2024 history book written by Scottish historian William Dalrymple.
• The book explores how India's ideas and influences shaped Eurasia in ancient times.

Key Points

• The book highlights India's historical contributions to Eurasian civilizations and the spread of Indian ideas.
• William Dalrymple is a renowned Scottish historian and author known for his works on history and South Asian culture.

Additional Information

• William Dalrymple
• Dalrymple is a prominent historian and author, best known for his books on Indian history, including "The Last Mughal" and "City of Djinns."
• The Golden Road
• This book discusses India's historical role in the exchange of ideas and trade, emphasizing its influence on Eurasian civilizations.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 are only.

In News

• TReDS is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing and discounting of trade receivables, specifically designed for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
• The TReDS platform allows MSMEs to participate as sellers, and corporates, Government Departments, and PSUs can participate as buyers.

Key Points

• TReDS allows for both receivables factoring and reverse factoring, which are essential for facilitating financial transactions.
• MSMEs can create Factoring Units (FUs) which are used for invoice or bill discounting, and buyers can also create reverse factoring FUs.
• The transactions processed under TReDS are "without recourse" to the MSMEs, meaning MSMEs are not responsible if the buyer defaults in repayment.
• The platform is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and participation requires the submission of KYC (Know Your Customer) documents.

Additional Information

• Factoring Unit (FU)
• FU is a standardized document used to represent invoices or bills of exchange in TReDS, allowing for trade receivables to be discounted or financed.
• TReDS Participants
• Participants in TReDS include MSME sellers, buyers (corporates, government, PSUs), and financiers (banks, NBFCs, and other financial institutions).
• Settlement File
• The TReDS platform generates a settlement file, which contains details of amounts to be debited or credited from participants' accounts based on the transaction outcome.

The correct answer is 4 years.

In News

• India was elected to the UN Statistical Commission for a four-year term, beginning January 1, 2024.
• India secured 46 out of 53 votes in a competitive election to gain this prestigious position.

Key Points

• India's seat on the UN Statistical Commission will begin on January 1, 2024, and last for four years.
• The election process was competitive, with China and South Korea still vying for the remaining Asia-Pacific seat.
• India's expertise in statistics, diversity, and demography contributed to its overwhelming success in securing the seat.

Additional Information

• UN Statistical Commission
• Established in 1947, it is the highest body in the global statistical system, responsible for setting statistical standards and methods.

The correct answer is AAA+.

In News

• Amul has been recognized as the strongest food and dairy brand globally, earning a prestigious AAA+ rating in the Brand Finance Food & Drink 2024 report.
• The brand strength of Amul was evaluated with a Brand Strength Index (BSI) score of 91.0 out of 100.

Key Points

• Amul earned the AAA+ rating in Brand Finance's global ranking of the strongest food and dairy brands.
• The company’s strong performance in familiarity, consideration, and recommendation metrics contributed to its global leadership in the food and dairy sectors.

Additional Information

• Amul's Brand Strength
• Amul's brand strength has been built through consistent innovation, effective marketing strategies, and strong consumer trust.
• Amul's Market Share
• Amul has an 85% share in the Indian butter market and a 66% share in the cheese market.

The correct answer is Niva Bupa Health Insurance.

In News

• Niva Bupa Health Insurance launched its IPO in November 2024.
• The IPO was open for subscription from November 7th to 11th, and the shares listed on BSE and NSE on November 14th.

Key Points

• Issue Price: ₹74 per share.
• Lot Size: 200 shares.
• Total Issue Size: ₹2,200 crore, with a fresh issue of ₹800 crore and an offer for sale of ₹1,400 crore.
• The shares were listed on the BSE and NSE on November 14, 2024.

Additional Information

• Niva Bupa Health Insurance
• Niva Bupa Health Insurance is a prominent health insurance company in India, providing a wide range of health insurance products and services.

The correct answer is National Quantum Mission (NQM).

In News

• The four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) were launched under the National Quantum Mission (NQM) to advance research and innovation in quantum technologies.
• The T-Hubs aim to bring together 152 researchers from 43 institutions across 17 states and 2 Union Territories to drive quantum advancements.

Key Points

• The National Quantum Mission (NQM) is designed to make India a leader in quantum technologies like quantum computing, communication, and precision sensing.
• Thematic Hubs are part of India's effort to build a vibrant ecosystem for quantum-driven innovations and foster collaborations among academia, industry, and government.

Additional Information

• National Quantum Mission (NQM)
• NQM aims to leverage scientific research to position India as a global leader in quantum technology, aligning with the vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047.
• Thematic Hubs
• The T-Hubs will drive multi-disciplinary research in quantum technology, combining expertise from fields like physics, computer science, and engineering.

The correct answer is INR 50,000.

In News

• For walk-in customers (non-customers), the maximum remittance limit under the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility (INRF) is INR 50,000 per transaction.
• For customers with accounts, the maximum remittance limit is INR 2,00,000 per transaction.

Key Points

• Walk-in customers can remit up to INR 50,000 per transaction through the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility.
• Account-holding customers can remit up to INR 2,00,000 per transaction.
• The remittance facility is managed by State Bank of India (SBI) for the Indian side and Nepal SBI Bank Limited (NSBL) for disbursal in Nepal.

Additional Information

• Documents for Remittance
• Walk-in customers must provide proof of identity (e.g., passport, PAN card, etc.) and the beneficiary's address and phone number in Nepal.
• Charges for Remittances
• For transactions up to INR 50,000, charges are INR 5 by the originating bank, INR 20 by SBI, and additional charges if the beneficiary does not have an NSBL account.

The correct answer is Project Kuiper.

In News

• Project Kuiper is Amazon's initiative to build a global satellite broadband network aimed at providing high-speed internet to underserved areas.
• The project involves launching 3,236 low Earth orbit (LEO) satellites to create a global broadband network.

Key Points

• Project Kuiper aims to offer varying internet speeds, including 100 Mbps, 400 Mbps, and up to 1 Gbps.
• The first batch of 27 production satellites is scheduled for launch in April 2025.
• Project Kuiper is exploring opportunities to enter the Indian market and provide satellite internet services in the country.

Additional Information

• Global Satellite Network
• Project Kuiper plans to deploy over 3,000 satellites to provide reliable and high-speed internet worldwide, especially in unserved and underserved regions.
• Indian Market
• Amazon's Project Kuiper is exploring entering the Indian market, where there is a significant need for better internet connectivity in remote areas.