Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 12 October 2025) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2025

145 questions160 minutes
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Reasoning (40 questions)

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

There are three rows, i.e., Row A, Row B, and Row C. Row A is north of Row B and Row B is north of Row C. Four people sit in Row A and Row C each, while eight people sit in Row B. Four persons from the left end of Row B face the persons sitting in Row A, and the remaining four persons face the persons sitting in Row C. Persons sitting in Row A face south, and persons sitting in Row C face north. All persons sit opposite exactly one person.

K does not face E. X sits opposite C, who does not sit in Row B. P does not sit at any extreme end. Two people sit between K and T. S is not an immediate neighbour of T and H. The person who sits opposite R sits second to the right of K. The number of persons sitting between X and H is one less than the number of persons sitting to the right of A. As many persons sit between R and M as between P and J. The person who sits opposite T sits third to the left of M, who does not face south. As many persons sit to the right of H as to the right of V in the same row. K does not face north. J does not face north and does not sit in Row B. The person sitting opposite to P sits fourth to the right of D. Three people sit between D and H. S and N are immediate neighbours, but neither of them faces south. F does not face north. A does not face south.

Question 1

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    R and N are immediate neighbours.

  2. BOption (b)

    A is the only neighbour of M.

  3. COption (c)

    The number of persons sitting to the left of S is two less than the number of persons sitting between T and K.

  4. DOption (d)

    M sits opposite to V.

  5. EOption (e)

    F sits in Row C.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A is the only neighbour of M.

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are three rows, i.e., Row A, Row B, and Row C. Row A is north of Row B and Row B is north of Row C. Four people sit in Row A and Row C each, while eight people sit in Row B. Four persons from the left end of Row B face the persons sitting in Row A, and the remaining four persons face the persons sitting in Row C. Persons sitting in Row A face south, and persons sitting in Row C face north. All persons sit opposite exactly one person.

  1. The person who sits opposite T sits third to the left of M, who does not face south.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. Two people sit between K and T. 

  2. K does not face north. 

  3. The person who sits opposite R sits second to the right of K.

  4. As many persons sit between R and M as between P and J.

  5. J does not face north and does not sit in Row B.

  6. P does not sit at any extreme end.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2 and have a subcase of Case 1.

  1. The person sitting opposite to P sits fourth to the right of D.

  2. Three people sit between D and H.

  3. As many persons sit to the right of H as to the left of V in the same row.

  4. S and N are immediate neighbours, but neither of them faces south.

  5. S is not an immediate neighbour of T and H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1a.

  1. X sits opposite C, who does not sit in Row B. 
  2. F does not face north. 
  3. The number of persons sitting between X and H is one less than the number of persons sitting to the right of A.
  4. A does not face south.
  5. K does not face E. 

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is A is the only neighbour of M.

Question 2

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If E is related to T and in the same way D is related to A, then who among the following is related to R?

  1. AOption (a)

    K

  2. BOption (b)

    T

  3. COption (c)

    M

  4. DOption (d)

    V

  5. EOption (e)

    H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

V

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are three rows, i.e., Row A, Row B, and Row C. Row A is north of Row B and Row B is north of Row C. Four people sit in Row A and Row C each, while eight people sit in Row B. Four persons from the left end of Row B face the persons sitting in Row A, and the remaining four persons face the persons sitting in Row C. Persons sitting in Row A face south, and persons sitting in Row C face north. All persons sit opposite exactly one person.

  1. The person who sits opposite T sits third to the left of M, who does not face south.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. Two people sit between K and T. 

  2. K does not face north. 

  3. The person who sits opposite R sits second to the right of K.

  4. As many persons sit between R and M as between P and J.

  5. J does not face north and does not sit in Row B.

  6. P does not sit at any extreme end.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2 and have a subcase of Case 1.

  1. The person sitting opposite to P sits fourth to the right of D.

  2. Three people sit between D and H.

  3. As many persons sit to the right of H as to the left of V in the same row.

  4. S and N are immediate neighbours, but neither of them faces south.

  5. S is not an immediate neighbour of T and H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1a.

  1. X sits opposite C, who does not sit in Row B. 
  2. F does not face north. 
  3. The number of persons sitting between X and H is one less than the number of persons sitting to the right of A.
  4. A does not face south.
  5. K does not face E. 

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is V.

Question 3

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who sits opposite to the person who sits second to the left of F?

  1. AOption (a)

    J

  2. BOption (b)

    X

  3. COption (c)

    P

  4. DOption (d)

    T

  5. EOption (e)

    E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

X

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are three rows, i.e., Row A, Row B, and Row C. Row A is north of Row B and Row B is north of Row C. Four people sit in Row A and Row C each, while eight people sit in Row B. Four persons from the left end of Row B face the persons sitting in Row A, and the remaining four persons face the persons sitting in Row C. Persons sitting in Row A face south, and persons sitting in Row C face north. All persons sit opposite exactly one person.

  1. The person who sits opposite T sits third to the left of M, who does not face south.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. Two people sit between K and T. 

  2. K does not face north. 

  3. The person who sits opposite R sits second to the right of K.

  4. As many persons sit between R and M as between P and J.

  5. J does not face north and does not sit in Row B.

  6. P does not sit at any extreme end.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2 and have a subcase of Case 1.

  1. The person sitting opposite to P sits fourth to the right of D.

  2. Three people sit between D and H.

  3. As many persons sit to the right of H as to the left of V in the same row.

  4. S and N are immediate neighbours, but neither of them faces south.

  5. S is not an immediate neighbour of T and H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1a.

  1. X sits opposite C, who does not sit in Row B. 
  2. F does not face north. 
  3. The number of persons sitting between X and H is one less than the number of persons sitting to the right of A.
  4. A does not face south.
  5. K does not face E. 

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is X.

Question 4

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons sit between D and the person who faces C?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Five 

  5. EOption (e)

    More than five

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are three rows, i.e., Row A, Row B, and Row C. Row A is north of Row B and Row B is north of Row C. Four people sit in Row A and Row C each, while eight people sit in Row B. Four persons from the left end of Row B face the persons sitting in Row A, and the remaining four persons face the persons sitting in Row C. Persons sitting in Row A face south, and persons sitting in Row C face north. All persons sit opposite exactly one person.

  1. The person who sits opposite T sits third to the left of M, who does not face south.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. Two people sit between K and T. 

  2. K does not face north. 

  3. The person who sits opposite R sits second to the right of K.

  4. As many persons sit between R and M as between P and J.

  5. J does not face north and does not sit in Row B.

  6. P does not sit at any extreme end.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2 and have a subcase of Case 1.

  1. The person sitting opposite to P sits fourth to the right of D.

  2. Three people sit between D and H.

  3. As many persons sit to the right of H as to the left of V in the same row.

  4. S and N are immediate neighbours, but neither of them faces south.

  5. S is not an immediate neighbour of T and H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1a.

  1. X sits opposite C, who does not sit in Row B. 
  2. F does not face north. 
  3. The number of persons sitting between X and H is one less than the number of persons sitting to the right of A.
  4. A does not face south.
  5. K does not face E. 

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is Two.

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The person who sits immediate right of K sits opposite to the person who sits ________ of E.

  1. AOption (a)

    Third to the left

  2. BOption (b)

    Fourth to the right

  3. COption (c)

    Fifth to the right

  4. DOption (d)

    Second to the right

  5. EOption (e)

    Sixth to the left

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Second to the right

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are three rows, i.e., Row A, Row B, and Row C. Row A is north of Row B and Row B is north of Row C. Four people sit in Row A and Row C each, while eight people sit in Row B. Four persons from the left end of Row B face the persons sitting in Row A, and the remaining four persons face the persons sitting in Row C. Persons sitting in Row A face south, and persons sitting in Row C face north. All persons sit opposite exactly one person.

  1. The person who sits opposite T sits third to the left of M, who does not face south.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. Two people sit between K and T. 

  2. K does not face north. 

  3. The person who sits opposite R sits second to the right of K.

  4. As many persons sit between R and M as between P and J.

  5. J does not face north and does not sit in Row B.

  6. P does not sit at any extreme end.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2 and have a subcase of Case 1.

  1. The person sitting opposite to P sits fourth to the right of D.

  2. Three people sit between D and H.

  3. As many persons sit to the right of H as to the left of V in the same row.

  4. S and N are immediate neighbours, but neither of them faces south.

  5. S is not an immediate neighbour of T and H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1a.

  1. X sits opposite C, who does not sit in Row B.  14. F does not face north.  15. The number of persons sitting between X and H is one less than the number of persons sitting to the right of A.
  2. A does not face south. 17. K does not face E. 

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is Second to the right.

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

There are four people, Kevin, Martin, Oliver, and Patrick, who start travelling from point Q in alphabetical order according to their names. Each person travels once in the given order and then the sequence repeats again in the same alphabetical order.

Example: If four persons, Allen, Bruce, Carter, and David, start travelling from point Z, then

♥5A, ♣7D, ♦4F, ♠6K, ♥3P, ♠8R, ♣2T, ♦9M

Here, Allen travels first, then Bruce, then Carter, and finally David. After one complete cycle, they again move in the same order.

Note 1:

♠ → East

♣ → West

♥ → North

♦ → South

Note 2: Symbol represents direction, digit represents distance travelled, and letter represents the point reached.

Note 3: Instructions are followed from left to right.

Now study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

♠6A, ♥4D, ♣9F, ♦5H

♥7J, ♠3K, ♦6L, ♣8M

♣5N, ♦3P, ♠7R, ♥2S

♦3T, ♣6U, ♥5V, ♠4W

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In which direction is point V with respect to point K?

  1. AOption (a)

    North-east

  2. BOption (b)

    South-west

  3. COption (c)

    North-west

  4. DOption (d)

    East

  5. EOption (e)

    West

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

South-west

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are four people, Kevin, Martin, Oliver, and Patrick, who start travelling from point Q in alphabetical order according to their names. Each person travels once in the given order, and then the sequence repeats again in the same alphabetical order.

Example: If four persons, Allen, Bruce, Carter, and David, start travelling from point Z, then

♥5A, ♣7D, ♦4F, ♠6K, ♥3P, ♠8R, ♣2T, ♦9M

Here, Allen travels first, then Bruce, then Carter, and finally David. After one complete cycle, they again move in the same order.

Note 1: ♠ → East, ♣ → West, ♥ → North, ♦ → South

Note 2: Symbol represents direction, digit represents distance travelled, and letter represents the point reached.

Note 3: Instructions are followed from left to right.

Now study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

♠6A, ♥4D, ♣9F, ♦5H

Kevin travelled 6 units towards East and reached point A, Martin travelled 4 units towards North and reached point D, Oliver travelled 9 units towards West and reached point F, and Patrick travelled 5 units towards South and reached point H.

 

♥7J, ♠3K, ♦6L, ♣8M

Kevin travelled 7 units towards North and reached point J, Martin travelled 3 units towards East and reached point K, Oliver travelled 6 units towards South and reached point L, and Patrick travelled 8 units towards West and reached point M.

♣5N, ♦3P, ♠7R, ♥2S

Kevin travelled 5 units towards West and reached point N, Martin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point P, Oliver travelled 7 units towards East and reached point R, and Patrick travelled 2 units towards North and reached point S.

♦3T, ♣6U, ♥5V, ♠4W

Kevin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point T, Martin travelled 6 units towards West and reached point U, Oliver travelled 5 units towards North and reached point V, and Patrick travelled 4 units towards East and reached point W.

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is South-west.

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the shortest distance between point A and point T?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 

  2. BOption (b)

    10 

  3. COption (c)

    12 

  4. DOption (d)

    √41 

  5. EOption (e)

    6√10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

√41 

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are four people, Kevin, Martin, Oliver, and Patrick, who start travelling from point Q in alphabetical order according to their names. Each person travels once in the given order, and then the sequence repeats again in the same alphabetical order.

Example: If four persons, Allen, Bruce, Carter, and David, start travelling from point Z, then

♥5A, ♣7D, ♦4F, ♠6K, ♥3P, ♠8R, ♣2T, ♦9M

Here, Allen travels first, then Bruce, then Carter, and finally David. After one complete cycle, they again move in the same order.

Note 1: ♠ → East, ♣ → West, ♥ → North, ♦ → South

Note 2: Symbol represents direction, digit represents distance travelled, and letter represents the point reached.

Note 3: Instructions are followed from left to right.

Now study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

♠6A, ♥4D, ♣9F, ♦5H

Kevin travelled 6 units towards East and reached point A, Martin travelled 4 units towards North and reached point D, Oliver travelled 9 units towards West and reached point F, and Patrick travelled 5 units towards South and reached point H.

 

♥7J, ♠3K, ♦6L, ♣8M

Kevin travelled 7 units towards North and reached point J, Martin travelled 3 units towards East and reached point K, Oliver travelled 6 units towards South and reached point L, and Patrick travelled 8 units towards West and reached point M.

♣5N, ♦3P, ♠7R, ♥2S

Kevin travelled 5 units towards West and reached point N, Martin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point P, Oliver travelled 7 units towards East and reached point R, and Patrick travelled 2 units towards North and reached point S.

♦3T, ♣6U, ♥5V, ♠4W

Kevin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point T, Martin travelled 6 units towards West and reached point U, Oliver travelled 5 units towards North and reached point V, and Patrick travelled 4 units towards East and reached point W.

This is our final arrangement,

AT = √(52 + 42) = √(25 + 16) = √41

Hence, the correct answer is √41 units.

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Point M is in which direction with respect to point R?

  1. AOption (a)

    South-east

  2. BOption (b)

    North-west

  3. COption (c)

    East

  4. DOption (d)

    South-west

  5. EOption (e)

    North-east

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

North-west

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are four people, Kevin, Martin, Oliver, and Patrick, who start travelling from point Q in alphabetical order according to their names. Each person travels once in the given order, and then the sequence repeats again in the same alphabetical order.

Example: If four persons, Allen, Bruce, Carter, and David, start travelling from point Z, then

♥5A, ♣7D, ♦4F, ♠6K, ♥3P, ♠8R, ♣2T, ♦9M

Here, Allen travels first, then Bruce, then Carter, and finally David. After one complete cycle, they again move in the same order.

Note 1: ♠ → East, ♣ → West, ♥ → North, ♦ → South

Note 2: Symbol represents direction, digit represents distance travelled, and letter represents the point reached.

Note 3: Instructions are followed from left to right.

Now study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

♠6A, ♥4D, ♣9F, ♦5H

Kevin travelled 6 units towards East and reached point A, Martin travelled 4 units towards North and reached point D, Oliver travelled 9 units towards West and reached point F, and Patrick travelled 5 units towards South and reached point H.

 

♥7J, ♠3K, ♦6L, ♣8M

Kevin travelled 7 units towards North and reached point J, Martin travelled 3 units towards East and reached point K, Oliver travelled 6 units towards South and reached point L, and Patrick travelled 8 units towards West and reached point M.

♣5N, ♦3P, ♠7R, ♥2S

Kevin travelled 5 units towards West and reached point N, Martin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point P, Oliver travelled 7 units towards East and reached point R, and Patrick travelled 2 units towards North and reached point S.

♦3T, ♣6U, ♥5V, ♠4W

Kevin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point T, Martin travelled 6 units towards West and reached point U, Oliver travelled 5 units towards North and reached point V, and Patrick travelled 4 units towards East and reached point W.

This is our final arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is North-west.

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following travelled the maximum total distance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kevin

  2. BOption (b)

    Martin

  3. COption (c)

    Oliver

  4. DOption (d)

    Patrick

  5. EOption (e)

    Both Kevin and Oliver

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Oliver

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are four people, Kevin, Martin, Oliver, and Patrick, who start travelling from point Q in alphabetical order according to their names. Each person travels once in the given order, and then the sequence repeats again in the same alphabetical order.

Example: If four persons, Allen, Bruce, Carter, and David, start travelling from point Z, then

♥5A, ♣7D, ♦4F, ♠6K, ♥3P, ♠8R, ♣2T, ♦9M

Here, Allen travels first, then Bruce, then Carter, and finally David. After one complete cycle, they again move in the same order.

Note 1: ♠ → East, ♣ → West, ♥ → North, ♦ → South

Note 2: Symbol represents direction, digit represents distance travelled, and letter represents the point reached.

Note 3: Instructions are followed from left to right.

Now study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

♠6A, ♥4D, ♣9F, ♦5H

Kevin travelled 6 units towards East and reached point A, Martin travelled 4 units towards North and reached point D, Oliver travelled 9 units towards West and reached point F, and Patrick travelled 5 units towards South and reached point H.

 

♥7J, ♠3K, ♦6L, ♣8M

Kevin travelled 7 units towards North and reached point J, Martin travelled 3 units towards East and reached point K, Oliver travelled 6 units towards South and reached point L, and Patrick travelled 8 units towards West and reached point M.

♣5N, ♦3P, ♠7R, ♥2S

Kevin travelled 5 units towards West and reached point N, Martin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point P, Oliver travelled 7 units towards East and reached point R, and Patrick travelled 2 units towards North and reached point S.

♦3T, ♣6U, ♥5V, ♠4W

Kevin travelled 3 units towards South and reached point T, Martin travelled 6 units towards West and reached point U, Oliver travelled 5 units towards North and reached point V, and Patrick travelled 4 units towards East and reached point W.

This is our final arrangement,

Kevin = 6 + 7 + 5 + 3 = 21 units

Martin = 4 + 3 + 3 + 6 = 16 units

Oliver = 9 + 6 + 7 + 5 = 27 units

Patrick = 5 + 8 + 2 + 4 = 19 units

Hence, the correct answer is Oliver.

Question 10

Seven letters are arranged to form a meaningful word. G is placed immediately to the right of N. Only two letters are placed between B and R; either one of them is at the left end. E is placed immediately to the left of A. I is placed immediately to the right of R. As many letters are there to the left of E as to the right of N. Now, if only one meaningful word is formed, then which letter is fourth from the left end of the newly formed word? If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer, and if more than one such word is formed, mark Y as your answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    X

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    R

  4. DOption (d)

    Y

  5. EOption (e)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

R

Why this answer is correct

Given: Seven letters are arranged to form a meaningful word.

1. Only two letters are placed between B and R; either one of them is at the left end.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

Case 1: B _ _ R _ _ _

Case 2: R _ _ B _ _ _

  1. I is placed immediately to the right of R.

Case 1: B _ _ R I _ _ 

Case 2: R I _ B _ _ _

  1. As many letters are there to the left of E as to the right of N.

Here, we have subcases of Case 1 and Case 2.

Case 1: B E _ R I N _ 

Case 1a: B N _ R I E _ 

Case 2: R I E B N _ _

Case 2a: R I N B E _ _

  1. G is placed immediately to the right of N.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2 and Case 2a.

Case 1: B E _ R I N G

Case 1a: B N G R I E _ 

  1. E is placed immediately to the left of A.

Case 1: B E A R I N G

Case 1a: B N G R I E A 

In case 1a, it's not a meaningful word, so it's eliminated.

Meaningful word: BEARING

The fourth letter from the left end is = R

Hence, the correct answer is R.

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

There are six persons, namely, G, H, I, J, K, and L, designated at six different posts in an organization: Director, Deputy Director, Supervisor, Coordinator, Analyst, and HR Officer. They belong to six different states, Punjab, Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Assam, and Kerala, and like six different games, Chess, Volleyball, Cricket, Tennis, Kabaddi, and Hockey, but not necessarily in the same order.

One person is designated between the persons who like Tennis and Cricket. L is designated three positions junior to the person who belongs to Kerala and immediately senior to the person who likes Tennis. No person is designated between the person who likes Cricket and the person who belongs to Bihar. Two persons are designated between the person who belongs to Bihar and the person who likes Hockey. J is designated immediate junior to the person who likes Hockey and senior to G. The person from Odisha is designated three persons senior to G. I is designated junior to the Deputy Director. Two persons are designated between I and the person who belongs to Karnataka, where I is junior to the person who belongs to Karnataka. K is three positions senior to the person from Assam and does not like Volleyball. H is designated junior to the person from Karnataka and immediate senior to the person who likes Kabaddi.

Question 11

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following is designated as Supervisor?

  1. AOption (a)

    K

  2. BOption (b)

    H

  3. COption (c)

    G

  4. DOption (d)

    J

  5. EOption (e)

    L

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

J

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are six persons, namely, G, H, I, J, K, and L, designated at six different posts in an organization: Director, Deputy Director, Supervisor, Coordinator, Analyst, and HR Officer. They belong to six different states, Punjab, Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Assam, and Kerala, and like six different games, Chess, Volleyball, Cricket, Tennis, Kabaddi, and Hockey, but not necessarily in the same order.

  1. L is designated three positions junior to the person who belongs to Kerala and immediately senior to the person who likes Tennis.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorKerala
Supervisor
CoordinatorL
AnalystTennisL
HR OfficerTennis

 

2. One person is designated between the persons who like Tennis and Cricket.  3. No person is designated between the person who likes Cricket and the person who belongs to Bihar.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorBihar/Kerala
SupervisorCricketBihar/
CoordinatorLBihar/Cricket
AnalystTennisLBihar/
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. Two persons are designated between the person who belongs to Bihar and the person who likes Hockey.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricket
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. J is designated immediate junior to the person who likes Hockey and senior to G. 6. The person from Odisha is designated three persons senior to G.

Here, we have 2 subcases of Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorJKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricketJ
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

7. I is designated junior to the Deputy Director. 8. Two persons are designated between I and the person who belongs to Karnataka, where I is junior to the person who belongs to Karnataka.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharICricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIITennis

 

  1. K is three positions senior to the person from Assam and does not like Volleyball.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharIAssamCricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGAssaGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGAssamCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIAssamITennis

 

  1. H is designated junior to the person from Karnataka and immediate senior to the person who likes Kabaddi.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1, Case 1a, and Case 2a. (Also from point 9)

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGTennis

 

This is our final arrangement,

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnatakaChess
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGPunjabTennis

 

Hence, the correct answer is J.

Question 12

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The person who likes Tennis belongs to which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam

  5. EOption (e)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Punjab

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are six persons, namely, G, H, I, J, K, and L, designated at six different posts in an organization: Director, Deputy Director, Supervisor, Coordinator, Analyst, and HR Officer. They belong to six different states, Punjab, Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Assam, and Kerala, and like six different games, Chess, Volleyball, Cricket, Tennis, Kabaddi, and Hockey, but not necessarily in the same order.

  1. L is designated three positions junior to the person who belongs to Kerala and immediately senior to the person who likes Tennis.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorKerala
Supervisor
CoordinatorL
AnalystTennisL
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. One person is designated between the persons who like Tennis and Cricket. 
  2. No person is designated between the person who likes Cricket and the person who belongs to Bihar.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorBihar/Kerala
SupervisorCricketBihar/
CoordinatorLBihar/Cricket
AnalystTennisLBihar/
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. Two persons are designated between the person who belongs to Bihar and the person who likes Hockey.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricket
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. J is designated immediate junior to the person who likes Hockey and senior to G.
  2. The person from Odisha is designated three persons senior to G.

Here, we have 2 subcases of Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorJKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricketJ
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. I is designated junior to the Deputy Director.
  2. Two persons are designated between I and the person who belongs to Karnataka, where I is junior to the person who belongs to Karnataka.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharICricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIITennis

 

  1. K is three positions senior to the person from Assam and does not like Volleyball.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharIAssamCricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGAssaGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGAssamCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIAssamITennis

 

  1. H is designated junior to the person from Karnataka and immediate senior to the person who likes Kabaddi.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1, Case 1a, and Case 2a. (Also from point 9)

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGTennis

 

This is our final arrangement,

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnatakaChess
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGPunjabTennis

 

Hence, the correct answer is Punjab.

Question 13

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who likes Volleyball and is designated at which position?

  1. AOption (a)

    The person from Kerala - Coordinator

  2. BOption (b)

    The person from Assam - Coordinator

  3. COption (c)

    The person from Bihar - Analyst

  4. DOption (d)

    The person from Odisha - Supervisor

  5. EOption (e)

    G - HR Officer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The person from Bihar - Analyst

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are six persons, namely, G, H, I, J, K, and L, designated at six different posts in an organization: Director, Deputy Director, Supervisor, Coordinator, Analyst, and HR Officer. They belong to six different states, Punjab, Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Assam, and Kerala, and like six different games, Chess, Volleyball, Cricket, Tennis, Kabaddi, and Hockey, but not necessarily in the same order.

  1. L is designated three positions junior to the person who belongs to Kerala and immediately senior to the person who likes Tennis.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorKerala
Supervisor
CoordinatorL
AnalystTennisL
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. One person is designated between the persons who like Tennis and Cricket. 
  2. No person is designated between the person who likes Cricket and the person who belongs to Bihar.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorBihar/Kerala
SupervisorCricketBihar/
CoordinatorLBihar/Cricket
AnalystTennisLBihar/
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. Two persons are designated between the person who belongs to Bihar and the person who likes Hockey.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricket
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. J is designated immediate junior to the person who likes Hockey and senior to G.
  2. The person from Odisha is designated three persons senior to G.

Here, we have 2 subcases of Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorJKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricketJ
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. I is designated junior to the Deputy Director.
  2. Two persons are designated between I and the person who belongs to Karnataka, where I is junior to the person who belongs to Karnataka.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharICricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIITennis

 

  1. K is three positions senior to the person from Assam and does not like Volleyball.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharIAssamCricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGAssaGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGAssamCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIAssamITennis

 

  1. H is designated junior to the person from Karnataka and immediate senior to the person who likes Kabaddi.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1, Case 1a, and Case 2a. (Also from point 9)

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGTennis

 

This is our final arrangement,

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnatakaChess
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGPunjabTennis

 

Hence, the correct answer is The person from Bihar - Analyst.

Question 14

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following combinations is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    G - Supervisor - Volleyball

  2. BOption (b)

    K - Director - Hockey

  3. COption (c)

    H - Deputy Director - Hockey

  4. DOption (d)

    J - Analyst - Cricket

  5. EOption (e)

    L - Analyst - Tennis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

H - Deputy Director - Hockey

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are six persons, namely, G, H, I, J, K, and L, designated at six different posts in an organization: Director, Deputy Director, Supervisor, Coordinator, Analyst, and HR Officer. They belong to six different states, Punjab, Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Assam, and Kerala, and like six different games, Chess, Volleyball, Cricket, Tennis, Kabaddi, and Hockey, but not necessarily in the same order.

  1. L is designated three positions junior to the person who belongs to Kerala and immediately senior to the person who likes Tennis.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorKerala
Supervisor
CoordinatorL
AnalystTennisL
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. One person is designated between the persons who like Tennis and Cricket. 
  2. No person is designated between the person who likes Cricket and the person who belongs to Bihar.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorBihar/Kerala
SupervisorCricketBihar/
CoordinatorLBihar/Cricket
AnalystTennisLBihar/
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. Two persons are designated between the person who belongs to Bihar and the person who likes Hockey.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricket
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. J is designated immediate junior to the person who likes Hockey and senior to G.
  2. The person from Odisha is designated three persons senior to G.

Here, we have 2 subcases of Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorJKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricketJ
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. I is designated junior to the Deputy Director.
  2. Two persons are designated between I and the person who belongs to Karnataka, where I is junior to the person who belongs to Karnataka.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharICricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIITennis

 

  1. K is three positions senior to the person from Assam and does not like Volleyball.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharIAssamCricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGAssaGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGAssamCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIAssamITennis

 

  1. H is designated junior to the person from Karnataka and immediate senior to the person who likes Kabaddi.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1, Case 1a, and Case 2a. (Also from point 9)

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGTennis

 

This is our final arrangement,

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnatakaChess
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGPunjabTennis

 

Hence, the correct answer is H - Deputy Director - Hockey.

Question 15

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons are designated between the person who likes Kabaddi and the person who belongs to Assam?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Two

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

  5. EOption (e)

    More than three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

None

Why this answer is correct

Given: There are six persons, namely, G, H, I, J, K, and L, designated at six different posts in an organization: Director, Deputy Director, Supervisor, Coordinator, Analyst, and HR Officer. They belong to six different states, Punjab, Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Assam, and Kerala, and like six different games, Chess, Volleyball, Cricket, Tennis, Kabaddi, and Hockey, but not necessarily in the same order.

  1. L is designated three positions junior to the person who belongs to Kerala and immediately senior to the person who likes Tennis.

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorKerala
Supervisor
CoordinatorL
AnalystTennisL
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. One person is designated between the persons who like Tennis and Cricket. 
  2. No person is designated between the person who likes Cricket and the person who belongs to Bihar.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKerala
Deputy DirectorBihar/Kerala
SupervisorCricketBihar/
CoordinatorLBihar/Cricket
AnalystTennisLBihar/
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. Two persons are designated between the person who belongs to Bihar and the person who likes Hockey.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricket
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. J is designated immediate junior to the person who likes Hockey and senior to G.
  2. The person from Odisha is designated three persons senior to G.

Here, we have 2 subcases of Case 1 and Case 2.

DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockey
Deputy DirectorJKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharCricket
AnalystTennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorCricketJ
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerTennis

 

  1. I is designated junior to the Deputy Director.
  2. Two persons are designated between I and the person who belongs to Karnataka, where I is junior to the person who belongs to Karnataka.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharICricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIITennis

 

  1. K is three positions senior to the person from Assam and does not like Volleyball.
DesignationsCase 1Case 2
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorJKarnatakaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKOdishaCricketJOdisha
CoordinatorLBiharIAssamCricket
AnalystITennisLBihar
HR OfficerGAssaGTennis

 

DesignationsCase 1aCase 2a
PersonsStatesGamesPersonsStatesGames
DirectorKeralaHockeyKOdisha
Deputy DirectorJOdishaKeralaHockey
SupervisorKKarnatakaCricketJKarnataka
CoordinatorLBiharGAssamCricket
AnalystGTennisLBihar
HR OfficerIAssamITennis

 

  1. H is designated junior to the person from Karnataka and immediate senior to the person who likes Kabaddi.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1, Case 1a, and Case 2a. (Also from point 9)

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnataka
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGTennis

 

This is our final arrangement,

DesignationsCase 2
PersonsStatesGames
DirectorKKarnatakaChess
Deputy DirectorHKeralaHockey
SupervisorJOdishaKabaddi
CoordinatorIAssamCricket
AnalystLBiharVolleyball
HR OfficerGPunjabTennis

 

Hence, the correct answer is None.

Directions: Read the information and answer the given questions.

Eight persons, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are seated around a circular table. Some of them face the centre while the remaining face outside. A and E face opposite directions. F sits third to the left of H. D sits second to the left of B. H is not an immediate neighbour of A. G sits immediately right of D. B sits third to the left of A. B does not face inside. C is an immediate neighbour of E. C and E are not immediate neighbours of B, while C is not an immediate neighbour of H. C and G face the same direction, but are not immediate neighbours. 

After some time, they sit in a straight line such that the persons who faced inside in the circular arrangement now face north, and the remaining face south. Two people sit between B and D. E sits third from the left end of the row. B sits third to the right of G but doesn't sit at the end. G is an immediate neighbour of E. C is not an immediate neighbour of B and G. 

Note I: The person sitting at the extreme left end faces north and is not a vowel.

Note II: Not more than two persons face the same direction consecutively.

Note III: Immediate neighbours of C face the same directions.

Question 16

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the position of the person who sits immediate right of H in the circular seating arrangement with respect to D in the linear seating arrangement?

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Third to the left

  2. BOption (b)

    Fourth to the right

  3. COption (c)

    Fifth to the left

  4. DOption (d)

    Third to the right

  5. EOption (e)

    Second to the right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Third to the right

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are seated around a circular table. Some of them face the centre while the remaining face outside.

  1. G sits immediately right of D.
  2. D sits second to the right of B. 
  3. B does not face inside. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. B sits third to the left of A.
  2. C is an immediate neighbour of E.

6. F sits third to the left of H.  7. H is not an immediate neighbour of A. 

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C and E are not immediate neighbors of B, while C is not an immediate neighbor of H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

  1. A and E face opposite directions. 

From note II: Not more than two persons face the same direction consecutively.

  1. C and G face the same direction, but are not immediate neighbours. 

From note III: Immediate neighbours of C face the same directions.

This is our circular arrangement,

After some time, they sit in a straight line such that the persons who faced inside in the circular arrangement now face north, and the remaining face south.

  1. E sits third from the left end of the row. 

  2. G is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. B sits third to the right of G but doesn't sit at the end. 

  4. Two people sit between B and D.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C is not an immediate neighbour of B and G. 

From notes I, II, and III,

This is our final linear arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is Third to the right.

Question 17

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons sit between E and F in the linear seating arrangement?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Two

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

  5. EOption (e)

    More than three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are seated around a circular table. Some of them face the centre while the remaining face outside.

  1. G sits immediately right of D.
  2. D sits second to the right of B. 
  3. B does not face inside. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. B sits third to the left of A.

  2. C is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. F sits third to the left of H. 

  4. H is not an immediate neighbour of A. 

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C and E are not immediate neighbors of B, while C is not an immediate neighbor of H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

  1. A and E face opposite directions. 

From note II: Not more than two persons face the same direction consecutively.

  1. C and G face the same direction, but are not immediate neighbours. 

From note III: Immediate neighbours of C face the same directions.

This is our circular arrangement,

After some time, they sit in a straight line such that the persons who faced inside in the circular arrangement now face north, and the remaining face south.

  1. E sits third from the left end of the row. 

  2. G is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. B sits third to the right of G but doesn't sit at the end. 

  4. Two people sit between B and D.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C is not an immediate neighbour of B and G. 

From notes I, II, and III,

This is our final linear arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is Two.

Question 18

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The person who sits opposite to B in the circular seating arrangement sits immediate left of _____ in the linear seating arrangement.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    G

  4. DOption (d)

    H

  5. EOption (e)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

C

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are seated around a circular table. Some of them face the centre while the remaining face outside.

  1. G sits immediately right of D.
  2. D sits second to the right of B. 
  3. B does not face inside. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. B sits third to the left of A.

  2. C is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. F sits third to the left of H. 

  4. H is not an immediate neighbour of A. 

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C and E are not immediate neighbors of B, while C is not an immediate neighbor of H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

  1. A and E face opposite directions. 

From note II: Not more than two persons face the same direction consecutively.

  1. C and G face the same direction, but are not immediate neighbours. 

From note III: Immediate neighbours of C face the same directions.

This is our circular arrangement,

After some time, they sit in a straight line such that the persons who faced inside in the circular arrangement now face north, and the remaining face south.

  1. E sits third from the left end of the row. 

  2. G is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. B sits third to the right of G but doesn't sit at the end. 

  4. Two people sit between B and D.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C is not an immediate neighbour of B and G. 

From notes I, II, and III,

This is our final linear arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is C.

Question 19

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The number of persons sitting between A and G (when counted from the right of A) in the circular seating arrangement is one more than the number of persons sitting between _____ and _____ in the linear seating arrangement.

  1. AOption (a)

    B, E

  2. BOption (b)

    D, H

  3. COption (c)

    F, C

  4. DOption (d)

    G, C

  5. EOption (e)

    E, H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

G, C

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are seated around a circular table. Some of them face the centre while the remaining face outside.

  1. G sits immediately right of D.
  2. D sits second to the right of B. 
  3. B does not face inside. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. B sits third to the left of A.

  2. C is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. F sits third to the left of H. 

  4. H is not an immediate neighbour of A. 

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C and E are not immediate neighbors of B, while C is not an immediate neighbor of H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

  1. A and E face opposite directions. 

From note II: Not more than two persons face the same direction consecutively.

  1. C and G face the same direction, but are not immediate neighbours. 

From note III: Immediate neighbours of C face the same directions.

This is our circular arrangement,

After some time, they sit in a straight line such that the persons who faced inside in the circular arrangement now face north, and the remaining face south.

  1. E sits third from the left end of the row. 

  2. G is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. B sits third to the right of G but doesn't sit at the end. 

  4. Two people sit between B and D.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C is not an immediate neighbour of B and G. 

From notes I, II, and III,

This is our final linear arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is G, C.

Question 20

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    H faces south in the linear seating arrangement.

  2. BOption (b)

    Three persons sit between C and E in the circular seating arrangement when counted from the left of C.

  3. COption (c)

    A faces outside in the circular seating arrangement.

  4. DOption (d)

    B is not an immediate neighbour of F in the linear seating arrangement.

  5. EOption (e)

    One person sits between F and D in the linear seating arrangement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

One person sits between F and D in the linear seating arrangement.

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight persons, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, are seated around a circular table. Some of them face the centre while the remaining face outside.

  1. G sits immediately right of D.
  2. D sits second to the right of B. 
  3. B does not face inside. 

Here, we have 2 Cases, i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.

  1. B sits third to the left of A.

  2. C is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. F sits third to the left of H. 

  4. H is not an immediate neighbour of A. 

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C and E are not immediate neighbors of B, while C is not an immediate neighbor of H.

Now, we can eliminate Case 1.

  1. A and E face opposite directions. 

From note II: Not more than two persons face the same direction consecutively.

  1. C and G face the same direction, but are not immediate neighbours. 

From note III: Immediate neighbours of C face the same directions.

This is our circular arrangement,

After some time, they sit in a straight line such that the persons who faced inside in the circular arrangement now face north, and the remaining face south.

  1. E sits third from the left end of the row. 

  2. G is an immediate neighbour of E.

  3. B sits third to the right of G but doesn't sit at the end. 

  4. Two people sit between B and D.

Now, we can eliminate Case 2.

  1. C is not an immediate neighbour of B and G. 

From notes I, II, and III,

This is our final linear arrangement,

Hence, the correct answer is One person sits between F and D in the linear seating arrangement.

Directions: A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Input: glow 48 mint 27 brave 13 spark 65 train 54

Step I: barve glow 48 mint 27 spark 65 train 54 3

Step II: golw barve 48 mint spark 65 train 54 3 14

Step III: mnit golw barve spark 65 train 54 3 14 32

Step IV: tarin mnit golw barve spark 65 3 14 32 20

Step V: saprk tarin mnit golw barve 3 14 32 20 30

And Step V is the final step of the arrangement.

Now solve the following based on the given input:

Input: stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 clamp 15

Question 21

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which element is second to the left of the fourth element from the right end in Step I?

  1. AOption (a)

    36

  2. BOption (b)

    quick

  3. COption (c)

    drift

  4. DOption (d)

    47

  5. EOption (e)

    clamp

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

47

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Words: Words are picked in dictionary order in each step and are placed at the extreme left end after interchanging the position of the second and third letters of the words.

Numbers: Numbers are picked in ascending order in each step and are placed at the extreme right end after multiplying both the digits of the number. 

Input: stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 clamp 15

Step I: calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 5

Step II: dirft calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 64 5 16

Step III: pnael dirft calmp stone quick 47 64 5 16 18

Step IV: qiuck pnael dirft calmp stone 64 5 16 18 28

Step V: sotne qiuck pnael dirft calmp 5 16 18 28 24

This is our final step.

Hence, the correct answer is 47.

Question 22

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In which step does the combination “5 16 18” appear?

  1. AOption (a)

    Step I

  2. BOption (b)

    Step II

  3. COption (c)

    Step III

  4. DOption (d)

    Step IV

  5. EOption (e)

    Step V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Step III

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Words: Words are picked in dictionary order in each step and are placed at the extreme left end after interchanging the position of the second and third letters of the words.

Numbers: Numbers are picked in ascending order in each step and are placed at the extreme right end after multiplying both the digits of the number. 

Input: stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 clamp 15

Step I: calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 5

Step II: dirft calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 64 5 16

Step III: pnael dirft calmp stone quick 47 64 5 16 18

Step IV: qiuck pnael dirft calmp stone 64 5 16 18 28

Step V: sotne qiuck pnael dirft calmp 5 16 18 28 24

This is our final step.

Hence, the correct answer is Step III.

Question 23

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the sum of all the numbers which are multiples of 4 in Step V?

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    52

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    68

  5. EOption (e)

    72

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

68

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Words: Words are picked in dictionary order in each step and are placed at the extreme left end after interchanging the position of the second and third letters of the words.

Numbers: Numbers are picked in ascending order in each step and are placed at the extreme right end after multiplying both the digits of the number. 

Input: stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 clamp 15

Step I: calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 5

Step II: dirft calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 64 5 16

Step III: pnael dirft calmp stone quick 47 64 5 16 18

Step IV: qiuck pnael dirft calmp stone 64 5 16 18 28

Step V: sotne qiuck pnael dirft calmp 5 16 18 28 24

This is our final step.

Sum = 16 + 28 + 24 = 68

Hence, the correct answer is 68.

Question 24

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which combination of words and numbers is present in Step IV?

  1. AOption (a)

    qciuk sotne 12

  2. BOption (b)

    drfit qciuk cpalm

  3. COption (c)

    stone 64 5

  4. DOption (d)

    cpalm drfit qciuk

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

stone 64 5

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Words: Words are picked in dictionary order in each step and are placed at the extreme left end after interchanging the position of the second and third letters of the words.

Numbers: Numbers are picked in ascending order in each step and are placed at the extreme right end after multiplying both the digits of the number. 

Input: stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 clamp 15

Step I: calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 5

Step II: dirft calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 64 5 16

Step III: pnael dirft calmp stone quick 47 64 5 16 18

Step IV: qiuck pnael dirft calmp stone 64 5 16 18 28

Step V: sotne qiuck pnael dirft calmp 5 16 18 28 24

This is our final step.

Hence, the correct answer is stone 64 5.

Question 25

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which element is not present in Step II?

  1. AOption (a)

    stone

  2. BOption (b)

    drift

  3. COption (c)

    47

  4. DOption (d)

    panel

  5. EOption (e)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

drift

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Words: Words are picked in dictionary order in each step and are placed at the extreme left end after interchanging the position of the second and third letters of the words.

Numbers: Numbers are picked in ascending order in each step and are placed at the extreme right end after multiplying both the digits of the number. 

Input: stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 clamp 15

Step I: calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 28 drift 64 5

Step II: dirft calmp stone 36 quick 47 panel 64 5 16

Step III: pnael dirft calmp stone quick 47 64 5 16 18

Step IV: qiuck pnael dirft calmp stone 64 5 16 18 28

Step V: sotne qiuck pnael dirft calmp 5 16 18 28 24

This is our final step.

Hence, the correct answer is drift.

Question 26

In the number ‘5937482615’, if all the even digits are increased by 1 and all the odd digits are decreased by 1, then arrange the 1st, 3rd, 5th, and 7th digits in descending order from left to right and the remaining digits in ascending order after them. Now, find the sum of the second even digit from the left end and the third odd digit from the right end in the new number formed.

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    15

  5. EOption (e)

    17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given number: 5937482615

Number5937482615
Even+1/Odd-14826593704
After arranging5432046789

 

Sum = 2 + 3 = 5

Hence, the correct answer is 5.

Question 27

Directions

Each question below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

In which direction is point P with respect to point Z?

Statement I: Point Y is to the east of Z. Point X is 10m north of Y. Point P is 4m west of X.

Statement II: Point Z is to the west of X. Point Z is 5m south of W. Point X is 7m north of B. Point B is east of P.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in both statements I and II together are sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement I alone are sufficient

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient

  5. EOption (e)

    Data in either statement I or II alone are sufficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: Point Y is to the east of Z. Point X is 10m north of Y. Point P is 4m west of X.

We don't know the distance between Y and Z, so we can't decide whether point P is in the north-east or the north-west with respect to point Z.

Statement II: Point Z is to the west of X. Point Z is 5m south of W. Point X is 7m north of B. Point B is east of P.

We don't know the distance between X and Z, and B and P, so we can't decide whether point P is in the south-east or the south-west with respect to point Z.

Hence, the correct answer is Data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient.

Question 28

Directions

Each question below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Six books, A, B, C, D, E, and F, are placed one above another. What is the position of book D from the top?

Statement I: Two books are placed between D and F. As many books are above D as below C. C is adjacent to B. A is placed above E.

Statement II: Only two books are placed below A. One book is placed between C and A. The number of books above C is the same as the number of books below F. E is placed below B but above D. D is not placed at the bottommost position.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in both statements I and II together are sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement I alone are sufficient

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in both statements together are not sufficient

  5. EOption (e)

    Data in either statement I or II alone are sufficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Data in statement II alone are sufficient

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: Two books are placed between D and F. As many books are above D as below C. C is adjacent to B. A is placed above E.

Here, we have 4 Cases, i.e., Case 1, Case 2, Case 3, and Case 4.

Books
Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4
DFAC
ABEB
ECDF
FDCA
BABE
CEFD

 

Statement II: Only two books are placed below A. One book is placed between C and A. The number of books above C is the same as the number of books below F. E is placed below B but above D. D is not placed at the bottommost position.

Books
F
B
E
A
D
C

 

So, Book D is 5th from the top.

Hence, the correct answer is Data in statement II alone are sufficient.

Question 29

Directions

Each question below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Seven persons, namely, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V, sit in a row facing north. What is the position of T with respect to R?

Statement I: Q sits second to the left of R. P sits to the right of Q. V sits at the extreme left end. Q sits third to the right of V.

Statement II: T is an immediate neighbour of Q. S sits to the left of T. P is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sit at any extreme end.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in both statements I and II together are sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statement I alone are sufficient

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statement II alone are sufficient

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in both statements together are not sufficient

  5. EOption (e)

    Data in either statement I or II alone are sufficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Data in both statements I and II together are sufficient

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: Q sits second to the left of R. P sits to the right of Q. V sits at the extreme left end. Q sits third to the right of V.

Statement II: T is an immediate neighbour of Q. S sits to the left of T. P is not an immediate neighbour of S and does not sit at any extreme end.

From I and II,

So, T sits third to the left of R.

Hence, the correct answer is Data in both statements I and II together are sufficient.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

"garden tiger window pencils” is coded as “&4 %3 &4 #4” 

“apple sale mirror blanket” is coded as “%2 @2 &2 #5”

“animal forests fine chair” is coded as “&3 #4 @2 %3”

“rocket umbrella engines land” is coded as “&4 4 #4 @3”

Question 30

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the code for “elephant”?

  1. AOption (a)

    55

  2. BOption (b)

    %5

  3. COption (c)

    @5

  4. DOption (d)

    #6

  5. EOption (e)

    %4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

55

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Digits: Total number of distinct consonants (repeated consonants counted only once) is taken.

Symbols: If the number of letters present in the word is coded as symbols.

8 then it is coded as $

7 then it is coded as #

6 then it is coded as &

5 then it is coded as %

4 then it is coded as @

The code for "Elephant" is "$5".

Hence, the correct answer is $5.$

Question 31

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following pair is correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Forest - %4

  2. BOption (b)

    Engine - %3

  3. COption (c)

    Window - @4

  4. DOption (d)

    Rockets - #5

  5. EOption (e)

    More than one option is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rockets - #5

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Digits: Total number of distinct consonants (repeated consonants counted only once) is taken.

Symbols: If the number of letters present in the word is coded as symbols.

8 then it is coded as $

7 then it is coded as #

6 then it is coded as &

5 then it is coded as %

4 then it is coded as @

The code for "Forest" is "&4".

The code for "Engine" is "&2".

The code for "Window" is "&3".

The code for "Rockets" is "#5".

Hence, the correct answer is Rockets - #5.$

Question 32

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the code for “airport banana”?

  1. AOption (a)

    &4 @3

  2. BOption (b)

    %4 &3

  3. COption (c)

    &3 @3

  4. DOption (d)

    %4 #3

  5. EOption (e)

    #3 &2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

#3 &2

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Digits: Total number of distinct consonants (repeated consonants counted only once) is taken.

Symbols: If the number of letters present in the word is coded as symbols.

8 then it is coded as $

7 then it is coded as #

6 then it is coded as &

5 then it is coded as %

4 then it is coded as @

The code for "Airport Banana" is "#3 &2".

Hence, the correct answer is #3 &2.$

Question 33

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the code for “capture”?

  1. AOption (a)

    @5

  2. BOption (b)

    &4

  3. COption (c)

    %4

  4. DOption (d)

    #4

  5. EOption (e)

    @4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

#4

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

Digits: Total number of distinct consonants (repeated consonants counted only once) is taken.

Symbols: If the number of letters present in the word is coded as symbols.

8 then it is coded as $

7 then it is coded as #

6 then it is coded as &

5 then it is coded as %

4 then it is coded as @

The code for "Capture" is "#4".

Hence, the correct answer is #4.$

Question 34

Directions

Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Statement: Traffic congestion in major urban centres has become a growing concern due to increasing population density, rising vehicle ownership, and long commuting hours for employees travelling to offices daily. In response to these challenges, several multinational corporations and private organizations have introduced hybrid work policies, flexible office timings, and remote working arrangements for selected departments. According to company representatives, these measures have helped reduce employee stress, improve work-life balance, and decrease delays caused by peak-hour traffic congestion. Environmental experts have additionally argued that reduced daily commuting may contribute to lower fuel consumption and decreased urban pollution levels over time.

Courses of Action:

I. Hybrid and flexible work arrangements can help reduce commuting-related stress and travel time for employees.

II. Organizations should continue exploring alternative work models to improve operational efficiency and employee well-being.

III. All companies should permanently eliminate physical office work irrespective of operational requirements.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II and III follow

  5. EOption (e)

    All follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

Statement: Traffic congestion in major cities has increased because of a growing population, more vehicles, and long office commutes. To address these issues, many companies introduced hybrid work policies, flexible timings, and remote work arrangements. According to organizations, these measures reduced employee stress, improved work-life balance, and minimized delays caused by traffic. Environmental experts also believe that fewer daily commutes may help reduce fuel consumption and pollution in cities.

Courses of Action:

I. Hybrid and flexible work arrangements can help reduce commuting-related stress and travel time for employees. - Follows (The statement directly mentions that these arrangements reduced employee stress and delays caused by traffic congestion.)

II. Organizations should continue exploring alternative work models to improve operational efficiency and employee well-being. - Follows (Since the implemented measures showed positive outcomes for employees and traffic-related issues, continuing to explore such models is a reasonable course of action.)

III. All companies should permanently eliminate physical office work irrespective of operational requirements. - Doesn't follow (The statement only supports hybrid and flexible work arrangements, not the complete removal of physical office work for every company.)

Hence, the correct answer is Only I and II follow.

Question 35

Directions

Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Statement: In recent years, several metropolitan cities have witnessed a rapid increase in the number of late-night cultural festivals, music concerts, food exhibitions, and public entertainment events. Simultaneously, many restaurants, cafés, and food delivery services operating in these cities have started extending their operational hours beyond midnight to cater to growing customer demand. Business analysts observed that such establishments experienced higher weekend revenues and increased customer footfall during major city events. Urban planners also noted that changing lifestyle patterns and expanding nightlife culture have significantly influenced the functioning of service industries in urban regions.

Which of the following best explains the situation described above?

  1. AOption (a)

    Restaurants and cafes were facing severe financial losses during daytime operations.

  2. BOption (b)

    Government authorities made it compulsory for all restaurants to remain open till midnight.

  3. COption (c)

    Increased nightlife activities and public events have created greater demand for food and hospitality services during late hours.

  4. DOption (d)

    Restaurants planned to permanently stop operating during morning and afternoon hours.

  5. EOption (e)

    Urban residents had completely shifted from home-cooked meals to restaurant food.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increased nightlife activities and public events have created greater demand for food and hospitality services during late hours.

Why this answer is correct

Statement: Many metropolitan cities have recently seen a rise in late-night cultural events, concerts, food exhibitions, and entertainment programs. To meet the growing demand from people attending these events, restaurants, cafés, and food delivery services started operating beyond midnight. Analysts noticed that these businesses earned higher revenues and attracted more customers during major events. Urban planners also stated that changing lifestyles and the growing nightlife culture are influencing service industries in cities.

Options:

  1. Restaurants and cafés were facing severe financial losses during daytime operations. - Doesn't follow (The statement does not mention any daytime financial losses.)
  2. Government authorities made it compulsory for all restaurants to remain open till midnight. - Doesn't follow (No such government rule is mentioned in the statement.)
  3. Increased nightlife activities and public events have created greater demand for food and hospitality services during late hours. - Follows (The statement clearly mentions that late-night events and changing nightlife culture increased customer demand and business revenues.)
  4. Restaurants planned to permanently stop operating during morning and afternoon hours. - Doesn't follow (The passage only talks about extending operational hours, not stopping daytime operations.)
  5. Urban residents had completely shifted from home-cooked meals to restaurant food. - Doesn't follow (The statement does not make any such extreme claim.)

Hence, the correct answer is Increased nightlife activities and public events have created greater demand for food and hospitality services during late hours.

Question 36

Directions

Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Statement: A corporate organization specializing in information technology and consulting services planned a large-scale employee wellness campaign aimed at promoting healthier work habits and reducing workplace stress. The company announced free registration for yoga workshops, mental health counseling sessions, and fitness awareness seminars for all employees. Despite extensive planning, the number of registrations remained comparatively low during the first two weeks of enrollment. Subsequently, the Human Resources department extended the registration deadline, circulated reminder emails, and encouraged team leaders to personally motivate employees to participate in the campaign. Following these efforts, registration numbers increased considerably across different departments.

Which of the following assumptions most reasonably explains the HR department’s actions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Employees generally avoid all wellness-related activities conducted by organizations.

  2. BOption (b)

    Reminder communication and additional enrollment time may encourage greater employee participation.

  3. COption (c)

    Employees were dissatisfied with the salaries provided by the organization.

  4. DOption (d)

    Team leaders were unwilling to cooperate with the Human Resources department.

  5. EOption (e)

    The company intended to replace physical wellness workshops with online sessions permanently.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Reminder communication and additional enrollment time may encourage greater employee participation.

Why this answer is correct

Statement: An IT and consulting company launched an employee wellness campaign that included yoga workshops, mental health counseling, and fitness awareness seminars. Initially, employee registrations for the campaign were low despite proper planning. To improve participation, the HR department extended the registration deadline, sent reminder emails, and asked team leaders to encourage employees personally. After these steps, registrations increased significantly across departments.

Options:

  1. Employees generally avoid all wellness-related activities conducted by organizations. - Doesn't follow (The statement only mentions low participation initially, not that employees always avoid such activities.)
  2. Reminder communication and additional enrollment time may encourage greater employee participation. - Follows (The HR department extended the deadline and sent reminders, after which registrations increased considerably. This directly supports the assumption.)
  3. Employees were dissatisfied with the salaries provided by the organization. - Doesn't follow (No information regarding salaries or dissatisfaction is mentioned.)
  4. Team leaders were unwilling to cooperate with the Human Resources department. - Doesn't follow (The statement says team leaders were encouraged to motivate employees; it does not indicate unwillingness.)
  5. The company intended to replace physical wellness workshops with online sessions permanently. - Doesn't follow (The statement contains no such information.)

Hence, the correct answer is Reminder communication and additional enrollment time may encourage greater employee participation.

Question 37

Directions

Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Statement: A reputed bookstore chain organized a week-long competitive examination book fair across several cities, offering substantial discounts on entrance preparation materials, previous-year papers, and practice test series. Due to unexpectedly high customer demand during the initial days of the event, many branches quickly exhausted their stock of popular titles, resulting in long waiting queues and repeated customer requests for restocking. Observing the overwhelming response, the management announced an extension of the fair for an additional four days and arranged emergency stock transfers from nearby warehouses to selected outlets.

What is the most probable reason behind the management’s decision to extend the fair?

  1. AOption (a)

    The bookstore chain intended to permanently reduce the prices of all examination books.

  2. BOption (b)

    A large number of customers could not purchase desired materials because several books went out of stock early.

  3. COption (c)

    The company planned to close multiple outlets after the completion of the fair.

  4. DOption (d)

    Customer response during the initial days of the event was significantly lower than expected.

  5. EOption (e)

    The management wanted to test a new billing system before the next financial quarter.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A large number of customers could not purchase desired materials because several books went out of stock early.

Why this answer is correct

Statements: A well-known bookstore chain organized a special book fair for competitive examination materials in multiple cities. The fair offered heavy discounts on preparation books, practice papers, and test series. Due to very high customer demand, many popular books became unavailable quickly, leading to long queues and repeated requests for restocking. Seeing this strong response, the management decided to extend the fair for four more days and transferred additional stock from warehouses to various branches.

Options:

  1. The bookstore chain intended to permanently reduce the prices of all examination books. - Doesn't follow (The statement only mentions discounts during the fair, not a permanent price reduction.)
  2. A large number of customers could not purchase desired materials because several books went out of stock early. - **Follows (**The passage clearly states that popular titles were exhausted quickly and customers repeatedly requested restocking. Extending the fair would help meet customer demand.)
  3. The company planned to close multiple outlets after the completion of the fair. - Doesn't follow (No such information is mentioned in the statement.)
  4. Customer response during the initial days of the event was significantly lower than expected. - Doesn't follow (The statement says the demand was unexpectedly high, not low.)
  5. The management wanted to test a new billing system before the next financial quarter. - Doesn't follow (The statement contains no information about any billing system.)

Hence, the correct answer is A large number of customers could not purchase desired materials because several books went out of stock early.

Question 38

Directions

Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Statement: In a rapidly developing residential township, residents frequently complained about delays in receiving important notices regarding water supply interruptions, electricity maintenance schedules, visitor regulations, and emergency announcements. In response, the managing committee introduced a centralized mobile communication group through which verified updates, digital circulars, and maintenance alerts could be shared instantly with all residents. After a few weeks, several residents reported reduced confusion regarding maintenance timings and improved coordination during emergency situations. However, a section of residents expressed concerns that excessive notifications might disturb personal routines and reduce participation in physical community meetings.

Courses of Action:

I. A centralized communication platform can improve the speed and clarity of information sharing among residents.

II. The managing committee should establish clear guidelines regarding the frequency and relevance of notifications.

III. Residents should be prohibited from raising complaints during physical community meetings once digital communication is introduced.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II and III follow

  5. EOption (e)

    All follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

Statements: Residents of a developing residential township were facing difficulties in receiving timely information about maintenance schedules, water and electricity interruptions, visitor rules, and emergency notices. To solve this issue, the managing committee created a centralized mobile communication group for instant updates and digital notices. As a result, residents experienced better coordination and less confusion. However, some residents felt that too many notifications could disturb daily routines and decrease participation in offline community meetings.

Courses of Action:

I. A centralized communication platform can improve the speed and clarity of information sharing among residents. - Follows (The statement clearly shows that after introducing the mobile communication group, residents experienced reduced confusion and improved coordination.)

II. The managing committee should establish clear guidelines regarding the frequency and relevance of notifications. - Follows (Since some residents complained about excessive notifications disturbing their routines, creating notification guidelines would be a practical and reasonable step.)

III. Residents should be prohibited from raising complaints during physical community meetings once digital communication is introduced. - Doesn't follow (The statement does not suggest eliminating physical meetings or preventing residents from expressing concerns offline.)

Hence, the correct answer is Only I and II follow.

Question 39

Directions

Read the information carefully and answer the question.

A national retail company introduced a digital loyalty platform through its mobile application, allowing customers to earn reward points, receive personalized product recommendations, and access exclusive festive offers before the general public. During the following financial quarter, the company recorded a significant rise in repeat purchases, app engagement, and customer retention across metropolitan and semi-urban markets. Marketing experts associated with the company stated that the initiative helped strengthen long-term customer relationships and encouraged users to interact with the brand more frequently. Nevertheless, some industry observers claimed that seasonal demand, aggressive advertising campaigns, and influencer promotions may also have played a substantial role in the increased sales figures.

Which of the following conclusions can most reasonably be drawn from the above passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The digital loyalty platform was solely responsible for the company’s improved sales performance.

  2. BOption (b)

    Seasonal demand and marketing campaigns had no influence on customer engagement levels.

  3. COption (c)

    Customer-focused digital initiatives can contribute positively to brand engagement and repeat purchases.

  4. DOption (d)

    The company should discontinue traditional advertising campaigns and depend entirely on the loyalty platform.

  5. EOption (e)

    Customers generally prefer reward points over product quality and pricing.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Customer-focused digital initiatives can contribute positively to brand engagement and repeat purchases.

Why this answer is correct

Statement: A national retail company launched a digital loyalty platform through its mobile app. Customers could earn reward points, get personalized recommendations, and access special festive offers. After introducing the platform, the company experienced higher repeat purchases, increased app usage, and better customer retention in both metropolitan and semi-urban areas. Experts believed the initiative strengthened customer relationships and encouraged more interaction with the brand. However, some observers also noted that factors like festive season demand, advertising campaigns, and influencer promotions may have contributed to the rise in sales.

Conclusions:

Option 1: The digital loyalty platform was solely responsible for the company’s improved sales performance - Doesn't follow (The passage clearly states that seasonal demand, advertising campaigns, and influencer promotions may also have contributed to the increased sales.)

Option 2: Seasonal demand and marketing campaigns had no influence on customer engagement levels - Doesn't follow (The statement specifically mentions that these external factors may also have played a substantial role.)

Option 3: Customer-focused digital initiatives can contribute positively to brand engagement and repeat purchases - Follows (The company observed improved repeat purchases, app engagement, and customer retention after launching the loyalty platform.)

Option 4: The company should discontinue traditional advertising campaigns and depend entirely on the loyalty platform - Doesn't follow (The passage does not suggest stopping traditional advertising methods.)

Option 5: Customers generally prefer reward points over product quality and pricing - Doesn't follow (The statement provides no comparison between reward points and factors like product quality or pricing.)

Hence, the correct answer is Customer-focused digital initiatives can contribute positively to brand engagement and repeat purchases.

Question 40

Directions

Read the information carefully and answer the question.

Statement: A well-known educational institution in the capital city recently launched a structured mentorship initiative for students preparing for professional entrance examinations. Under the program, senior faculty members and subject experts conducted weekly interactive sessions, doubt-solving workshops, and personalized progress reviews. Within six months of implementation, the institution observed a noticeable improvement in classroom attendance, assignment submission rates, and mock test performance among participating students. Several students also reported feeling more confident and academically disciplined after regularly attending the sessions. However, a few education analysts argued that the improvement might also be partially influenced by the approaching examination season and increased parental supervision at home.

Assumptions:

I. Regular academic guidance and mentorship can positively influence students’ preparation habits and confidence levels.

II. All students who attended the mentorship sessions were academically weak before the program began.

III. External factors such as examination pressure and parental monitoring may also contribute to improved academic performance.

IV. Students generally avoid participating in structured academic activities unless attendance is compulsory.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and III follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II and IV follow

  3. COption (c)

    Only I, II and III follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III and IV follow

  5. EOption (e)

    All follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I and III follow

Why this answer is correct

Statement: A reputed educational institution introduced a mentorship program for students preparing for professional entrance exams. The program included regular guidance sessions, workshops, and personalized reviews by experienced faculty members. After six months, students showed better attendance, improved assignment completion, stronger mock test performance, and increased confidence. However, some analysts believed that the improvement may not be solely because of the mentorship program, as factors like upcoming exams and parental supervision could also have played a role.

Assumptions:

I. Regular academic guidance and mentorship can positively influence students’ preparation habits and confidence levels - Follows (The statement mentions that students became more confident, disciplined, and performed better after attending mentorship sessions regularly.)

II. All students who attended the mentorship sessions were academically weak before the program began - Doesn't follow (The statement only says that improvement was observed among participating students; it does not mention that all of them were weak earlier.)

III. External factors such as examination pressure and parental monitoring may also contribute to improved academic performance - Follows (Education analysts argued that approaching exams and parental supervision could also be reasons behind the improvement.)

IV. Students generally avoid participating in structured academic activities unless attendance is compulsory - Doesn't follow (The statement does not mention that attendance was compulsory or that students usually avoid such activities.)

Hence, the correct answer is Only I and III follow.

General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness (35 questions)

Question 41

What is the total financial outlay and the extension date for the PM SVANidhi scheme as recently decided by the Cabinet?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹8,500 crore, March 31, 2028

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹6,000 crore, December 31, 2027

  3. COption (c)

    ₹7,332 crore, March 31, 2030

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹5,400 crore, April 1, 2029

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹10,000 crore, March 31, 2026

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹7,332 crore, March 31, 2030

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹7,332 crore, March 31, 2030.

Key Points

  • The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, has officially approved the extension of the PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme beyond its previous timeline, now stretching until March 31, 2030.
  • To support this extended duration and enhance the scope of the micro-credit facility, a total financial outlay of ₹7,332 crore has been sanctioned by the government.
  • The decision aims to provide continued institutional credit to street vendors, ensuring they remain part of the formal urban economy and are protected from the clutches of private money lenders charging exorbitant interest rates.
  • Under this extension, the scheme will continue to offer incremental loan tranches of ₹10,000, ₹20,000, and ₹50,000 to vendors upon successful repayment of earlier loans, fostering a culture of credit discipline.
  • The extension is expected to benefit nearly 1.2 crore street vendors across the country, focusing on inclusive growth and the economic empowerment of the bottom-of-the-pyramid entrepreneurs.

 Additional Information

  • PM SVANidhi Scheme Overview:
  • Launch Date: It was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) as a Central Sector Scheme to assist vendors affected by the COVID-19 pandemic lockdowns.
  • Interest Subsidy: Beneficiaries are eligible for an interest subsidy of 7% per annum, which is credited directly to their bank accounts on a quarterly basis.
  • Digital Incentive: To promote Digital India, the scheme provides monthly cashback to vendors who perform digital transactions, incentivizing the shift toward a cashless economy.
  • Eligibility: The scheme covers street vendors in urban areas as well as those from surrounding peri-urban and rural areas who vend in the cities.
  • Implementation Partner: The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) serves as the implementation partner for the scheme's administration.

Therefore, Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 42

Which regulatory institution launched the "PRAVAAH" portal to facilitate applications and authorizations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

  2. BOption (b)

    Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

  3. COption (c)

    Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI)

  4. DOption (d)

    Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)

  5. EOption (e)

    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the PRAVAAH portal, which stands for Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation, and Authorisation.
  • The portal was officially made operational in May 2024, following an initial announcement by Governor Shaktikanta Das during the Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement in April 2023.
  • PRAVAAH is a centralized, secure, and web-based workflow-driven application interface designed to streamline the process for individuals and entities to seek regulatory approvals, licenses, and authorizations.
  • The system replaces various legacy manual and semi-digital processes, allowing applicants to track the status of their applications in real-time and receive electronic responses from the RBI.
  • The primary objective of this initiative is to enhance the Ease of Doing Business within the Indian financial ecosystem by reducing turnaround time (TAT) and increasing transparency.
  • Currently, the portal hosts numerous application forms related to various departments of the RBI, including those for Banking Regulation, Foreign Exchange, and Payment Systems.

 Additional Information

  • Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
  • Established on April 1, 1935, based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
  • It operates under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and serves as the Central Bank of India.
  • The bank was nationalized in 1949 and is responsible for monetary policy, currency issuance, and supervision of the financial sector.
  • Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
  • A statutory body established in 1992 to regulate the securities market and protect investor interests.
  • Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI):
  • The apex body for the insurance sector in India, formed under the IRDA Act, 1999.
  • Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
  • Established to promote and regulate pension funds and ensure old-age income security.
  • National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):
  • An apex development financial institution established in 1982 focusing on rural prosperity and agricultural credit.

Question 43

India signed a Letter of Intent with which international organization for cooperation in rice fortification and food security?

  1. AOption (a)

    Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

  2. BOption (b)

    World Health Organization (WHO)

  3. COption (c)

    UN World Food Programme

  4. DOption (d)

    United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)

  5. EOption (e)

    International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

UN World Food Programme

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is UN World Food Programme.

Key Points

  • In December 2021, NITI Aayog and the United Nations World Food Programme (WFP) signed a Statement of Intent (often referred to as a Letter of Intent) to formalize a partnership focused on food security and nutrition.
  • The collaboration specifically aims to provide technical assistance for the fortification of rice, ensuring the supply of essential micronutrients such as iron, folic acid, and Vitamin B12 through India's vast social safety nets.
  • The WFP supports the Government of India in scaling up the distribution of fortified rice via the Public Distribution System (PDS), PM POSHAN (formerly Mid-Day Meal scheme), and Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS).
  • Another critical pillar of the agreement is the mainstreaming of millets, leveraging India's expertise to enhance climate-resilient food systems and marking the global significance of the International Year of Millets in 2023.
  • This partnership is designed to address the challenges of malnutrition and anaemia, while simultaneously building the capacity of state governments to manage and monitor food security programs effectively.

 Additional Information

  • United Nations World Food Programme (WFP):
  • Established in 1961, it is the worlds largest humanitarian organization providing food assistance and is headquartered in Rome, Italy.
  • The organization was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020 for its work in preventing the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict.
  • Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO):
  • A specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
  • United Nations Childrens Fund (UNICEF):
  • An agency responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide, focusing heavily on child nutrition and health.
  • International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD):
  • An international financial institution and specialized UN agency that focuses exclusively on reducing rural poverty and hunger in developing countries.

Question 44

Which of the following countries hosted the 9th edition of the ‘Zapad’, a joint strategic military exercise held in September 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia and Belarus

  2. BOption (b)

    China and Pakistan

  3. COption (c)

    India and France

  4. DOption (d)

    USA and Japan

  5. EOption (e)

    Germany and Poland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Russia and Belarus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Russia and Belarus.

Key Points

  • The Zapad (meaning 'West') exercise is the flagship joint strategic military exercise conducted by the Armed Forces of the Russian Federation and the Armed Forces of Belarus.
  • Held in September 2025, the 9th edition of this exercise focused on the Western Strategic Direction to test the operational readiness of the Regional Group of Forces.
  • The maneuvers typically involve high-intensity drills across multiple training grounds in both Russia and Belarus, including the Baltic Sea region and the Brest region.
  • The 2025 iteration emphasized asymmetric warfare, the integration of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), and cyber-defense protocols within the Union State military infrastructure.
  • It serves as a key mechanism for Russia and Belarus to harmonize their command and control systems under the Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO) framework.

 Additional Information

  • Historical Context of Zapad:
  • The Zapad series originated during the Soviet era (most notably Zapad-81) and was reinstated in its current strategic format in 1999.
  • It follows a quadrennial cycle for its major iterations, with previous significant versions held in 2009, 2013, 2017, and 2021.
  • The Union State Framework:
  • Established by a treaty in 1999, the Union State facilitates deep military and economic integration between Moscow and Minsk.
  • The Joint Military Doctrine updated in 2021 provides the legal basis for these large-scale troop deployments on the European frontier.
  • Other Strategic Maneuvers:
  • Russia rotates its strategic focus annually through four main exercises: Vostok (East), Tsentr (Center), Kavkaz (Caucasus), and Zapad (West).
  • These exercises are closely monitored by NATO due to their proximity to the Suwalki Gap and the borders of Poland and the Baltic States.

Question 45

Chandrapuram Ponnusamy (C.P.) Radhakrishnan, sworn in as the 15th Vice President of India on September 12, 2025, was the former Governor of which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

  5. EOption (e)

    Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • C.P. Radhakrishnan was appointed as the Governor of Maharashtra in July 2024, succeeding Ramesh Bais. He served in this prestigious role until his elevation to the constitutional post of the Vice President of India.
  • Prior to his tenure in Maharashtra, he served as the 11th Governor of Jharkhand, having been sworn in on February 18, 2023. He was noted for his focus on tribal welfare and rural development during his time in Ranchi.
  • He also held the additional charge as the Governor of Telangana and the Lieutenant Governor of Puducherry starting in March 2024, following the resignation of Tamilisai Soundararajan.
  • The transition to the office of the 15th Vice President of India on September 12, 2025, marked a significant milestone in his political career, moving from the head of the Maharashtra State Executive to the second-highest constitutional office in the country.

 Additional Information

  • Tamil Nadu:
  • C.P. Radhakrishnan hails from Tiruppur, Tamil Nadu. He is a veteran leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and served as its State President.
  • He was elected twice to the Lok Sabha from the Coimbatore constituency in 1998 and 1999.
  • Vice President of India:
  • The office is established under Article 63 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Vice President acts as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) as per Article 64.
  • The election is conducted through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.

Question 46

What is the annual remittance limit for resident individuals under the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), as of May 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    USD 1,00,000 per financial year

  2. BOption (b)

    USD 5,00,000 per financial year

  3. COption (c)

    USD 2,50,000 per financial year

  4. DOption (d)

    USD 7,50,000 per financial year

  5. EOption (e)

    USD 10,00,000 per financial year

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

USD 2,50,000 per financial year

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is USD 2,50,000 per financial year.

Key Points

  • The Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) is a framework introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on February 4, 2004, to facilitate resident individuals in sending money outside India for various purposes.
  • As of the current regulations applicable in May 2025, the maximum amount a resident individual can remit abroad is USD 2,50,000 per financial year (April to March).
  • This consolidated limit covers both capital account transactions, such as investing in foreign stocks or property, and current account transactions, such as travel, education, and medical expenses.
  • The scheme is available to all resident individuals, including minors; in the case of minors, the LRS declaration must be countersigned by the natural guardian.
  • There is no restriction on the frequency of remittances during a financial year, provided the cumulative amount remains within the ceiling of USD 2,50,000.

 Additional Information

  • Permissible Transactions:
  • Education and Medical Treatment: Remittances for studies abroad or healthcare expenses in foreign hospitals.
  • Maintenance of Relatives: Sending money to close relatives (as defined under the Companies Act) residing outside India.
  • Investment: Purchase of immovable property, shares, or debt instruments in overseas markets.
  • Tax Collected at Source (TCS):
  • Under the Finance Act, a TCS of 20% is applicable on LRS remittances exceeding INR 7 lakh per financial year, except for education and medical purposes.
  • For education loans, a lower TCS rate of 0.5% applies on amounts exceeding the threshold.
  • Exclusions:
  • The LRS facility is not available to corporates, partnership firms, Hindu Undivided Families (HUF), or Charitable Trusts.
  • Remittances for gambling, lottery winnings, or prohibited items under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) are strictly banned.

Question 47

What is the purpose of the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme and who issues it?

  1. AOption (a)

    The purpose is to encourage physical gold storage and it is issued by the Ministry of Finance.

  2. BOption (b)

    The purpose of the Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme is to reduce the demand for physical gold. It is issued by the RBI.

  3. COption (c)

    The purpose is to provide gold loans to farmers and it is issued by NABARD.

  4. DOption (d)

    The purpose is to stabilize gold prices in the international market and it is issued by SEBI.

  5. EOption (e)

    The purpose is to promote gold exports and it is issued by the MMTC.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The purpose of the Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme is to reduce the demand for physical gold. It is issued by the RBI.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The purpose of the Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme is to reduce the demand for physical gold. It is issued by the RBI..

Key Points

  • The Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme was launched by the Government of India in November 2015 as part of the Gold Monetisation Scheme to offer an alternative to owning physical gold.
  • The core objective of the scheme is to reduce the heavy reliance on physical gold imports, which significantly impacts India's Current Account Deficit (CAD), by shifting domestic savings into financial assets.
  • These bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India, making them a sovereign-backed instrument with the highest level of safety.
  • Instead of holding physical bullion, investors hold 'paper' or 'digital' gold, where the value is linked to the prevailing market price of gold, ensuring they benefit from any appreciation in gold prices.
  • The scheme helps the government mobilize idle gold and integrate it into the formal financial system, providing investors with a steady interest income in addition to capital gains.

 Additional Information

  • Investment Limits and Eligibility:
  • The minimum investment is 1 gram of gold. For individuals and Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), the maximum subscription limit is 4 kg, while for trusts and similar entities, it is 20 kg per fiscal year.
  • Eligible investors include resident individuals, trusts, universities, and charitable institutions.
  • Tenure and Interest Rates:
  • The bond carries a maturity period of 8 years, with an early exit option available after the 5th year on interest payment dates.
  • Investors receive a fixed interest rate, currently 2.50% per annum, payable semi-annually on the initial investment amount.
  • Taxation and Liquidity:
  • Interest earned on these bonds is taxable under the Income Tax Act, 1961; however, the Capital Gains Tax on redemption is fully exempted for individual investors.
  • SGBs are eligible to be used as collateral for loans and can be traded on Stock Exchanges (NSE and BSE) after a specific period, providing liquidity to holders.

Question 48

Which bank is not eligible to issue Kisan credit cards?

  1. AOption (a)

    Regional Rural Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Small Finance Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Cooperative Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Payment Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    Public Sector Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Payment Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Payment Bank.

In News

  • The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme continues to expand across eligible banking channels to provide timely credit support to farmers.

Key Points

  • The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme is implemented by Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks, and Cooperative Banks.
  • Payment Banks are a differentiated model of banking conceptualized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that cannot provide credit facilities or issue credit cards.
  • The primary objective of the KCC scheme is to meet the short-term credit requirements of farmers for cultivation of crops, post-harvest expenses, and household consumption requirements.
  • Payment Banks
  • Maximum deposit limit - Rs. 2,000,000 per customer
  • Lending and Credit facilities - Strictly prohibited
  • Permitted products - Savings accounts, current accounts, debit cards, and remittance services

Additional Information

  • Regional Rural Bank (RRB)
  • Establishment Year - 1975
  • Regulation - Jointly owned by Central Government (50%), State Government (15%), and Sponsor Bank (35%)
  • Primary Focus - To provide credit and other facilities to small farmers, agricultural laborers, and artisans in rural areas
  • Small Finance Bank (SFB)
  • Objective - To further financial inclusion by providing basic banking activities to unserved and underserved segments
  • Lending Priority - Required to extend 75% of their adjusted net bank credit to the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) category
  • Target Audience - Small business units, micro and small industries, and marginal farmers
  • Cooperative Bank
  • Structure - Organized on a cooperative basis with a three-tier structure (Primary, Central, and State Cooperative banks)
  • Governance - Registered under the Cooperative Societies Act and regulated jointly by the RBI and NABARD
  • Primary Focus - Offering institutional credit to the rural and agricultural sectors at a reasonable rate of interest

Question 49

When and where will the 2026 Winter Olympics Paralympic Winter Games be held?

  1. AOption (a)

    February 4-20, 2026 Beijing, China

  2. BOption (b)

    March 6-15, 2026 Milano Cortina, Italy

  3. COption (c)

    January 10-25, 2026 Sapporo, Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    April 12-28, 2026 Vancouver, Canada

  5. EOption (e)

    May 5-20, 2026 Oslo, Norway

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

March 6-15, 2026 Milano Cortina, Italy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is March 6-15, 2026 Milano Cortina, Italy.

Key Points

  • The 2026 Winter Paralympics, officially known as the XIV Paralympic Winter Games, are scheduled to take place from March 6 to March 15, 2026.
  • The event will be co-hosted by the Italian cities of Milan and Cortina d Ampezzo, marking the first time the Games are officially hosted by two cities in a joint bid.
  • The hosting rights were awarded during the 134th IOC Session in Lausanne, Switzerland, on June 24, 2019, where the Milano Cortina bid was preferred over the Stockholm-Åre bid.
  • This marks the second time that Italy will host the Winter Paralympic Games, having previously hosted the event in Turin in 2006.
  • The Games will be spread across the regions of Lombardy and Veneto, as well as the autonomous provinces of Trento and Bolzano, utilizing northern Italy's extensive alpine infrastructure.

 Additional Information

  • Logistics and Ceremonies:
  • The Opening Ceremony for the Paralympics is set to be held at the Verona Arena, an ancient Roman amphitheater, while the Closing Ceremony will occur in Milan.
  • The official mascots for the 2026 Games are two stoats named Tina and Milo, symbolizing the heritage and spirit of the host cities.
  • Sports and Venues:
  • Athletes will compete in six sports: Para Alpine Skiing, Para Biathlon, Para Cross-Country Skiing, Para Ice Hockey, Para Snowboard, and Wheelchair Curling.
  • Key venues include Cortina d Ampezzo for alpine skiing and Milan for ice-based sports.
  • Historical Context of Other Options:
  • Beijing: Hosted the 2022 Winter Olympics and Paralympics, becoming the first city to host both Summer and Winter editions.
  • Sapporo: Hosted the first Winter Games in Asia in 1972 and was a previous contender for the 2030 edition.
  • Vancouver: Hosted the 2010 Winter Olympics and Paralympics in Canada.
  • Oslo: Hosted the 1952 Winter Olympics in Norway.

Question 50

Which of the following statements regarding Padma Awards is TRUE?

  1. AOption (a)

    The awards are only given to government servants.

  2. BOption (b)

    The nomination process is open to the public and allows self-nomination.

  3. COption (c)

    The awards are announced twice a year on Republic Day and Independence Day.

  4. DOption (d)

    The total number of awards given in a year can exceed 200.

  5. EOption (e)

    A person who has received a Padma award cannot be considered for a higher award.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The nomination process is open to the public and allows self-nomination.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The nomination process is open to the public and allows self-nomination..

Key Points

  • The government transformed the selection process into a Peoples Padma by opening nominations to the general public through an online portal; individuals can now nominate others or even self-nominate for these honors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Government servants, including those working with Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), are generally not eligible for these awards, with specific exceptions made only for Doctors and Scientists. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Padma Awards are announced only once a year, specifically on the eve of Republic Day (January 26th), and not on Independence Day. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • According to the official guidelines, the total number of awards conferred in a single year should not exceed 120, excluding posthumous awards and those given to NRIs, foreigners, or OCI cardholders. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • A recipient of a Padma Award can indeed be considered for a higher category of the award, provided a period of at least five years has elapsed since the previous decoration. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

  • The Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 and are among the highest civilian honors in India, recognizing achievements in fields like Art, Social Work, Science, and Literature.
  • The awards are classified into three distinct categories:
  • Padma Vibhushan: For exceptional and distinguished service (the second-highest civilian award).
  • Padma Bhushan: For distinguished service of a high order (the third-highest civilian award).
  • Padma Shri: For distinguished service in any field (the fourth-highest civilian award).
  • The selection is finalized by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year and is traditionally headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
  • The awards do not amount to a title and cannot be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipients name, in accordance with Article 18 of the Constitution of India.

Question 51

Which institution operates the Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS), for which the RBI issued final guidelines in June 2025 to streamline onboarding and enhance fraud risk management for Touchpoint Operators (ATOs)?

  1. AOption (a)

    NPCI

  2. BOption (b)

    NITI Aayog

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Finance

  4. DOption (d)

    UIDAI

  5. EOption (e)

    CDSL

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

NPCI

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NPCI.

Key Points

  • The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is the umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, established under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
  • AePS (Aadhaar Enabled Payment System) is a bank-led model developed by NPCI that allows interoperable financial transactions at Point of Sale (PoS) or MicroATMs through the Business Correspondent (BC) of any bank using Aadhaar authentication.
  • In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued final guidelines to streamline the onboarding process for Touchpoint Operators (ATOs) to mitigate rising instances of biometric fraud.
  • The guidelines mandate that Acquiring Banks must perform rigorous due diligence and Know Your Customer (KYC) checks on ATOs before they are enabled on the AePS network.
  • NPCI is responsible for implementing these fraud risk management protocols, which include real-time monitoring of transactions and the maintenance of a centralized database of blacklisted operators.

 Additional Information

  • UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India):
  • A statutory authority established under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, responsible for Aadhaar enrollment and authentication services.
  • It provides the biometric backend for AePS but does not handle financial settlement or payment operations.
  • NITI Aayog:
  • The National Institution for Transforming India is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
  • It provides strategic advice on economic and social issues but lacks the regulatory authority to operate payment gateways.
  • CDSL (Central Depository Services Limited):
  • A securities depository regulated by SEBI that facilitates the holding of securities in electronic form.
  • It is primarily involved in capital markets and has no role in biometric-based retail banking.

Question 52

To which rating did S&P Global Ratings upgrade India’s credit rating in August 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    A-

  2. BOption (b)

    BBB+

  3. COption (c)

    BBB

  4. DOption (d)

    BB+

  5. EOption (e)

    BBB-

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BBB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is BBB.

Key Points

  • In August 2025, S&P Global Ratings upgraded India's long-term sovereign credit rating to BBB from BBB-, marking the first rating improvement for the country in nearly two decades.
  • The rating agency cited India's sustained GDP growth, which remains the fastest among major economies, and the government's commitment to fiscal consolidation as the primary drivers for the upgrade.
  • The upgrade followed a shift in the rating outlook from stable to positive in May 2024, after which the government successfully lowered the fiscal deficit toward the 4.5% target.
  • The move to BBB signifies a transition from the lowest investment-grade tier to a more stable mid-tier investment status, reflecting improved macroeconomic stability and strong foreign exchange reserves exceeding 700 billion dollars.
  • This rating action by S&P Global is expected to enhance India's weightage in global bond indices and lower the cost of capital for Indian entities seeking offshore financing.

 Additional Information

  • Understanding Credit Rating Tiers:
  • BBB-: This was India's previous rating since 2007. It represents the lowest investment-grade rating, indicating that the sovereign has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments but is more vulnerable to adverse economic changes.
  • BBB+: This is the rating tier immediately above BBB. It indicates a higher degree of safety and is typically the next target for emerging economies demonstrating prolonged fiscal discipline and high growth.
  • A-: This represents the Upper Medium Grade. Entities with this rating are considered strong and have a very high capacity to meet financial obligations, though they may be somewhat susceptible to economic shifts.
  • BB+: This is a speculative-grade or 'junk' rating. It is the highest tier of the non-investment grade category, suggesting a higher risk of default compared to investment-grade securities.
  • Impact of Sovereign Ratings:
  • Sovereign credit ratings act as a barometer for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), influencing the risk perception of international investors.
  • The BBB rating facilitates the inclusion of Indian Government Bonds in global indices like J.P. Morgan's GBI-EM, potentially attracting billions of dollars in passive inflows.

Question 53

In April 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the 2nd phase of the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP-II) to be implemented in select strategic villages. How many states and Union Territories are covered under this phase?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    17

  4. DOption (d)

    21

  5. EOption (e)

    28

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

17

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 17.

Key Points

  • The Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) was originally introduced in the Union Budget 2022-23 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at the holistic development of villages along India's northern border.
  • In April 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the second phase (VVP-II), expanding the scheme's scope to include a total of 17 States and Union Territories that share international land borders.
  • While Phase I was limited to 4 States (Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand) and 1 Union Territory (Ladakh), Phase II significantly scales the initiative to cover all major border-sharing administrative units.
  • The primary objective of VVP-II is to strengthen national security by improving infrastructure and livelihood opportunities, thereby reversing the trend of out-migration from sensitive border regions.
  • The programme identifies specific border districts for intensive development, focusing on all-weather road connectivity, potable water, and telecommunication infrastructure.

 Additional Information

  • Strategic Significance:
  • It serves as a counter-measure to the development of 'model villages' across the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and other international borders.
  • Promotes Border Tourism as a sustainable economic model for local communities through the development of tourist circuits and cultural centers.
  • Operational Framework:
  • The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) acts as the nodal agency for implementation, coordinating with State Governments and District Administrations.
  • The scheme emphasizes 100% saturation of central welfare schemes such as the Jal Jeevan Mission, PM-AWAS Yojana, and PM-GSY in the selected villages.
  • It covers borders shared with countries including China, Pakistan, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar, and Bangladesh.

Question 54

In August 2025, India and the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) signed the Terms of Reference (ToR) to launch negotiations on a Free Trade Agreement (FTA). Which of the following countries are member states of the EAEU?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Armenia

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, Georgia, Uzbekistan

  3. COption (c)

    Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, Mongolia

  4. DOption (d)

    Russia, Belarus, Azerbaijan, Armenia, Moldova

  5. EOption (e)

    Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Latvia, Estonia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Armenia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Armenia.

Key Points

  • The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) is an international organization for regional economic integration that was established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union, which was signed on May 29, 2014, in Astana.
  • The union officially became operational on January 1, 2015, with Russia, Belarus, and Kazakhstan as its founding members.
  • Armenia officially joined the union on January 2, 2015, shortly after its formation.
  • Kyrgyzstan became the fifth member state of the EAEU on August 6, 2015.
  • The EAEU provides for the free movement of goods, services, capital, and labor and pursues coordinated, harmonized, and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union.

 Additional Information

  • Organizational Structure:
  • The Supreme Eurasian Economic Council is the highest body of the Union, composed of the Heads of the Member States.
  • The Eurasian Economic Commission (EEC) acts as the permanent regulatory body based in Moscow.
  • Observer States:
  • The union currently includes Moldova, Uzbekistan, and Cuba as observer states, which participate in meetings but do not have voting rights.
  • Geopolitical Context:
  • The EAEU covers a landmass of over 20 million square kilometers and represents a market of approximately 184 million people.
  • India and the EAEU have been exploring a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) to enhance bilateral trade, which currently sees Russia as the primary trading partner within the bloc.
  • Countries like Ukraine, Georgia, and the Baltic states (Latvia, Estonia) are not members, as they have pursued integration with the European Union (EU) or maintain different regional alignments.

Question 55

Which among the following are not 7 sutras of RBI’s Free-AI framework?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transparency

  2. BOption (b)

    Accountability

  3. COption (c)

    Productivity

  4. DOption (d)

    Fairness

  5. EOption (e)

    Privacy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Productivity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Productivity.

Key Points

  • The 7 Sutras (or principles) for Responsible AI are a set of ethical guidelines often emphasized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and NITI Aayog to ensure the safe deployment of artificial intelligence in the financial sector.
  • Transparency is a core sutra that requires AI models to be explainable and their logic to be understandable to stakeholders, ensuring that 'black box' algorithms do not compromise financial stability.
  • Accountability ensures that financial institutions remain responsible for the outcomes of AI-driven decisions, requiring robust internal audit trails and human oversight mechanisms.
  • Fairness is a fundamental principle aimed at eliminating algorithmic bias, ensuring that AI systems do not discriminate against individuals based on gender, race, or socio-economic background during credit assessments.
  • Privacy focuses on safeguarding sensitive personal data and adhering to data protection laws, ensuring that AI training datasets are handled with strict confidentiality and consent.
  • Productivity, while a primary benefit and objective of adopting AI in banking to enhance efficiency, is not classified as one of the 7 governance sutras or ethical principles.
  • The remaining sutras typically include Safety and Reliability, Inclusivity, and the Protection of Human Values, which collectively form the framework for Trustworthy AI.

 Additional Information

  • Core Principles Overview:
  • Transparency: Also known as Explainable AI (XAI), it involves providing clear rationales for AI-generated outputs, especially in digital lending and risk management.
  • Accountability: Defines the legal and ethical liability of the Board of Directors and senior management for any errors or damages caused by automated systems.
  • Fairness: Involves the use of de-biasing techniques in datasets to prevent systemic exclusion of marginalized groups from financial services.
  • Privacy: Aligns with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, focusing on data minimization and purpose limitation in AI training.

Question 56

Which city did NOT feature in the top three of the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2024 (Category: Population > 10 Lakh)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat

  2. BOption (b)

    Indore

  3. COption (c)

    Bhopal

  4. DOption (d)

    Jabalpur

  5. EOption (e)

    Agra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bhopal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhopal.

Key Points

  • The Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2024 (Clean Air Survey) results were released by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) on September 7, 2024, coinciding with the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies.
  • The survey ranks cities based on the implementation of activities approved under the City Action Plan and air quality improvements in 131 non-attainment cities under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
  • In the Category 1 (cities with a population exceeding 10 Lakh), the top three positions were secured by Surat (1st), Jabalpur (2nd), and Agra (3rd).
  • While Bhopal is a prominent city in Madhya Pradesh and is part of the NCAP, it did not feature in the top three list for the 2024 rankings in the million-plus population category.
  • The evaluation is conducted through the PRANA online portal, assessing cities on parameters like biomass burning, road dust management, construction waste, and vehicular emissions.

 Additional Information

  • Top Performers in Category 1:
  • Surat: Located in Gujarat, it clinched the top spot with a score of 194, demonstrating excellence in solid waste management and dust control.
  • Jabalpur: Representing Madhya Pradesh, it secured the second rank with 193 points, showing significant progress in air quality monitoring.
  • Agra: Famous for the Taj Mahal in Uttar Pradesh, it ranked third with 190 points due to strict industrial emission controls.
  • Other Population Categories:
  • Category 2 (3-10 Lakh): Firozabad (UP) ranked first, followed by Amravati and Jhansi.
  • Category 3 (Under 3 Lakh): Raebareli (UP) secured the first rank, followed by Nalgonda and Nalagarh.
  • National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): Launched in 2019, it targets a 20-30% reduction in Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations by 2024 (revised to 40% by 2026).

Question 57

Which of the following types of deposits is covered by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Inter-bank deposits

  2. BOption (b)

    Deposits of foreign governments

  3. COption (c)

    Recurring Deposits

  4. DOption (d)

    Deposits of Central/State governments

  5. EOption (e)

    Money at call

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Recurring Deposits

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Recurring Deposits.

Key Points

  • The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a specialized subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), established on July 15, 1978, under the DICGC Act, 1961.
  • The corporation insures all types of deposits such as Savings, Fixed, Current, and Recurring Deposits in all commercial banks (including branches of foreign banks in India) and cooperative banks.
  • Each depositor in a bank is insured up to a maximum of Rs. 5,00,000 for both principal and interest amount held by them in the same right and same capacity as of February 4, 2020.
  • Recurring Deposits are covered because they represent a contractual agreement where a depositor saves a fixed amount regularly, and like other retail deposits, they are vulnerable to bank insolvency.
  • The DICGC system is funded by premiums paid by the insured banks themselves; depositors are not required to pay any premium for this safety cover.

 Additional Information

  • Exclusions from DICGC Coverage:
  • Inter-bank deposits: Deposits made by one bank into another bank are not insured as they are part of the professional inter-bank market.
  • Government Deposits: Deposits belonging to Foreign Governments, the Central Government, or State Governments are excluded from insurance protection.
  • Money at Call: This is a short-term money market instrument where funds are borrowed or lent for a period of 1 to 14 days, which does not qualify as a standard bank deposit for insurance.
  • Foreign Deposits: Any amount due on account of and deposit received outside India is not covered by the corporation.

Question 58

On which date is the UN International Day of Intangible Cultural Heritage observed?

  1. AOption (a)

    12th October

  2. BOption (b)

    17th October

  3. COption (c)

    21st October

  4. DOption (d)

    5th November

  5. EOption (e)

    15th September

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17th October

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 17th October.

Key Points

  • The International Day of the Intangible Cultural Heritage was officially proclaimed by UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) during its 42nd session of the General Conference held in November 2023.
  • The date 17th October was specifically chosen to honor the anniversary of the adoption of the 2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage, which is the primary international legal framework for protecting living traditions.
  • The inaugural celebration of this day took place on 17th October 2024, aiming to raise awareness about the diversity and richness of living heritage and to encourage international cooperation in its preservation.
  • This observance highlights the role of communities, groups, and individuals in maintaining cultural practices that provide a sense of identity and continuity, ranging from oral traditions to traditional craftsmanship.

 Additional Information

  • Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) Concept:
  • Definition: ICH includes non-physical intellectual property such as folklore, customs, beliefs, traditions, knowledge, and languages.
  • UNESCO Lists: The convention maintains the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity and the List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in Need of Urgent Safeguarding.
  • Significance: It promotes cultural diversity and human creativity, serving as a bridge between the past and the future through generational transmission.
  • Significance of Other Dates:
  • 15th September: Recognized globally as the International Day of Democracy, established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2007.
  • 5th November: Observed as World Tsunami Awareness Day to highlight the importance of early warning systems and disaster risk reduction.
  • 21st October: Often associated with Global Iodine Deficiency Disorders Prevention Day to spread awareness about nutritional health.

Question 59

The "BHAVISHYA" portal is a centralized system related to which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pension Processing for Retired Employees

  2. BOption (b)

    Agricultural Export Monitoring

  3. COption (c)

    Student Scholarship Management

  4. DOption (d)

    Direct Benefit Transfer for Farmers

  5. EOption (e)

    Tracking Foreign Direct Investment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pension Processing for Retired Employees

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pension Processing for Retired Employees.

Key Points

  • BHAVISHYA is an online Pension Sanction and Payment Tracking System implemented by the Government of India to ensure the timely payment of retirement benefits.
  • The portal was developed and is maintained by the Department of Pension and Pensioners' Welfare (DoPPW), which functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
  • It is a centralized platform designed for Central Government employees to track the processing of their pension cases from the submission of forms to the issuance of the Pension Payment Order (PPO).
  • The system helps in identifying delays by providing real-time tracking and sending automated SMS and Email alerts to the retiring employees regarding the status of their application.
  • It promotes transparency and accountability by digitizing the entire workflow, eliminating the need for physical movement of paper files between various administrative offices.
  • The portal is integrated with the Public Financial Management System (PFMS), allowing for the seamless electronic transmission of pension data to the Pension Disbursing Banks.

 Additional Information

  • Related Portals and Initiatives:
  • Anubhav Portal: Launched to provide a platform for retiring employees to showcase their significant achievements and share their work experiences during their tenure in the government.
  • CPENGRAMS: The Centralized Pension Grievances Redress and Monitoring System is an online tool where pensioners can register and track their grievances related to pension matters.
  • Jeevan Pramaan: A biometric-enabled digital life certificate for pensioners, which allows them to prove they are alive without visiting the bank or post office in person.
  • SANKALP: A project initiated by DoPPW to tap into the skills and experience of retired employees for voluntary social activities and nation-building.
  • Pension Adalats: These are organized periodically to resolve long-pending grievances of pensioners on the spot through direct interaction with senior officials.

Question 60

What is the correct procedure for a bank when a customer presents a counterfeit (fake) note at the counter?

  1. AOption (a)

    Return the note to the customer and ask for a replacement.

  2. BOption (b)

    Tear the note into pieces and destroy it immediately.

  3. COption (c)

    Impound the note, issue a receipt, and forward it to the police.

  4. DOption (d)

    Credit the customer's account with the value of the note.

  5. EOption (e)

    Mark the note as 'Fake' and return it to the customer for their records.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Impound the note, issue a receipt, and forward it to the police.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Impound the note, issue a receipt, and forward it to the police..

Key Points

  • Under the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), all banks must impound counterfeit notes detected at their counters to prevent them from re-entering the financial system.
  • The process of impounding involves the bank official branding the note with a stamp stating COUNTERFEIT BANKNOTE, ensuring it cannot be used for any further transactions.
  • Banks are mandated to issue an Acknowledgement Receipt to the customer (presenter) in a prescribed format, which must be signed by both the cashier and the customer.
  • According to the Master Circular, if up to four counterfeit notes are detected in a single transaction, the bank sends a consolidated report to the Nodal Police Station at the end of the month.
  • In cases where five or more counterfeit notes are detected in one transaction, the bank is legally required to file a First Information Report (FIR) immediately with the local police for further investigation.

 Additional Information

  • Returning or Marking for Records:
  • Returning a counterfeit note is a serious lapse as it facilitates the circulation of fake currency, which is a criminal offense under Section 489B of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
  • Destroying the Note:
  • Banks are strictly prohibited from destroying fake notes because they serve as forensic evidence for investigative agencies and the Currency Note Press.
  • Crediting the Account:
  • Counterfeit currency has zero value; therefore, the bank cannot credit the customer's account for the amount, and the financial loss is borne entirely by the presenter.

Question 61

In the ISRO satellite "APPLE" (launched in 1981), what does the first 'A' stand for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Advanced

  2. BOption (b)

    Ariane

  3. COption (c)

    Atmospheric

  4. DOption (d)

    Augmented

  5. EOption (e)

    Aeronautic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ariane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ariane.

Key Points

  • The acronym APPLE stands for Ariane Passenger PayLoad Experiment.
  • The first letter A specifically represents Ariane, which was the name of the heavy-lift launch vehicle used to put the satellite into orbit.
  • APPLE was launched on June 19, 1981, marking India’s first major venture into the field of experimental communication satellites.
  • The launch was conducted by the European Space Agency (ESA) using the Ariane-1 (flight V-3) rocket from the Guiana Space Centre located in Kourou, French Guiana.
  • The satellite was designed and developed entirely by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to master the technology of three-axis stabilization in geostationary orbits.

 Additional Information

  • Technical Specifications of APPLE:
  • It was a cylindrical satellite with a mass of approximately 670 kg at launch.
  • The satellite featured two C-band transponders and a 0.9-meter diameter antenna for communication experiments.
  • It was the first Indian satellite to utilize three-axis stabilization, a critical technology where the satellite remains fixed relative to the Earth, unlike earlier spin-stabilized models.
  • Mission Legacy:
  • Despite one of its solar panels failing to deploy initially, ISRO engineers successfully managed the mission for over two years, conducting various experiments including TV networking and digital computer communications.
  • The successful operation of APPLE laid the foundational expertise required for the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) series, which later transformed telecommunications and broadcasting in India.
  • The mission demonstrated ISRO capability to build sophisticated payloads and effectively collaborate with international agencies like the ESA.

Question 62

Following recent upgrades, how many total services are now listed under the RBI Citizen's Charter?

  1. AOption (a)

    150

  2. BOption (b)

    185

  3. COption (c)

    213

  4. DOption (d)

    250

  5. EOption (e)

    312

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

213

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 213.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) maintains a Citizen's Charter which serves as a comprehensive guide to the services offered by the central bank to the public and its various stakeholders.
  • Following recent upgrades and an exhaustive review to enhance operational transparency and public accountability, the total number of services listed in the charter has been standardized to 213.
  • These services are meticulously categorized across different functional departments of the Bank, including the Department of Currency Management, Foreign Exchange Department, and Department of Government and Bank Accounts.
  • The updated charter provides specific Turnaround Times (TAT) for each of the 213 services, ensuring that citizens have a clear expectation of the time required for service delivery.
  • The primary objective of this expansion is to align the Bank's service delivery standards with the Right to Information Act, 2005, and to promote a more citizen-centric administrative framework within the Indian financial system.

 Additional Information

  • Departmental Distribution of Services:
  • The 213 services are distributed among departments such as the Consumer Education and Protection Department (CEPD), which handles grievances, and the Issue Department, which manages the exchange of currency.
  • Specific services include the exchange of mutilated or soiled notes, issuance of Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) certificates, and processing of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) reporting.
  • Redressal Mechanism:
  • If the standards mentioned in the charter for any of the 213 services are not met, citizens can approach the Reserve Bank - Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS), 2021.
  • The RB-IOS provides a centralized receipt and processing center to handle complaints related to service deficiencies in a cost-effective and timely manner.
  • Evolution of the Charter:
  • The charter is not a static document; it is subject to periodic reviews to incorporate digital banking innovations and FinTech services that were previously not categorized.

Question 63

Which organization partnered with the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) for the "Niveshak Didi" initiative?

  1. AOption (a)

    India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)

  2. BOption (b)

    State Bank of India (SBI)

  3. COption (c)

    National Stock Exchange (NSE)

  4. DOption (d)

    NITI Aayog

  5. EOption (e)

    SIDBI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India Post Payments Bank (IPPB).

Key Points

  • The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA), functioning under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), partnered with India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) to launch the Niveshak Didi initiative.
  • The initiative is designed to promote financial literacy among women through a unique 'for the women, by the women' approach, ensuring that rural women feel comfortable discussing financial matters with other women in their local languages.
  • The program was officially inaugurated in November 2022, marked by the conduct of India's first floating financial literacy camp on the Dal Lake in Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir.
  • The initiative utilizes the vast network of Gramin Dak Sevaks and Postmen to bridge the gap in financial awareness, particularly in reaching the last mile of the country.
  • Key focus areas include educating women on digital banking, the importance of savings, formal credit, insurance, and safeguarding against fraudulent investment schemes.

 Additional Information

  • IEPFA (Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority):
  • It was established by the Government of India on September 7, 2016, under the provisions of Section 125 of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • Its primary mandate is to manage the IEPF fund and undertake activities related to investor education and protection.
  • India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
  • Launched in September 2018, it is a 100% government-owned entity under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications.
  • It operates via the Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS) to provide door-step banking services.
  • SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India):
  • Founded in 1990, it serves as the principal financial institution for the promotion and development of the MSME sector in India.
  • NITI Aayog:
  • The National Institution for Transforming India is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing directional and policy inputs.

Question 64

What is the minimum balance required to maintain a Digital Rupee (e-Rupee) wallet?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹100

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹500

  3. COption (c)

    Zero (No minimum balance required)

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,000

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹5,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Zero (No minimum balance required)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zero (No minimum balance required).

Key Points

  • The Digital Rupee (e−Rupee) is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as a digital alternative to physical cash.
  • Mirroring the characteristics of physical currency, there is no requirement to maintain a minimum balance in an e−Rupee wallet, allowing users to keep even a zero balance without penalty.
  • The e−Rupee is a digital token that represents legal tender, issued in the same denominations as existing paper currency and coins.
  • It is distributed through intermediaries (banks), and users can transact through a digital wallet provided by participating banks and stored on mobile phones or devices.
  • Transactions can be both Person to Person (P2P) and Person to Merchant (P2M), offering the same trust, safety, and settlement finality as physical cash.

 Additional Information

  • Types of CBDC:
  • Retail (e−R): Designed for use by the general public, private sector, and non-financial consumers for daily transactions.
  • Wholesale (e−W): Restricted to financial institutions for settling interbank transfers and wholesale transactions.
  • Key Features of Retail e−Rupee:
  • No Interest: Similar to physical cash, the digital rupee held in wallets does not earn any interest, preventing it from competing directly with bank savings accounts.
  • Convertibility: It can be easily converted into other forms of money, such as deposits with banks or physical cash.
  • Anonymity: The RBI aims to provide a degree of anonymity for small-value transactions, much like physical cash.
  • Financial Inclusion: It aims to bolster the digital economy and reduce the operational costs associated with physical currency management, such as printing and distribution.

Question 65

Under the Currency Distribution & Exchange Scheme (CDES), what is the incentive per packet for banks exchanging soiled notes up to ₹50 denomination?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 1 per packet

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 2 per packet

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 5 per packet

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs 10 per packet

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs 20 per packet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs 2 per packet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs 2 per packet.

Key Points

  • The Currency Distribution & Exchange Scheme (CDES) is a framework established by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure the availability of clean currency notes and coins to the general public.
  • Under this scheme, the RBI provides financial incentives to banks to encourage them to provide exchange facilities for soiled notes and mutilated notes.
  • For the exchange of soiled notes in denominations of up to ₹50, banks are entitled to an incentive of Rs 2 per packet.
  • A standard packet in banking currency management consists of 100 pieces of notes.
  • This incentive is applicable for exchange services provided over the counter to both bank customers and non-customers, supporting the central bank's Clean Note Policy.
  • The primary objective of these incentives is to compensate banks for the operational costs involved in handling, sorting, and transporting low-denomination soiled currency back to the RBI.

 Additional Information

  • Clean Note Policy:
  • Introduced by the RBI in 1999, it aims to withdraw low-quality notes from circulation and replace them with fresh ones.
  • It prohibits actions like stapling note bundles, as it damages the paper and reduces the lifespan of the currency.
  • Adjudication of Mutilated Notes:
  • For the adjudication and exchange of mutilated notes (notes that are torn or missing portions) of denominations ₹50 and above, the incentive is Rs 2 per piece.
  • Coin Distribution Incentives:
  • To facilitate the circulation of small change, RBI provides an incentive of Rs 25 per bag for the distribution of coins.
  • An additional incentive of Rs 10 per bag may be provided for distribution in rural and semi-urban areas to enhance last-mile availability.
  • Definition of Soiled Notes:
  • A soiled note is defined as one that has become dirty due to usage or a note in two pieces pasted together where both pieces belong to the same note and no essential feature is missing.

Question 66

Which country was recently affected by Typhoon Ragasa?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vietnam

  2. BOption (b)

    Philippines

  3. COption (c)

    Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    Taiwan

  5. EOption (e)

    South Korea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Philippines

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Philippines.

Key Points

  • Typhoon Ragasa, known locally as Super Typhoon Nando in the Philippines, developed in the Western Pacific Ocean in mid-September 2025 and rapidly intensified.
  • It made landfall over the northern Cagayan province of the Philippines on September 22, 2025, packing maximum sustained winds of 215 km/h and gusts of up to 295 km/h.
  • The storm was categorized as a Category 5 equivalent tropical cyclone, making it the strongest tropical cyclone globally in the year 2025.
  • It triggered massive landslides, severe storm surges, and extensive flooding across the northern island of Luzon, forcing thousands of residents to evacuate.

 Additional Information

  • Naming Convention: The name Ragasa was provided by the Japan Meteorological Agency (JMA) and is a Filipino term signifying rapid movement or surge. Within the Philippine Area of Responsibility, the state weather bureau PAGASA tracked it as Nando.
  • Other Affected Countries:
  • Taiwan and China: After tearing through the Philippines, the system slammed into Taiwan (causing a barrier lake to burst in Hualien County) and subsequently made landfall in southern China's Guangdong province.
  • Vietnam: The storm weakened into a tropical depression before moving towards northern Vietnam.
  • Japan and South Korea: These nations were not on the direct pathway of Typhoon Ragasa and remained unaffected.

Question 67

How many digits are present in the Elector's Photo Identity Card (EPIC) or Voter ID number?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    14

  5. EOption (e)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

  • The Elector's Photo Identity Card (EPIC), commonly known as the Voter ID card, features a unique 10-digit alphanumeric identification number issued to every eligible Indian citizen by the Election Commission of India (ECI).
  • This 10-digit code is structured specifically: the first three characters are alphabetic series codes (representing the issuing authority or functional series), while the subsequent seven characters are numerical serial numbers.
  • The primary purpose of this unique 10-digit number is to prevent electoral fraud, eliminate duplicate entries in the electoral rolls, and provide a standardized identification for citizens during the voting process across various levels of elections.
  • The EPIC system was first introduced in India in 1993 under the tenure of the then Chief Election Commissioner T.N. Seshan to modernize the voting infrastructure and ensure free and fair elections.
  • Even if a voter shifts their residence to a different Assembly Constituency, their unique EPIC number typically remains the same, though the physical card may be updated with the new address.

 Additional Information

  • Election Commission of India (ECI):
  • It is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India as per Article 324 of the Constitution.
  • National Voters' Day is celebrated every year on January 25 to mark the foundation day of the ECI and encourage voter participation.
  • Constitutional Provisions:
  • Article 326 of the Indian Constitution establishes Universal Adult Suffrage.
  • The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
  • Other Identification Numbers:
  • Aadhaar Card: Consists of a 12-digit unique identification number issued by the UIDAI.
  • ABHA ID: The Ayushman Bharat Health Account consists of a 14-digit number used for digital health records.
  • PAN Card: A 10-digit alphanumeric identifier used by the Income Tax Department.

Question 68

Banks are required to have a mandatory Escrow mechanism for borrowers whose aggregate credit facility is above what amount?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹10 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹25 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹50 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹100 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹500 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹50 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹50 crore.

Key Points

  • According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) circular on 'Opening of Current Accounts by Banks - Need for Discipline', banks are prohibited from opening current accounts for borrowers who have availed credit facilities like Cash Credit (CC) or Overdraft (OD).
  • For borrowers where the aggregate exposure of the banking system is ₹50 crore or more, it is mandatory for banks to implement an Escrow Mechanism.
  • The Escrow Account must be managed by one of the lending banks, and all cash flows of the borrower (inflows and outflows) must be routed exclusively through this account.
  • The primary objective of this mechanism is to ensure credit discipline, prevent the diversion of funds, and enable better monitoring of the borrower's financial health by the lending institutions.
  • Only the bank maintaining the Escrow Account is permitted to open Current Accounts for such borrowers, while other lending banks may open Collection Accounts provided the funds are periodically transferred to the escrow account.

 Additional Information

  • Aggregate Exposure:
  • This includes the sum total of all fund-based (e.g., term loans, CC/OD) and non-fund-based (e.g., Letters of Credit, Bank Guarantees) credit facilities sanctioned by all banks to a single borrower.
  • Exposure Thresholds:
  • Less than ₹5 crore: Banks can open current accounts/CC/OD accounts without restricted escrow requirements, provided they obtain an undertaking regarding the lack of other facilities.
  • ₹5 crore to ₹50 crore: There is no mandatory escrow, but current accounts can only be opened by lending banks. Non-lending banks are prohibited from opening such accounts.
  • Escrow Agent: The bank acting as the escrow manager serves as a fiduciary for other lenders in a Consortium or Multiple Banking Arrangement (MBA), ensuring transparent fund utilization.

Question 69

Which international organization released the "Fintech Note" series titled "Growing Retail Digital Payments"?

  1. AOption (a)

    World Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    IMF

  3. COption (c)

    World Economic Forum

  4. DOption (d)

    OECD

  5. EOption (e)

    BIS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

IMF

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IMF.

Key Points

  • The International Monetary Fund (IMF) publishes the Fintech Note series to provide in-depth analysis of how digital innovations transform the global financial landscape and affect macroeconomic stability.
  • The specific note titled 'Growing Retail Digital Payments' was released in October 2024, focusing on the rapid adoption of digital transaction methods by consumers and merchants worldwide.
  • The report highlights the emergence of Instant Payment Systems (IPS) and Digital Wallets as critical drivers of financial modernization, citing systems like India's UPI and Brazil's Pix as global leaders.
  • It explains that the shift toward Retail Digital Payments has moved from being a convenience to a Critical Public Infrastructure, requiring robust oversight by Central Banks.
  • The IMF analysis emphasizes that while digital payments boost Financial Inclusion and lower transaction costs, they also introduce risks related to Operational Resilience, Cybersecurity, and Market Concentration.

 Additional Information

  • IMF (International Monetary Fund):
  • Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference and headquartered in Washington, D.C., it comprises 190 member countries.
  • Its core mandate includes promoting International Monetary Cooperation, facilitating International Trade, and providing Lending to member countries in economic distress.
  • World Bank:
  • An international financial institution that provides loans and grants for Development Projects; it manages the Global Findex Database but does not issue the 'Fintech Note' series.
  • BIS (Bank for International Settlements):
  • Based in Basel, Switzerland, it serves as a bank for central banks and produces high-level research such as BIS Working Papers and CPMI reports on payment systems.
  • OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development):
  • An intergovernmental organization that focuses on Economic Policy and Tax Standards, often publishing reports on Blockchain and Financial Literacy.

Question 70

What is the maximum balance allowed at any point in time in a "Small Account" opened with limited KYC?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹10,000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹25,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹50,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,00,000

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹2,00,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹50,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹50,000.

Key Points

  • According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Master Direction on Know Your Customer (KYC), a Small Account is a savings account designed for individuals who do not have any Officially Valid Documents (OVDs).
  • The maximum balance allowed in a Small Account at any given point in time is strictly limited to ₹50,000.
  • In addition to the balance limit, the aggregate of all credits in a financial year (April to March) is restricted to a maximum of ₹1,00,000.
  • The total withdrawals and transfers made in a single calendar month cannot exceed ₹10,000.
  • These accounts can be opened by providing a self-attested photograph and signing or giving a thumb impression in the presence of a bank official.

 Additional Information

  • Validity and KYC Requirements:
  • A Small Account remains operational for an initial period of 12 months.
  • An extension of another 12 months is granted if the account holder provides proof of having applied for an Officially Valid Document within the first year.
  • Foreign remittances are generally prohibited in these accounts unless the identity of the holder is fully established through standard KYC procedures.
  • Conversion to Regular Account:
  • If any of the prescribed limits (balance, credit, or withdrawal) are breached, the account is effectively blocked for further transactions until Full KYC is completed.
  • The account must be converted into a regular bank account by submitting valid identity and address proof as per RBI guidelines.

Question 71

How many islands/islets are being restored in the Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu?

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    25

  5. EOption (e)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21.

Key Points

  • The Gulf of Mannar, situated along the southeastern coast of Tamil Nadu, is home to a chain of 21 islands (islets) that extend from Tuticorin to Dhanushkodi.
  • These 21 islands are geographically organized into four clusters: the Mandapam group (7 islands), the Keezhakarai group (7 islands), the Vembar group (3 islands), and the Tuticorin group (4 islands).
  • The ecological restoration project focuses on these specific islands due to significant coastal erosion, historical coral mining, and the impacts of climate change, which led to some islands like Vaan Island being partially submerged.
  • Restoration strategies include the deployment of artificial reef modules, coral transplantation, and the removal of invasive species like Prosopis juliflora to stabilize the island ecosystems and protect the shoreline.
  • The Tamil Nadu Forest Department, in collaboration with the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve Trust (GOMBRT), manages these restoration efforts to preserve the marine biodiversity and the livelihood of local fishing communities.

 Additional Information

  • Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve:
  • Established in 1989, it was the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in South and South East Asia, covering an area of approximately 10,500 sq. km.
  • It is recognized under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme for its globally significant marine wealth.
  • The region hosts over 4,223 species of plants and animals, including the critically endangered Dugong (Sea Cow) and five species of Marine Turtles.
  • The coral reefs in this zone act as a natural breakwater, shielding the mainland from the intensity of cyclones and tsunamis.
  • Restoration projects are often funded through initiatives like the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) to build climate resilience in coastal regions.

Question 72

What is the RBI's incentive/charge for the exchange of mutilated notes per piece?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2

  3. COption (c)

    ₹5

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹10

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹2.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provides financial incentives to bank branches to encourage them to provide better customer service and to facilitate the exchange of damaged currency under the Clean Note Policy.
  • According to the RBI Master Circular on the Facility for Exchange of Notes and Coins, banks are entitled to receive an incentive of ₹2 per piece for the adjudication and exchange of mutilated notes.
  • This incentive is provided to compensate bank branches for the time and effort required to examine and adjudicate notes that are in multiple pieces or have missing portions, following the RBI (Note Refund) Rules, 2009.
  • Banks are mandated to accept mutilated notes from all members of the public, and the incentive of ₹2 is credited to the banks by the RBI based on the data reported in the Integrated Computerized Currency Operations and Management System (ICCOMS).

 Additional Information

  • Mutilated Notes:
  • These are currency notes where a portion is missing or which consist of more than two pieces joined together.
  • The value of a mutilated note is determined by the size of the undivided area of the note; if the area is above a certain threshold (e.g., 80 percent for full value in specific denominations), the bank pays the customer accordingly.
  • Soiled Notes:
  • Notes that have become dirty due to continuous usage or are in two pieces joined together (where both pieces clearly belong to the same note) are termed soiled notes.
  • For soiled notes, banks generally receive a different incentive structure, such as ₹2 per packet (100 pieces) for notes exchanged over the counter.
  • Coin Distribution Incentive:
  • To improve the availability of metallic currency, the RBI also provides an incentive of ₹25 per bag for the distribution of coins to the general public.

Question 73

The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced in 1969 based on the recommendations of which committee?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Narasimham Committee

  2. BOption (b)

    The Gadgil Study Group (which advocated for an "Area Approach") and the Nariman Committee

  3. COption (c)

    The Rangarajan Committee

  4. DOption (d)

    The Verma Committee

  5. EOption (e)

    The Hilton Young Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Gadgil Study Group (which advocated for an "Area Approach") and the Nariman Committee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Gadgil Study Group (which advocated for an 'Area Approach') and the Nariman Committee.

Key Points

  • The Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) was launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in December 1969 to promote integrated banking development in rural and semi-urban areas.
  • The concept originated from the Area Approach recommended by the Gadgil Study Group (National Credit Council) in October 1969, which emphasized that banks should focus on specific areas to bridge credit gaps.
  • The Nariman Committee (Committee of Bankers), headed by F. K. F. Nariman, further analyzed these recommendations and proposed the operational framework for the Lead Bank Scheme.
  • Under LBS, a specific bank is designated as the Lead Bank for a district, acting as a leader to coordinate with other financial institutions and government bodies to ensure effective credit deployment.
  • The scheme aims to enhance financial inclusion and promote the District Credit Plan (DCP) to boost the local economy.

 Additional Information

  • Narasimham Committee:
  • Famous for suggesting two rounds of Banking Sector Reforms in 1991 and 1998.
  • Recommended the establishment of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in 1975 to cater to rural credit needs.
  • Rangarajan Committee:
  • Formed to address diverse economic issues, including Financial Inclusion and the methodology for Poverty Estimation in India.
  • Verma Committee:
  • Constituted in 1999 by the RBI to identify and suggest restructuring measures for weak public sector banks.
  • Hilton Young Commission:
  • Also known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (1926).
  • Its recommendations led to the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India in 1935.

Question 74

Which of the following AI chatbots is correctly matched with its parent organization?

  1. AOption (a)

    Microsoft — Co-pilot

  2. BOption (b)

    Google — Gemini

  3. COption (c)

    OpenAI — ChatGPT

  4. DOption (d)

    SEBI — SEVA

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • Organizations worldwide have accelerated the deployment of proprietary Artificial Intelligence (AI) chatbots to enhance user experience and automate customer support.

Key Points

  • Microsoft developed Copilot (formerly Bing Chat), integrating it across its Windows operating system and productivity suite.
  • Google rebranded its conversational AI efforts under the Gemini umbrella, powered by its multimodal large language models.
  • OpenAI catalyzed the generative AI wave with the launch of ChatGPT, built on its foundational GPT architectures.
  • The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced SEVA (SEBI's Virtual Assistant), an AI-powered chatbot designed to assist investors with queries related to the securities market.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Copilot
  • Launch Year - 2023
  • HQ - Redmond, Washington, USA
  • Key Technology - GPT-4 / Microsoft Prometheus
  • Google Gemini
  • Launch Year - 2023 (as Bard)
  • HQ - Mountain View, California, USA
  • Key Technology - Gemini LLM Family
  • OpenAI ChatGPT
  • Launch Year - 2022
  • HQ - San Francisco, California, USA
  • Key Technology - Generative Pre-trained Transformer
  • SEBI SEVA
  • Launch Year - 2024
  • HQ - Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
  • Primary Purpose - Investor education and grievance routing

Question 75

How many languages are supported by the Soil Health Card portal for farmers?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    22

  4. DOption (d)

    25

  5. EOption (e)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

22

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 22.

Key Points

  • The Soil Health Card (SHC) portal is a dedicated digital platform designed to facilitate the registration of soil samples, recording of test results, and the generation of Soil Health Cards for farmers across India.
  • To promote inclusive agriculture and ensure that technical soil data is accessible to the grassroots level, the portal supports 22 Indian languages for the generation and printing of the cards.
  • The 22 languages supported are aligned with those recognized under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, including Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri.
  • By providing information in regional dialects, the portal allows farmers to easily understand complex chemical compositions and nutrient deficiencies in their soil without language barriers.
  • This multilingual capability is a core feature of the Digital India initiative within the agricultural sector, ensuring that fertilizer recommendations and soil health advice reach the intended beneficiaries in their native tongue.

 Additional Information

  • Soil Health Card Scheme:
  • Launched on February 19, 2015, by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare at Suratgarh, Rajasthan.
  • The scheme aims to provide farmers with a printed report every two years detailing the nutrient status of their holdings.
  • It monitors 12 essential parameters: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K) (Macro-nutrients); Sulphur (S) (Secondary-nutrient); Zinc (Zn), Iron (Fe), Copper (Cu), Manganese (Mn), Boron (B) (Micro-nutrients); and pH, Electrical Conductivity (EC), and Organic Carbon (OC) (Physical parameters).
  • The primary slogan of the scheme is Swasth Dhara, Khet Hara (Healthy Earth, Green Farm), emphasizing the link between soil fertility and crop productivity.
  • It helps in reducing the cost of cultivation by preventing the over-application of fertilizers like Urea and encouraging the use of bio-fertilizers and organic manures.

English Language (35 questions)

Question 76

In the given questions below, there are five statements marked A-E. All statements except one belong to the same context. Find the odd one out and mark the correct answer from the given options. 

A. Governments over the world and many organizations are taking steps to prevent deforestation and to tell the benefits of planting trees. 

B. Saving initiatives are increasing to save water for future generations.

C. As the accessibility of freshwater is depleting water conservation is increasing.

D. In order to save water, we have to adapt various means that can help in maintaining the level of fresh water on earth. 

E. water-saving is a universal responsibility of every person who lives on this earth.

  1. AOption (a)

    E

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    B

  4. DOption (d)

    D

  5. EOption (e)

    C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A.

Key Points

  • To understand the context, let's analyze them:
  • Sentence E and D are about water saving.
  • Sentence C talks about one of the means to save water that is an increase in water conservation.
  • Sentence B is a continuation of sentence C as it mentions saving initiatives taken to save water.
  • So, sentence B, C, D and E all come under the same context of saving water.
  • Here, sentence A talks about deforestation which does not come under the same context as the other sentences.
  • Hence, sentence A belongs to a different context.

Question 77

In the given questions below, there are five statements marked A-E. All statements except one belong to the same context. Find the odd one out and mark the correct answer from the given options. 

A. In other words, to lead a healthy life, a person must be fit and fine both physically and mentally. 

B. While it may be part of the case, it is not entirely what good health is all about. 

C. people confuse good health with being free of any kind of illnesses. 

D. For instance, if you are constantly eating junk food yet you do not have any disease, it does not make you healthy.

E. Dealing with a problem early requires a certain amount of effort.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    E

  5. EOption (e)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is E.

Key Points

  • To understand the context, let's analyze them:
  • Sentence C and B talk about what good health is about.
  • Sentence A talks about how to lead a healthy life.
  • Sentence D is a continuation of sentence A as it explains how physically and mentally fit is counted as healthy and not just the absence of disease.
  • So, sentence A, C, D and B all come under the same context of good health.
  • ​Here, sentence E talks about dealing with problems  which does not come under the same context as the other sentences.
  • Hence, sentence E belongs to a different context.

Question 78

In the given questions below, there are five statements marked A-E. All statements except one belong to the same context. Find the odd one out and mark the correct answer from the given options. 

A. Nature is an important and integral part of mankind. 

B. Trees are important to us in a lot of ways and we cannot ignore their importance.

C. This remarkable creation inspired them to write poems and stories in the glory of it. 

D. Nature has been an inspiration for numerous poets, writers, artists and more of yesteryears. 

E. It is one of the greatest blessings for human life; however, nowadays humans fail to recognize it as one.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

  5. EOption (e)

    E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B.

Key Points

  • To understand the context, let's analyze them:
  • Sentence A and D talk about nature.
  • Sentence C talks about how nature is an inspiration to poets which was also mentioned in sentence D.
  • In sentence E, 'it' refers to nature which is the greatest blessings for humans.
  • So, sentence A, C, D and E all come under the same context of nature.
  • ​Here, sentence B talks about trees which does not come under the same context as the other sentences.
  • Hence, sentence B belongs to a different context.

Question 79

In the given questions below, there are five statements marked A-E. All statements except one belong to the same context. Find the odd one out and mark the correct answer from the given options. 

A. But this is the most entertaining season for kids who enjoy it to the fullest because their school gets off in the summer season. 

B. In this season the temperature becomes so high that water starts to evaporate very quickly.

C. The human activities have certainly caused serious damage to the Environment.

D. Usually, summers last for mid or later March to June but they can expend up to the first week of July due to a delay of monsoon.

E. Summer season is the hottest season of the year.

  1. AOption (a)

    E

  2. BOption (b)

    D

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    B

  5. EOption (e)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is C.

Key Points

  • To understand the context, let's analyze them:
  • Sentence A and E talk about the summer season.
  • Sentence B talks about the season where the temperature is high that is the summer season.
  • Sentence D talks more about summer and when it occurs.
  • So, sentence A, B, D and E all come under the same context of the summer season.
  • Here, sentence C talks about human activities which do not come under the same context as the other sentences.
  • Hence, sentence C belongs to a different context.

Question 80

Directions

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and makes a coherent sentence.

A. must be seamlessly integrated into the curriculum

B. of students preparing for rigorous academic evaluations

C. in order to effectively address the diverse learning needs

D. Advanced English linguistics and modern pedagogical strategies

E. across various competitive educational platforms.

  1. AOption (a)

    DEABC

  2. BOption (b)

    DACBE

  3. COption (c)

    CABDE

  4. DOption (d)

    ACBED

  5. EOption (e)

    DAEBC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

DACBE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • The sentence fragments need to be arranged to form a coherent and meaningful sentence.
  • The key to solving such questions is to identify the logical flow and relationship between the fragments.
  • Sentence D is the introductory phrase, as it introduces the subject of the sentence: "Advanced English linguistics and modern pedagogical strategies".
  • Sentence A follows D because it elaborates on the need for these strategies to be "seamlessly integrated into the curriculum".
  • Sentence C comes next as it explains the purpose of integration: "to effectively address the diverse learning needs".
  • Sentence B follows C because it specifies the target group: "students preparing for rigorous academic evaluations".
  • Sentence E concludes the sentence, providing further details about the context: "across various competitive educational platforms".
  • Therefore, the correct sequence is DACBE.

Coherent sentence after rearrangement:

"Advanced English linguistics and modern pedagogical strategies must be seamlessly integrated into the curriculum in order to effectively address the diverse learning needs of students preparing for rigorous academic evaluations across various competitive educational platforms."

Question 81

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    The charismatic leader delivered an inspiring speech that deeply moved the massive crowd.

  2. BOption (b)

    Finding a reliable source of clean water is crucial for the survival of the village.

  3. COption (c)

    The heavy wooden door creaked ominously as the brave detective slowly pushed it open.

  4. DOption (d)

    Although he was feeling extremely exhausted, but he continued to work on his assignment.

  5. EOption (e)

    The vibrant coral reefs are teeming with a spectacular variety of marine life.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Although he was feeling extremely exhausted, but he continued to work on his assignment.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e., "Although he was feeling extremely exhausted, but he continued to work on his assignment."

Key Points

  • The sentence contains a grammatical error due to the incorrect use of the conjunction "but."
  • The word "although" itself implies contrast, so using "but" in the same sentence creates redundancy.
  • The correct structure should be: "Although + clause, clause." The word "but" is not required after "although."
  • Correct sentence: "Although he was feeling extremely exhausted, he continued to work on his assignment."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: This sentence is grammatically correct. The use of descriptive language such as "charismatic leader" and "inspiring speech" is appropriate.
  • Option 2: This sentence is also correct. It clearly conveys the importance of clean water for the survival of the village.
  • Option 3: This sentence is correct and uses vivid imagery to describe the scene effectively.
  • Option 5: This sentence is grammatically correct. The description of coral reefs is both accurate and engaging.

Question 82

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    The gentle lapping of the ocean waves provided a soothing soundtrack for the evening.

  2. BOption (b)

    She is undoubtedly the most smartest student currently enrolled in the mathematics program.

  3. COption (c)

    The dedicated researchers worked around the clock to finalize the clinical trial results.

  4. DOption (d)

    Exploring ancient ruins offers a profound connection to our forgotten human ancestry.

  5. EOption (e)

    The crisp autumn air brought a welcome relief after months of sweltering summer heat.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

She is undoubtedly the most smartest student currently enrolled in the mathematics program.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., "She is undoubtedly the most smartest student currently enrolled in the mathematics program."

Key Points

  • The sentence "She is undoubtedly the most smartest student currently enrolled in the mathematics program" is grammatically incorrect due to redundancy.
  • In English, the word "smartest" is already in the superlative form, so the use of "most" before it is unnecessary and incorrect.
  • The correct sentence should be: "She is undoubtedly the smartest student currently enrolled in the mathematics program."
  • This error is an example of a common grammatical mistake called a "double superlative," where two superlative markers are unnecessarily used together.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The gentle lapping of the ocean waves provided a soothing soundtrack for the evening." – This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
  • Option 3: "The dedicated researchers worked around the clock to finalize the clinical trial results." – This sentence is also correct, with no grammatical or contextual errors.
  • Option 4: "Exploring ancient ruins offers a profound connection to our forgotten human ancestry." – This sentence is correct and meaningful.
  • Option 5: "The crisp autumn air brought a welcome relief after months of sweltering summer heat." – This sentence is grammatically and contextually accurate.

Question 83

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    The vibrant street market was filled with the chaotic sounds of bargaining merchants.

  2. BOption (b)

    We had barely started eating our dinner when the unexpected guests knocked on the door.

  3. COption (c)

    The company's new marketing strategy focuses heavily on engaging with younger demographics.

  4. DOption (d)

    If I was the manager, I would immediately implement a more flexible work-from-home policy.

  5. EOption (e)

    The majestic tiger prowled silently through the dense undergrowth in search of prey.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

If I was the manager, I would immediately implement a more flexible work-from-home policy.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e., "If I was the manager, I would immediately implement a more flexible work-from-home policy."

Key Points

  • The given sentence uses the incorrect form of the second conditional.
  • The second conditional is used for hypothetical or unreal situations in the present or future.
  • In the second conditional, the structure is: "If + past simple, would + base verb."
  • When using "If I were" in hypothetical statements, "were" is the correct verb, not "was."

Correct sentence: If I were the manager, I would immediately implement a more flexible work-from-home policy.

Additional Information

  • 1st Conditional Sentence:
  • Structure: If + Present Simple, will + base verb.
  • Example: If it rains, we will cancel the picnic.
  • Usage: Describes real or possible situations in the future with likely outcomes.
  • 2nd Conditional Sentence:
  • Structure: If + Past Simple, would + base verb.
  • Example: If I had more money, I would buy a bigger house.
  • Usage: Describes hypothetical or unreal situations in the present or future.
  • 3rd Conditional Sentence:
  • Structure: If + Past Perfect, would have + past participle.
  • Example: If she had studied harder, she would have passed the exam.
  • Usage: Refers to unreal past situations and their imagined outcomes.

Question 84

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully, choose the one that is grammatically/contextually incorrect, and mark it as your answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    The intricate details of the Gothic cathedral never fail to amaze visiting architects.

  2. BOption (b)

    After finishing his exhausting shift, the security guard returned back to his small apartment.

  3. COption (c)

    The soothing melody of the classical piano concerto filled the grand concert hall.

  4. DOption (d)

    Developing sustainable energy sources is crucial for combating global climate change.

  5. EOption (e)

    The mischievous puppy playfully chased its own tail around the spacious living room.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

After finishing his exhausting shift, the security guard returned back to his small apartment.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., After finishing his exhausting shift, the security guard returned back to his small apartment.

Key Points

  • The sentence "After finishing his exhausting shift, the security guard returned back to his small apartment" contains a redundancy issue.
  • The phrase "returned back" is incorrect because "returned" already implies coming back, making the word "back" unnecessary.
  • The correct sentence should be: "After finishing his exhausting shift, the security guard returned to his small apartment."
  • This avoids redundancy and ensures grammatical precision.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The intricate details of the Gothic cathedral never fail to amaze visiting architects." This sentence is grammatically correct and contextually appropriate.
  • Option 3: "The soothing melody of the classical piano concerto filled the grand concert hall." This sentence is also correct and has no grammatical errors.
  • Option 4: "Developing sustainable energy sources is crucial for combating global climate change." This is a grammatically sound and meaningful sentence.
  • Option 5: "The mischievous puppy playfully chased its own tail around the spacious living room." This sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually appropriate.

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The psychological and economic reorientation of consumer leisure during the COVID-19 pandemic catalyzed an unprecedented surge in digital escapism, a phenomenon nowhere more pronounced than in Japan’s highly digitized entertainment ecosystem. A comprehensive socioeconomic survey evaluating Japanese behavioral shifts during extended states of emergency revealed an intriguing convergence between immersive video games and state-sanctioned lottery systems (Takarakuji). Historically, video games and lotteries occupied distinct demographic niches—the former leaning toward a tech-savvy youth populace and the latter anchoring older, risk-averse demographics seeking modest financial windfalls. However, prolonged domestic confinement blurred these traditional boundaries. The survey indicates that while traditional console gaming witnessed a sharp spike due to the social connectivity offered by multiplayer simulations, mobile gacha gaming (a mechanism where players spend virtual currency to receive randomized in-game items) expanded concurrently with digital lottery ticket sales.

This convergence points to a deeper cognitive coping mechanism under macroeconomic duress. As traditional avenues of recreational risk and community interaction were shuttered, both video games and the lottery functioned as low-cost vehicles for dopamine regulation and optimism. Interestingly, the data revealed that individuals who engaged heavily in gacha microtransactions during the pandemic showed a higher statistical propensity to purchase digital lottery tickets via web portals. Economists analyze this crossover as a manifestation of the "substitution effect," where consumers locked out of brick-and-mortar entertainment venues redirected their discretionary income toward high-frequency, variable-reward digital architectures. While the pandemic-era boom in physical lottery stalls waned due to social distancing mandates, the state’s rapid virtualization of lottery platforms successfully captured the highly engaged gaming demographic, permanently altering the landscape of consumer wagering in post-pandemic Japan.

Question 85

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The passage suggests that the blurring of lines between video games and lotteries in Japan was primarily driven by:

  1. AOption (a)

    Government mandates that forced video game developers to integrate lottery systems into their software.

  2. BOption (b)

    The complete decline of youth interest in traditional console gaming during the pandemic.

  3. COption (c)

    Prolonged domestic confinement and the need for alternative forms of risk-reward entertainment.

  4. DOption (d)

    A massive drop in the prices of mobile gacha microtransactions during the states of emergency.

  5. EOption (e)

    The refusal of older demographics to buy lottery tickets through traditional brick-and-mortar stalls.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Prolonged domestic confinement and the need for alternative forms of risk-reward entertainment.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage states that 'prolonged domestic confinement' blurred the traditional boundaries between demographic niches associated with gaming and lotteries.
  • It explains that both activities functioned as low-cost vehicles for dopamine regulation and optimism as traditional recreational avenues were closed.
  • The "substitution effect" drove consumers to redirect discretionary income toward 'high-frequency, variable-reward digital architectures' during the pandemic.
  • Therefore, the convergence was primarily driven by environmental factors and the psychological need for risk-reward engagement.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

 

Summary Statement: The blurring of lines resulted from behavioral shifts caused by domestic confinement, leading consumers to seek out digital, variable-reward entertainment as a replacement for physical leisure.

 

Additional Information

  • A: Government mandates... – While lotteries are state-sanctioned, the text does not mention mandates forcing developers to integrate lottery systems into software.
  • B: Complete decline of youth interest... – This is incorrect; the passage explicitly mentions that traditional console gaming witnessed a "sharp spike" during the pandemic.
  • D: Massive drop in the prices... – The passage does not discuss price drops in microtransactions; it focuses on the shift in how consumers spent their discretionary income.
  • E: Refusal of older demographics... – The passage suggests the state virtualized platforms to capture the gaming demographic, rather than a refusal by older demographics to use physical stalls being the primary driver of the "blurring."

Question 86

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How did the Japanese state-sanctioned lottery system survive the pandemic-era decline of physical lottery stalls?

  1. AOption (a)

    By banning foreign video games to eliminate competition for domestic leisure spending.

  2. BOption (b)

    By transitioning its platforms online, thereby tapping into the active digital gaming demographic.

  3. COption (c)

    By restructuring its prizes to exclusively feature rare, in-game virtual assets for gacha players.

  4. DOption (d)

    By heavily subsidizing console manufacturers to include lottery applications pre-installed.

  5. EOption (e)

    By targeting older demographics through traditional television advertising campaigns.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

By transitioning its platforms online, thereby tapping into the active digital gaming demographic.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The passage states that while physical lottery stalls suffered during the pandemic due to social distancing, the system adapted through virtualization.
  • According to the text, the "state’s rapid virtualization of lottery platforms successfully captured the highly engaged gaming demographic."
  • This shift allowed the lottery to reach consumers who were already spending time on digital architectures like video games and gacha mechanics.
  • Thus, the survival of the lottery system is directly attributed to its online transition and its ability to tap into the digital gaming audience.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

 

Correct Answer: By transitioning its platforms online, thereby tapping into the active digital gaming demographic.

 

Additional Information

  • A: Banning foreign video games – The passage makes no mention of the government banning foreign competition; it focuses on the convergence of existing domestic sectors.
  • C: Restructuring prizes for virtual assets – While it mentions gacha mechanics, it does not state that the lottery changed its prizes to in-game items; rather, it captured the demographic that likes those mechanics.
  • D: Subsidizing console manufacturers – There is no evidence in the text regarding subsidies or pre-installed lottery applications on consoles.
  • E: Targeting older demographics – The text identifies older demographics as the traditional niche, but the strategy that helped the system survive and adapt during the pandemic was targeting the gaming demographic through virtualization.

Question 87

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The phrase "substitution effect" as used in the second paragraph refers to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Replacing physical social interaction with automated AI-driven gaming tutors.

  2. BOption (b)

    The government substituting traditional tax revenues with lottery profits.

  3. COption (c)

    Players trading mobile gacha gaming mechanics for high-end console simulations.

  4. DOption (d)

    Shifting discretionary spending from closed physical entertainment venues to digital, variable-reward platforms.

  5. EOption (e)

    Substituting high-risk financial investments with low-risk government bonds.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shifting discretionary spending from closed physical entertainment venues to digital, variable-reward platforms.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option D.

 

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly defines the "substitution effect" in the context of consumer economic behavior during the pandemic.
  • It describes a scenario where consumers were "locked out of brick-and-mortar entertainment venues" due to social distancing and lockdowns.
  • As a result, these consumers "redirected their discretionary income" toward "high-frequency, variable-reward digital architectures," such as gacha games and digital lotteries.
  • Therefore, the term refers to shifting spending from physical venues to digital platforms, making Option D the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is D.

 

Correct Context: "Economists analyze this crossover as a manifestation of the 'substitution effect,' where consumers locked out of brick-and-mortar entertainment venues redirected their discretionary income toward high-frequency, variable-reward digital architectures."

 

Additional Information

  • Option A: While the passage mentions social connectivity in games, it does not discuss AI-driven tutors or their use as a replacement for interaction.
  • Option B: The passage mentions the state's virtualization of lotteries, but the "substitution effect" specifically describes the shift in consumer spending, not government revenue policy.
  • Option C: The text states that gacha gaming and console gaming expanded or converged, rather than one substituting for the other.
  • Option E: There is no mention of government bonds or high-risk financial investment trading in the provided text.

Question 88

Directions

Choose the combinations that create the correct sentences.

A. Markus wanted to pursue further studiesi. whereasD. he will miss the birthday party.
B. Matthew will be going to a matchii. furthermoreE. they wanted to go for a movie.
C. Sarah wanted to meet up with her friends for a picniciii. as a resultF. his father was very supportive.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only B - ii - E

  2. BOption (b)

    Only C - ii - D

  3. COption (c)

    B - iii - D and C - i - E

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A - i - D

  5. EOption (e)

    Only C - iii - F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B - iii - D and C - i - E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'B - iii - D and C - i - E'. 

Key Points

To choose the correct combination, we will have to go through all the options one by one. 

  • The combination B - iii - D i.e. 'Matthew will be going to a match, as a result, he will miss the birthday party.' is correct because the first action is the cause of the second action.
  • The connector 'as a result' is a causative connector that is used to connect the cause of an event and the event itself. 
  • Example: As a result of their poor performance in the preliminaries, the team was scrapped from the roster.
  • The first statement talks about Matthew going to a match in the future, an action that is going to happen but is not clear as the cause of something.
  • The second statement tells us what Matthew going to the match will cause, it will mean that he would miss a birthday party.

So, the correct answer is 'B - iii - D'.

  • The combination 'C - i - E' i.e. Sarah wants to meet up with her friends for a picnic whereas they want to go for a movie.' is correct as the 2 actions in the sentence are contrasting.
  • The connector 'whereas' is used to represent a contradiction, where one action goes in an opposing direction to another. 
  • Example: Samantha wanted to have 2 kids after marriage whereas Sally wanted to have just one.
  • The first statement talks about Sarah wanting to go to a picnic, this is one action that can happen at that time.
  • At the same time, her friends wanted to go for a movie, this is a different/ opposing action to what Sarah.

So, the correct answer is 'C - i - E'.

Question 89

Directions

Choose the combinations that create the correct sentences.

A. The police were tired of chasing the burglari. moreoverD. she also wants to go on a long drive.
B. Ashley was participating in a marathonii. whereasE. she was also a part of the high jump.
C. Marianne wants to get ice cream after lunchiii. plusF. she was still sprinting on the road.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only A - i - D

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B - ii - E

  3. COption (c)

    Only C - iii - F

  4. DOption (d)

    A - ii - F and B - i - E

  5. EOption (e)

    C - iii - D and B - ii - E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - ii - F and B - i - E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'A - ii - F and B - i - E'

Key Points

To choose the correct combination, we will have to go through all the options one by one. 

  • The combination A - ii - F i.e. The police were tired of chasing the burglar whereas she was still sprinting on the road' is correct because the sentence presents 2 contrasting facts.
  • The connector 'whereas' is used to connect 2 statements that are opposing in nature or go against expectations. 
  • Example: Mary preferred mint chocolate chip ice cream whereas Jennie thought it tasted like toothpaste.
  • The first part of the sentence talks about how the police were tired of chasing a burglar, it would also make sense that the person they were chasing would also be tired.
  • The second part of the sentence talks about how the burglar (on the other hand) wasn't tired and was still running really fast.

So, the correct answer is 'A - ii - F'

  • The combination 'B - i - E' i.e. 'Ashley was participating in a marathon, moreover, she was also part of the high jump' is correct as the second part of the sentence is adding n to the first part of the sentence.
  • The connector 'moreover' is used to represent addition, it is used when a second statement is agreeing with or adding on to the action in the first part. 
  • Example: Sara was promoted because of her talent, moreover her academic achievements were excellent.
  • The first part of the sentence talks about Ashley participating in a marathon which is a sporting activity.
  • The second part of the sentence talks about Ashley also participating in the 'high jump' which is also a sporting activity.

So, the correct answer is 'B - i - E'. 

Additional Information

Let's look at the meanings of some of the hard words/terms:

  • Sprinting: run at full speed over a short distance
  • High jump: an athletic event in which competitors jump over a bar that is raised until only one competitor can jump over it without dislodging it

Question 90

Directions

Choose the combinations that create the correct sentences.**

A. Manisha had overtaxed herselfi. despite thatD. she just couldn't afford it at the moment.
B. Sammy really wanted to purchase a house for her familyii. as a resultE. they will leave all their inheritance to him.
C. Orion wants to abandon his parents in an old age homeiii. howeverF. she collapsed on her way to work.
  1. AOption (a)

    C - i - E and A - ii - F

  2. BOption (b)

    Only C - ii - D

  3. COption (c)

    Only A - i - D

  4. DOption (d)

    Only C - iii - F

  5. EOption (e)

    B - ii - E and C - i - E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

C - i - E and A - ii - F

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'C - i - E and A - ii - F'

Key Points

To choose the correct combination, we will have to go through all the options one by one. 

  • The combination 'C - i - E' i.e. Orion wants to abandon his parents in an old age home, despite that, they will leave all their inheritance to him.' is correct as it represents a contrast in what is expected from the first statement.
  • The connector 'despite' is used to represent contrasting actions in a sentence. 
  • Example: Despite having met just the other day, the children already missed one another.
  • The first statement of the sentence talks about Orion abandoning his parents in an old-age home. One would expect that they would cut him off.
  • The second statement talks about how even after his action, Orion's parents are still leaving him with their inheritance.

So, the correct answer is 'C - i - E'. 

  • The combination 'A - ii - F' i.e. Manisha had overtaxed herself, as a result, she collapsed on her way to work' is correct as it talks about an action and its consequence.
  • The connector 'as a result' is used to refer to cause - and - effect in a sentence. 
  • Example: Mary stayed up all night to study for the exam, as a result, she was dozing off during the exam.
  • The first statement talks about Manisha overworking herself, this is the action (cause) that will have an effect later on.
  • The second statement talks about how Manisha fainted on her way to work (the effect of overworking herself).

So, the correct answer is 'A - ii - F'. 

Additional Information

Let's look at the meanings of some of the hard words/terms:

  • Overtaxed (past tense for 'overtax'): make excessive demands on (a person's strength, abilities, etc.).
  • Collapsed (past tense for 'collapse'): fall down and become unconscious

Question 91

Directions

Choose the combinations that create the correct sentences.**

A. Marco was punishedi. consequentlyD. she was really frustrated by her haywire roommate.
B. Sara was an ace when it came to squashii. henceE. Sally forgetting to bringing his notebook to school.
C. Monica was very particular when it came to her belongingsiii. due toF. she was scouted by multiple sports colleges.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only A - i - D

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B - ii- E

  3. COption (c)

    Only C - iii - F

  4. DOption (d)

    Only B - ii - F

  5. EOption (e)

    Only C - iii - D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only B - ii - F

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only B - ii - F

Key Points

To choose the correct combination, we will have to go through all the options one by one. 

  • The combination 'Sara was an ace when it came to squash hence, she was scouted by multiple sports colleges' is correct because the sentence represents a cause and effect situation.
  • 'Hence' is a causative connector that represents one action that causes another action within the sentence. 
  • Example: Rachel was very tired after a cumbersome day at work, hence she went to sleep without eating.
  • The first statement refers to the cause of the event, the fact that Sara was very good at playing Squash.
  • This led to the effect, which was that her being an ace meant she was sought out by various sports colleges.

Thus, the correct answer is Only B - ii - F

Additional Information

  • 'Hence', 'thus' and 'consequently' are causative connectors.
  • They are usually used in the middle of the sentence. 
  • Example: Michael was bad at driving, thus his father didn't trust him with the new car.

                                      BTS was awarded with the 'Rookie of the Year' award multiple times, consequently, they popped up on everyone's radar. 

Let's look at the meanings of some difficult words:

  • Ace: a person who excels at a particular sport or other activity
  • Haywire: erratic; out of control
  • Cumbersome: slow or complicated and therefore inefficient

Direction: In the passage given below there are 6 phrases given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which will best suit the respective bank. Mark (5) as your answer if the phrase given in bold after the blank is your answer, i.e., 'No improvement required'.

The rapid digitisation of the global education sector has shifted from a convenience to a structural necessity. With the sudden onset of generative Artificial Intelligence (AI), traditional pedagogical models are being completely overhauled. However, as institutions rush to integrate customised large language models into their curricula, they are confronting with a digital divide (A) that deepens existing socioeconomic disparities. For AI tools to truly democratise learning, developers must focus on localising content, rather than assuming a one-size-fits-all framework. Moreover, schools must be cautious about over-relying on automated grading engines, which often fail to assess critical thinking and tend to view unique perspectives like anomalies (B) in student writing.

Advocates argue that personalised AI tutors can offer real-time feedback, effectively functioning as a scalable equaliser for underprivileged classrooms. Yet, this optimistic outlook ignores the fact that millions of students still lack stable broadband access, rendering the promise of AI-driven equity to a distant dream (C). Educational boards must realise that technology should supplement, rather than supplant, human instruction. Instead of blindly procuring software licenses, administrations need to invest in training educators on how to leverage these tools responsibly (D). Only when teachers are empowered can technology transform classrooms into centres of active innovation, rather than spaces of passive consumption.

Furthermore, data privacy remains a monumental concern as ed-tech platforms quietly harvest vast troops of student behavioural analytics. Critics have raised the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails (E) protecting minors from targeted algorithm manipulation. Without robust legislative frameworks, the commercialisation of student data could lead to systemic profiling. If governments fail to intervene decisively at this junction, the commercial interests of tech conglomerates will inevitably triumph over student welfare (F), cementing inequities for generations to come.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words most appropriately replaces the blank labelled (A)?

  1. AOption (a)

    they are confronted with a digital divide

  2. BOption (b)

    they are confronting across a digital divide

  3. COption (c)

    they are being confronted by a digital divide

  4. DOption (d)

    they are confronting to a digital divide

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

they are confronted with a digital divide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'they are confronted with a digital divide'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence describes a situation where educational institutions are facing a significant obstacle or challenge.
  • The original phrase "confronting with" is grammatically incorrect. The verb 'confront' is transitive and typically used as 'confronting something' in the active voice or 'confronted with something' in the passive voice.
  • "They are confronted with" is the standard idiomatic expression used to indicate that someone is faced with a difficult situation or problem.
  • Other options like "confronting across", "being confronted by", or "confronting to" either use incorrect prepositions or result in awkward phrasing that does not match standard English usage in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option A'.

 

Complete Passage: The rapid digitisation of the global education sector has shifted from a convenience to a structural necessity. With the sudden onset of generative Artificial Intelligence (AI), traditional pedagogical models are being completely overhauled. However, as institutions rush to integrate customised large language models into their curricula, they are confronted with a digital divide that deepens existing socioeconomic disparities. For AI tools to truly democratise learning, developers must focus on localising content, rather than assuming a one-size-fits-all framework. Moreover, schools must be cautious about over-relying on automated grading engines, which often fail to assess critical thinking and tend to view unique perspectives like anomalies (B) in student writing.

Advocates argue that personalised AI tutors can offer real-time feedback, effectively functioning as a scalable equaliser for underprivileged classrooms. Yet, this optimistic outlook ignores the fact that millions of students still lack stable broadband access, rendering the promise of AI-driven equity to a distant dream (C). Educational boards must realise that technology should supplement, rather than supplant, human instruction. Instead of blindly procuring software licenses, administrations need to invest in training educators on how to leverage these tools responsibly (D). Only when teachers are empowered can technology transform classrooms into centres of active innovation, rather than spaces of passive consumption.

Furthermore, data privacy remains a monumental concern as ed-tech platforms quietly harvest vast troops of student behavioural analytics. Critics have raised the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails (E) protecting minors from targeted algorithm manipulation. Without robust legislative frameworks, the commercialisation of student data could lead to systemic profiling. If governments fail to intervene decisively at this junction, the commercial interests of tech conglomerates will inevitably triumph over student welfare (F), cementing inequities for generations to come.

Additional Information

  • Confront (Verb): To face up to and deal with (a problem or difficult situation).
  • Passive Voice: When the subject is the recipient of the action, we use "to be + past participle." In this case, the institutions (subject) are the ones facing the divide.
  • Idiom: "To be confronted with" is a set phrase meaning to be presented with a challenge or evidence that must be addressed.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words most appropriately replaces the blank labelled (B)?

  1. AOption (a)

    tend to view unique perspectives such as anomalies

  2. BOption (b)

    tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies

  3. COption (c)

    tend to view unique perspectives identical to anomalies

  4. DOption (d)

    tend to view unique perspectives similar to anomalies

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the limitations of automated grading engines in assessing student writing.
  • The verb 'view' (or regard/perceive) is idiomatically followed by the preposition 'as' when identifying the nature, role, or category of the object being discussed.
  • While 'like' is often used for comparison in informal speech, 'as' is required here because the automated engines are categorizing the perspectives into the status of being anomalies.
  • 'Option B' correctly uses the idiomatic structure "view [something] as [something]".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option B'.

 

Complete Passage: The rapid digitisation of the global education sector has shifted from a convenience to a structural necessity. With the sudden onset of generative Artificial Intelligence (AI), traditional pedagogical models are being completely overhauled. However, as institutions rush to integrate customised large language models into their curricula, they are confronted with a digital divide that deepens existing socioeconomic disparities. For AI tools to truly democratise learning, developers must focus on localising content, rather than assuming a one-size-fits-all framework. Moreover, schools must be cautious about over-relying on automated grading engines, which often fail to assess critical thinking and tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies in student writing.

Advocates argue that personalised AI tutors can offer real-time feedback, effectively functioning as a scalable equaliser for underprivileged classrooms. Yet, this optimistic outlook ignores the fact that millions of students still lack stable broadband access, rendering the promise of AI-driven equity to a distant dream (C). Educational boards must realise that technology should supplement, rather than supplant, human instruction. Instead of blindly procuring software licenses, administrations need to invest in training educators on how to leverage these tools responsibly (D). Only when teachers are empowered can technology transform classrooms into centres of active innovation, rather than spaces of passive consumption.

Furthermore, data privacy remains a monumental concern as ed-tech platforms quietly harvest vast troops of student behavioural analytics. Critics have raised the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails (E) protecting minors from targeted algorithm manipulation. Without robust legislative frameworks, the commercialisation of student data could lead to systemic profiling. If governments fail to intervene decisively at this junction, the commercial interests of tech conglomerates will inevitably triumph over student welfare (F), cementing inequities for generations to come.

Additional Information

  • Such as (जैसे कि): Used to introduce specific examples, which does not fit the requirement of defining how the engines perceive perspectives.
  • Identical to / Similar to (के समान): These phrases indicate a degree of resemblance but do not satisfy the idiomatic requirement of the verb 'view' in this context.
  • Like (की तरह): Often used for comparison between two different things, whereas 'as' is used to describe the actual function or classification.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words most appropriately replaces the blank labelled (C)?

  1. AOption (a)

    rendering the promise of AI-driven equity as a distant dream

  2. BOption (b)

    rendering the promise of AI-driven equity into a distant dream

  3. COption (c)

    rendering the promise of AI-driven equity a distant dream

  4. DOption (d)

    rendering the promise of AI-driven equity toward a distant dream

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

rendering the promise of AI-driven equity a distant dream

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'rendering the promise of AI-driven equity a distant dream'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence discusses how the lack of broadband access negatively impacts the potential of AI tools to create equality.
  • The verb "render" is used here to mean "to cause someone or something to be in a particular state."
  • When used in this sense, the grammatical structure is typically "render + object + complement" (adjective or noun phrase), without a preposition.
  • In the original phrase, the preposition "to" is grammatically redundant and incorrect.
  • "Option C" correctly provides the direct object ("the promise of AI-driven equity") followed immediately by the noun phrase complement ("a distant dream").

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option C'.

 

Complete Passage: The rapid digitisation of the global education sector has shifted from a convenience to a structural necessity. With the sudden onset of generative Artificial Intelligence (AI), traditional pedagogical models are being completely overhauled. However, as institutions rush to integrate customised large language models into their curricula, they are confronted with a digital divide that deepens existing socioeconomic disparities. For AI tools to truly democratise learning, developers must focus on localising content, rather than assuming a one-size-fits-all framework. Moreover, schools must be cautious about over-relying on automated grading engines, which often fail to assess critical thinking and tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies in student writing.

Advocates argue that personalised AI tutors can offer real-time feedback, effectively functioning as a scalable equaliser for underprivileged classrooms. Yet, this optimistic outlook ignores the fact that millions of students still lack stable broadband access, rendering the promise of AI-driven equity a distant dream. Educational boards must realise that technology should supplement, rather than supplant, human instruction. Instead of blindly procuring software licenses, administrations need to invest in training educators on how to leverage these tools responsibly (D). Only when teachers are empowered can technology transform classrooms into centres of active innovation, rather than spaces of passive consumption.

Furthermore, data privacy remains a monumental concern as ed-tech platforms quietly harvest vast troops of student behavioural analytics. Critics have raised the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails (E) protecting minors from targeted algorithm manipulation. Without robust legislative frameworks, the commercialisation of student data could lead to systemic profiling. If governments fail to intervene decisively at this junction, the commercial interests of tech conglomerates will inevitably triumph over student welfare (F), cementing inequities for generations to come.

Additional Information

  • Option A: The use of "as" is redundant after "render" when describing a resulting state.
  • Option B: "Into" is more commonly used with verbs like "transform" or "change," but is incorrect with "render" in this context.
  • Option D: "Toward" suggests a direction or movement, which does not fit the intended meaning of establishing a resultant state.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words most appropriately replaces the blank labelled (D)?

  1. AOption (a)

    inside how to leverage these tools responsibly

  2. BOption (b)

    over how leveraging these tools responsibly

  3. COption (c)

    for how to leverage these tools responsibly

  4. DOption (d)

    in how to leverage these tools responsibly

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No replacement required

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'No replacement required'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence discusses the need for administrations to invest in training educators regarding the use of AI tools.
  • The preposition "on" is correctly used here to introduce the specific subject or topic of the training (the method of leveraging tools).
  • The phrase "on how to leverage these tools responsibly" is grammatically correct, idiomatic, and fits the formal tone of the passage.
  • Replacing "on" with "inside", "over", or "for" would result in ungrammatical or non-standard English constructions in this context. While "in" (Option D) is sometimes used for training, "on" is perfectly acceptable for specific applications or methods, making a replacement unnecessary.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option E'.

 

Complete Passage: The rapid digitisation of the global education sector has shifted from a convenience to a structural necessity. With the sudden onset of generative Artificial Intelligence (AI), traditional pedagogical models are being completely overhauled. However, as institutions rush to integrate customised large language models into their curricula, they are confronted with a digital divide that deepens existing socioeconomic disparities. For AI tools to truly democratise learning, developers must focus on localising content, rather than assuming a one-size-fits-all framework. Moreover, schools must be cautious about over-relying on automated grading engines, which often fail to assess critical thinking and tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies in student writing.

Advocates argue that personalised AI tutors can offer real-time feedback, effectively functioning as a scalable equaliser for underprivileged classrooms. Yet, this optimistic outlook ignores the fact that millions of students still lack stable broadband access, rendering the promise of AI-driven equity a distant dream. Educational boards must realise that technology should supplement, rather than supplant, human instruction. Instead of blindly procuring software licenses, administrations need to invest in training educators on how to leverage these tools responsibly. Only when teachers are empowered can technology transform classrooms into centres of active innovation, rather than spaces of passive consumption.

Furthermore, data privacy remains a monumental concern as ed-tech platforms quietly harvest vast troops of student behavioural analytics. Critics have raised the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails (E) protecting minors from targeted algorithm manipulation. Without robust legislative frameworks, the commercialisation of student data could lead to systemic profiling. If governments fail to intervene decisively at this junction, the commercial interests of tech conglomerates will inevitably triumph over student welfare (F), cementing inequities for generations to come.

Additional Information

  • Inside: Typically refers to the interior of a physical space or object; it is incorrect when describing the topic of training.
  • Over: While it can mean "concerning," it is not the standard preposition used with "training" to denote the skill being taught.
  • For: Usually indicates a purpose or recipient; "training for [a goal]" is common, but "training for how to..." is less idiomatic than "on how to."

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words most appropriately replaces the blank labelled (E)?

  1. AOption (a)

    raised a red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails

  2. BOption (b)

    risen the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails

  3. COption (c)

    raised red flags across the lack of stringent guardrails

  4. DOption (d)

    aroused the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No replacement required

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'No replacement required'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence discusses critics expressing alarm or warning regarding the lack of safety measures in student data privacy.
  • The idiom "raise the red flag" (or "raise a red flag") means to signal a warning that something is wrong or potentially dangerous.
  • The verb "raised" is the past tense of the transitive verb "raise", which correctly takes the object "the red flag".
  • The preposition "over" is appropriately used to indicate the subject or reason for the concern.
  • Since the phrase as written in the passage is grammatically sound and idiomatically correct, no changes are needed.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option E'.

 

Complete Passage: The rapid digitisation of the global education sector has shifted from a convenience to a structural necessity. With the sudden onset of generative Artificial Intelligence (AI), traditional pedagogical models are being completely overhauled. However, as institutions rush to integrate customised large language models into their curricula, they are confronted with a digital divide that deepens existing socioeconomic disparities. For AI tools to truly democratise learning, developers must focus on localising content, rather than assuming a one-size-fits-all framework. Moreover, schools must be cautious about over-relying on automated grading engines, which often fail to assess critical thinking and tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies in student writing.

Advocates argue that personalised AI tutors can offer real-time feedback, effectively functioning as a scalable equaliser for underprivileged classrooms. Yet, this optimistic outlook ignores the fact that millions of students still lack stable broadband access, rendering the promise of AI-driven equity a distant dream. Educational boards must realise that technology should supplement, rather than supplant, human instruction. Instead of blindly procuring software licenses, administrations need to invest in training educators on how to leverage these tools responsibly. Only when teachers are empowered can technology transform classrooms into centres of active innovation, rather than spaces of passive consumption.

Furthermore, data privacy remains a monumental concern as ed-tech platforms quietly harvest vast troops of student behavioural analytics. Critics have raised the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails protecting minors from targeted algorithm manipulation. Without robust legislative frameworks, the commercialisation of student data could lead to systemic profiling. If governments fail to intervene decisively at this junction, the commercial interests of tech conglomerates will inevitably triumph over student welfare (F), cementing inequities for generations to come.

Additional Information

  • Risen (Option B): "Rise" is an intransitive verb (it does not take an object), so it cannot be used with "the red flag".
  • Across (Option C): The preposition "across" does not correctly link the act of raising a warning to the specific subject of the concern; "over" or "regarding" is preferred.
  • Aroused (Option D): While "arouse" is a transitive verb, it means to evoke a feeling or response (e.g., arouse suspicion) and does not fit the specific "red flag" idiom.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words most appropriately replaces the blank labelled (F)?

  1. AOption (a)

    would inevitably triumph over student welfare

  2. BOption (b)

    will be inevitably triumphing over student welfare

  3. COption (c)

    will inevitably triumph against student welfare

  4. DOption (d)

    shall inevitably triumphing over student welfare

  5. EOption (e)

    No replacement required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No replacement required

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'No replacement required'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence follows the structure of a Type 1 Conditional sentence, which describes a probable future result based on a condition.
  • The grammatical pattern for Type 1 conditionals is: If + present simple (fail), ... future simple (will + triumph).
  • The phrase "triumph over" is the correct idiomatic expression used to indicate achieving a victory or superiority over an opponent or obstacle.
  • Since the original phrase "will inevitably triumph over student welfare" perfectly adheres to these grammatical rules and idiomatic usage, no changes are necessary.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 5'.

 

Complete Passage: The rapid digitisation of the global education sector has shifted from a convenience to a structural necessity. With the sudden onset of generative Artificial Intelligence (AI), traditional pedagogical models are being completely overhauled. However, as institutions rush to integrate customised large language models into their curricula, they are confronted with a digital divide that deepens existing socioeconomic disparities. For AI tools to truly democratise learning, developers must focus on localising content, rather than assuming a one-size-fits-all framework. Moreover, schools must be cautious about over-relying on automated grading engines, which often fail to assess critical thinking and tend to view unique perspectives as anomalies in student writing.

Advocates argue that personalised AI tutors can offer real-time feedback, effectively functioning as a scalable equaliser for underprivileged classrooms. Yet, this optimistic outlook ignores the fact that millions of students still lack stable broadband access, rendering the promise of AI-driven equity a distant dream. Educational boards must realise that technology should supplement, rather than supplant, human instruction. Instead of blindly procuring software licenses, administrations need to invest in training educators on how to leverage these tools responsibly. Only when teachers are empowered can technology transform classrooms into centres of active innovation, rather than spaces of passive consumption.

Furthermore, data privacy remains a monumental concern as ed-tech platforms quietly harvest vast troops of student behavioural analytics. Critics have raised the red flag over the lack of stringent guardrails protecting minors from targeted algorithm manipulation. Without robust legislative frameworks, the commercialisation of student data could lead to systemic profiling. If governments fail to intervene decisively at this junction, the commercial interests of tech conglomerates will inevitably triumph over student welfare, cementing inequities for generations to come

Additional Information

  • Option A: "Would" is used in Type 2 conditionals (hypothetical situations), which would require the first part of the sentence to be in the past tense ("If governments failed...").
  • Option C: "Against" is sometimes used with triumph, but "triumph over" is the standard idiom for established victory or dominance.
  • Options B & D: These options use "triumphing" incorrectly. In Option B, the continuous form "will be triumphing" is unnecessarily wordy for a certain outcome, and in Option D, "shall triumphing" is grammatically incorrect.

Question 98

A passage is given below followed by several conclusions which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passages. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage, decide upon its truth or falsity, and choose the conclusion that best supports the passage. 

Physics is pure science that seeks to understand the behaviour of matter without regard to whether it will afford any practical benefit. Engineering is the correlative applied science in which physical theories are put to some specific use, such as building a bridge or a nuclear reactor. Engineers obviously rely heavily on the discoveries of physicists, but an engineer's knowledge of the world is not the same as the physicist's knowledge. In fact, an engineer's know-how will often depend on physical theories that are false from the point of view of pure physics. There are some reasons for this. First, false theories in the purest and strictest sense are sometimes very good approximations to the true ones and often have the added virtue of being much easier to work with. Second, sometimes the true theories apply only under highly idealized conditions, which can only be created under controlled experimental situations. The engineer finds that in the real world, theories rejected by physicists yield more accurate predictions than the ones that they accept.

The passage, if true, is best supported by which of the following conclusions?

  1. AOption (a)

    The relationship between pure and applied science is strictly linear, with the pure science directing applied science, and never the other way round. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Though engineering draws heavily from pure science, it contributes to knowledge, by incorporating the constraints and conditions in the real world. 

  3. COption (c)

    The unique task of the engineer is to identify, understand, and interpret the design constraints to produce a successful result. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Engineering and physics fundamentally differ on matters like building a bridge or a nuclear reactor.

  5. EOption (e)

    Sometimes the true theories apply not only under highly idealized conditions but also under normal conditions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Though engineering draws heavily from pure science, it contributes to knowledge, by incorporating the constraints and conditions in the real world. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Though engineering draws heavily from pure science, it contributes to knowledge, by incorporating the constraints and conditions in the real world. 

Key Points

The passage broadly talks about the difference between purse science and applied science, i.e. engineering. Further the author says that engineers might find even those theories of physics useful that from the point of view of pure physics are false.

  • Option 2 precisely captures that. It says that engineering incorporates the constraints and conditions of physics in the real world.
  • Option 1 says the relationship is strictly linear, but that is not the case. Had that been the case, the false theories of pure science could not have been used by engineers for accurate predictions.
  • Option 3 goes out because it does not even mention the word pure science. It solely focuses on engineers, ignoring the relationship between purse science and engineering.
  • Option 4 gives a summary that is totally different from the what the passage discusses.
  • Option 5 is eliminated since it is mentioned in the passage that "sometimes the true theories apply only under highly idealized conditions" The passage does not mention theory applied under normal conditions.

Question 99

A passage is given below followed by several conclusions which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passages. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage, decide upon its truth or falsity, and choose the conclusion that best supports the passage.

Virtual currency is a type of digital currency that is only available in electronic form and not in physical form. It is stored and transacted in only through designated software, mobile or computer applications, or through dedicated digital wallets, and the transactions occur over the Internet or over secure dedicated networks. Virtual currency is considered to be a subset of the digital currency group, which also includes cryptocurrencies. Such virtual currencies are often represented in terms of tokens and may remain unregulated without a legal tender. Unlike regular money, it relies on a system of trust and may not be issued by a central bank or other banking regulatory authority. Due to the lack of a centralized regulatory authority, such virtual currencies are prone to wide swings in their valuations. They derive their value based on the underlying mechanism, like mining in cases of cryptocurrencies, or the backing by the underlying asset. Virtual currencies usually have restricted usage, and it may be in circulation only among the members of a specific online community or a virtual group of users who transact online on dedicated networks.

The passage if true, is best supported by which of the following conclusions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Virtual currencies are less volatile and not subjected to various risks.

  2. BOption (b)

    Virtual coins are necessary to be regulated by the government and hence don’t have wide swings and variations.

  3. COption (c)

    To have virtual currencies in circulation there must be some underlying mechanism to verify transactions backed by some reward.

  4. DOption (d)

    Virtual money is always safer than paper currencies as they are traceable digitally.

  5. EOption (e)

    Without a legal tender, virtual currencies use and transactions are always safe and secure.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To have virtual currencies in circulation there must be some underlying mechanism to verify transactions backed by some reward.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. To have virtual currencies in circulation there must be some underlying mechanism to verify transactions backed by some reward.

Key Points

This paragraph we can understand that this para revolves around the virtual currencies and their mechanism and what are their weak points. Now, let's look at the options:

  • Option (1) is false:-
  • Virtual currencies are more volatile and subjected to various risks as compared to paper currencies since they are not regulated by government or by any exchange material value like gold. They are totally agreed by the users in the network and are subjected to frequent changes. Therefore Option (1) is false.
  • Option (2) is false:-
  • Virtual coins are not necessarily to be regulated by the government and hence do have wide swings and variations as clearly mentioned in the paragraph. Therefore option (2) is also false.
  • Option (3) summarizes the paragraph:-
  • To have virtual currencies in circulation there must be some underlying mechanism to verify transactions backed by some reward as otherwise, nobody will be interested in checking out these transactions. Option (3) is therefore correct.
  • Option (4) is false:-
  • Virtual money is not always safer than paper currencies as they are traceable digitally as they are prone to dangers like double spending where the user might use the same currency twice. Option (4) is hence false.
  • Option (5) is false:-
  • Without a legal tender, no currency can be safe for use and transaction. Option (5) is also false.

Question 100

A passage is given below followed by several conclusions which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passages. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage, decide upon its truth or falsity, and choose the conclusion that best supports the passage. 

Just as some people like to play football or cricket, similarly some men like to climb mountains. This is often very difficult to do, for mountains are not just big hills. Paths are usually very steep. Some mountain sides are straight up and down, so it may take hours to climb as little as one hundred feet. There is always the danger that you may fall off and be killed or injured. Men talk about conquering a mountain. It is a wonderful feeling to reach the top of a mountain after climbing for hours, and maybe even days. You look down and see the whole country below you. You feel like a king. One can cite of an incident where two Italian prisoners of war escaped from a prison camp in Kenya during the war. They did not try to get back to their own country, for they knew that was impossible. Instead, they climbed to the top of Mount Kenya, and then they came down again and gave themselves up. They had wanted to get that feeling of freedom that one has, after climbing a difficult mountain. Freedom or liberty makes an individual's life worthwhile and living an independent life, free of any restriction is what one desires. 

The passage, if true, is best supported by which of the following conclusions?

  1. AOption (a)

    People do not like mountaineering as much as they like football or cricket

  2. BOption (b)

    The two prisoners wanted to escape from the prison, so they climbed the mountain

  3. COption (c)

    In spite of the risk being involved, people still climb mountains for the thrill of the sport

  4. DOption (d)

    Mountaineering is not a popular sport because their are no spectators for the post

  5. EOption (e)

    It is a great feeling of both being liberated and conquering as one feels after climbing a mountain. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

It is a great feeling of both being liberated and conquering as one feels after climbing a mountain. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5) i.e ​It is a great feeling of both being liberated and conquering as one feels after climbing a mountain. 

  • The first option is not true completely cause there are few breed of people who prefer offbeat sports like mountaineering.
  • The second option talks partly about the two prisoners and is not true to the statement in the passage.
  • The third option is about the thrill which leads to the mountaineering which is not the best supported conclusion.
  • The fourth option is true but it does not capture the true essence of the passage.
  • The final option talks about the man idea behind the passage and reflects the interest behind the sport of mountaineering.

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

The structural fragmentation of African aviation infrastructure remains an enduring testament to uneven globalisation, where the skies of the continent are tethered to protectionist legacies and prohibitive fiscal frameworks. A comparative mapping of regional transit networks reveals a stark dissonance: a commuter routing from Lagos to Yaoundé often incurs a fiscal premium and temporal expenditure that dwarfs a transcontinental voyage from Frankfurt to Berlin. This disparity is not merely a product of geographical scale but is rooted in the sluggish implementation of the Single African Air Transport Market (SAATM)—an ambitious initiative by the African Union aimed at deregulation. While the Yamoussoukro Decision theoretically mandated the liberalisation of scheduled and non-scheduled intra-African air transport services, national flag carriers continue to operate behind a defensive bulwark of bilateral air service agreements (BASAs). These protectionist constructs artificially suppress competition, leaving population accessibility index scores languishing at historic lows across Sub-Saharan hubs.

Compounding this internal insularity is the shadow of international regulatory scrutiny. Several Central and West African carriers remain __________ blacklisted by the European Union Air Safety Committee due to systemic deficits in civil aviation oversight authorities, rather than isolated mechanical failures. This regulatory ban creates an asymmetric market paradigm where foreign mega-carriers dominate profitable intercontinental routes, repatriating capital while domestic airlines are relegated to fragmented, low-yield domestic loops. Furthermore, jet fuel (Jet A-1) logistics within landlocked African nations carry an exorbitant logistical premium, sometimes costing up to 80% more than the global benchmark due to deficient rail links and arbitrary port tariffs. Consequently, the average ticket price per kilometer in Africa remains the highest globally, effectively pricing out the nascent middle class that the African Union relies upon to drive post-pandemic trade integration.

Question 101

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following best describes the core structural paradox of African aviation as discussed in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The ambition to achieve complete deregulation through SAATM is consistently undermined by state-backed protectionism and colonial-era BASAs.

  2. BOption (b)

    Domestic air travel within Africa is more expensive than intercontinental flights because domestic carriers are blacklisted by the EU.

  3. COption (c)

    The abundance of national flag carriers has led to a hyper-competitive market that drives down the population accessibility index.

  4. DOption (d)

    African carriers choose to focus on low-yield domestic loops because they are safer than high-risk intercontinental routes.

  5. EOption (e)

    The high cost of Jet A-1 fuel is a direct consequence of the liberalisation policies mandated by the African Union.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The ambition to achieve complete deregulation through SAATM is consistently undermined by state-backed protectionism and colonial-era BASAs.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The passage establishes a structural paradox by contrasting the African Union's policy goals with the economic reality of the continent's aviation sector.
  • While the Single African Air Transport Market (SAATM) and the Yamoussoukro Decision aim for deregulation and liberalization, actual progress is hindered by protectionist legacies.
  • National flag carriers utilize Bilateral Air Service Agreements (BASAs) as "defensive bulwarks" to suppress competition, which directly contradicts the intended goal of a unified, accessible sky.
  • This tension between theoretical integration and practical protectionism is the primary cause of the "stark dissonance" in pricing and accessibility.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

 

Core Paradox: The attempt to create a unified, deregulated market (SAATM) is structurally blocked by individual nations maintaining protectionist bilateral agreements (BASAs) to shield their own carriers.

 

Additional Information

  • B: While the passage mentions EU blacklisting, it is presented as a factor that compounds "internal insularity" and affects intercontinental dominance, not the primary structural cause of the internal price disparity.
  • C: The passage states that the market suffers from suppressed competition rather than "hyper-competition."
  • D: Carriers are "relegated" to low-yield loops due to market barriers and regulatory bans, not because they "choose" them for safety reasons.
  • E: High fuel costs are attributed to logistical premiums and deficient infrastructure (rail/ports), not to the liberalization policies themselves.

Question 102

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the author, the comparison between travel routes like Lagos/Yaoundé and Frankfurt/Berlin serves to highlight:

  1. AOption (a)

    The geographic superiority and technological advancements of European aviation hubs over African ones.

  2. BOption (b)

    The financial and logistical inefficiencies governing intra-continental transit in Africa versus liberalized European models.

  3. COption (c)

    The successful implementation of bilateral air service agreements within the European Union.

  4. DOption (d)

    The impact of the European Union's air safety ban on West African aviation corridors.

  5. EOption (e)

    The direct relationship between travel distance and fiscal expenditure in global aviation.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The financial and logistical inefficiencies governing intra-continental transit in Africa versus liberalized European models.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The author uses the comparison between Lagos/Yaoundé and Frankfurt/Berlin to demonstrate the "stark dissonance" in travel costs and time within Africa compared to Europe.
  • The passage notes that a short intra-African flight often incurs a fiscal premium (higher cost) and temporal expenditure (more time) that exceeds a much longer European flight.
  • This comparison is used to highlight logistical and financial inefficiencies resulting from protectionist policies and the lack of market deregulation (the sluggish implementation of SAATM).
  • Therefore, the comparison serves to underscore the disparity between African transit and liberalized models like those found in Europe.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

 

Correct Sentence from Passage: "A commuter routing from Lagos to Yaoundé often incurs a fiscal premium and temporal expenditure that dwarfs a transcontinental voyage from Frankfurt to Berlin."

 

Additional Information

  • A: Geographic superiority... – Incorrect. The author explicitly states the disparity is "not merely a product of geographical scale."
  • C: Bilateral air service agreements... – Incorrect. The passage mentions these as "protectionist constructs" that hinder African aviation, rather than focusing on their success in the EU.
  • D: European Union's air safety ban – Incorrect. While the ban is mentioned later, it is not the primary point of the Lagos/Yaoundé comparison.
  • E: Direct relationship between distance and expenditure – Incorrect. The text argues that in Africa, shorter distances often cost more than longer ones elsewhere, contradicting a direct linear relationship.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What can be inferred regarding the "European Union Air Safety Committee" bans mentioned in the text?

  1. AOption (a)

    They are punitive measures intended to systematically favor European mega-carriers on profitable routes.

  2. BOption (b)

    They stem primarily from a lack of standardized mechanical maintenance protocols inside individual aircraft.

  3. COption (c)

    They reflect institutional vulnerabilities in the regulatory frameworks of the domestic civil aviation authorities of the affected nations.

  4. DOption (d)

    They have successfully forced the African Union to accelerate the implementation of the Yamoussoukro Decision.

  5. EOption (e)

    They apply exclusively to landlocked African nations suffering from high jet fuel premiums.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

They reflect institutional vulnerabilities in the regulatory frameworks of the domestic civil aviation authorities of the affected nations.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly states that the blacklisting of several Central and West African carriers is due to "systemic deficits in civil aviation oversight authorities."
  • It further clarifies that these bans are not a result of "isolated mechanical failures," pointing instead toward organizational and regulatory weaknesses.
  • Therefore, it can be inferred that the bans reflect vulnerabilities within the institutional and regulatory frameworks of the domestic authorities responsible for safety.
  • Thus, Option 3 is the most accurate inference based on the text provided.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

 

Correct Sentence: "Several Central and West African carriers remain blacklisted by the European Union Air Safety Committee due to systemic deficits in civil aviation oversight authorities, rather than isolated mechanical failures."

 

Additional Information

  • Option A: While the text mentions that the ban creates a paradigm where foreign carriers dominate, it does not state that the intent of the committee is to punish African carriers or systematically favor European ones.
  • Option B: This is directly contradicted by the text, which says the issues are "rather than isolated mechanical failures."
  • Option D: The text mentions that implementation of the Yamoussoukro Decision is "sluggish," but there is no evidence suggesting the EU bans have successfully accelerated this process.
  • Option E: The text mentions jet fuel premiums specifically for landlocked nations, but the EU safety blacklist is attributed to systemic oversight deficits in Central and West African regions generally, not exclusively landlocked ones.

Question 104

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentences can be inferred from the passage?

A. The implementation of the Single African Air Transport Market (SAATM) is delayed.

B. European Union's Air Safety Committee places bans based on isolated mechanical failures.

C. Population accessibility index scores are high across Sub-Saharan hubs.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option A'.

 

Key Points

  • A) The implementation of the Single African Air Transport Market (SAATM) is delayed.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The text describes the implementation of SAATM as "sluggish," which indicates it is progressing slowly or is delayed relative to its ambitious goals.
  • B) European Union's Air Safety Committee places bans based on isolated mechanical failures.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage explicitly states that several carriers are blacklisted due to "systemic deficits in civil aviation oversight authorities, rather than isolated mechanical failures."
  • C) Population accessibility index scores are high across Sub-Saharan hubs.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage states that protectionist constructs leave population accessibility index scores "languishing at historic lows across Sub-Saharan hubs."

Therefore, the correct answer is Only A.

 

Additional Information

  • Only B: Incorrect because the passage states bans are due to systemic oversight deficits, not mechanical failures.
  • Only C: Incorrect because the passage states accessibility scores are at historic lows, not high.
  • Both A and B: Incorrect because while A is correct, B contradicts the passage.
  • All A, B, and C: Incorrect because B and C are factually opposite to the information provided in the passage.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: Several Central and West African carriers remain __________ blacklisted by the European Union Air Safety Committee due to systemic deficits in civil aviation oversight authorities, rather than isolated mechanical failures.

  1. AOption (a)

    regularly

  2. BOption (b)

    indefinitely

  3. COption (c)

    sporadically

  4. DOption (d)

    arbitrarily

  5. EOption (e)

    occasionally

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

indefinitely

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'indefinitely'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "indefinitely" means for an unlimited or unspecified period of time. (अनिश्चित काल के लिए)
  • In the context of the passage, because the blacklisting is due to "systemic deficits" rather than "isolated failures," the carriers remain on the list until those deep-seated issues are resolved, making "indefinitely" the most appropriate fit.
  • The other options: "regularly," "sporadically," "arbitrarily," and "occasionally" do not fit the formal regulatory context of a safety ban.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option B'.

Complete Sentence: Several Central and West African carriers remain indefinitely blacklisted by the European Union Air Safety Committee due to systemic deficits in civil aviation oversight authorities, rather than isolated mechanical failures.

Additional Information

  • Regularly (नियमित रूप से): means at uniform intervals or times.
  • Sporadically (छिटपुट रूप से): means occurring at irregular intervals or only in a few places; scattered or isolated.
  • Arbitrarily (मनमाने ढंग से): means on the basis of random choice or personal whim, rather than any reason or system.
  • Occasionally (कभी-कभी): means at infrequent or irregular intervals; now and then.

Question 106

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The passage suggests that transcontinental voyages between European cities are cheaper and faster than intra-African flights.

B) Population accessibility index scores are languishing at historic lows globally.

C) Jet fuel logistics within landlocked African nations have low logistical premiums.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: The passage suggests that transcontinental voyages between European cities are cheaper and faster than intra-African flights.
  • This statement is correct as the passage states that a flight from Lagos to Yaoundé often incurs a fiscal premium and temporal expenditure that "dwarfs" a voyage from Frankfurt to Berlin, implying the European route is significantly cheaper and faster.
  • Statement B: Population accessibility index scores are languishing at historic lows globally.
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage specifically mentions that these scores are languishing at historic lows across "Sub-Saharan hubs," not globally.
  • Statement C: Jet fuel logistics within landlocked African nations have low logistical premiums.
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage mentions that jet fuel logistics in these nations carry an "exorbitant logistical premium," costing up to 80% more than the global benchmark.
  • Hence, only statement A is identified as correct based on the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only A’.

Question 107

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Bilateral air service agreements suppress competition among African air carriers.

B) The African Union relies on the nascent middle class for post-pandemic trade integration in aviation.

C) International regulatory scrutiny only focuses on mechanical failures of African carriers.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option C.

 

Key Points

  • Statement A: Bilateral air service agreements suppress competition among African air carriers.
  • This statement is correct as the passage explicitly states that "national flag carriers continue to operate behind a defensive bulwark of bilateral air service agreements (BASAs)" and that these "protectionist constructs artificially suppress competition."
  • Statement B: The African Union relies on the nascent middle class for post-pandemic trade integration in aviation.
  • This statement is correct as the passage mentions the "nascent middle class that the African Union relies upon to drive post-pandemic trade integration."
  • Statement C: International regulatory scrutiny only focuses on mechanical failures of African carriers.
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage clarifies that carriers are blacklisted "due to systemic deficits in civil aviation oversight authorities, rather than isolated mechanical failures."
  • Hence, Statement C is identified as incorrect based on the information provided in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Only C’.

Question 108

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "insularity" in the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    openness

  2. BOption (b)

    isolation

  3. COption (c)

    transparency

  4. DOption (d)

    exposure

  5. EOption (e)

    sociability

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

isolation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option B i.e., isolation.

Key Points

  • The word "insularity" refers to the state of being isolated or detached, often used to describe a lack of interest in cultures, ideas, or people outside one's own experience, or a state of being geographically or politically separated. (संकीर्णता/पृथकता)
  • Example: The cultural insularity of the remote community made them resistant to modern technological changes.
  • "Isolation" refers to the process or fact of being separate or alone, which aligns with the context of the passage describing the fragmented and inward-looking nature of African aviation networks. (अलगाव)
  • Example: The island's geographical isolation from the mainland preserved its unique ecosystem for centuries.
  • Hence, we can infer that the word most similar in meaning to 'insularity' is 'isolation'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- isolation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Openness (खुलापन/स्पष्टता): The quality of being receptive to new ideas or being honest and direct.
  • Example: The company promotes a culture of openness where employees are encouraged to share their feedback.
  • Transparency (पारदर्शिता): The condition of being transparent; specifically, the quality of being done in an open way without secrets.
  • Example: The government promised more transparency in the allocation of public funds.
  • Exposure (अनावण/प्रदर्शन): The state of having no protection from something harmful or the revelation of an identity or fact.
  • Example: Prolonged exposure to the sun can lead to severe skin damage.
  • Sociability (मिलनसारिता): The quality of being sociable or enjoying the company of others.
  • Example: His natural sociability made him the perfect candidate for the public relations role.

Question 109

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "dissonance" in the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    harmony

  2. BOption (b)

    conformity

  3. COption (c)

    discord

  4. DOption (d)

    agreement

  5. EOption (e)

    unity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

discord

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (C) i.e., Discord.

Key Points

  • The word "dissonance" refers to a lack of agreement or harmony between people or things; in the context of the passage, it refers to the discrepancy or inconsistency between travel costs and distances. (असंगति)
  • Example: There is a noticeable dissonance between the company's public image and its internal practices.
  • "Discord" means a lack of harmony or agreement between things, or a state of disagreement. It is the most suitable synonym for dissonance as used in the text. (विवाद/विसंगति)
  • Example: The discord between the two reports made it difficult for the committee to reach a decision.
  • Hence, we can infer that the word similar in meaning to 'dissonance' is 'discord'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Discord.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Harmony (सामंजस्य): The state of being in agreement or concord.
  • Example: The team worked in perfect harmony to complete the project ahead of schedule.
  • Conformity (अनुपालन/अनुरूपता): Compliance with standards, rules, or laws.
  • Example: The building was constructed in conformity with the latest safety regulations.
  • Agreement (सहमति): Harmony or accordance in opinion or feeling.
  • Example: After hours of debate, the two parties finally reached an agreement.
  • Unity (एकता): The state of being united or joined as a whole.
  • Example: The crisis brought a sense of unity to the divided community.

Question 110

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "premium" in the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    surcharge

  2. BOption (b)

    discount

  3. COption (c)

    addition

  4. DOption (d)

    levy

  5. EOption (e)

    increase

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

discount

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: discount.

Key Points

  • The word "premium" means an amount to be paid over and above the normal price; it refers to a higher cost, extra charge, or surcharge in a financial context. (अतिरिक्त शुल्क)
  • Example: Many customers are willing to pay a premium for organic produce because they believe it is healthier.
  • "discount" refers to a deduction from the usual cost of something, which represents a reduction in price rather than an addition. (छूट)
  • Example: Since I bought the laptop during the holiday sale, I received a significant discount.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'premium' in the context of fiscal costs is 'discount'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- discount.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Surcharge (अधिभार/अतिरिक्त शुल्क): An additional charge or fee added to the usual cost of a good or service.
  • Example: The airline added a fuel surcharge to the ticket price due to rising oil costs.
  • Addition (जोड़/वृद्धि): The action or process of adding something to something else.
  • Example: The new library is a wonderful addition to our town's infrastructure.
  • Levy (लेवी/कर): An official fee or tax imposed by a government or authority.
  • Example: The city council voted to impose a new levy on plastic bags to reduce waste.
  • Increase (वृद्धि/बढ़त): A rise in the size, amount, or degree of something.
  • Example: There has been a steady increase in the price of essential commodities lately.

Data Analysis & Interpretation (35 questions)

Question 111

A series is defined as:

(k+1), (2s−2), (p2−19), 120(k+1), C

Given that:

  • k = square root of the smallest two-digit perfect square.
  • p = second smallest two-digit prime number
  • s = natural number such that the maximum value of 2s < 40

Compare the following quantities:

  • Quantity 1: 4 × (3rd element of the series)
  • Quantity 2: C / 3
  • Quantity 3: k × s3 + 100

Choose the correct relation:

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2 < Quantity 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity 3 < Quantity 2 < Quantity 1

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 < Quantity 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2 = Quantity 3

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 = Quantity 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 = Quantity 3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Find variables: k = √16 = 4; p = 13 (second smallest 2-digit prime); s = 5 (since 25 = 32 < 40).

Series elements: 1st = (k+1) = 5; 2nd = (25−2) = 30; 3rd = (132−19) = 150.

Series pattern: 5 × 6 = 30, 30 × 5 = 150, 150 × 4 = 600, 600 × 3 = 1800 (Value of C).

Quantities: Q1 = 4 × 150 = 600; Q2 = 1800/3 = 600; Q3 = 4 × 53 + 100 = 600.

∴ The correct answer is Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 = Quantity 3.

Alternate Method

Given:

k = √16 (Smallest two-digit perfect square is 16) ⇒ k = 4

p = 13 (Two-digit primes: 11, 13, 17... second smallest is 13) ⇒ p = 13

s = Max natural number such that 2s < 40. Since 25 = 32 and 26 = 64 ⇒ s = 5

Calculations for Series Elements:

⇒ 1st element = (k + 1) = 4 + 1 = 5

⇒ 2nd element = (2s − 2) = 25 − 2 = 32 − 2 = 30

⇒ 3rd element = (p2 − 19) = 132 − 19 = 169 − 19 = 150

⇒ 4th element = 120(k + 1) = 120 × 5 = 600

⇒ 5th element (C): Pattern is ×6, ×5, ×4, ×3 ⇒ 600 × 3 = 1800

Comparison of Quantities:

⇒ Quantity 1 = 4 × 150 = 600

⇒ Quantity 2 = 1800 / 3 = 600

⇒ Quantity 3 = k × s3 + 100 = 4 × 53 + 100 = 4 × 125 + 100 = 500 + 100 = 600

∴ The correct answer is Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 = Quantity 3.

Additional Information

Number Series Patterns

Geometric progression with decreasing multipliers: Tn+1 = Tn × (a − n).

Prime and Square Properties

Smallest two-digit square is 42=16. Prime numbers are natural numbers greater than 1 with exactly two factors (1 and itself).

Exponent Growth

Powers of 2: 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64. Used to find the threshold natural number s.

Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The chart and the pie-of-pie diagram represent the degree-wise distribution of the total number of projects (Private + Public) handled across four quarters: Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4.

Note:

  • The sum of the central angles in the pie-of-pie diagram is (x° + y°) ≠ 360°.
  • The value of x is 21.6° greater than y.
  • The difference between the number of private and public projects in Q1 is 108.

The table below shows the percentage of private projects out of the total projects handled in each quarter:

Quarter% of Private Projects
Q135%
Q23P%
Q350%
Q4P%

Question 112

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the combined number of private projects in Q2 and Q4 is 324, find the number of public projects in Q2.

  1. AOption (a)

    72

  2. BOption (b)

    84

  3. COption (c)

    216

  4. DOption (d)

    252

  5. EOption (e)

    336

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

84

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle Q1 = 108°

Angle Q2 = 100.8°

Sum of Q3 and Q4 angles in year pie = 360 - (108 + 100.8) = 151.2°

x - y = 21.6°

x + y = 151.2°

Q1 Private = 35%

Q1 Public = 100 - 35 = 65%

Difference in Q1 projects = 108

Formula used:

Number of projects = (Angle / 360) × Total projects

Difference = |Public - Private|

Now,

Solving for Q3 (y) and Q4 (x) angles:

⇒ 2x = 151.2 + 21.6 = 172.8

⇒ x (Q4) = 86.4°

⇒ y (Q3) = 64.8°

Finding total projects in Q1:

⇒ (65% - 35%) × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ 30% × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ Total Q1 = 360

Finding total annual projects:

⇒ 108° = 360 projects

⇒ 1° = 360 / 108 = 10/3 projects

⇒ Total projects = 360 × 10/3 = 1200

Finding total projects per quarter:

⇒ Q2 = 100.8 × 10/3 = 336

⇒ Q3 = 64.8 × 10/3 = 216

⇒ Q4 = 86.4 × 10/3 = 288

Calculations:

⇒ Private Q2 + Private Q4 = 324

⇒ (3P% × 336) + (P% × 288) = 324

⇒ 10.08P + 2.88P = 324

⇒ 12.96P = 324

⇒ P = 25

⇒ Public Q2 = (100 - 3P)% × 336

⇒ Public Q2 = (100 - 75)% × 336 = 25% × 336 = 84

∴ The number of public projects in Q2 is 84.

Question 113

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the ratio of private projects in Q2 to public projects in Q4 is 7:6, find the value of P.

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    35

  5. EOption (e)

    75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle Q1 = 108°

Angle Q2 = 100.8°

Sum of Q3 and Q4 angles in year pie = 360 - (108 + 100.8) = 151.2°

x - y = 21.6°

x + y = 151.2°

Q1 Private = 35%

Q1 Public = 100 - 35 = 65%

Difference in Q1 projects = 108

Formula used:

Number of projects = (Angle / 360) × Total projects

Difference = |Public - Private|

Now,

Solving for Q3 (y) and Q4 (x) angles:

⇒ 2x = 151.2 + 21.6 = 172.8

⇒ x (Q4) = 86.4°

⇒ y (Q3) = 64.8°

Finding total projects in Q1:

⇒ (65% - 35%) × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ 30% × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ Total Q1 = 360

Finding total annual projects:

⇒ 108° = 360 projects

⇒ 1° = 360 / 108 = 10/3 projects

⇒ Total projects = 360 × 10/3 = 1200

Finding total projects per quarter:

⇒ Q2 = 100.8 × 10/3 = 336

⇒ Q3 = 64.8 × 10/3 = 216

⇒ Q4 = 86.4 × 10/3 = 288

Calculations:

⇒ Private Q2 = 336 × (3P/100) = 10.08P

⇒ Public Q4 = 288 × (100 - P)/100 = 288 - 2.88P

⇒ 10.08P / (288 - 2.88P) = 7/6

⇒ 60.48P = 2016 - 20.16P

⇒ 80.64P = 2016

⇒ P = 25

∴ The value of P is 25.

Question 114

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the average number of public projects in Q2 and Q4 is 150, determine the total number of private projects handled during the year.

  1. AOption (a)

    234

  2. BOption (b)

    300

  3. COption (c)

    558

  4. DOption (d)

    560

  5. EOption (e)

    642

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

558

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle Q1 = 108°

Angle Q2 = 100.8°

Sum of Q3 and Q4 angles in year pie = 360 - (108 + 100.8) = 151.2°

x - y = 21.6°

x + y = 151.2°

Q1 Private = 35%

Q1 Public = 100 - 35 = 65%

Difference in Q1 projects = 108

Formula used:

Number of projects = (Angle / 360) × Total projects

Difference = |Public - Private|

Now,

Solving for Q3 (y) and Q4 (x) angles:

⇒ 2x = 151.2 + 21.6 = 172.8

⇒ x (Q4) = 86.4°

⇒ y (Q3) = 64.8°

Finding total projects in Q1:

⇒ (65% - 35%) × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ 30% × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ Total Q1 = 360

Finding total annual projects:

⇒ 108° = 360 projects

⇒ 1° = 360 / 108 = 10/3 projects

⇒ Total projects = 360 × 10/3 = 1200

Finding total projects per quarter:

⇒ Q2 = 100.8 × 10/3 = 336

⇒ Q3 = 64.8 × 10/3 = 216

⇒ Q4 = 86.4 × 10/3 = 288

Calculations:

⇒ Public Q2 + Public Q4 = 150 × 2 = 300

⇒ 336 × (100 - 3P)/100 + 288 × (100 - P)/100 = 300

⇒ 336 - 10.08P + 288 - 2.88P = 300

⇒ 624 - 12.96P = 300

⇒ 12.96P = 324

⇒ P = 25

Private projects distribution:

⇒ Q1 = 35% × 360 = 126

⇒ Q2 = (3 × 25)% × 336 = 75% × 336 = 252

⇒ Q3 = 50% × 216 = 108

⇒ Q4 = 25% × 288 = 72

⇒ Total Private = 126 + 252 + 108 + 72 = 558

∴ The total number of private projects is 558.

Question 115

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of private projects in Q4 is 36 less than the number of public projects in Q3, find the percentage of private projects in Q2.

  1. AOption (a)

    25%

  2. BOption (b)

    50%

  3. COption (c)

    60%

  4. DOption (d)

    75%

  5. EOption (e)

    65%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

75%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle Q1 = 108°

Angle Q2 = 100.8°

Sum of Q3 and Q4 angles in year pie = 360 - (108 + 100.8) = 151.2°

x - y = 21.6°

x + y = 151.2°

Q1 Private = 35%

Q1 Public = 100 - 35 = 65%

Difference in Q1 projects = 108

Formula used:

Number of projects = (Angle / 360) × Total projects

Difference = |Public - Private|

Now,

Solving for Q3 (y) and Q4 (x) angles:

⇒ 2x = 151.2 + 21.6 = 172.8

⇒ x (Q4) = 86.4°

⇒ y (Q3) = 64.8°

Finding total projects in Q1:

⇒ (65% - 35%) × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ 30% × Total Q1 = 108

⇒ Total Q1 = 360

Finding total annual projects:

⇒ 108° = 360 projects

⇒ 1° = 360 / 108 = 10/3 projects

⇒ Total projects = 360 × 10/3 = 1200

Finding total projects per quarter:

⇒ Q2 = 100.8 × 10/3 = 336

⇒ Q3 = 64.8 × 10/3 = 216

⇒ Q4 = 86.4 × 10/3 = 288

Calculations:

⇒ Public Q3 = 50% × 216 = 108

⇒ Private Q4 = 108 - 36 = 72

⇒ P% of Q4 = 72

⇒ (P/100) × 288 = 72

⇒ P = 7200 / 288 = 25

⇒ Private Q2 % = 3P% = 3 × 25% = 75%

∴ The percentage of private projects in Q2 is 75%.

Question 116

Three quadratic equations are given:

  1. x2 + x - 6 = 0
  2. y2 + y - 12 = 0
  3. 2z2 - 3z - 5 = 0

(Consider only the positive roots of each equation.)

Based on these values, compare the following quantities:

(i) (2x + 3)x

(ii) (22)y

(iii) 12z

  1. AOption (a)

    i > ii < iii 

  2. BOption (b)

    iii > ii > i

  3. COption (c)

    iii < i < ii

  4. DOption (d)

    i = ii < iii

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

iii < i < ii

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. x2 + x - 6 = 0
  2. y2 + y - 12 = 0
  3. 2z2 - 3z - 5 = 0

(Consider only positive roots)

Formula used:

Quadratic equation factoring: ax2 + bx + c = 0

Quantity (i) = (2x + 3)x

Quantity (ii) = (22)y

Quantity (iii) = 12z

Calculations:

Solving for x:

⇒ x2 + 3x - 2x - 6 = 0

⇒ x(x + 3) - 2(x + 3) = 0

⇒ (x - 2)(x + 3) = 0

⇒ x = 2 (Positive root)

Solving for y:

⇒ y2 + 4y - 3y - 12 = 0

⇒ y(y + 4) - 3(y + 4) = 0

⇒ (y - 3)(y + 4) = 0

⇒ y = 3 (Positive root)

Solving for z:

⇒ 2z2 - 5z + 2z - 5 = 0

⇒ z(2z - 5) + 1(2z - 5) = 0

⇒ (z + 1)(2z - 5) = 0

⇒ z = 5/2 = 2.5 (Positive root)

Now, calculate the quantities:

(i) (2x + 3)x

⇒ (2 × 2 + 3)2

⇒ (7)2 = 49

(ii) (22)y

⇒ (4)3 = 64

(iii) 12z

⇒ 12 × 2.5 = 30

Comparing the values:

⇒ 30 < 49 < 64

⇒ iii < i < ii

∴ The correct answer is iii < i < ii.

Question 117

Three quadratic equations are given:

I. x2 - 12x + 35 = 0

II. y2 + 3y - 70 = 0

III. z2 - 5z - 14 = 0

Based on the roots obtained from these equations, consider the following conditions:

A. (x = y > z)

B. (x < y > z)

C. (x < y)

Determine which of the following conclusions is correct:

  1. AOption (a)

    ((y + z) < x), if only condition A is satisfied 

  2. BOption (b)

    ((y + z) < x), if only condition B is satisfied

  3. COption (c)

    All conditions are satisfied

  4. DOption (d)

    (y ≤ z), if only condition A is satisfied

  5. EOption (e)

    (y ≤ z), if only condition C is satisfied

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

((y + z) < x), if only condition A is satisfied 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

I. x2 - 12x + 35 = 0

II. y2 + 3y - 70 = 0

III. z2 - 5z - 14 = 0

Conditions:

A. x = y > z

B. x < y > z

C. x < y

Formula used:

For ax2 + bx + c = 0, roots are found by splitting the middle term or using the quadratic formula.

Calculations:

Solving Equation I:

⇒ x2 - 7x - 5x + 35 = 0

⇒ x(x - 7) - 5(x - 7) = 0

⇒ (x - 7)(x - 5) = 0

⇒ x = 7, 5

Solving Equation II:

⇒ y2 + 10y - 7y - 70 = 0

⇒ y(y + 10) - 7(y + 10) = 0

⇒ (y + 10)(y - 7) = 0

⇒ y = 7, -10

Solving Equation III:

⇒ z2 - 7z + 2z - 14 = 0

⇒ z(z - 7) + 2(z - 7) = 0

⇒ (z - 7)(z + 2) = 0

⇒ z = 7, -2

Evaluating Conclusion (A) with Condition A (x = y > z):

⇒ For x = y, we must have x = 7 and y = 7.

⇒ For y > z, where y = 7, z must be -2.

⇒ Values: x = 7, y = 7, z = -2

⇒ (y + z) < x

⇒ (7 + (-2)) < 7

⇒ 5 < 7

⇒ This is True.

Evaluating Conclusion (B) with Condition B (x < y > z):

⇒ For x < y, x = 5 and y = 7.

⇒ For y > z, where y = 7, z = -2.

⇒ Values: x = 5, y = 7, z = -2

⇒ (y + z) < x

⇒ (7 + (-2)) < 5

⇒ 5 < 5

⇒ This is False.

∴ The correct answer is ((y + z) < x), if only condition A is satisfied.

Question 118

Set A contains six consecutive two-digit positive multiples of 5, and Set B contains three consecutive two-digit positive multiples of 6.

Column IColumn II
P. The difference between the smallest numbers of Set A and Set B is equal to the difference between their third smallest numbers.X. The second smallest number of Set A is equal to the second smallest number of Set B.
Q. One of the numbers in Set B is 36.Y. The sum of the largest numbers of Set A and Set B is 86.
R. The largest number of Set A is greater than the largest number of Set B.

Determine which combination(s) is/are definitely correct.

I) P - X

II) Q - X

III) R - X

IV) P - Y

V) Q - Y

VI) R - Y

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II) and V)

  3. COption (c)

    All except II)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I), II), IV) and V)

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For Set A (diff = 5), the 3rd term is a + 10. For Set B (diff = 6), the 3rd term is b + 12.

Condition P says (b − a) = (b + 12) − (a + 10) ⇒ (b − a) = (b − a) + 2, which is mathematically impossible.

Since P is impossible, any combination involving P (I and IV) is automatically false.

Testing X: If 2nd terms are equal, a + 5 = b + 6 ⇒ a = b + 1. For Q (Set B contains 36), multiples are {24, 30, 36}, {30, 36, 42}, or {36, 42, 48}. None lead to consistent results across all variables.

∴ The correct answer is None of these.

Alternate Method

Given: Set A = {a, a+5, a+10, a+15, a+20, a+25} where a is a multiple of 5. Set B = {b, b+6, b+12} where b is a multiple of 6.

Step 1: Evaluate P

⇒ Difference 1 = b − a

⇒ Difference 3 = (b + 12) − (a + 10) = b − a + 2

⇒ Since b − a ≠ b − a + 2, statement P is False. Thus I and IV are wrong.

Step 2: Evaluate Q and X

⇒ If X is true: a + 5 = b + 6 ⇒ a = b + 1.

⇒ If Q is true: Set B contains 36. Possible sets: {24,30,36}, {30,36,42}, {36,42,48}.

⇒ Case 1: b = 24 → a = 25. Set A = {25,30,35,40,45,50}. X is true (30=30). Q is true (36 is in B).

⇒ However, Q - X must be definitely correct. In other cases (e.g., b=36), a=37 (not a multiple of 5).

Step 3: Evaluate Y

⇒ (a + 25) + (b + 12) = 86 ⇒ a + b = 49.

⇒ If a=25 and b=24, a+b=49. Here Y is true and Q is true, but P remains false.

Conclusion: None of the provided paired combinations are universally valid under the constraints.

∴ The correct answer is None of these.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression Property

In any AP, the difference between the nth terms of two sequences is constant only if they have the same common difference (d1 = d2).

Multiple Constraints

When solving sets, ensure the first term a is a multiple of 5 and b is a multiple of 6 while both are two-digit positive integers (10 to 95 for A, 12 to 96 for B).

Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The bar chart represents the total number of people (male + female) who consumed alcoholic beverages in three cities, while the line graph shows the total number of people (male + female) who consumed non-alcoholic beverages in those cities.

The table below provides further information:

CityAlcoholic beveragesNon-alcoholic beverages
ANumber of males is 200 more than the number of femalesNumber of females is 40 more than the number of males
BNumber of males is 66.66% of the number of femalesNumber of females is 50% more than the number of males
CNumber of females is 28.57% less than the number of malesNumber of males is 50% of the number of females

Question 119

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If in City C, 20% of the males consuming alcoholic beverages switch to non-alcoholic beverages, and 15% of the females consuming non-alcoholic beverages switch to alcoholic beverages, what will be the new ratio of total male consumers to total female consumers of non-alcoholic beverages in City C?

  1. AOption (a)

    65:51

  2. BOption (b)

    13:11

  3. COption (c)

    130:102

  4. DOption (d)

    11:9

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

65:51

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

City A:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 400. Given M - F = 200. Also M + F = 400.

⇒ Adding both: 2M = 600 ⇒ M = 300. Thus, F = 100.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 700. Given F - M = 40. Also F + M = 700.

⇒ Adding both: 2F = 740 ⇒ F = 370. Thus, M = 330.

City B:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 500. Given M = 66.66% of F ⇒ M = (2/3)F ⇒ Ratio M : F = 2 : 3.

⇒ 5 parts = 500 ⇒ 1 part = 100. Thus, M = 200, F = 300.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 200. Given F = 150% of M ⇒ F = 1.5M ⇒ Ratio M : F = 2 : 3.

⇒ 5 parts = 200 ⇒ 1 part = 40. Thus, M = 80, F = 120.

City C:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 600. Given F is 28.57% (which is 2/7) less than M.

⇒ F = (1 - 2/7)M = (5/7)M ⇒ Ratio M : F = 7 : 5.

⇒ 12 parts = 600 ⇒ 1 part = 50. Thus, M = 350, F = 250.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 180. Given M = 50% of F ⇒ M = 0.5F ⇒ Ratio M : F = 1 : 2.

⇒ 3 parts = 180 ⇒ 1 part = 60. Thus, M = 60, F = 120.

Calculations:

⇒ Initial males (Alcoholic) in City C = 350

⇒ Males switching to Non-Alcoholic = 20% of 350 = 70

⇒ Initial males (Non-Alcoholic) in City C = 60

⇒ New total males (Non-Alcoholic) = 60 + 70 = 130

⇒ Initial females (Non-Alcoholic) in City C = 120

⇒ Females switching to Alcoholic = 15% of 120 = 18

⇒ New total females (Non-Alcoholic) = 120 - 18 = 102

⇒ Required Ratio = New Males (Non-Alc) : New Females (Non-Alc)

⇒ Ratio = 130 : 102

⇒ Simplifying by dividing by 2 ⇒ 65 : 51

∴ The correct option is 65 : 51.

Question 120

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In another city X, alcoholic beverage consumption is double that of City A, while non-alcoholic beverage consumption is 737337\frac{7}{3}37​ times that of City C. If the difference between male and female consumers in City X is the same as that in City B, and the number of males in City X is less than 600, then the number of females in City X is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Greater than 685

  2. BOption (b)

    Less than 560

  3. COption (c)

    Less than 680

  4. DOption (d)

    Greater than 690

  5. EOption (e)

    Greater than 650

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Greater than 650

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

City A:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 400. Given M - F = 200. Also M + F = 400.

⇒ Adding both: 2M = 600 ⇒ M = 300. Thus, F = 100.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 700. Given F - M = 40. Also F + M = 700.

⇒ Adding both: 2F = 740 ⇒ F = 370. Thus, M = 330.

City B:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 500. Given M = 66.66% of F ⇒ M = (2/3)F ⇒ Ratio M : F = 2 : 3.

⇒ 5 parts = 500 ⇒ 1 part = 100. Thus, M = 200, F = 300.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 200. Given F = 150% of M ⇒ F = 1.5M ⇒ Ratio M : F = 2 : 3.

⇒ 5 parts = 200 ⇒ 1 part = 40. Thus, M = 80, F = 120.

City C:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 600. Given F is 28.57% (which is 2/7) less than M.

⇒ F = (1 - 2/7)M = (5/7)M ⇒ Ratio M : F = 7 : 5.

⇒ 12 parts = 600 ⇒ 1 part = 50. Thus, M = 350, F = 250.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 180. Given M = 50% of F ⇒ M = 0.5F ⇒ Ratio M : F = 1 : 2.

⇒ 3 parts = 180 ⇒ 1 part = 60. Thus, M = 60, F = 120.

Calculations:

⇒ Total alcoholic consumers in X = 2 × (Alcoholic in A) = 2 × 400 = 800.

⇒ Total non-alcoholic consumers in X = (7/3) × (Non-Alcoholic in C) = (7/3) × 180 = 420.

⇒ Total consumers in City X = 800 + 420 = 1220.

⇒ Difference between male and female consumers in City B:

⇒ Total Males in B = 200 + 80 = 280. Total Females in B = 300 + 120 = 420.

⇒ Difference in B = 420 - 280 = 140.

⇒ Therefore, in City X, the difference |M - F| = 140.

⇒ We have two equations for City X: M + F = 1220 and |M - F| = 140.

⇒ Case 1: M - F = 140 ⇒ 2M = 1360 ⇒ M = 680, F = 540.

⇒ Case 2: F - M = 140 ⇒ 2F = 1360 ⇒ F = 680, M = 540.

⇒ Condition given: The number of males in City X is less than 600. So, M = 540 and F = 680 is the valid case.

⇒ The number of females is 680, which satisfies the condition "Greater than 650".

∴ The correct option is Greater than 650.

Question 121

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In City A, the number of females who consumed non-alcoholic beverages is approximately what percentage more than the number of males who consumed non-alcoholic beverages?

  1. AOption (a)

    9.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    10.8%

  3. COption (c)

    12.1%

  4. DOption (d)

    15.2%

  5. EOption (e)

    8.4%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12.1%

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

City A:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 400. Given M - F = 200. Also M + F = 400.

⇒ Adding both: 2M = 600 ⇒ M = 300. Thus, F = 100.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 700. Given F - M = 40. Also F + M = 700.

⇒ Adding both: 2F = 740 ⇒ F = 370. Thus, M = 330.

City B:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 500. Given M = 66.66% of F ⇒ M = (2/3)F ⇒ Ratio M : F = 2 : 3.

⇒ 5 parts = 500 ⇒ 1 part = 100. Thus, M = 200, F = 300.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 200. Given F = 150% of M ⇒ F = 1.5M ⇒ Ratio M : F = 2 : 3.

⇒ 5 parts = 200 ⇒ 1 part = 40. Thus, M = 80, F = 120.

City C:

⇒ Alcoholic Total = 600. Given F is 28.57% (which is 2/7) less than M.

⇒ F = (1 - 2/7)M = (5/7)M ⇒ Ratio M : F = 7 : 5.

⇒ 12 parts = 600 ⇒ 1 part = 50. Thus, M = 350, F = 250.

⇒ Non-Alcoholic Total = 180. Given M = 50% of F ⇒ M = 0.5F ⇒ Ratio M : F = 1 : 2.

⇒ 3 parts = 180 ⇒ 1 part = 60. Thus, M = 60, F = 120.

Calculations:

⇒ Number of females (Non-Alc) in City A = 370

⇒ Number of males (Non-Alc) in City A = 330

⇒ Difference = 370 - 330 = 40

⇒ Percentage more = (Difference / Males) × 100

⇒ % More = (40 / 330) × 100 = 400 / 33 = 12.12%

∴ The correct option is 12.1%.​

Question 122

A shopkeeper has three types of apples namely A, B, and C with the following stock and individual weights:

Type A: 50 apples, each weighing 40 g

Type B: 40 apples, each weighing 60 g

Type C: 60 apples, each weighing 25 g

He selects a certain number of apples from each type and places them into a crate K. The quantities selected for A, B, and C are consecutive multiples of 5. Among these, the number of Type C apples is the smallest.

If the total weight of the apples in the crate is 2050 g, how many Type B apples did the shopkeeper select?

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    40

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let quantities of Type C, Type B, and Type A be 5n, 5(n+1), and 5(n+2) as they are consecutive multiples of 5 and Type C is the smallest.

Weighted average logic: (5n × 25) + (5n+5) × 60 + (5n+10) × 40 = 2050.

125n + 300n + 300 + 200n + 400 = 2050 ⇒ 625n = 1350 (Not an integer).

Try the only other logical order for Type A and Type B: Let C = 5n, A = 5n+5, B = 5n+10.

(5n × 25) + (5n+5) × 40 + (5n+10) × 60 = 2050 ⇒ 125n + 200n + 200 + 300n + 600 = 2050 ⇒ 625n = 1250 ⇒ n = 2.

Type B = 5(2) + 10 = 20 apples.

∴ The correct answer is 20 apples.

Alternate Method

Given: Weights are A = 40g, B = 60g, C = 25g. Quantities are consecutive multiples of 5. Smallest quantity is C.

Let the quantities be x, x+5, x+10 where x is a multiple of 5. Since C is smallest, Quantity C = x.

Case 1: Quantity A = x+5, Quantity B = x+10

⇒ 25(x) + 40(x+5) + 60(x+10) = 2050

⇒ 25x + 40x + 200 + 60x + 600 = 2050

⇒ 125x + 800 = 2050

⇒ 125x = 1250

⇒ x = 10

Since x=10 is a multiple of 5, the quantities are C = 10, A = 15, B = 20.

Quantity of Type B apples = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20 apples.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

The total weight is calculated as Sum(Quantityi × Weighti). Total Weight = n1w1 + n2w2 + n3w3.

Consecutive Multiples

Consecutive multiples of a number 'k' can be represented as nk, (n+1)k, (n+2)k where n is an integer.

Constraints Check

Always ensure the calculated quantities do not exceed the available stock (A:50, B:40, C:60). Here 15, 20, 10 are within limits.

Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions that follow.

There are three schools namely A, B, and C. The total number of girls across all three schools is 650. The ratio of boys in School A to girls in School B is 4:5. The number of girls in School A is 20% higher than the number of girls in School B. In School C, the total number of students is 420, and the number of girls is 120 fewer than the number of boys in School B.

Question 123

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ratio of the total number of students in School A to the sum of total students in School A and the number of girls in School B?

  1. AOption (a)

    2:3

  2. BOption (b)

    5:3

  3. COption (c)

    3:2

  4. DOption (d)

    4:3

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2:3

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Total Girls (GA + GB + GC) = 650

Ratio of Boys A to Girls B (BA : GB) = 4 : 5

Girls A (GA) = 120% of GB

Total Students C (TC) = 420

Girls C (GC) = Boys B (BB) - 120

Formula used:

Total Students = Boys + Girls

Now,

Let GB = 5x

⇒ BA = 4x

⇒ GA = 1.20 × 5x = 6x

Total Girls equation:

⇒ GA + GB + GC = 650

⇒ 6x + 5x + GC = 650

⇒ 11x + GC = 650​

Calculations:

Total Students in A (TA) = BA + GA

⇒ TA = 4x + 6x = 10x

Sum of Total A and Girls B = 10x + 5x = 15x

Required Ratio = 10x : 15x

⇒ 10 : 15

⇒ 2 : 3

∴ The correct answer is 2:3.

Question 124

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ratio of the number of boys in School A to the number of girls in School C?

  1. AOption (a)

    4:5

  2. BOption (b)

    5:3

  3. COption (c)

    3:2

  4. DOption (d)

    4:3

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Cannot be determined

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Total Girls (GA + GB + GC) = 650

Ratio of Boys A to Girls B (BA : GB) = 4 : 5

Girls A (GA) = 120% of GB

Total Students C (TC) = 420

Girls C (GC) = Boys B (BB) - 120

Formula used:

Total Students = Boys + Girls

Now,

Let GB = 5x

⇒ BA = 4x

⇒ GA = 1.20 × 5x = 6x

Total Girls equation:

⇒ GA + GB + GC = 650

⇒ 6x + 5x + GC = 650

⇒ 11x + GC = 650

Calculations:

BA = 4x

GC = 650 - 11x

Since the value of x depends on the number of boys in School B (BB), and BB is not provided:

⇒ The unique value of x and GC cannot be found.

∴ The correct answer is Cannot be determined.

Question 125

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the difference between the combined number of girls in Schools A and B and the number of boys in School C?

  1. AOption (a)

    230

  2. BOption (b)

    320

  3. COption (c)

    340

  4. DOption (d)

    270

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

230

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Total Girls (GA + GB + GC) = 650

Ratio of Boys A to Girls B (BA : GB) = 4 : 5

Girls A (GA) = 120% of GB

Total Students C (TC) = 420

Girls C (GC) = Boys B (BB) - 120

Formula used:

Total Students = Boys + Girls

Now,

Let GB = 5x

⇒ BA = 4x

⇒ GA = 1.20 × 5x = 6x

Total Girls equation:

⇒ GA + GB + GC = 650

⇒ 6x + 5x + GC = 650

⇒ 11x + GC = 650

Calculations:

Combined Girls A and B = 6x + 5x = 11x

Boys in School C (BC) = TC - GC = 420 - GC

Difference = (GA + GB) - BC

⇒ 11x - (420 - GC)

⇒ 11x + GC - 420

Substitute 11x + GC = 650:

⇒ 650 - 420 = 230

∴ The correct answer is 230.

Question 126

A bike race is conducted on a 300 km track, in which three bikes A, B, and C participate. Their initial speeds are 50 km/h, 40 km/h, and 60 km/h respectively.

After the first 2 hours of the race, their speeds change as follows:

  • Speed of bike A becomes 25% higher than the speed of bike C (after 2 hours).
  • Speed of bike B becomes 10% higher than its initial speed.
  • Speed of bike C becomes 80% of the initial speed of bike A.

Find the difference in time taken by the bikes that finish in the 1st and 2nd positions.

  1. AOption (a)

    25 min

  2. BOption (b)

    50 min

  3. COption (c)

    45 min

  4. DOption (d)

    30 min

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30 min

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify Bike C new speed first: 80% of 50 = 40 km/h. Distance left after 2 hours: 300 − (60 × 2) = 180 km. Time: 2 + 180/40 = 6.5 hours.

Bike A new speed: 125% of 40 = 50 km/h. Distance left: 300 − (50 × 2) = 200 km. Time: 2 + 200/50 = 6 hours.

Bike B new speed: 110% of 40 = 44 km/h. Distance left: 300 − (40 × 2) = 220 km. Time: 2 + 220/44 = 7 hours.

1st (A: 6h) and 2nd (C: 6.5h) difference = 0.5 hours = 30 min.

∴ The correct answer is 30 min.

Alternate Method

Step 1: Distance covered in first 2 hours:

⇒ Bike A = 50 × 2 = 100 km; Remaining = 200 km

⇒ Bike B = 40 × 2 = 80 km; Remaining = 220 km

⇒ Bike C = 60 × 2 = 120 km; Remaining = 180 km

Step 2: New speeds after 2 hours:

⇒ Speed C = 80% of 50 = 40 km/h

⇒ Speed A = 125% of 40 = 50 km/h

⇒ Speed B = 110% of 40 = 44 km/h

Step 3: Total time calculation:

⇒ Total Time A = 2 + (200 ÷ 50) = 2 + 4 = 6 hours

⇒ Total Time B = 2 + (220 ÷ 44) = 2 + 5 = 7 hours

⇒ Total Time C = 2 + (180 ÷ 40) = 2 + 4.5 = 6.5 hours

Step 4: Difference between 1st (A) and 2nd (C):

⇒ Difference = 6.5 − 6 = 0.5 hours

⇒ 0.5 × 60 = 30 min

∴ The correct answer is 30 min.

Additional Information

Average Speed

For multiple segments, Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. Do not average the speeds directly.

Percentage Change in Speed

New Speed = Initial Speed × (100 ± Change%)/100. This is vital for multi-stage journey problems.

Relative Speed

In the same direction, relative speed is the difference (S1 − S2); in opposite directions, it is the sum (S1 + S2).

Question 127

A shopkeeper deals in two items, A and B. The ratio of their cost prices (A : B) is 3 : 4, while the ratio of their selling prices is 58 : 69. He offers a discount of 20% on item A and 10% on item B. The profit earned on item B is 3.5%. Find the profit percentage earned on item A.

  1. AOption (a)

    14%

  2. BOption (b)

    25%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    16%

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let CPA = 300 and CPB = 400.

SPB = CPB × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100 = 400 × 103.5 ÷ 100 = 414.

Ratio of SPA : SPB = 58 : 69. Since 69 parts = 414, then 1 part = 6.

SPA = 58 × 6 = 348.

Profit on A = SPA − CPA = 348 − 300 = 48.

Profit% on A = (48 ÷ 300) × 100 = 16%.

∴ The correct answer is 16%.

Alternate Method

Given: CPA:CPB = 3:4, SPA:SPB = 58:69, DiscountA = 20%, DiscountB = 10%, ProfitB = 3.5%. Formulas: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100 | Profit% = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100.

⇒ Let CPA = 3x and CPB = 4x.

⇒ SPB = 4x × 1.035 = 4.14x.

⇒ Since SPA / SPB = 58 / 69, SPA = (58 ÷ 69) × 4.14x = 58 × 0.06x = 3.48x.

⇒ Profit on A = SPA − CPA = 3.48x − 3x = 0.48x.

⇒ Profit% on A = (0.48x ÷ 3x) × 100 = 16%.

∴ The correct answer is 16%.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100. In this problem, discounts were provided but not necessary to find Profit% as SP and CP ratios were established.

Profit and Loss Ratios

When ratios of CP and SP are given, assume values (like 300, 400) to simplify calculations. Profit Percentage is independent of the actual currency value.

Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The table below presents the profit earned by companies P, Q, R, and S in the years 2020 and 2021, along with the difference in their profits between these two years.

CompanyProfit in 2020Profit in 2021Difference
P3X1600400
Q5X1500500
R150% of X350250
S90055087.5% of X

Question 128

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

For company P in 2021, the cost price was y. The marked price was z% above the cost price. The selling price was 140% of the cost price, and the discount given was 50% of the markup. Find the value of z.

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    75

  3. COption (c)

    50

  4. DOption (d)

    80

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

80

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Company P difference = |3X - 1600| = 400

Company Q difference = |5X - 1500| = 500

Company R difference = |150% of X - 350| = 250

Company S difference = |900 - 550| = 87.5% of X

Now,

From Company P: 1600 - 3X = 400 ⇒ 3X = 1200 ⇒ X = 400.

Let's verify X = 400 with other companies:

⇒ Company Q difference: |5 × 400 - 1500| = |2000 - 1500| = 500 (Matches)

⇒ Company R difference: |1.5 × 400 - 350| = |600 - 350| = 250 (Matches)

⇒ Company S difference: 87.5% of 400 = (87.5 / 100) × 400 = 350. And |900 - 550| = 350 (Matches)

So, X = 400.

Profits in 2020: P = 1200, Q = 2000, R = 600, S = 900

Profits in 2021: P = 1600, Q = 1500, R = 350, S = 550

Calculations:

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = y

Marked Price (MP) = y + (z / 100) × y = y(1 + z / 100)

Selling Price (SP) = 140% of CP = 1.4y

Discount = 50% of Markup

Formula used:

Markup = MP - CP

Discount = MP - SP

Calculations:

⇒ Markup = y(1 + z / 100) - y = y(z / 100)

⇒ Discount = y(1 + z / 100) - 1.4y = y(z / 100 - 0.4)

⇒ Discount = 0.5 × Markup

⇒ y(z / 100 - 0.4) = 0.5 × y(z / 100)

⇒ z / 100 - 0.4 = 0.5z / 100

⇒ 0.5z / 100 = 0.4

⇒ z / 100 = 0.8

⇒ z = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80.

Question 129

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In 2020, the cost price of company P was equal to its profit, and the same applied to company S. If company P offered a 25% discount and company S offered a 20% discount on their respective marked prices, find the ratio of the marked price of company P to that of company S.

  1. AOption (a)

    4 : 3

  2. BOption (b)

    3 : 2

  3. COption (c)

    45 : 64

  4. DOption (d)

    32 : 27

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Company P difference = |3X - 1600| = 400

Company Q difference = |5X - 1500| = 500

Company R difference = |150% of X - 350| = 250

Company S difference = |900 - 550| = 87.5% of X

Now,

From Company P: 1600 - 3X = 400 ⇒ 3X = 1200 ⇒ X = 400.

Let's verify X = 400 with other companies:

⇒ Company Q difference: |5 × 400 - 1500| = |2000 - 1500| = 500 (Matches)

⇒ Company R difference: |1.5 × 400 - 350| = |600 - 350| = 250 (Matches)

⇒ Company S difference: 87.5% of 400 = (87.5 / 100) × 400 = 350. And |900 - 550| = 350 (Matches)

So, X = 400.

Profits in 2020: P = 1200, Q = 2000, R = 600, S = 900

Profits in 2021: P = 1600, Q = 1500, R = 350, S = 550

Calculations:

Given:

Company P: CP = Profit = 1200, Discount = 25%

Company S: CP = Profit = 900, Discount = 20%

Formula used:

Marked Price (MP) = SP / (1 - Discount%)

Calculations:

⇒ SP of P = 1200 + 1200 = 2400

⇒ MP of P = 2400 / (1 - 0.25) = 2400 / 0.75 = 3200

⇒ SP of S = 900 + 900 = 1800

⇒ MP of S = 1800 / (1 - 0.20) = 1800 / 0.80 = 2250

⇒ Ratio = MP of P : MP of S = 3200 : 2250

⇒ Ratio = 320 : 225 = 64 : 45

∴ The correct answer is None of these, as 64:45 does not match the given options.

Question 130

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

For company S in 2021, the cost price was zzz. The marked price was 50% above the cost price. If the discount given was 10% of the cost price, find the marked price.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1,375.25

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,925.75

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2,062.50

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹2,150.90

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹2,200.40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹2,062.50

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Company P difference = |3X - 1600| = 400

Company Q difference = |5X - 1500| = 500

Company R difference = |150% of X - 350| = 250

Company S difference = |900 - 550| = 87.5% of X

Now,

From Company P: 1600 - 3X = 400 ⇒ 3X = 1200 ⇒ X = 400.

Let's verify X = 400 with other companies:

⇒ Company Q difference: |5 × 400 - 1500| = |2000 - 1500| = 500 (Matches)

⇒ Company R difference: |1.5 × 400 - 350| = |600 - 350| = 250 (Matches)

⇒ Company S difference: 87.5% of 400 = (87.5 / 100) × 400 = 350. And |900 - 550| = 350 (Matches)

So, X = 400.

Profits in 2020: P = 1200, Q = 2000, R = 600, S = 900

Profits in 2021: P = 1600, Q = 1500, R = 350, S = 550

Calculations:

Given:

Profit of S in 2021 = ₹550

Cost Price (CP) = z

Marked Price (MP) = 1.5z (50% above CP)

Discount = 10% of CP = 0.1z

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP - Discount

Profit = SP - CP

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 1.5z - 0.1z = 1.4z

⇒ Profit = 1.4z - z = 0.4z

⇒ 0.4z = 550

⇒ z = 550 / 0.4 = 1375

⇒ MP = 1.5 × 1375 = 2062.50

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,062.50.

Question 131

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

For company R in 2020, the cost price was ₹2,400. If its products were marked 50% above the cost price, calculate the discount percentage offered. (Approximate to two decimal places.)

  1. AOption (a)

    20.84%

  2. BOption (b)

    25.92%

  3. COption (c)

    16.67%

  4. DOption (d)

    33.33%

  5. EOption (e)

    15.45%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16.67%

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Company P difference = |3X - 1600| = 400

Company Q difference = |5X - 1500| = 500

Company R difference = |150% of X - 350| = 250

Company S difference = |900 - 550| = 87.5% of X

Now,

From Company P: 1600 - 3X = 400 ⇒ 3X = 1200 ⇒ X = 400.

Let's verify X = 400 with other companies:

⇒ Company Q difference: |5 × 400 - 1500| = |2000 - 1500| = 500 (Matches)

⇒ Company R difference: |1.5 × 400 - 350| = |600 - 350| = 250 (Matches)

⇒ Company S difference: 87.5% of 400 = (87.5 / 100) × 400 = 350. And |900 - 550| = 350 (Matches)

So, X = 400.

Profits in 2020: P = 1200, Q = 2000, R = 600, S = 900

Profits in 2021: P = 1600, Q = 1500, R = 350, S = 550

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 2400 + 600 = 3000

⇒ MP = 2400 + (50 / 100) × 2400 = 2400 + 1200 = 3600

⇒ Discount = MP - SP = 3600 - 3000 = 600

⇒ Discount % = (600 / 3600) × 100

⇒ Discount % = 100 / 6 = 16.67%

∴ The correct answer is 16.67%.

Question 132

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

A new company T was established. In 2020, its profit was calculated as 20% of company P’s profit plus 30% of company Q’s profit for the same year. From 2020 to 2021, the profit of company T increased at the same rate as company P’s profit increased during that period. Find the profit of company T in 2021.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹840

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,080

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,120

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,240

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹1,120

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Company P difference = |3X - 1600| = 400

Company Q difference = |5X - 1500| = 500

Company R difference = |150% of X - 350| = 250

Company S difference = |900 - 550| = 87.5% of X

Now,

From Company P: 1600 - 3X = 400 ⇒ 3X = 1200 ⇒ X = 400.

Let's verify X = 400 with other companies:

⇒ Company Q difference: |5 × 400 - 1500| = |2000 - 1500| = 500 (Matches)

⇒ Company R difference: |1.5 × 400 - 350| = |600 - 350| = 250 (Matches)

⇒ Company S difference: 87.5% of 400 = (87.5 / 100) × 400 = 350. And |900 - 550| = 350 (Matches)

So, X = 400.

Profits in 2020: P = 1200, Q = 2000, R = 600, S = 900

Profits in 2021: P = 1600, Q = 1500, R = 350, S = 550

Calculations:

Given:

Profit of T in 2020 = 20% of P's profit (2020) + 30% of Q's profit (2020)

Increase rate of T = Increase rate of P from 2020 to 2021

Calculations:

⇒ Profit of T in 2020 = (20 / 100) × 1200 + (30 / 100) × 2000

⇒ Profit of T in 2020 = 240 + 600 = 840

Now, calculate P's increase rate:

⇒ Increase in P's profit = 1600 - 1200 = 400

⇒ % Increase of P = (400 / 1200) × 100 = 33.33% = 1/3

⇒ Profit of T in 2021 = 840 + (1/3 × 840)

⇒ Profit of T in 2021 = 840 + 280 = 1120

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,120.

Question 133

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

For company Q in 2020, if the total revenue (selling price) was ₹10,000, determine its cost price.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹12,000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹8,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹9,000

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹7,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹8,000

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Company P difference = |3X - 1600| = 400

Company Q difference = |5X - 1500| = 500

Company R difference = |150% of X - 350| = 250

Company S difference = |900 - 550| = 87.5% of X

Now,

From Company P: 1600 - 3X = 400 ⇒ 3X = 1200 ⇒ X = 400.

Let's verify X = 400 with other companies:

⇒ Company Q difference: |5 × 400 - 1500| = |2000 - 1500| = 500 (Matches)

⇒ Company R difference: |1.5 × 400 - 350| = |600 - 350| = 250 (Matches)

⇒ Company S difference: 87.5% of 400 = (87.5 / 100) × 400 = 350. And |900 - 550| = 350 (Matches)

So, X = 400.

Profits in 2020: P = 1200, Q = 2000, R = 600, S = 900

Profits in 2021: P = 1600, Q = 1500, R = 350, S = 550

Calculations:

Given:

Profit of Q in 2020 = ₹2000

Selling Price (SP) = ₹10,000

Formula used:

Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price (SP) - Profit

Calculations:

⇒ CP = 10000 - 2000

⇒ CP = ₹8000

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,000.

Question 134

A shopkeeper deals in two items, A and B. The ratio of their cost prices (A : B) is 4 : 5. The marked price of item A is three times that of item B. Item A is sold for ₹1840, and the discount given on it is ₹840 less than its selling price.

Determine the profit earned on item B.

Statement I: The cost price of item A is ₹700, and the profit on item B is 20% kof its cost price.

Statement II: The selling price of item A exceeds the profit earned on item B by ₹665.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Statement I is sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Statement II is sufficient

  3. COption (c)

    Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Statement I and Statement II together are sufficient

  5. EOption (e)

    Even both statements together are not sufficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

From question: SPA = ₹1840, DiscountA = 1840 − 840 = ₹1000 ⇒ MPA = 1840 + 1000 = ₹2840.

Ratio MPA : MPB = 3 : 1 ⇒ MPB = 2840 ÷ 3. Also CPA : CPB = 4 : 5.

Statement I: Gives CPA = ₹700 ⇒ CPB = (5/4) × 700 = ₹875. ProfitB = 20% of ₹875 = ₹175. (Sufficient)

Statement II: 1840 − ProfitB = ₹665 ⇒ ProfitB = 1840 − 665 = ₹1175. (Sufficient)

∴ The correct answer is Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient.

Alternate Method

Given: SPA = ₹1840, DiscountA = SPA − ₹840, CPA : CPB = 4 : 5, MPA : MPB = 3 : 1.

Calculations:

⇒ Discount on A = 1840 − 840 = ₹1000.

⇒ MP of A = SP + Discount = 1840 + 1000 = ₹2840.

⇒ MP of B = MP of A ÷ 3 = 2840 ÷ 3 ≈ ₹946.67.

From Statement I:

⇒ CPA = ₹700. Since CPA : CPB = 4 : 5, CPB = (700 ÷ 4) × 5 = ₹875.

⇒ Profit on B = 20% of 875 = 0.20 × 875 = ₹175. (Statement I alone is sufficient)

From Statement II:

⇒ SPA − ProfitB = ₹665.

⇒ 1840 − ProfitB = 665 ⇒ ProfitB = 1840 − 665 = ₹1175. (Statement II alone is sufficient)

∴ The correct answer is Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Discount

Marked Price (MP) = Selling Price (SP) + Discount. Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Profit and CP Relationship

Profit = SP − CP. Also, Profit = Profit% × CP. Selling Price can be expressed as SP = CP × (100 + Profit%)/100.

Data Sufficiency in Ratios

When ratios are given, one absolute value is usually required to find other absolute values. Statement I provides CPA and Statement II provides a direct relationship with SPA.

Question 135

A person invests Rs. 2,000 in Scheme A at a rate of X% per annum under simple interest for T years. The rate X is an integer multiple of the time T, and T is a positive integer. Find the value of X.

Statement I: The simple interest earned from Scheme A after T years is Rs. 2,160.

Statement II: If the same amount is invested in another scheme offering compound interest at 20% per annum for 0.5T years, the interest earned is Rs. 1,456.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Statement I alone

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Statement II alone

  3. COption (c)

    Either Statement I or Statement II alone

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Statements I and II together

  5. EOption (e)

    Neither Statement I nor Statement II together

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both Statements I and II together

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

From Statement I: SI = (P × R × T)/100 ⇒ 2160 = (2000 × X × T)/100 ⇒ XT = 108. Since X = kT and T is an integer, multiple pairs of (X, T) like (108, 1), (54, 2), (36, 3), (18, 6) are possible. Insufficient.

From Statement II: CI for 0.5T years at 20% is ₹1456. Amount = 2000 + 1456 = 3456. 2000(1.2)0.5T = 3456 ⇒ (1.2)0.5T = 1.728 ⇒ (1.2)0.5T = (1.2)3 ⇒ 0.5T = 3 ⇒ T = 6. Insufficient (X not mentioned).

Combining both: From II, T = 6. From I, XT = 108 ⇒ X × 6 = 108 ⇒ X = 18%. Both required.

∴ The correct answer is Both Statements I and II together.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹2,000, Simple Interest rate = X%, Time = T years. Relation: X = kT (k is an integer).

From Statement I:

⇒ SI = (P × X × T) ÷ 100

⇒ 2160 = (2000 × X × T) ÷ 100 ⇒ 2160 = 20 × XT ⇒ XT = 108

⇒ Since X is a multiple of T (X = kT), multiple values satisfy this. Statement I alone is not sufficient.

From Statement II:

⇒ CI = P[(1 + R/100)n − 1]

⇒ 1456 = 2000[(1 + 20/100)0.5T − 1] ⇒ 0.728 = (1.2)0.5T − 1

⇒ 1.728 = (1.2)0.5T ⇒ (1.2)3 = (1.2)0.5T ⇒ 0.5T = 3 ⇒ T = 6 years

⇒ Statement II alone gives T, but we need X. Insufficient.

Combining I and II:

⇒ From II, T = 6. Substitute in I: X × 6 = 108 ⇒ X = 18.

∴ The correct answer is Both Statements I and II together.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where SI is Simple Interest, P is Principal, R is Rate, and T is Time.

Compound Interest Amount

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)n. The interest is calculated on the accumulated balance of each period.

Data Sufficiency Rules

A statement is sufficient if it leads to a unique value. If multiple variables are unknown, independent equations equal to the number of variables are usually needed.

Two number series are given below, each following a different pattern:

Series A:

5, 3, 16, 97, P, 5441

Series B:

Q, (Q − 400), (3.5P + 172), 2296, 2100, 1956, R

Based on the given series, answer the following questions:

Question 136

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ratio between the 3rd term of Series B and the last term (R)?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 : 7

  2. BOption (b)

    8 : 5

  3. COption (c)

    11 : 8

  4. DOption (d)

     9 : 5

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11 : 8

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Series A: 5, 3, 16, 97, P, 5441

Series B: Q, (Q - 400), (3.5P + 172), 2296, 2100, 1956, R

Formula used:

Series A Pattern: (Previous term × n) + 1

Series B Pattern: Decreasing squares of even numbers

Now,

For Series A:

Analyzing the relationship between terms:

⇒ 3 × 5 + 1 = 16

⇒ 16 × 6 + 1 = 97

⇒ 97 × 7 + 1 = 680

⇒ 680 × 8 + 1 = 5441

So, P = 680

For Series B:

First, find the 3rd term using P:

⇒ 3rd term = 3.5 × 680 + 172 = 2380 + 172 = 2552

Checking the pattern between known terms (2552, 2296, 2100, 1956):

⇒ 2552 - 2296 = 256 = 162

⇒ 2296 - 2100 = 196 = 142

⇒ 2100 - 1956 = 144 = 122

The differences are squares of even numbers in descending order.

To find R (7th term):

⇒ R = 1956 - 102 = 1956 - 100 = 1856

To find Q (1st term):

⇒ 2nd term = 3rd term + 182 = 2552 + 324 = 2876

⇒ Q - 400 = 2876

⇒ Q = 3276

Verify Q with the first gap: 3276 - 2876 = 400 = 202 (Pattern holds)

Calculations:

⇒ 3rd term = 2552

⇒ Last term (R) = 1856

⇒ Ratio = 2552 : 1856

⇒ Divide by 8: 319 : 232

⇒ Divide by 29: 11 : 8

∴ The correct answer is 11:8.

Question 137

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the value of Q − R?

  1. AOption (a)

    1524

  2. BOption (b)

    1420

  3. COption (c)

    2160

  4. DOption (d)

    1240

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1420

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Series A: 5, 3, 16, 97, P, 5441

Series B: Q, (Q - 400), (3.5P + 172), 2296, 2100, 1956, R

Formula used:

Series A Pattern: (Previous term × n) + 1

Series B Pattern: Decreasing squares of even numbers

Now,

For Series A:

Analyzing the relationship between terms:

⇒ 3 × 5 + 1 = 16

⇒ 16 × 6 + 1 = 97

⇒ 97 × 7 + 1 = 680

⇒ 680 × 8 + 1 = 5441

So, P = 680

For Series B:

First, find the 3rd term using P:

⇒ 3rd term = 3.5 × 680 + 172 = 2380 + 172 = 2552

Checking the pattern between known terms (2552, 2296, 2100, 1956):

⇒ 2552 - 2296 = 256 = 162

⇒ 2296 - 2100 = 196 = 142

⇒ 2100 - 1956 = 144 = 122

The differences are squares of even numbers in descending order.

To find R (7th term):

⇒ R = 1956 - 102 = 1956 - 100 = 1856

To find Q (1st term):

⇒ 2nd term = 3rd term + 182 = 2552 + 324 = 2876

⇒ Q - 400 = 2876

⇒ Q = 3276

Verify Q with the first gap: 3276 - 2876 = 400 = 202 (Pattern holds)

Calculations:

⇒ Q = 3276

⇒ R = 1856

⇒ 3276 - 1856 = 1420

∴ The correct answer is 1420.

Question 138

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the sum of all terms of Series B is S, then find the value of [S - (P × 2)]

  1. AOption (a)

    14214

  2. BOption (b)

    16246

  3. COption (c)

    12754

  4. DOption (d)

    15552

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15552

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Series A: 5, 3, 16, 97, P, 5441

Series B: Q, (Q - 400), (3.5P + 172), 2296, 2100, 1956, R

Formula used:

Series A Pattern: (Previous term × n) + 1

Series B Pattern: Decreasing squares of even numbers

Now,

For Series A:

Analyzing the relationship between terms:

⇒ 3 × 5 + 1 = 16

⇒ 16 × 6 + 1 = 97

⇒ 97 × 7 + 1 = 680

⇒ 680 × 8 + 1 = 5441

So, P = 680

For Series B:

First, find the 3rd term using P:

⇒ 3rd term = 3.5 × 680 + 172 = 2380 + 172 = 2552

Checking the pattern between known terms (2552, 2296, 2100, 1956):

⇒ 2552 - 2296 = 256 = 162

⇒ 2296 - 2100 = 196 = 142

⇒ 2100 - 1956 = 144 = 122

The differences are squares of even numbers in descending order.

To find R (7th term):

⇒ R = 1956 - 102 = 1956 - 100 = 1856

To find Q (1st term):

⇒ 2nd term = 3rd term + 182 = 2552 + 324 = 2876

⇒ Q - 400 = 2876

⇒ Q = 3276

Verify Q with the first gap: 3276 - 2876 = 400 = 202 (Pattern holds)

Calculations:

Terms of Series B: 3276, 2876, 2552, 2296, 2100, 1956, 1856

⇒ S = 3276 + 2876 + 2552 + 2296 + 2100 + 1956 + 1856 = 16912

⇒ P × 2 = 680 × 2 = 1360

⇒ 16912 - 1360

⇒ 15552

∴ The correct answer is 15552.

Question 139

Direction: In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I: [x(x - 5) + 20]/x = 9 - x

II: y2 + 2√17y - 52 = √68y

  1. AOption (a)

    x > y

  2. BOption (b)

    x < y

  3. COption (c)

    x = y or no relation can be established.

  4. DOption (d)

    x ≥ y

  5. EOption (e)

    x ≤ y

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

x = y or no relation can be established.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

I: (x(x - 5) + 20) / x = 9 - x

II: y2 + 2√17y - 52 = √68y

Formula used:

Quadratic factorization: x2 - (sum of roots)x + (product of roots) = 0

Property of surds: √68 = √(4 × 17) = 2√17

Calculations:

Solving Equation I:

⇒ (x2 - 5x + 20) / x = 9 - x

⇒ x2 - 5x + 20 = x(9 - x)

⇒ x2 - 5x + 20 = 9x - x2

⇒ 2x2 - 14x + 20 = 0

⇒ x2 - 7x + 10 = 0

⇒ (x - 2)(x - 5) = 0

⇒ x = 2, 5

Solving Equation II:

⇒ y2 + 2√17y - 25 = 2√17y

⇒ y2 - 25 = 0

⇒ y2 = 25

⇒ y = 5, -5

Comparison:

⇒ For x = 2 and y = 5, x < y

⇒ For x = 2 and y = -5, x > y

⇒ For x = 5 and y = 5, x = y

⇒ For x = 5 and y = -5, x > y

Hence, the correct answer is x = y or no relation can be established.

Question 140

Direction: In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both equations and mark the appropriate answer.

l: x(2x + 15/x) - 11x = 2x

II: y2 - 42 + 22y = - 2y

  1. AOption (a)

     x > y

  2. BOption (b)

    x < y

  3. COption (c)

    x ≤ y

  4. DOption (d)

    x ≥ y

  5. EOption (e)

    x=y or no relation can be established.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

x=y or no relation can be established.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

I: x(2x + 15/x) - 11x = 2x

II: y2 - 42 + 22 × y = - 2y

Formula used:

ax2 + bx + c = 0

Calculations:

Equation I:

⇒ 2x2 + 15 - 11x = 2x

⇒ 2x2 - 13x + 15 = 0

⇒ 2x2 - 10x - 3x + 15 = 0

⇒ 2x(x - 5) - 3(x - 5) = 0

⇒ (2x - 3)(x - 5) = 0

⇒ x = 1.5, 5

Equation II:

⇒ y2 - 16 + 4y = - 2y

⇒ y2 + 6y - 16 = 0

⇒ y2 + 8y - 2y - 16 = 0

⇒ y(y + 8) - 2(y + 8) = 0

⇒ (y + 8)(y - 2) = 0

⇒ y = - 8, 2

Comparison:

When x = 1.5, y = - 8 ⇒ x > y

When x = 1.5, y = 2 ⇒ x < y

∴ The correct answer is x = y or no relation can be established.

Directions: Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The first table shows the cumulative number of ice creams (chocolate + vanilla) sold over four different days. The second table shows the percentage distribution of chocolate and vanilla ice creams sold on each day. Some data is missing.

DaysTotal Ice Creams Sold
Monday450
Till Tuesday1010
Till Wednesday1390
Till Thursday2010

 

DaysChocolate (%)Vanilla (%)
Monday4Q%---
Tuesday---(4X - 20)%
Wednesday(Q + X)%---
Thursday---(3X + 10)%

 

Note:

The value of Q is the positive root of the equation Q² + 16Q − 465 = 0.

The value of X is the difference between the roots of the equation P² − 30P + 125 = 0.

Question 141

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The number of chocolate ice creams sold on Tuesday is what times the number of vanilla ice creams sold on Thursday?

  1. AOption (a)

    (0.5X + 0.4Q) / (1.5Q)

  2. BOption (b)

    (Q + 1) / (1.5X)

  3. COption (c)

    2X / (2Q + 1)

  4. DOption (d)

    (1.5X − 0.6Q) / (2X)

  5. EOption (e)

    (0.8X) / (2Q + 1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

(0.8X) / (2Q + 1)

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Equation for Q: Q2 + 16Q - 465 = 0

Equation for P: P2 - 30P + 125 = 0

X is the difference between the roots of the equation for P.

Now,

Finding the value of Q:

⇒ Q2 + 31Q - 15Q - 465 = 0

⇒ Q(Q + 31) - 15(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ (Q - 15)(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ Since Q is positive, Q = 15.

Finding the value of X:

⇒ P2 - 25P - 5P + 125 = 0

⇒ P(P - 25) - 5(P - 25) = 0

⇒ (P - 5)(P - 25) = 0

⇒ Roots are 25 and 5.

⇒ X = 25 - 5 = 20.

Total Daily Ice Creams Sold:

⇒ Monday = 450

⇒ Tuesday = 1010 - 450 = 560

⇒ Wednesday = 1390 - 1010 = 380

⇒ Thursday = 2010 - 1390 = 620

Daily Distribution (Chocolate and Vanilla):

⇒ Monday: Chocolate = 4Q% = 4 × 15% = 60%. Vanilla = 100% - 60% = 40%.

⇒ Monday Chocolate = 60% of 450 = 270.

⇒ Monday Vanilla = 40% of 450 = 180.

⇒ Tuesday: Vanilla = (4X - 20)% = (4 × 20 - 20)% = 60%. Chocolate = 40%.

⇒ Tuesday Chocolate = 40% of 560 = 224.

⇒ Tuesday Vanilla = 60% of 560 = 336.

⇒ Wednesday: Chocolate = (Q + X)% = (15 + 20)% = 35%. Vanilla = 65%.

⇒ Wednesday Chocolate = 35% of 380 = 133.

⇒ Wednesday Vanilla = 65% of 380 = 247.

⇒ Thursday: Vanilla = (3X + 10)% = (3 × 20 + 10)% = 70%. Chocolate = 30%.

⇒ Thursday Chocolate = 30% of 620 = 186.

⇒ Thursday Vanilla = 70% of 620 = 434.

Calculations:

⇒ Chocolate on Tuesday = 224

⇒ Vanilla on Thursday = 434

⇒ Ratio = 224 / 434 = 112 / 217 = 16 / 31

Checking the given options with Q = 15 and X = 20:

⇒ Option E: 0.8X / (2Q + 1) = (0.8 × 20) / (2 × 15 + 1) = 16 / 31.

∴ The correct option is (E).

Question 142

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the total number of ice creams sold on Friday is 20% more than those sold on Wednesday, and the ratio of chocolate to vanilla ice creams on Friday is 7:12, what is the number of vanilla ice creams sold on Friday?

  1. AOption (a)

    168

  2. BOption (b)

    456

  3. COption (c)

    288

  4. DOption (d)

    302

  5. EOption (e)

    264

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

288

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Equation for Q: Q2 + 16Q - 465 = 0

Equation for P: P2 - 30P + 125 = 0

X is the difference between the roots of the equation for P.

Now,

Finding the value of Q:

⇒ Q2 + 31Q - 15Q - 465 = 0

⇒ Q(Q + 31) - 15(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ (Q - 15)(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ Since Q is positive, Q = 15.

Finding the value of X:

⇒ P2 - 25P - 5P + 125 = 0

⇒ P(P - 25) - 5(P - 25) = 0

⇒ (P - 5)(P - 25) = 0

⇒ Roots are 25 and 5.

⇒ X = 25 - 5 = 20.

Total Daily Ice Creams Sold:

⇒ Monday = 450

⇒ Tuesday = 1010 - 450 = 560

⇒ Wednesday = 1390 - 1010 = 380

⇒ Thursday = 2010 - 1390 = 620

Daily Distribution (Chocolate and Vanilla):

⇒ Monday: Chocolate = 4Q% = 4 × 15% = 60%. Vanilla = 100% - 60% = 40%.

⇒ Monday Chocolate = 60% of 450 = 270.

⇒ Monday Vanilla = 40% of 450 = 180.

⇒ Tuesday: Vanilla = (4X - 20)% = (4 × 20 - 20)% = 60%. Chocolate = 40%.

⇒ Tuesday Chocolate = 40% of 560 = 224.

⇒ Tuesday Vanilla = 60% of 560 = 336.

⇒ Wednesday: Chocolate = (Q + X)% = (15 + 20)% = 35%. Vanilla = 65%.

⇒ Wednesday Chocolate = 35% of 380 = 133.

⇒ Wednesday Vanilla = 65% of 380 = 247.

⇒ Thursday: Vanilla = (3X + 10)% = (3 × 20 + 10)% = 70%. Chocolate = 30%.

⇒ Thursday Chocolate = 30% of 620 = 186.

⇒ Thursday Vanilla = 70% of 620 = 434.

Calculations:

 

⇒ Total sold on Friday = 380 + (20% of 380) = 380 + 76 = 456

⇒ Ratio = 7 : 12 (Total parts = 19)

⇒ Vanilla sold on Friday = (12 / 19) × 456

⇒ Vanilla sold on Friday = 12 × 24 = 288

∴ The correct option is 288.

Question 143

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the selling price of one chocolate ice cream is 30 and one vanilla ice cream is 25, what is the difference between the total revenue generated on Thursday and Monday?

  1. AOption (a)

    16,430

  2. BOption (b)

    12,600

  3. COption (c)

    3,550

  4. DOption (d)

    4,130

  5. EOption (e)

    3,830

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

3,830

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Equation for Q: Q2 + 16Q - 465 = 0

Equation for P: P2 - 30P + 125 = 0

X is the difference between the roots of the equation for P.

Now,

Finding the value of Q:

⇒ Q2 + 31Q - 15Q - 465 = 0

⇒ Q(Q + 31) - 15(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ (Q - 15)(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ Since Q is positive, Q = 15.

Finding the value of X:

⇒ P2 - 25P - 5P + 125 = 0

⇒ P(P - 25) - 5(P - 25) = 0

⇒ (P - 5)(P - 25) = 0

⇒ Roots are 25 and 5.

⇒ X = 25 - 5 = 20.

Total Daily Ice Creams Sold:

⇒ Monday = 450

⇒ Tuesday = 1010 - 450 = 560

⇒ Wednesday = 1390 - 1010 = 380

⇒ Thursday = 2010 - 1390 = 620

Daily Distribution (Chocolate and Vanilla):

⇒ Monday: Chocolate = 4Q% = 4 × 15% = 60%. Vanilla = 100% - 60% = 40%.

⇒ Monday Chocolate = 60% of 450 = 270.

⇒ Monday Vanilla = 40% of 450 = 180.

⇒ Tuesday: Vanilla = (4X - 20)% = (4 × 20 - 20)% = 60%. Chocolate = 40%.

⇒ Tuesday Chocolate = 40% of 560 = 224.

⇒ Tuesday Vanilla = 60% of 560 = 336.

⇒ Wednesday: Chocolate = (Q + X)% = (15 + 20)% = 35%. Vanilla = 65%.

⇒ Wednesday Chocolate = 35% of 380 = 133.

⇒ Wednesday Vanilla = 65% of 380 = 247.

⇒ Thursday: Vanilla = (3X + 10)% = (3 × 20 + 10)% = 70%. Chocolate = 30%.

⇒ Thursday Chocolate = 30% of 620 = 186.

⇒ Thursday Vanilla = 70% of 620 = 434.

Calculations:

 

⇒ Revenue on Monday = (270 × 30) + (180 × 25) = 8100 + 4500 = ₹12,600

⇒ Revenue on Thursday = (186 × 30) + (434 × 25) = 5580 + 10850 = ₹16,430

⇒ Difference = 16430 - 12600 = ₹3,830

∴ The correct option is ₹3,830.

Question 144

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Let Z be the sum of 50% of chocolate ice creams sold on Monday and 25% of chocolate ice creams sold on Tuesday, and Y be 25% of vanilla ice creams sold on Tuesday. What is the value of (Z − Y)?

  1. AOption (a)

    84

  2. BOption (b)

    191

  3. COption (c)

    275

  4. DOption (d)

    107

  5. EOption (e)

    117

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

107

Why this answer is correct

General Solution:

Given:

Equation for Q: Q2 + 16Q - 465 = 0

Equation for P: P2 - 30P + 125 = 0

X is the difference between the roots of the equation for P.

Now,

Finding the value of Q:

⇒ Q2 + 31Q - 15Q - 465 = 0

⇒ Q(Q + 31) - 15(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ (Q - 15)(Q + 31) = 0

⇒ Since Q is positive, Q = 15.

Finding the value of X:

⇒ P2 - 25P - 5P + 125 = 0

⇒ P(P - 25) - 5(P - 25) = 0

⇒ (P - 5)(P - 25) = 0

⇒ Roots are 25 and 5.

⇒ X = 25 - 5 = 20.

Total Daily Ice Creams Sold:

⇒ Monday = 450

⇒ Tuesday = 1010 - 450 = 560

⇒ Wednesday = 1390 - 1010 = 380

⇒ Thursday = 2010 - 1390 = 620

Daily Distribution (Chocolate and Vanilla):

⇒ Monday: Chocolate = 4Q% = 4 × 15% = 60%. Vanilla = 100% - 60% = 40%.

⇒ Monday Chocolate = 60% of 450 = 270.

⇒ Monday Vanilla = 40% of 450 = 180.

⇒ Tuesday: Vanilla = (4X - 20)% = (4 × 20 - 20)% = 60%. Chocolate = 40%.

⇒ Tuesday Chocolate = 40% of 560 = 224.

⇒ Tuesday Vanilla = 60% of 560 = 336.

⇒ Wednesday: Chocolate = (Q + X)% = (15 + 20)% = 35%. Vanilla = 65%.

⇒ Wednesday Chocolate = 35% of 380 = 133.

⇒ Wednesday Vanilla = 65% of 380 = 247.

⇒ Thursday: Vanilla = (3X + 10)% = (3 × 20 + 10)% = 70%. Chocolate = 30%.

⇒ Thursday Chocolate = 30% of 620 = 186.

⇒ Thursday Vanilla = 70% of 620 = 434.

Calculations:

⇒ Z = (50% of 270) + (25% of 224)

⇒ Z = 135 + 56 = 191

⇒ Y = 25% of 336 = 84

⇒ Z - Y = 191 - 84 = 107

∴ The correct option is 107.

Question 145

The area of a square with side (x) cm is equal to the area of a rectangle whose length is ((2x - 5)) cm and breadth is ((x - 6)) cm. Find the perimeter of the rectangle.

  1. AOption (a)

    34 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    68 cm

  3. COption (c)

    15 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    10 cm

  5. EOption (e)

    225 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

68 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Equate areas: x2 = (2x − 5)(x − 6)

⇒ x2 = 2x2 − 17x + 30

⇒ x2 − 17x + 30 = 0

Solving the quadratic equation: x = 15 or x = 2 (x = 2 is invalid as sides become negative)

Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth) = 2 × ((2 × 15 − 5) + (15 − 6)) = 2 × (25 + 9) = 68 cm

∴ The correct answer is 68 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Side of square = x cm, Length of rectangle (L) = (2x − 5) cm, Breadth of rectangle (B) = (x − 6) cm.

Formula Used: Area of square = side2; Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth; Perimeter = 2 × (L + B)

⇒ Area of Square = Area of Rectangle

⇒ x2 = (2x − 5) × (x − 6)

⇒ x2 = 2x2 − 12x − 5x + 30

⇒ x2 = 2x2 − 17x + 30

⇒ x2 − 17x + 30 = 0

⇒ x2 − 15x − 2x + 30 = 0

⇒ x(x − 15) − 2(x − 15) = 0

⇒ (x − 15)(x − 2) = 0

⇒ x = 15 or x = 2

If x = 2, Breadth = 2 − 6 = −4 (Not possible as side cannot be negative)

⇒ x = 15 cm

⇒ Length = 2(15) − 5 = 25 cm

⇒ Breadth = 15 − 6 = 9 cm

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × (25 + 9) = 2 × 34 = 68 cm

∴ The correct answer is 68 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of Square

All sides are equal. Perimeter = 4a and Diagonal = a√2, where a is the side length.

Properties of Rectangle

Opposite sides are equal and parallel. Area = l × b and Diagonal = √(l2 + b2).

Quadratic Roots check

Always verify that the resulting dimensions (sides) of a geometric figure are positive real numbers.

145 questions in the full paper