Previous Year Paper

DSSSB TGT Natural Science Male 7 Sept 2021 (Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

200 questions120 minutes
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General Ability (20 questions)

Question 1

Find the wrong term in the letter-cluster series given below:

REMT, AMVB, JUEJ, SDNR, BKWZ

  1. AOption (a)

    AMVB

  2. BOption (b)

    JUEJ

  3. COption (c)

    SDNR

  4. DOption (d)

    BKWZ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SDNR

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Positional value of alphabet from left to right in each set are increasing by numbers alternatively, starts with 9 and following by 8.

So, "SCNR" should be placed in the place of "SDNR".

Hence, "SDNR" is the letter - cluster in the given series.

Question 2

Find the missing term in the following letter-cluster series given below:

P16HI, ?, B2VW, H8CD, N14JK

  1. AOption (a)

    V22OP

  2. BOption (b)

    V22PO

  3. COption (c)

    V15OP

  4. DOption (d)

    V8PO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

V22OP

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

  • Number placed at second place is each set represents the positional value of alphabet placed at first place.
  • Alphabets placed at third and fourth place has positional value in increasing order.

Hence, the missing term is "V22OP".

Question 3

Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

MIGRANT : LHFQZMS :: ? : FDKBV

  1. AOption (a)

    DSRGF

  2. BOption (b)

    GSRHE

  3. COption (c)

    DSGEW

  4. DOption (d)

    GELCW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

GELCW

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Positional value of alphabets in first set is decreasing by 1 in second set of alphabets.

Similar logic will be followed to find the third set of alphabets from fourth set of alphabets.

Hence, "GELCW" is the correct set of alphabets.

Question 4

Find out the odd word from the given alternatives. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Hours

  2. BOption (b)

    Decibels

  3. COption (c)

    Minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    Seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Decibels

Why this answer is correct

Here, all the options are unit of time except "Decibels".

Decibel is the unit of sound.

Hence, "decibel" is the odd word.

Question 5

In a certain code language, “STOCK” is written as “NPLAJ”. How is “PRICE” written in that code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    KNFAD

  2. BOption (b)

    OQHBD

  3. COption (c)

    NKDAF

  4. DOption (d)

    NPGAC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

KNFAD

Why this answer is correct

Logic: Positional value of alphabets are decreasing by consecutive number, starting from 5 and so on.

"STOCK" is coded as "NPLAJ",

Similarly, "PRICE" will be coded as;

Hence, the required code is "KNFAD"

Question 6

Aman is 12th from the starting in a row. Raman is 24th from the end and there are 25 boys between Aman and Raman, then how many boys are there in total?

  1. AOption (a)

    61

  2. BOption (b)

    62

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    63

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

61

Why this answer is correct

Given: Aman is 12th from the starting in a row and Raman is 24th from the end. There are 25 boys between Aman and Raman.

Total Number of students in the row = Aman's position from start + Raman's position from end + 25 students between Aman and Raman.

⇒ 12 + 24 + 25 

⇒ 61

Hence, total number of the students in the row is "61".

Mistake PointsHere, in this question, you have not asked for minimum number of the students in the row. So, we have counted the maximum number of students in the given row.

Question 7

Five friends Aman, Chintu, Rahul, Gautam and Pintu are sitting in a row at different position. Aman is sitting at the left end while Pintu is sitting second from the right end. Rahul is not an immediate neighbor of Aman and Gautam. Only one friend sits between Pintu and Gautam.

Who is sitting in the middle of the row?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chintu

  2. BOption (b)

    Pintu

  3. COption (c)

    Gautam

  4. DOption (d)

    Aman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chintu

Why this answer is correct

Given: Five friends Aman, Chintu, Rahul, Gautam and Pintu are sitting in a row at different position.

  • Aman is sitting at the left end while Pintu is sitting second from the right end.

  • Only one friend sits between Pintu and Gautam. Which means Gautam will sit to the left of Pintu.

  • Rahul is not an immediate neighbor of Aman and Gautam. That means Rahul will sit to the immediate right of Pintu and Chintu will sit at the place left in between Gautam and Pintu.

So, the final arrangement will be as;

Hence, "Chintu" is sitting in the middle of the row.

Question 8

Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement

Statement:

All families are happy.

Some happy are healthy.

Conclusions:

(I) Some healthy are family.

(II) No healthy are family.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Either I or II follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram is;

Conclusion I: Some healthy are family → Does not follow

There is no direct relation between Families and healthy. So, this is indefinite conclusion and can not be considered as true conclusion.

Conclusion II: No healthy are family. → Does not follow

There is no direct relation between Families and healthy. So, this is indefinite conclusion and can not be considered as true conclusion.

but both the conclusions make complimentary pairs. So, Both conclusions follow either - or case.

Hence, the correct answer is "Either I or II follows".

Question 9

Three statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

Some buses are cycle

Some cycle are car.

No car is scooter.

Conclusions:

(I) Some car are buses.

(II) Some cars are cycle.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Statement:

Some buses are cycle

Some cycle are car.

No car is scooter.

Least Venn diagram of the given statements is as follows;

Conclusion (I): Some car are buses. → False

There is no direct relation is given between car and buses. So, it is indefinite and can not be considered as true conclusion.

Conclusion (II): Some cars are cycle. → True

It is mentioned in the given statement that "some cycle are car". So, in the conclusion "some car are cycle" will be true.

So, only II conclusion follows here.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only II follows".

Question 10

Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statement:

Some questions are answer.

All answers are wrong.

Some wrong are correct.

Conclusions:

(I) Some wrong are question.

(II) Some correct are wrong.

(III) Some answer are wrong.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    All follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All follows

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Statement:

Some questions are answer.

All answers are wrong.

Some wrong are correct.

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows,

Conclusion (I): Some wrong are question. → True

As "some answer is question" and "all answer is wrong", then the above conclusion is considered to be true.

Conclusion (II):  Some correct are wrong. → True

It is mentioned in the statements that "some wrong are correct".

Conclusion (III): Some answer are wrong. → True

According to the statement, "all answer is wrong", then "some answer is wrong" will also be true.

Hence, the correct answer is "All follows".

Question 11

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

21 : 3 :: 574 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    23

  2. BOption (b)

    82

  3. COption (c)

    97

  4. DOption (d)

    113

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

82

Why this answer is correct

Logic: First term is divided by 7 to get the second term.

21 ÷ 7 = 3 

So, similar logic will be followed in third term to get the fourth term.

574 ÷ 7 = 82

Hence, the correct answer is "82".

Question 12

In the question below, a statement is followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions and select the correct option as the answer.

Statement

Y = M < N < B = D; M > Z; N < J

Conclusions.

I. Z < J

II. D > J

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II follow

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I follow

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Y = M < N < B = D; M > Z; N < J

Conclusion I: Z < J → True

On combining all three statements, we get;

Z < M < N < J 

Conclusion II: D > J 

On combining the first and third statements, we get;

J > N < B = D → False

So, in this arrangement, no definite relation can be found between D and J. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Only I follow".

Question 13

In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

72000, 36000, 12000, 3000, 600, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    180

  2. BOption (b)

    160

  3. COption (c)

    150

  4. DOption (d)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

100

Why this answer is correct

The required logic is as follows;

Hence, the next term in the given series will be "100".

Question 14

In the following figure, triangle represents florist, circle represents money plant, pentagon represents lily, rectangle represents roses and square represents sunflower.

What does letter ‘G’ represents?

  1. AOption (a)

    Florist who grow sunflower, moneyplant and lily but not rose

  2. BOption (b)

    Florist who grow sunflower, rose and lily but not moneyplant

  3. COption (c)

    Florist who grow moneyplant, rose and lily but not sunflower

  4. DOption (d)

    Florist who grow moneyplant, rose and sunflower but not lily 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Florist who grow moneyplant, rose and sunflower but not lily 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

According to the above Venn diagram, G comes under the common part of Square, circle, rectangle and triangle but not pentagon.

It means G represents florist, money plant, roses and sunflower but not lily, as lily represents in pentagon.

Hence, the correct answer is "Florist who grow moneyplant, rose and sunflower but not lily".

Question 15

In the following figure, triangle represents chef, circle represents cafe, pentagon represents assistant chef, rectangle represents restaurant and square represents hotel.

What does letter ‘8’ represents?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chef who run hotel but not restaurant and cafe with his assistant chef

  2. BOption (b)

    Chef who run cafe, hotel but not restaurant with his assistant chef

  3. COption (c)

    Chef who run restaurant, hotel but not cafe with his assistant chef 

  4. DOption (d)

    Chef who run restaurant, hotel and café alone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chef who run restaurant, hotel but not cafe with his assistant chef 

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Triangle → chef

Circle → cafe

Pentagon → assistant chef

Rectangle → restaurant and

Square → hotel.

According to the above Venn diagram, "8" represents the common part of pentagon, triangle, square and rectangle but not circle.

So, it is representing the chef, assistant chef, restaurant and hotel but not cafe.

Hence, the correct answer is "Chef who run restaurant, hotel but not cafe with his assistant chef".

Question 16

Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Logic: In the given series, Vertical and horizontal lines are added in vacant images inside the square from left to right.

In the next image, vertical lines should be added.

So, the next image will be 

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

Question 17

From the given alternatives select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 18

From the given alternatives select the one which is the mirror image of given Question Figure . 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

The mirror image of the above image is;

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

Question 19

Find the number of circle in the given figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    13

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

In the middle of the above image, there are 7 circles.

Now, number of circle which is placed in outer of the image are 4.

So, there are total 11 circle present in the given image.

Question 20

From the given alternatives select the one that will complete the question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "option 4".

General Awareness (20 questions)

Question 21

_____, is situated high aloft a hill called Neelachal Parbat or Kamagiri in the city of Guwahati. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Lotus Temple

  2. BOption (b)

    Konark temple

  3. COption (c)

    Kamakhya Temple

  4. DOption (d)

    Lingaraja Temple

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kamakhya Temple

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kamakhya Temple.

Key Points

  • The Kamakhya Temple is situated high aloft a hill called Neelachal Parbat or Kamagiri in the city of Guwahati, which is in the northeastern state of Assam, India.
  • It is a renowned Hindu temple dedicated to the goddess Kamakhya, who is considered as the embodiment of the divine feminine power.
  • The temple holds great religious significance and is one of the oldest and most revered Shakti peethas (sacred sites associated with the goddess Shakti) in India.
  • It attracts a large number of devotees and pilgrims from all over the country.
  • The architecture of the Kamakhya Temple reflects a unique blend of both Hindu and indigenous architectural styles.
  • The main temple structure features a dome-like structure known as the shikhara, which is adorned with intricate sculptures and carvings.
  • The temple complex comprises several other smaller temples dedicated to different deities.
  • One of the notable rituals associated with the Kamakhya Temple is the Ambubachi Mela, which is celebrated annually during the monsoon season.
  • It is believed that during this time, the goddess Kamakhya undergoes her menstrual cycle, and the temple remains closed for three days.
  • The doors are reopened on the fourth day, and devotees gather to receive the blessings of the goddess.
  • The Kamakhya Temple not only serves as a religious and spiritual center but also stands as a significant cultural landmark in the region.
  • Its picturesque location atop the hill provides panoramic views of the city of Guwahati and the surrounding natural beauty.

Therefore, the correct answer is Kamakhya Temple.

Question 22

Pattachitra style of painting is one of the oldest and most popular art forms of ______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Chhattisgarh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Odisha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

  • Pattachitra is indeed one of the oldest and most popular art forms of Odisha, a state located in the eastern part of India.
  • "Patta" means "cloth" in the local language, and "chitra" means "painting."
  • Pattachitra paintings are intricately detailed and vibrant, characterized by their use of bright colors and intricate designs.
  • Pattachitra art has a rich history that dates back centuries and has been passed down through generations of artists.
  • These paintings are typically done on cloth, specifically treated cotton or silk fabric.
  • The artists begin by preparing the canvas with a coating of a mixture of chalk and gum, known as "niryas kalpa," which gives the cloth a smooth texture suitable for painting.
  • The subjects of Pattachitra paintings are often inspired by Hindu mythology and religious themes.
  • The artists depict scenes from epics like the Mahabharata and the Ramayana, as well as various deities, including Lord Krishna, Lord Jagannath, and Goddess Durga.
  • The paintings are known for their intricate detailing, vibrant colors derived from natural pigments, and use of traditional techniques.

Therefore, the correct answer is Odisha.

Question 23

______ is a dance form owing its origin to Andhra Pradesh.

  1. AOption (a)

    Kuchipudi

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharata Natyam

  3. COption (c)

    Kathak

  4. DOption (d)

    Kathakali 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kuchipudi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

  • Kuchipudi is a classical Indian dance form that originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh, located in the southern part of India.
  • It is named after the village of Kuchipudi, where it was developed as a traditional dance-drama form.
  • The origins of Kuchipudi can be traced back to the Bhakti movement, a devotional movement in Hinduism that emerged in the medieval period.
  • Initially, Kuchipudi was performed as a solo dance-drama by male Brahmin dancers known as "Bhagavathalu."
  • Over time, it evolved to include female performers as well.
  • The repertoire of Kuchipudi includes various dance compositions such as "Jatiswaram," "Shabdam," "Varnam," and "Tillana."
  • These compositions are often accompanied by live music, including traditional Carnatic music, percussion instruments, and vocalists.
  • Over the years, Kuchipudi has gained international recognition and is performed by both professional artists and students worldwide.
  • It has evolved and adapted to contemporary themes and styles while preserving its traditional essence.

Thus, the correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Question 24

_____, Hiuen Tsang, visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana.

  1. AOption (a)

    Russian traveller

  2. BOption (b)

    Francis traveller

  3. COption (c)

    Portuguese traveller

  4. DOption (d)

    Chinese traveller

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chinese traveller

Why this answer is correct

The Chinese traveller, Hiuen Tsang, visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana.

Key Points

  • Hiuen Tsang, also known as Xuanzang, was a Chinese traveler who visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana.
  • Hiuen Tsang is renowned for his significant contributions to the documentation of India's history, culture, and Buddhist heritage.
  • During the 7th century, Hiuen Tsang embarked on a perilous journey from China to India with the primary purpose of visiting the holy Buddhist sites and studying Buddhist philosophy and scriptures.
  • Hiuen Tsang arrived in India around 630 CE, during the reign of Harshavardhana, who was a prominent ruler of the North Indian kingdom of Thanesar.
  • Harshavardhana was a patron of Buddhism and welcomed scholars and travelers from various regions.
  • During his stay in India, Hiuen Tsang traveled extensively across different parts of the country, visiting major Buddhist centers, universities, and monasteries.
  • He spent several years in places such as Nalanda, the renowned center of learning, and Bodh Gaya, the site of Buddha's enlightenment.
  • One of the significant contributions of Hiuen Tsang was his collection of Buddhist scriptures.
  • He painstakingly translated numerous texts from Sanskrit into Chinese, preserving and disseminating Buddhist teachings and philosophy in East Asia.
  • His translations played a crucial role in the development and spread of Buddhism in China and other regions.

Hence, the correct answer is Chinese traveller.

Question 25

When was the Cabinet Mission sent to India?

  1. AOption (a)

    April 1946

  2. BOption (b)

    March 1946 

  3. COption (c)

    May 1946

  4. DOption (d)

    June 1946 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

March 1946 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is March 1946.

Key Points

  • The Cabinet Mission was sent to India in March 1946.
  • The British government, recognizing the need for a political solution and the transfer of power in India, dispatched the Cabinet Mission as a last attempt to find a constitutional framework that would satisfy the demands of both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
  • The Cabinet Mission consisted of three British Cabinet ministers: Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.
  • Their objective was to propose a plan for the future governance of India and to facilitate negotiations between the Indian political leaders.
  • The mission arrived in India on March 24, 1946, and held a series of discussions and consultations with various Indian leaders, including representatives from the Indian National Congress, the Muslim League, and other political groups.
  • The mission aimed to find a formula that would accommodate the aspirations of both the Hindu and Muslim communities.
  • The plan recommended the formation of a united Dominion of India with a federal structure. It proposed the establishment of a Constituent Assembly composed of Indian representatives to frame a new constitution for India.
  • Despite the efforts of the Cabinet Mission, the plan was met with resistance and dissatisfaction from both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
  • The Congress accepted the idea of a united India but had reservations about certain aspects of the proposed federal structure.
  • The Muslim League, led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah, rejected the plan as it did not fully meet its demand for a separate nation of Pakistan.

Therefore, the correct answer is March 1946.

Question 26

Khurram was the son of which of the following Mughal Emperor ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jahangir

  2. BOption (b)

    Aurangzeb

  3. COption (c)

    Humayun

  4. DOption (d)

    Babar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jahangir

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jahangir.

Key Points

  • Khurram, also known as Shah Jahan, was the son of Jahangir.
  • Jahangir, whose full name was Nur-ud-din Muhammad Salim, was the fourth Mughal emperor of India.
  • He ascended to the throne in 1605 after the death of his father, Emperor Akbar.
  • Jahangir's reign lasted from 1605 to 1627.
  • Jahangir had several sons, and Khurram was one of them.
  • Khurram was born on January 5, 1592, to Jahangir and his Rajput wife, Jagat Gosaini.
  • Khurram, known as Prince Khurram during his early years, was favored by his father Jahangir and was regarded as his chosen successor.
  • He displayed military prowess and leadership skills from a young age and accompanied Jahangir on military campaigns.
  • After the death of Jahangir in 1627, Prince Khurram ascended to the Mughal throne and took the title of Shah Jahan, which means "King of the World."
  • He is most famous for commissioning the construction of the Taj Mahal in Agra, one of the most iconic landmarks in the world and a symbol of Mughal architecture.

Therefore, the correct answer is Jahangir.

Question 27

Alfred Nobel is associated with which of the following country

  1. AOption (a)

    Switzerland

  2. BOption (b)

    England

  3. COption (c)

    Sweden

  4. DOption (d)

    Denmark

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sweden

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key Points

  • Alfred Nobel, the renowned inventor and philanthropist, is associated with Sweden.
  • Alfred Nobel was born on October 21, 1833, in Stockholm, Sweden.
  • He came from a family of engineers and inventors and demonstrated an early aptitude for science and engineering.
  • Nobel made significant contributions to various fields, including chemistry, physics, and engineering.
  • One of Nobel's most notable inventions is dynamite, which he patented in 1867.
  • Dynamite revolutionized the construction and mining industries, providing a safer and more efficient method for blasting rocks and excavating tunnels.
  • The success of dynamite brought Nobel great wealth and recognition.
  • The first Nobel Prizes were awarded in 1901, following Nobel's death in 1896.
  • The Nobel Prize ceremony takes place in Stockholm, Sweden, except for the Nobel Peace Prize, which is presented in Oslo, Norway.

Thus, the correct answer is Sweden.

Question 28

'Mission Niryatak Bano' is related to which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Chhattisgarh

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rajasthan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • The "Mission Niryatak Bano" campaign is related to the state of Rajasthan.
  • It was launched by the Rajasthan government's industries department and the Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation (RIICO) in July 2021.
  • The campaign aims to promote aspiring exporters in the state and help them expand their business to foreign countries.
  • The campaign has six steps:
  • Registration of the aspiring exporter
  • Training for the exporter
  • Securing necessary documentation
  • Registration in the Rajasthan Export Promotion Council
  • Support in exports and trade operations
  • Handholding of the exporter
  • The campaign is expected to help Rajasthan increase its exports and create new jobs in the state.

Therefore, the correct answer is Rajasthan.

Question 29

Abdul Hamid is the President of which of the following country? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Iraq

  2. BOption (b)

    Iran

  3. COption (c)

    Afghanistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Bangladesh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bangladesh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

  • Abdul Hamid was the 20th and 22nd President of Bangladesh, serving from 2013 to 2023.
  • He was previously the Speaker of the Jatiya Sangsad (National Parliament) from 2009 to 2013.
  • The other countries listed are not correct.
  • Iraq's current president is Barham Salih, Iran's current president is Ebrahim Raisi, and Afghanistan's current president is Mohammad Ashraf Ghani.

Hence, the correct answer is Bangladesh.

Question 30

Where is glycogen stored in the human body?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stomach

  2. BOption (b)

    Gall Bladder

  3. COption (c)

    Liver

  4. DOption (d)

    Kidney

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Liver

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Liver.

Key Points

  • Glycogen is primarily stored in the liver and muscle cells of the human body. Therefore, the correct answer is 3) Liver.
  • The liver serves as a major storage site for glycogen and plays a vital role in regulating blood glucose levels.
  • Glycogen stored in the liver can be broken down into glucose and released into the bloodstream when the body needs energy.
  • Muscle cells also store glycogen, but it is primarily used to provide energy for muscle contractions during physical activity.

Hence, the correct answer is  Liver.

Question 31

Jelep La pass is located in which state ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jammu & Kashmir

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikkim

  3. COption (c)

    Uttarakhand

  4. DOption (d)

    Himachal Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sikkim

Why this answer is correct

Jelep La Pass is located in Sikkim.

Key Points

  • Jelep La Pass is located in Sikkim, India.
  • It is a high mountain pass at 14,390 feet (4,386 meters), on the border of the Indian state of Sikkim and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
  • It is on a route that connects Lhasa to India.
  • The pass is about 4 km (2.5 mi) south of Nathu La and is slightly higher.
  • It was frequently used for trade between Tibet and India during the British Raj, with Kalimpong as the contact point.
  • The Menmecho Lake lies below the Jelep La.

​Therefore the correct answer is Sikkim.

Question 32

Which of the following is a rabi crop? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Cotton

  2. BOption (b)

    Jowar

  3. COption (c)

    Wheat

  4. DOption (d)

    Chilly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wheat

Why this answer is correct

Wheat is a rabi crop.

 Key Points

  • Rabi crops are grown in the winter, from October to April, in India and other parts of South Asia.
  • Wheat is sown in the winter months of November and December and harvested in April or May.
  • It is a cool-season crop that requires a temperature of 10-25 degrees Celsius for optimal growth.
  • Rabi crops are also known as winter crops.
  • Here are some other examples of rabi crops:
  • Barley
  • Chickpeas
  • Mustard
  • Peas
  • Potatoes
  • Sesame
  • Sunflowers

Question 33

No force acts on a current carrying conductor when it is placed ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    inside a magnetic field

  2. BOption (b)

    perpendicular to the magnetic field

  3. COption (c)

    parallel to the magnetic field

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

parallel to the magnetic field

Why this answer is correct

No force acts on a current-carrying conductor when it is placed parallel to the magnetic field.

 Key Points

  • The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by F = ILB sinθ, where:
  • ​F is the force on the conductor (in N).
  • I is the current in the conductor (in A).
  • L is the length of the conductor (in m).
  • B is the magnetic field strength (in T).
  • θ is the angle between the conductor and the magnetic field (in degrees).
  • When the conductor is parallel to the magnetic field, θ = 0° and sinθ = 0.

​Therefore**, F = 0, and no force acts on the conductor.**

Question 34

The Nobel Prizes are not awarded for which of the following? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Arts

  2. BOption (b)

    Literature

  3. COption (c)

    Peace

  4. DOption (d)

    Physics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Arts

Why this answer is correct

The Nobel Prizes are not awarded for Arts.

 Key Points

  • There is no Nobel Prize awarded for Arts.
  • This is because Alfred Nobel, the inventor of dynamite and the founder of the Nobel Prizes, did not believe that the arts were a "useful" or "practical" field of study.
  • He believed that the other five fields of study that he chose to award prizes in were more important for the advancement of humanity.
  • However, there are other prestigious awards that are given in the field of arts, such as the Pulitzer Prize, the Tony Award, and the Grammy Award.
  • These awards are often seen as being more prestigious than the Nobel Prize in Literature because they are awarded by peers in the field of arts.
  • Here are some other reasons why there is no Nobel Prize in Arts:
  • It is difficult to define what "arts" are.
  • There are many different disciplines within the arts, such as painting, sculpture, music, dance, and literature.
  • It would be difficult to create a single prize that could be awarded to all of these disciplines.
  • It is difficult to compare the work of artists from different time periods.
  • What was considered to be great art in one era may not be considered to be great art in another era.
  • It is difficult to judge the quality of the art.
  • Art is subjective, and what one person considers to be great art, another person may not.
  • Despite these reasons, there have been many calls for the creation of a Nobel Prize in Arts.
  • Some people believe that it is time for the Nobel Prize to recognize the contributions of artists to society.
  • Others believe that the Nobel Prizes should remain focused on the sciences and on peace.

​Therefore the correct answer is Arts.

Question 35

Durand Cup is associated with which sports? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Cricket

  2. BOption (b)

    Football

  3. COption (c)

    Kabaddi

  4. DOption (d)

    Table-Tennis 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Football

Why this answer is correct

Durand Cup is associated with Football.

 Key Points

  • The Durand Cup is associated with football.
  • It is the oldest existing football tournament in Asia and the fifth-oldest national football competition in the world.
  • The tournament was founded in 1888 by Sir Mortimer Durand, the foreign secretary of India from 1884 to 1894.
  • It was originally a football tournament for different departments and regiments of the armed forces of India and the princely states.
  • However, since 2022, it has served as the Indian football season opener, with all the Indian Super League and usually the top 5 I-League clubs participating.
  • The Durand Cup is named after its founder, Sir Mortimer Durand.
  • He was a British diplomat who served as the foreign secretary of India from 1884 to 1894.
  • He was a keen supporter of football and believed that it could help to promote unity and understanding between the different communities in India.
  • The Durand Cup is a prestigious tournament and is considered to be one of the most important football tournaments in India.
  • It has been won by some of the biggest clubs in India, including East Bengal, Mohun Bagan, and Bengaluru FC.
  • The current champions are Bengaluru FC, who won the tournament in 2022.

​Therefore the correct answer is Football.

Question 36

How many banks got nationalized in 1980 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6

Why this answer is correct

In 1980, 6 banks were nationalized in India.

Key Points

  • These 6 banks are:
  • ​Andhra Bank
  • Corporation Bank
  • New Bank of India
  • Oriental Bank of Commerce
  • Punjab and Sind Bank
  • Vijaya Bank
  • These banks were nationalized under the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, of 1980.
  • The stated reason for the nationalization was to give the government more control over credit delivery.
  • With the second round of nationalizations, the Government of India controlled around 91% of the banking business of India.

 Therefore the correct answer is 6.

Question 37

What does GDP stand for? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Gross Development Product

  2. BOption (b)

    Gross Domestic Price

  3. COption (c)

    Gross Domestic Product

  4. DOption (d)

    Gross Development Price

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gross Domestic Product

Why this answer is correct

GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product.

 Key Points

  • GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product.
  • It is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given year.
  • It is the most commonly used measure of a country's economic output.
  • The formula for GDP is GDP = C + I + G + (X - M).
  • C is consumption, which is the spending of households on goods and services.
  • I is an investment, which is the spending of businesses on capital goods, such as factories and equipment.
  • G is government spending, which is the spending of the government on goods and services.
  • X is exports, which is the value of goods and services sold to other countries.
  • M is imports, which is the value of goods and services bought from other countries.
  • GDP can be calculated in three ways:
  • The expenditure approach:
  • This adds up the spending of households, businesses, government, and foreigners.
  • The production approach:
  • This adds up the value of all goods and services produced in the economy, at each stage of production.
  • The income approach:
  • This adds up the income of all factors of production, such as wages, rent, and profits.
  • GDP is a useful measure of a country's economic output, but it has some limitations.
  • For example, it does not take into account the quality of goods and services produced or the distribution of income in a country.

Question 38

In case of Emergency in the country, who among the following can suspend the fundamental rights?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prime Minister 

  2. BOption (b)

    High Court 

  3. COption (c)

    President

  4. DOption (d)

    Supreme Court 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

President

Why this answer is correct

In case of an Emergency in the country, President can suspend fundamental rights.

 Key Points

  • Under Article 359 of the Indian Constitution, the President can suspend fundamental rights during an emergency.
  • This means that the citizens of India would lose some of their basic rights, such as the right to freedom of speech, the right to assembly, and the right to move freely.
  • The President can only suspend fundamental rights during a declared state of emergency, which can be either an internal emergency or an external emergency.
  • There are a few fundamental rights that cannot be suspended even during an emergency.
  • These are the rights to life and liberty (Article 21), the right against retrospective punishment (Article 20), and the right to equality (Article 14).
  • The suspension of fundamental rights is a serious matter, and it is only done in the most extreme circumstances.
  • The President must first declare a state of emergency, and then he or she must issue a notification suspending the fundamental rights.
  • This notification must be placed before Parliament within two months of being issued.
  • Parliament can then either approve or disapprove the notification.
  • The suspension of fundamental rights is a controversial issue, and there have been many debates about whether it is ever justified.
  • Some people argue that it is necessary in order to protect the country from threats, such as war or internal disorder.
  • Others argue that it is a violation of human rights and should never be used.
  • Ultimately, the decision of whether or not to suspend fundamental rights is a political one.
  • The President must weigh the potential threats to the country against the potential harm to individual rights.
  • In some cases, the President may decide that the suspension of fundamental rights is necessary to protect the country.
  • However, it is important to remember that this is a drastic measure that should only be used as a last resort.

​Therefore the correct answer is President.

Question 39

Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in 1984 under the leadership of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Syama PrasadMukherjee

  2. BOption (b)

    Kanshi Ram

  3. COption (c)

    Sunderlal Bahuguna

  4. DOption (d)

    Mulayam Singh Yadav

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kanshi Ram

Why this answer is correct

Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.

 Key Points

  • The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded on April 14, 1984, by Kanshi Ram, a Dalit leader and social reformer.
  • The party was formed to represent the Bahujan Samaj, which refers to the historically marginalized caste groups in India, including Dalits, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
  • The BSP's goal is to achieve social and economic justice for these groups and to empower them to participate fully in Indian society.
  • Kanshi Ram was a charismatic and dedicated leader who worked tirelessly to build the BSP into a powerful political force.
  • He was succeeded as party leader by Mayawati in 2001.
  • Mayawati is a former school teacher who rose to prominence in the BSP and became the first Dalit woman to serve as chief minister of Uttar Pradesh, India's most populous state.
  • The BSP has played a significant role in Indian politics, particularly in Uttar Pradesh.
  • The party has won several elections in the state and has formed governments with other parties.
  • The BSP has also been successful in raising awareness of the issues facing the Bahujan Samaj and in promoting social and economic change.
  • The BSP is one of the largest political parties in India and continues to play an important role in Indian politics.
  • The party is committed to fighting for the rights of the Bahujan Samaj and to achieving social and economic justice for all Indians.

​Therefore the correct answer is Kanshi Ram.

Question 40

Where is the Somasila Dam located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Himachal Pradesh 

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Andhra Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

In Andhra Pradesh, the Somasila Dam is located.

 Key Points

  • The Somasila Dam is located in the Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh, India.
  • It is a gravity dam constructed across the Penna River.
  • The dam was built in 1987 and has a storage capacity of 75 tmcft.
  • It is the biggest storage reservoir in the Penna River basin.
  • The Somasila Dam is used for irrigation, drinking water supply, and hydroelectric power generation.

​Therefore the correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Arithmetic Ability (20 questions)

Question 41

If it is known that 27a3 – 8b3 + c3 = -18abc, then:

  1. AOption (a)

    3b + c = 2a

  2. BOption (b)

    3a = b + c

  3. COption (c)

    2a = b + c

  4. DOption (d)

    3a + c = 2b 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3a + c = 2b 

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

 27a3 – 8b3 + c3 = -18abc

Using the cube formula:

27a3 – 8b3 + c3 + 18abc = (3a)3 - 2b3 + c3 -3 × 3a × -2b × c

Comparing with x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz

x = 3a, y = -2b and z = c.

So, 3a + c = 2b.

Hence, the correct option is (4).

Question 42

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

324×65÷26+54=?\sqrt{324}\times 65\div26+54=?

  1. AOption (a)

    89

  2. BOption (b)

    92

  3. COption (c)

    98

  4. DOption (d)

    99

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

99

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

324×65÷26+54=?\sqrt{324}× 65\div26+54=? = 18 × 65  /26 + 54 = 1170/26 + 54

⇒ 1170/26 + 54 = 1170/26 + 54 = 45 + 54 = 99

Hence, The Correct option is 4.

Question 43

What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(1)2+(9)2+1816=?\sqrt{\frac{(1)^2+(9)^2+18}{16}}=?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.0

  2. BOption (b)

    2.5

  3. COption (c)

    3.5

  4. DOption (d)

    4.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2.5

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

√(1)2+(9)2+1816=?√{\frac{(1)^2+(9)^2+18}{16}}=?

√1+81+1816=?√{\frac{1+81+18}{16}}=?

√(100)/(16) = √(25/4) = 5/2 = 2.5

Hence, The Correct Answer is option 2.

Question 44

Find the largest number which divides 34, 58 and 94 leaving the same remainder in each case.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12

Why this answer is correct

Concept use:

The H.C.F (Highest Common Factor) of two or more positive integers: The largest positive integer that divides the numbers without leaving a remainder. For example, take 8 and 12. The H.C.F. of 8 and 12 will be 4 because the highest number that can divide both 8 and 12 is 4.

Calculations:

Here, the smallest number among 34, 58 and 94 is 34.

Now, subtract 34 from each of the other numbers:

58 - 34 = 24

94 - 34 = 60

Now, We have to  find the HCF(Highest Common Factor) of 24 and 60.

Prime factorization of 24: 23 × 31

Prime factorization of 60: 22 ×  31 × 51

The common factors are 22 and 31.

Therefore, the GCD of 24 and 60 is 22 ×  31 = 4 ×  3 = 12.

Hence, the largest number which divides 34, 58 and 94 leaving the same remainder in each case is 12.

Hence, The correct option is 3.

Question 45

A group of children has 120 chocolates with them. Eight of each of them eat 7 chocolates. Each of the remaining eats 1 chocolate less than the average number of chocolates eaten by all of them. What could be the maximum number of children in the group?

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

let no of children = x

Now

since 8 children  ate 7 chocolates each then 56 = (8 × 7) chocolates are already eaten →1

we are also given that the remaining students, ie (x-8) students each had one chocolate less than the average

Here

Average = Total no of chocolates/Total no of children

= 120/x

Therefore the remaining children ate

(x - 8) × ((120/x) - 1) chocolates in total → 2

From 1 and 2

56 + (x - 8) × ((120/x) - 1) = 120

=> (x - 8) × ((120/x) - 1) = 64

Upon simplifying we get the following quadratic

x2 – 64x - 960=0

x = (64 + 16)/2 = 40

or

x = (64 – 16)/2 = 24

Hence the answer could be 40 or 24, but since the maximum number of children is being asked then the answer would be 40.

Question 46

P and Q are two numbers such that if P increased by 20 percent and Q decreased by 40 percent, their sum remains constant. By what percent P is greater than Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    200 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    50 percent

  3. COption (c)

    75 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    100 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

100 percent

Why this answer is correct

Given:

When P increased by 20% & Q decreased by 40%, their sum remained constant.

Calculation:

According to the question,

P + Q = 120% of P + 60% of Q

P + Q = 6/5 of P + 3/5 of Q

6P/5 - P = Q - 3Q/5 ⇒P/5 = 2Q/5

P = 2Q ⇒ P/Q = 2/1

Percentage by which P greater than Q is,

(2 - 1)/1 × 100 = 100% 

Hence, the correct answer is 100%.

Question 47

If the price of rice per kg is decreased by 15 percent , one can buy 1 kg more for Rs. 85. How much quantity of rice can one buy with Rs. 120 with the initial price ?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    10 kg

  3. COption (c)

    7.5 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    5.5 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 kg

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

Let the initial price of rice = Rs x/kg

15% decreased means x — x% of x = 85x/100.

According to Question

85/(85x/100) — 85/x = 1

Or, 100/x — 85/x = 1

Or, 15/x = 1

Or x = 15

One can buy 120/15 or 8 kg rice with the initial price.

 

Hence, The Correct option is 1.

Question 48

A man sold an article for Rs. 840 at a profit of 20 percent. If the ratio of the marked price to the cost price of the article is 10 ∶ 7, respectively, then find the discount percentage offered by the man.

  1. AOption (a)

    20 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    18 percent

  3. COption (c)

    12 percent 

  4. DOption (d)

    16 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16 percent

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

The man sold the article for Rs. 840 at a profit of 20%,

Let's denote the cost price as CP. Since the selling price (SP) of Rs. 840 is 120% of the cost price (because of the 20% profit),

⇒ SP = 120/100 ×  CP

⇒ 840 = 1.2 ×  CP

⇒ CP = 840 / 1.2

⇒ CP = Rs. 700

The ratio of the marked price (MP) to the cost price is given as 10:7. Therefore, we can calculate the marked price as:

MP = 10/7 ×  CP

MP = 10/7 ×  700

MP = Rs. 1000

The discount given by the man is the difference between the marked price and the selling price, which is Rs. 1000 - Rs. 840 = Rs. 160.

Therefore, the discount percentage can be calculated as follows:

Discount Percentage = (Discount / Marked Price) × 100% = (160 / 1000) ×  100% = 16%

Hence, the correct option is 4.

Question 49

A loss equivalent to selling price of 6 oranges is suffered by selling 144 oranges. Calculate the loss percentage. 

  1. AOption (a)

    2 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    3 percent 

  3. COption (c)

    4 percent 

  4. DOption (d)

    5 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4 percent 

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

Let Sale Price of one orange be Rs.x

The total sale price of 144 oranges = 144x

And Loss = 6x

So the Total Cost Price of 144 oranges = 150x

Thus loss% = (6x/150x) × 100 = 4% approx

 

Hence, The Correct Option is 3.

Question 50

The ratio of male workers to the female worker in factory A is 3 ∶ 4 and that in factory B is 5 ∶ 4. The percentage of the females who got increment in factory A is 70 percent and that in factory B is 85 percent. If 12 females in factory A did not get the increment and 68 females in factory B get the increment, then what can be the ratio of total workers in factory A to total workers in factory B?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 ∶ 9

  2. BOption (b)

    1 ∶ 2

  3. COption (c)

    7 ∶ 19

  4. DOption (d)

    7 ∶ 18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7 ∶ 18

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

In Factory A, the ratio of male workers to female workers is 3 : 4.

In Factory B, the ratio of male workers to female workers is 5 : 4.

70% of female workers in Factory A got an increment, so 30% did not get an increment.

Since 12 females did not get the increment in Factory A,

⇒ 0.30F_A = 12, where F_A is the number of female workers in Factory A.  ⇒ F_A = 12 / 0.30 = 40.

85% of female workers in Factory B got an increment. Given that 68 females in Factory B got the increment

⇒ 0.85F_B = 68, where F_B is the number of female workers in Factory B.

⇒ F_B = 68 / 0.85 = 80.

The total number of workers in Factory A is (3 + 4) × (40 / 4) = 7 × 10 = 70.

The total number of workers in Factory B is (5 + 4) ×  (80 / 4) = 9 ×  20 = 180.

Therefore, the ratio of total workers in Factory A to total workers in Factory B is 70 : 180 = 7 : 18.

Hence, the correct option is 4.

Question 51

650 grams of sugar solution has 55 percent sugar in it. How much sugar should be added to this mixture so that sugar becomes 75 percent of total mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    360 grams

  2. BOption (b)

    600 grams

  3. COption (c)

    540 grams

  4. DOption (d)

    520 grams

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

520 grams

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

First, let's determine the amount of sugar in the initial solution.

55% of 650 grams is 0.55 ×  650 = 357.5 grams. (Initial Amount of Sugar)

Let X be the amount of sugar we need to add to the solution to reach a concentration of 75%.

The new total amount of the solution will be 650 + X grams.

⇒ (357.5 + X) / (650 + X) = 0.75

⇒ 0.75 ×  (650 + X) = 357.5 + X

⇒ 487.5 + 0.75X = 357.5 + X

⇒ 487.5 - 357.5 = X - 0.75X ⇒ 130 = 0.25X

⇒ X = 130 / 0.25 ⇒ X = 520

Therefore, 520 grams of sugar should be added to the mixture so that sugar becomes 75 percent of the total mixture.

Hence, The correct option is 4.

Question 52

What is the compound interest on Rs. 10,000 in a year at 6 percent per annum if it is compounded half-yearly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1236

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 609

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 600

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 703

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 609

Why this answer is correct

Concept use:

When interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate of interest is divided by 2 and the time period is multiplied by 2.

Calculations:

 The principal amount (P) is Rs. 10,000, the rate of interest (r) is 6% per annum, and the time period (t) is 1 year

when it's compounded half-yearly, r becomes 6/2 = 3% per half-year, and t becomes 1 × 2 = 2 half-years.

The formula for compound interest (CI) is:

CI = P(1 + r/100)t - P

Substituting the adjusted values for P, r, and t into the formula, we get:

CI = 10,000(1 + 3/100)2 - 10,000

CI = 10,000(1.03)2 - 10,000

CI = 10,000 × 1.0609 - 10,000

CI = 10,609 - 10,000

CI = Rs. 609

So, the compound interest on Rs. 10,000 in a year at 6 percent per annum if it is compounded half-yearly is Rs. 609.

The correct option is 2.

Question 53

Walking at three-fourth of his usual speed, a man covers a certain distance in two hours more than the time he takes to cover the distance at his usual speed. The time taken by him to cover the distance with his usual speed is:

  1. AOption (a)

    4.5 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    5.5 hours

  3. COption (c)

    6 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    5 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6 hours

Why this answer is correct

Calculations:

Let's denote the man's usual speed as S, and the distance he covers as D. 

If he walks at three-fourths of his usual speed, his speed becomes 3/4 × S, and the time he takes to cover the same distance becomes D/(3/4 × S) = 4D/(3S).

According to the Question, this slower time is 2 hours more than his usual time, so we have the equation:

⇒ 4D/(3S) = T + 2. = 4D/(3S) = D/S + 2.

⇒ 4D/(3S) - D/S = 2, ⇒ D/S (4/3 - 1) = 2, ⇒ D/S ×  1/3 = 2,

⇒ D/S = 2 ×  3, ⇒ D/S = 6.

Hence, the time taken by him to cover the distance with his usual speed is 6 hours.

Question 54

A certain distance is covered in a certain time. If 60 percent more distance is covered in 35 percent less time, then find the ratio of the speed in the two cases. 

  1. AOption (a)

    12 ∶ 17

  2. BOption (b)

    15 ∶ 22

  3. COption (c)

    35 ∶ 16

  4. DOption (d)

    13 ∶ 32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

13 ∶ 32

Why this answer is correct

Concept use :

Speed = Distance/ Time

Calculations:

Speed is the ratio of distance to time. If the distance covered increases by 60% and the time decreases by 35%, 

Let's assume the original distance is D and the original time is T.

So, the original speed is S = D/T.

Now, the distance is increased by 60% and the time is decreased by 35%.

So the new speed S' is (1.6D) / (0.65T).

Hence, the ratio of the original speed to the new speed S/S' is:

(D/T) / ((1.6D) / (0.65T)) = (D ×  0.65T) / (1.6D ×  T) = 0.65 / 1.6

⇒ 65/160 = 13 : 32

 

Hence, the ratio of the speed in the two cases is 13 ∶ 32.

Question 55

A and B together can complete a work in 8 days while B and C together can complete it in 12 days. A worked for 4 days, B worked for 6 days and then C finishes the remaining work in 11 days. In what time C alone can complete the work?

  1. AOption (a)

    11 days

  2. BOption (b)

    17 days

  3. COption (c)

    27 days

  4. DOption (d)

    18 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

27 days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(8, 12) = 24 units.

Efficiency of (A + B) = 3 units/day, and (B + C) = 2 units/day.

Total work done: 4A + 6B + 11C = 4(A + B) + 2(B + C) + 9C = 24

⇒ 4(3) + 2(2) + 9C = 24 ⇒ 16 + 9C = 24 ⇒ C = 8/9 units/day.

Time for C alone = 24 ÷ (8/9) = 27 days.

∴ The correct answer is 27 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by (A + B) together = 8 days

Time taken by (B + C) together = 12 days

A worked for 4 days, B worked for 6 days, and C finishes the remaining work in 11 days.

Formula Used:

Total Work = LCM of given days

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A + B8243
B + C122

Calculations:

Let the daily efficiency of A, B, and C be A, B, and C units respectively.

⇒ Total work done = 4A + 6B + 11C = 24

We can rewrite the equation by splitting the terms to match the known combined efficiencies:

⇒ 4A + 4B + 2B + 2C + 9C = 24

⇒ 4(A + B) + 2(B + C) + 9C = 24

Substitute the efficiencies of (A + B) and (B + C) from the table:

⇒ 4 × 3 + 2 × 2 + 9C = 24

⇒ 12 + 4 + 9C = 24

⇒ 16 + 9C = 24

⇒ 9C = 24 − 16

⇒ 9C = 8

⇒ C = 8/9 units/day

Now, calculate the total time C alone will take to complete the total work:

⇒ Time taken by C = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of C

⇒ Time taken by C = 24 ÷ (8/9)

⇒ Time taken by C = (24 × 9) ÷ 8

⇒ Time taken by C = 3 × 9 = 27 days

∴ The correct answer is 27 days.

Additional Information

Pipes & Cisterns

Conceptually identical to Time & Work. Inlet pipes have positive efficiency (filling work) while outlet pipes have negative efficiency (emptying work).

Work & Wages

Wages are strictly distributed in the ratio of the actual total work done by each individual, not merely based on their time spent or efficiency alone.

Alternate Days Work

Calculate the combined work done in one complete rotation cycle (e.g., 2 days for 2 people) and multiply by an integer to reach closest to the total work.

Question 56

Fifty six men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can 42 men complete the same piece of work?

  1. AOption (a)

    18 days

  2. BOption (b)

    32 days

  3. COption (c)

    98 days

  4. DOption (d)

    48 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

32 days

Why this answer is correct

Concept use:

No of days × No of men = Total Work

Calculations:

If 56 men can complete a piece of work in 24 days,

the total amount of work is 56 men ×  24 days = 1344 man-days.

if 42 men can complete the same work, then total no of days 

So, 1344 man-days / 42 men = 32 days.

Hence, 42 men can complete the same work in 32 days.

Question 57

Find the area of a rhombus (in sq cm) whose side is 24 cm and one diagonal is 44 cm?

  1. AOption (a)

    452345\sqrt{23}

  2. BOption (b)

    902390\sqrt{23}

  3. COption (c)

    882388\sqrt{23}

  4. DOption (d)

    80723807\sqrt{23}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

882388\sqrt{23}

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

The area of a rhombus is given by the formula:

Area = 1/2 × d1 × d2

where d1 and d2 are the diagonals.

Concept Used:

In a rhombus, diagonals bisect at 90 degrees.

Calculation:

We know one of the diagonals d1 = 44 cm and we do not know the other diagonal, d2.

As in a rhombus, diagonals bisect at 90 degrees.

⇒ We can find d2 using the Pythagoras theorem

Half the length of the given diagonal is 44/2 = 22 cm.

Given that a side of the rhombus is 24 cm,

By applying the Pythagoras theorem we get:

(242) = (222) + (d2/2)2

⇒ 576 = 484 + (d2/2)2

⇒ (d2/2)2 = 576 - 484 = 92

⇒ d2/2 = √(92) = 2√23 

⇒ d2 = 2 × 2√23 = 4√23, which is the length of the other diagonal.

Now, we can substitute d1 and d2 in the formula to calculate the area,

Area = 1/2 × 44 × 4√23

Area = 88√23 sq cm

∴ The area of the rhombus is 88√23 sq cm.

Question 58

A lady makes tea for his family members and herself in a cylindrical vessel of radius 10.5 cm and height 10 cm. The volume of tea is 40 percent of the vessel's volume. If each one of the members of the family drinks 49 cm3 tea, then find the total number of members in the family.

  1. AOption (a)

    28

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

28

Why this answer is correct

Concept use:

Volume of the Cylinder = π ×  r 2 × h

Calculations:

 Radius of the cylindrical vessel, r = 10.5 cm

Height of the cylindrical vessel, h = 10 cm

Volume of tea = 40% of the vessel's volume = 0.4 × π ×  r2 × h

Volume of the vessel = π ×  r 2 × h = π ×  (10.5 cm)2 × 10 cm

Volume of tea = 0.4 ×  π ×  (10.5 cm) 2 × 10 cm

Number of family members = Volume of tea / Volume of tea per member

Given that each family member drinks 49 cm3 of tea

Number of family members =  (0.4 ×  π ×  (10.5 cm) 2 × 10 cm) / (49 cm3)

The number of family members is approximately 28.

Hence, The Correct Answer is 28.

Question 59

The given table shows the average speed (in km/hr) of two cars. For example, the average speed of car P and car Q is 50 km/hr. 

CarPQRST
P-5052.542.547.5
Q50-62.552.557.5
R52.562.5-5560
S42.552.555-50
T47.557.56050-

What is the speed of car T?

  1. AOption (a)

    50 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    45 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    65 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    55 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

55 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Given

The average speed of the following are as follows:

⇒ (P + Q) / 2 = 50

⇒ (R + Q) / 2 = 62.5

⇒ (R + S) / 2 = 55

⇒ (S + T) / 2 = 50

⇒ (P + T) / 2 = 47.5

Solution

Adding all the given average speeds we get :

⇒ 2(P + Q + R + S + T)/2 = 265

⇒ (P + Q + R + S + T) = 265 ...eq(1)

As given in the question,

⇒ (P + Q)  = 50 × 2 = 100

⇒ (R + S) = 55 × 2 = 110

⇒ P + Q + R + S = 210   ...eq(2)

Subtracting the eq (2) from eq(1),

⇒ (P + Q + R + S + T) - (P + Q + R + S) = 265 - 210 = 55

⇒ T = 55 km/hr

Question 60

The following bar graph shows the population of six countries (in millions) in 2010 and 2020. 

What is the range of percentage increase in population in all countries from 2010 to 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    16.92 percent - 27.5 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    16.66 percent – 27 percent

  3. COption (c)

    15 percent - 26.5 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    18.33 percent – 30 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16.92 percent - 27.5 percent

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

% Increase in population of the Countries in 2010 in India: (145 - 120)/120 × 100 = 20.83%

% Increase in population of the Countries in 2010 in USA = (80 - 65)/65 × 100 = 23.07%

% Increase in population of the Countries in 2010 in Shri Lanka = (51 - 40)/40 × 100 = 27.5%

% Increase in population of the Countries in 2010 in China = (152 - 130)/130 × 100 = 16.92%

% Increase in population of the Countries in 2010 in Japan = (61 - 50)/50 × 100 = 22%

% Increase in population of the Countries in 2010 in England = (83 - 70) × 100 = 18.57%

Hence, The Correct range of percentage is 16.92 percent - 27.5 percent.

Hence, The Correct option is 1.

General English (20 questions)

Question 61

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

The World Health Organisation's experts says that immunising children against the coronavirus “is not a high priority” given the extremely limited global supply of vaccines.

  1. AOption (a)

    The World Health Organisation's experts says that immunising

  2. BOption (b)

    children against the coronavirus “is not a high priority”

  3. COption (c)

    given the extremely limited global supply of vaccines. 

  4. DOption (d)

    No error. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The World Health Organisation's experts says that immunising

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The World Health Organisation's experts says that immunising'

 Key Points

  • The issue in this sentence is subject-verb agreement. The subject, "The World Health Organization's experts," is plural.
  • The correct verb form for the plural subject should be 'say', not 'says'. The verb 'says' is used for singular third-person subjects, such as 'he', 'she', or 'it'.
  • Therefore, the sentence should be "The World Health Organization's experts say that immunising children against the coronavirus “is not a high priority” given the extremely limited global supply of vaccines."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 62

One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

My father identified the person who has won a beautiful car in the lottery yesterday.

  1. AOption (a)

    My father identified the person 

  2. BOption (b)

    who has won a beautiful car

  3. COption (c)

    in the lottery yesterday. 

  4. DOption (d)

    No error.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

who has won a beautiful car

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'who has won a beautiful car'

 Key Points

  • The problem in this sentence is the tense of the verb "has won".
  • The use of "has won" suggests the action is in the recent past and still has relevance to the present.
  • However, the sentence states "in the lottery yesterday", indicating that the event occurred in the past and is complete.
  • The correct form should be "who won a beautiful car" to correctly represent the completed action.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 63

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the underlined segment, select ‘No improvement’.

Our meals usually have at least one item make of some kinds of grain.

  1. AOption (a)

    made of some kind

  2. BOption (b)

    making of any kinds

  3. COption (c)

    makes of kind

  4. DOption (d)

    No substitution required 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

made of some kind

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'made of some kind'

 Key Points

  • The underlined segment "make of some kinds of grain" is incorrect both in terms of verb form and countability.
  • The verb should be "made" instead of "make" because "meals" is the object that has been made from grain.
  • Additionally, "some kind" is grammatically correct because "grain" is an uncountable noun, so it should be referred to in the singular form, not plural ("kinds").

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the bracketed part in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute the bracketed part, select ‘No improvement’.

(As I did not think it was proper to) acquaint her yet with what had happened, I made an excuse.

  1. AOption (a)

    As I did not think it being proper to

  2. BOption (b)

    As I did not think properly to

  3. COption (c)

    As I did not properly think to

  4. DOption (d)

    No Improvement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No Improvement.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'No Improvement.'

 Key Points

  • The bracketed part "As I did not think it was proper to" is grammatically correct.
  • It correctly uses the past simple tense, indicating the speaker's previous judgment or consideration about what was proper.
  • The other options provided are less formal or grammatically incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 65

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Rumours spread that he ______ soon order the army to open fire.

  1. AOption (a)

    will

  2. BOption (b)

    will be

  3. COption (c)

    would be

  4. DOption (d)

    would have

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

will

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'will'

 Key Points

  • In English grammar, "will" is used to express future actions decided at the moment of speaking or predicting future events.
  • In this case, the sentence talks about a future action, specifically, ordering the army to open fire.

Therefore, the most appropriate option to fill in the blank is "will".

The completed sentence reads: "Rumours spread that he will soon order the army to open fire."

Additional Information

  • Let's understand why the other options are not appropriate:
  • "will be" - This option is inappropriate as it is used when referring to future actions that have already been planned or are certain to happen. This form often comes with a specific time reference. However, the sentence is about a speculative action (rumored), not a confirmed one, and there's no specific time reference.
  • "would be" - This form is used for hypothetical or possible actions, usually in if-clauses or when reporting speech. Although there's an element of uncertainty in the sentence (rumours), the context doesn't fit the hypothetical nature that would require the use of "would be".
  • "would have" - This form is used to describe unreal or hypothetical actions in the past. It often comes in if-clauses when expressing regrets, or missed opportunities. This sentence is not referring to a past hypothetical situation, so "would have" doesn't fit.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Dharmendra is going ______ the knife next month to try to ______ his knee problems.

  1. AOption (a)

    above, solve

  2. BOption (b)

    under, solving

  3. COption (c)

    above, solved

  4. DOption (d)

    under, solve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

under, solve

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'under, solve'

 Key Points

  • The expression "going under the knife" is an idiomatic way to refer to undergoing surgery.
  • "Solve" is used to mean addressing or remedying a problem, in this case, "his knee problems".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 67

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

“It is clear that each of these draft ______ is part of a larger plan that ______ against the ethos and interests of the islands and islanders.

  1. AOption (a)

    regulation, are

  2. BOption (b)

    regulations, is 

  3. COption (c)

    regulations, are

  4. DOption (d)

    regulation, is

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

regulations, is 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'regulations, is'

 Key Points

 

  • "regulation, are" - The first part is incorrect because the use of "each" suggests that we are referring to individual elements of a group, thus making "regulation" plural as "regulations". The second part "are" is incorrect because "a larger plan" is singular and thus should take a singular verb "is".
  • "regulations, is" - The first part "regulations" is correct because "each" refers to individual elements of a group, therefore making "regulation" plural. The second part "is" is correct because "a larger plan" is a singular noun phrase and requires a singular verb "is".
  • "regulations, are" - The first part is correct as explained above. However, the second part "are" is incorrect because "a larger plan" is singular and requires a singular verb "is".
  • "regulation, is" - The first part is incorrect because "each" refers to individual elements of a group, thus making "regulation" plural as "regulations". The second part is correct because "a larger plan" is singular and requires a singular verb "is".

Therefore, the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks is 2) "regulations, is".

The completed sentence reads: “It is clear that each of these draft regulations is part of a larger plan that is against the ethos and interests of the islands and islanders."

Question 68

In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, and S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.

S1. Although fruits can no longer grow once picked,

P. taking in oxygen and

Q. they continue to respire for some time,

R. giving off carbon dioxide,

S. just as human beings do

S6. when they breathe.

  1. AOption (a)

    QPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    SQPR

  3. COption (c)

    RPQS

  4. DOption (d)

    PRSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QPRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'QPRS'

 Key Points

  • Starting with Q establishes the main idea that fruits continue to respire.
  • P and R add more details to this respiration process by explaining it involves taking in oxygen and giving off carbon dioxide.
  • S brings in the comparison to human beings, which is then connected to S6's statement about breathing.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.

Benevolent

  1. AOption (a)

    Cruel

  2. BOption (b)

    Barbaric

  3. COption (c)

    Gracious

  4. DOption (d)

    Savage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gracious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Gracious'

 Key Points

  • The word 'Benevolent' means well-meaning and kind. It is used to describe someone who is generous and has a disposition to do good.
  • 'Gracious' is a synonym for 'benevolent' as it also describes someone who is courteous, kind, and pleasant, especially towards someone of lower social status.
  • The other options 'Cruel', 'Barbaric', and 'Savage' are not synonyms for 'Benevolent', but rather, they are antonyms.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 70

Select the most appropriate antonym for the given word.

Squander

  1. AOption (a)

    Confine 

  2. BOption (b)

    Persecute

  3. COption (c)

    Posit

  4. DOption (d)

    Save

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Save

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Save'

 Key Points

  • The word 'Squander' means to waste (something, especially money or time) in a reckless and foolish manner.
  • 'Save' is an antonym for 'Squander' as it means to keep and store up (something, especially money) for future use.
  • The other options 'Confine', 'Persecute', and 'Posit' do not carry meanings that are opposite to 'Squander'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 71

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Canine

  2. BOption (b)

    Compile

  3. COption (c)

    Bolster

  4. DOption (d)

    Coureir

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Coureir

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Coureir'

 Key Points

  • The correct spelling of this word is 'Courier'.
  • 'Canine', 'Compile' and 'Bolster' are all spelled correctly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 72

Select the CORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tropikal

  2. BOption (b)

    Tropical

  3. COption (c)

    Trapical 

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropicol

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tropical

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Tropical'

 Key Points

  • 'Tropical' is spelled correctly and refers to regions or climates situated in or characteristic of the tropics.
  • 'Tropikal', 'Trapical', and 'Tropicol' are incorrect spellings of 'Tropical'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 73

In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Play it by ear.

  1. AOption (a)

    To focus on one thing. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Last try before giving up.

  3. COption (c)

    Act without preparation.

  4. DOption (d)

    A fleeting moment.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Act without preparation.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Act without preparation'

 Key Points

  • The idiom 'Play it by ear' originates from music, where it refers to playing music without reference to written notation.
  • In a broader sense, it means to act according to the circumstances, rather than according to a predetermined plan.
  • Example - Since I'm not sure when my last meeting will end, let's play it by ear for our dinner plans
  • The other options do not correctly reflect this meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 74

In the following question, out of the four given options, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Get the axe.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lose the job.

  2. BOption (b)

    Examining a group of people and deciding their suitability. 

  3. COption (c)

    Proving the effectiveness of something. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Examining something carefully to not miss out any details. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lose the job.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Lose the job'

 Key Points

  • The idiom 'Get the axe' is often used to refer to someone losing their job.
  • The 'axe' symbolizes a tool used to cut off something, in this case, employment.
  • The other options do not correctly represent the meaning of the idiom.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 75

Select the word which means the same as the group of the words given.

One who wants to destroy the government.

  1. AOption (a)

    Vandals

  2. BOption (b)

    Anarchist

  3. COption (c)

    Criminal

  4. DOption (d)

    Amphibian

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Anarchist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Anarchist'

 Key Points

  • An 'Anarchist' is someone who believes in or tries to bring about anarchy, often seen as seeking to overturn organized government.
  • 'Vandals', 'Criminal', and 'Amphibian' do not carry the same meaning as the given group of words.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Read the following passage and answer the questions below.

Arthur Wellesley, 1st Duke of Wellington, KG, GCB, GCH, PC, FRS, was an Anglo-Irish soldier and a Tory statesman who was one of the leading military and political figures of 19th-century Britain, serving twice as the prime minister. He ended the Napoleonic Wars when he defeated Napoleon at the Battle of Waterloo in 1815. 

Wellesley was born in Dublin into the Protestant Ascendancy in Ireland. He was commissioned as an ensign in the British Army in 1787, serving in Ireland as aide-de-camp to two successive lords lieutenant of Ireland. He was also elected as a Member of Parliament in the Irish House of Commons. He was a colonel by 1796 and saw action in the Netherlands and in India, where he fought in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War at the Battle of Seringapatam. He was appointed governor of Seringapatam and Mysore in 1799 and, as a newly appointed major-general, won a decisive victory over the Maratha Confederacy at the Battle of Assaye in 1803. 

Wellesley rose to prominence as a general during the Peninsular campaign of the Napoleonic Wars and was promoted to the rank of field marshal after leading the allied forces to victory against the French Empire at the Battle of Vitoria in 1813. Following Napoleon's exile in 1814, he served as the ambassador to France and was granted a dukedom. During the Hundred Days in 1815, he commanded the allied army, which, together with a Prussian Army under Blücher, defeated Napoleon at Waterloo. Wellington's battle record is exemplary; he ultimately participated in some 60 battles during his military career. 

Wellington is famous for his adaptive defensive style of warfare, resulting in several victories against numerically superior forces while minimising his losses. He is regarded as one of the greatest defensive commanders of all time, and many of his tactics and battle plans are still studied in military academies around the world. After the end of his active military career, he returned to politics. He was twice British prime minister as a member of the Tory party from 1828 to 1830 and for a little less than a month in 1834.

Question 76

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

As a newly appointed Major-General, Arthur Wellesley won a decisive victory at ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Many places in England.

  2. BOption (b)

    Battle of Assaye.

  3. COption (c)

    Battle of Waterloo. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Battle of Seringapatam.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Battle of Assaye.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Battle of Assaye'

Key Points

  • The passage clearly mentions, "as a newly appointed major-general, won a decisive victory over the Maratha Confederacy at the Battle of Assaye in 1803."
  • The other options mentioned in the question do not align with the passage details about Wellesley's major-general rank and decisive victory.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 77

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Arthur Wellesley ended the Napoleonic Wars when he defeated Napoleon. Where was Napoleon defeated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wellington

  2. BOption (b)

    Dublin

  3. COption (c)

    Waterloo

  4. DOption (d)

    Tory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Waterloo

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Waterloo'

Key Points

  • The text states: "He ended the Napoleonic Wars when he defeated Napoleon at the Battle of Waterloo in 1815."
  • The other options listed, 'Wellington', 'Dublin', and 'Tory', do not match the details provided in the passage about where Napoleon was defeated.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 78

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wellington is famous for his adaptive defensive style of warfare. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Wellesley rose to prominence as a general during the Peninsular campaign of the Napoleonic Wars

  3. COption (c)

    Following Napoleon's exile, Wellesley served as the ambassador to France.

  4. DOption (d)

    Wellesley had never been a colonel.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Wellesley had never been a colonel.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Wellesley had never been a colonel'

Key Points

  • The passage clearly states: "He was a colonel by 1796".
  • The other statements are correct according to the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 79

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What does the word ‘exemplary’ mean in the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Commendable

  2. BOption (b)

    Dishonorable

  3. COption (c)

    Disparaging

  4. DOption (d)

    Lacking

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Commendable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Commendable'

Key Points

  • The term 'exemplary' in the passage is used to describe Wellington's battle record, meaning it is worthy of imitation; commendable.
  • The other options 'Dishonorable', 'Disparaging', and 'Lacking' do not align with the meaning of 'exemplary'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 80

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

After the end of his active military career, Arthur Wellesley went into ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Adaptive defensive style of warfare 

  2. BOption (b)

    Politics

  3. COption (c)

    Poetry

  4. DOption (d)

    Training of young soldiers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Politics

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Politics'

Key Points

  • The passage states: "After the end of his active military career, he returned to politics."
  • The other options 'Adaptive defensive style of warfare', 'Poetry', and 'Training ofyoung soldiers' do not match the details provided in the passage about Arthur Wellesley's career after the military.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

General Hindi (20 questions)

Question 81

निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द विसर्ग संधि का उदाहरण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    परिच्‍छेद

  2. BOption (b)

    उन्‍मत

  3. COption (c)

    कवीच्‍छा

  4. DOption (d)

    दुश्‍चरित्र

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

दुश्‍चरित्र

Why this answer is correct

विसर्ग संधि का उदाहरण है - दुश्‍चरित्र

Key Pointsविसर्ग संधि-

  • विसर्ग संधि का अर्थ होता है जब एक शब्द 'विसर्ग' (:) से समाप्त होता है और अगला शब्द स्वर से प्रारंभ होता है, तो वहाँ विसर्ग संधि होती है।
  • जैसे कि 'दुः + चरित्र = दुश्चरित्र' बनता है।
  • यहाँ 'दुश्‍चरित्र' विसर्ग संधि का उदाहरण है।
  • विसर्ग संधि के कुछ अन्य उदाहरण -
  • नर: + इन्द्रः = नरेन्द्रः
  • राम: + अयोध्याम् = रामोऽयोध्याम्
  • गुरु: + उच्यते = गुरुरुच्यते

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्पों की व्याख्या -

  • परिच्‍छेद -
  • यह उपसर्ग संधि का उदाहरण है, जिसमें उपसर्ग 'परि' और मूल शब्द 'छेद' मिलकर 'परिच्छेद' बनते हैं।
  • उन्‍मत -
  • यह उपसर्ग संधि का उदाहरण है, जिसमें उपसर्ग 'उन्' और मूल शब्द 'मत' मिलकर 'उन्मत' बनते हैं।
  • कवीच्‍छा -
  • यह दीर्घ संधि का उदाहरण है, जिसमें उपसर्ग 'कवि' और मूल शब्द 'इच्छा' मिलकर 'कवीच्‍छा' बनते हैं।

Question 82

निम्‍नलिखित में से तत्‍सम शब्‍द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    चाम

  2. BOption (b)

    चटिका

  3. COption (c)

    चितेरा

  4. DOption (d)

    चौथा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

चटिका

Why this answer is correct

तत्सम शब्द का उदाहरण है - चटिका

चटिका का तद्भव शब्द है - चिड़िया 

Key Pointsतत्सम शब्द-

  • तत्सम शब्द वे होते हैं जो संस्कृत से हिन्दी में सीधे आये होते हैं और जिनमें कोई परिवर्तन नहीं हुआ होता।
  • जैसे कि चौथा (संस्कृत का 'चतुर्थः')।
  • ये शब्द संस्कृत भाषा से प्रत्यक्ष रूप से ग्रहण किए गए होते हैं और उनमें कोई भाषात्मक परिवर्तन नहीं होता।
  • तत्सम शब्दों के कुछ अन्य उदाहरण हैं -
  • गुरु, मातर, पितर, भ्रातर, भूमिः, नदी, विद्या, देव, ऋषि आदि।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्पों की व्याख्या -

  • चाम - यह तद्भव शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ होता है चमड़ा।
  • चितेरा - यह भी तद्भव शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ होता है एक प्रकार का वाद्य यंत्र।

Additional Informationतद्भव शब्द-

  • तद्भव शब्द वे होते हैं जो संस्कृत से हिन्दी में आते समय कुछ बदलाव सहित आये होते हैं।
  • जैसे कि चाम (संस्कृत का 'चर्म'), चटिका (संस्कृत का 'चटका') और चितेरा (संस्कृत का 'चित्र')।

Question 83

निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्‍द प्रत्‍यय का प्रयोग कर बनाया गया है? 

  1. AOption (a)

    रिश्तेदारी

  2. BOption (b)

    हररोज

  3. COption (c)

    परामर्श

  4. DOption (d)

    उपद्रव

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

रिश्तेदारी

Why this answer is correct

प्रत्यय का प्रयोग करके बनाया गया शब्द है - रिश्तेदारी

Key Pointsप्रत्यय-

  • प्रत्यय वे शब्दांश होते हैं जो मूल शब्द के पश्चात प्रयोग किए जाते हैं और उस शब्द के अर्थ में परिवर्तन कर देते हैं।
  • उदाहरण के लिए, 'रिश्ता' में 'दारी' प्रत्यय का प्रयोग करके 'रिश्तेदारी' बनता है।
  • प्रत्यय के कुछ अन्य उदाहरण -
  • विद्या + आलय = विद्यालय
  • ग्राम + वासी = ग्रामवासी
  • राज + यान = राज्यान

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्पों की व्याख्या -

  • हररोज -
  • यह शब्द उपसर्ग और मूल शब्द के संयोग से बनता है।
  • 'हर' उपसर्ग है और 'रोज' मूल शब्द है।
  • परामर्श -
  • यह शब्द उपसर्ग और धातु के संयोग से बनता है।
  • 'परा' उपसर्ग है और 'मर्श' धातु है।
  • उपद्रव -
  • यह भी उपसर्ग और धातु के संयोग से बना है।
  • 'उप' उपसर्ग है और 'द्रव' धातु है।

Question 84

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द भाववाचक संज्ञा का उदाहरण है?

  1. AOption (a)

    दल

  2. BOption (b)

    ढेर

  3. COption (c)

    जवानी

  4. DOption (d)

    लोहा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

जवानी

Why this answer is correct

भाववाचक संज्ञा का उदाहरण है -जवानी

Key Pointsभाववाचक संज्ञा-

  • भाववाचक संज्ञा वे शब्द होते हैं जो किसी भाव, अवस्था, गुण, कर्म या अवस्था को दर्शाते हैं।
  • ये ना तो किसी व्यक्ति, पशु, वस्तु या स्थान का नाम होते हैं और ना ही उनका गणना की जा सकती है।
  • उदाहरण के लिए, 'जवानी' किसी की उम्र की एक विशेष अवस्था को दर्शाती है।
  • भाववाचक संज्ञा के कुछ अन्य उदाहरण -
  • सुख
  • दुःख
  • भूख
  • प्यास
  • स्वप्न
  • मृत्यु

Additional Informationअन्य विकल्पों की व्याख्या -

  • दल - यह समूहवाचक संज्ञा है, जो किसी समूह को दर्शाती है।
  • ढेर - यह भी द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा है, जो किसी वस्तु की अधिकता को दर्शाती है।
  • लोहा - यह भी द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा है, जो एक विशेष प्रकार की धातु को दर्शाती है।

Question 85

निम्‍नलिखित में से "इन्‍द्रधनुष" का पर्यायवाची शब्‍द कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    बाखर

  2. BOption (b)

    मनोरथ

  3. COption (c)

    त्वरा

  4. DOption (d)

    सुरचाप

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

सुरचाप

Why this answer is correct

"इन्द्रधनुष" का पर्यायवाची शब्द है -सुरचाप

Key Points

  • पर्यायवाची शब्द वे शब्द होते हैं जो एक ही वस्तु, व्यक्ति या स्थान के लिए प्रयोग किए जा सकते हैं और उनका अर्थ भी समान होता है। उदाहरण के लिए, 'सुरचाप' शब्द 'इन्द्रधनुष' (रैनबो) का पर्यायवाची शब्द है।
  • पर्यायवाची शब्दों के कुछ अन्य उदाहरण -
  • आग - अग्नि, वह्नि, पावक
  • पानी - जल, नी���, वारि
  • सूर्य - भास्कर, दिवाकर, प्रभाकर

Additional Information

अन्य विकल्पों की व्याख्या -

  1. बाखर - यह शब्द एक खेती की क्रिया का नाम है, इसका कोई पर्यायवाची शब्द नहीं है। 

  2. मनोरथ - यह शब्द "इच्छा" या "कामना" के लिए प्रयोग होता है, इसके पर्यायवाची शब्द हो सकते हैं - अभिलाषा, ईप्सित, इच्छा।

  3. त्वरा - यह शब्द "जल्दी" या "तीव्रता" का बोध कराता है, इसके पर्यायवाची शब्द हो सकते हैं - शीघ्रता, द्रुतता।

Question 86

निम्‍नलिखित में से अशुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्‍द का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    प्राचीनतम

  2. BOption (b)

    प्रज्जवलित

  3. COption (c)

    कन्हैया

  4. DOption (d)

    मातृभूमि

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

प्रज्जवलित

Why this answer is correct

अशुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्‍द है- प्रज्जवलित

Key Points

  • "प्रज्जवलित" का शुद्ध रूप होगा "प्रज्वलित"।
  • अन्य सभी शब्द सही वर्तनी वाले है।

Additional Information

वर्तनीकिसी शब्द में आए हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को 'वर्तनी' या 'अक्षरी' कहते हैं। वर्तनी का सम्बन्ध उच्चारण से होता है।

Question 87

निम्‍नलिखित में से "अस्‍त्रीकरण" का विलोम शब्‍द कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अनभिप्रेत

  2. BOption (b)

    अवर

  3. COption (c)

    निरस्त्रीकरण

  4. DOption (d)

    प्रवर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

निरस्त्रीकरण

Why this answer is correct

"अस्त्रीकरण" का विलोम शब्द "निरस्त्रीकरण" है।

Key Pointsनिरस्त्रीकरण-

  • अर्थ: स्त्रीकरण के बिना, अविवाहित
  • विलोम शब्द: अस्त्रीकरण

Important Pointsअनभिप्रेत-

  • अर्थ: जिसे प्राप्त नहीं किया गया हो, अनदृश्य
  • विलोम शब्द: अभिप्रेत

अवर-

  • अर्थ: उत्तम नहीं, नीचे
  • विलोम शब्द: उत्तम

प्रवर-

  • अर्थ: उच्चतर, श्रेष्ठ
  • विलोम शब्द: अवर

Additional Informationविलोम शब्द-

  • विलोम शब्द का अर्थ होता है एक शब्द जिसका अर्थ या विषय दूसरे शब्द के विपरीत होता है।
  • विलोम शब्द द्वारा विपरीत भाव या विरोधी अर्थ व्यक्त किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण-
  • अच्छा (विलोम शब्द: बुरा)
  • ऊपर (विलोम शब्द: नीचे)
  • जीवित (विलोम शब्द: मरा)
  • खुश (विलोम शब्द: दुखी)
  • सुंदर (विलोम शब्द: बदसूरत)

Question 88

दिए गए वाक्‍यांश के लिए एक शब्‍द का चयन कीजिए-

अलग-अलग अवयवों को एक में जोड़ना

  1. AOption (a)

    लोकोत्तर

  2. BOption (b)

    संश्लेषण

  3. COption (c)

    स्वेदित

  4. DOption (d)

    शाक्त

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

संश्लेषण

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- संश्लेषण

संश्लेषण-

  • अर्थ: विभिन्न अवयवों को एकत्रित करना, मिश्रण

Key Pointsलोकोत्तर-

  • अर्थ: लोकों की उपयोगिता से सम्बंधित, जनमानस में ऊपर होनेवाला

स्वेदित-

  • अर्थ: पसीने वाला, पसीने से भरा हुआ

शाक्त-

  • अर्थ: सक्षम, प्रबल

Additional Information

  • वाक्यांश के ��िए एक शब्द का अर्थ होता है एक वाक्यांश को संक्षेप में प्रकट करने वाला शब्द जो पूरे वाक्य के अर्थ को समझाता है। इसका उपयोग भाषा को संक्षेप में प्रदर्शित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण-
  • "उन्मुक्ति के लिए संघर्ष" का वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा "स्वाधीनता"
  • "विजय प्राप्त करने के लिए कठिनाईयों का सामना करना" का वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा "परिश्रम"
  • "समाज में सामंजस्य और एकता" का वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा "योग्यता"

Question 89

निम्‍नलिखित में से दिया गया वाक्‍य किस काल का उदाहरण है?

ताजमहल का निर्माण कार्य चल रहा था।

  1. AOption (a)

    आसन्‍न भूतकाल

  2. BOption (b)

    हेतु-हेतुमद् भूतकाल

  3. COption (c)

    हेतु-हेतुमद् भविष्‍यकाल

  4. DOption (d)

    अपूर्ण भूतकाल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

अपूर्ण भूतकाल

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- अपूर्ण भूतकाल

Key Pointsअपूर्ण भूतकाल-

  • अर्थ: भूतकाल जब किसी कार्य का पूर्ण नहीं होता है और उसकी प्रारंभिक अवस्था को व्यक्त करता है।
  • उदाहरण: ताजमहल का निर्माण कार्य चल रहा था।

Important Pointsआसन्‍न भूतकाल-

  • अर्थ: पश्चात्‍य काल में घटित होने वाले क्रियाविशेष का जिसका परिणाम वर्तमान काल में भी प्रभावित होता है।
  • उदाहरण: मैं विद्यालय जा रहा था।

हेतु-हेतुमद् भूतकाल-

  • अर्थ: विदेशी भूतकाल जो किसी पूर्वकाल में हो चुकी होती है और उसका परिणाम वर्तमान में भी सत्यापित होता है।
  • उदाहरण: वह अभिनय प्रशिक्षण कर चुकी थी।

हेतु-हेतुमद् भविष्यकाल-

  • अर्थ: भविष्य काल में होने वाली क्रियाविशेष का परिणाम पूर्वकाल में ही प्रभावित होने वाला।
  • उदाहरण: मैं कल परीक्षा दूंगा।

Additional Informationकाल-

  • "काल" का अर्थ होता है वह समय जिसमें कोई क्रिया या घटना होती है।
  • भाषा में काल के विभिन्न प्रकार होते हैं जैसे प्रत्यक्ष काल (वर्तमान काल), भूत काल, भविष्य काल आदि।
  • काल का उपयोग वाक्यों के समय प्रकट करने और क्रियाओं के संबंध में सूचना प्रदान करने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण:
  • वर्तमान काल: मैं पढ़ रहा हूँ।
  • भूत काल: मैंने कल खाना खाया था।
  • भविष्य काल: मैं कल पार्टी जाऊँगा।

Question 90

नीचे दिए गए वाक्‍य में किस कारक की विभक्ति का प्रयोग किया गया है?

मुख्‍यमंत्री शिवराज सिंह चौहान ने बाढ़-पीड़ितों के लिए अनाज बँटवाए।

  1. AOption (a)

    सम्‍प्रदान कारक

  2. BOption (b)

    अपादान कारक

  3. COption (c)

    कर्म कारक

  4. DOption (d)

    करण कारक

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

सम्‍प्रदान कारक

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - सम्‍प्रदान कारक

सम्प्रदान कारक-

  • अर्थ: किसी को कुछ देने या प्रदान करने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण: मैंने उसे एक बुक दी।

Key Pointsअपादान कारक-

  • अर्थ: किसी से कुछ प्राप्त करने या ग्रहण करने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण: मैंने उससे एक किताब ली। (यहां 'मुख्यमंत्री शिवराज सिंह चौहान' ने अनाज बँटवाने वाले से कुछ प्राप्त किया है)

कर्म कारक-

  • अर्थ: किसी क्रिया के प्रमुख कर्ता को या क्रिया के संबंध में कार्य करने वाले को प्रकट करने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण: मैंने एक बार्ड खरीदा।

Additional Informationकारक-

  • कारक होते हैं वे शब्द जो किसी क्रिया के संबंध में कार्य करने वाले को, प्रमुख कर्ता को, या किसी क्रिया के प्रयोग को प्रकट करते हैं।
  • कारक शब्द वाक्य में उपयोग होते हैं ताकि क्रिया के संबंध में स्पष्टता प्राप्त हो सके।
  • उदाहरण-
  • "राम ने किताब पढ़ी।" (ने - प्रमुख कर्ता कारक)
  • "वह फल खाया।" (खाया - क्रिया कारक)
  • "मैंने उसे एक उपहार दिया।" (मैंने - सम्प्रदान कारक)

Question 91

निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाक्‍य वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध नही है?

  1. AOption (a)

    उनने हमारें यहां चाय पिया।

  2. BOption (b)

    यह मेरा भाई है यह मेरे साथ रहता है।

  3. COption (c)

    महाभारत अट्ठारह दिन तक चलता रहा।

  4. DOption (d)

    आज चैला भी गुरू का कान काट रहा है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

महाभारत अट्ठारह दिन तक चलता रहा।

Why this answer is correct

वाक्य वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध नहीं है- महाभारत अट्ठारह दिन तक चलता रहा।

Key Points

  • विकल्प 3 में दिए गए वाक्य में कोई अशुद्धता नहीं है।
  • इसमें संज्ञा "महाभारत" का सही रूप है और क्रिया "चलता रहा" का प्रयोग सही वर्तनी के साथ हुआ है।

Additional Information

अन्य विकल्पों के सही वाक्य:

  • उन्होंने हमारे यहां चाय पी ली।
  • विकल्प 1 में "उनने" की जगह "उन्होंने" का प्रयोग होना चाहिए क्योंकि इसका सही रूप है "उन्होंने"।
  • यह मेरा भाई है और यह मेरे साथ रहता है।
  • विकल्प 2 में "है" की जगह "और" का प्रयोग होना चाहिए ताकि दो अलग-अलग वाक्य सही रूप से जोड़े जा सकें।
  • आज चेला भी गुरु का कान काट रहा है।
  • विकल्प 4 में "चैला" की जगह "चेला" का प्रयोग होना चाहिए।​

Question 92

निम्‍नलिखित में से वाच्‍य के प्रकार का चयन कीजिए-

नेहरू जी ने अपने देश के लिए समस्‍त सुख-सुविधाएं त्‍याग दीं।

  1. AOption (a)

    कर्तृवाच्‍य

  2. BOption (b)

    भाववाच्‍य

  3. COption (c)

    कर्मवाच्‍य

  4. DOption (d)

    क्रियावाच्‍य 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

कर्तृवाच्‍य

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- कर्तृवाच्‍य

Key Pointsकर्तृवाच्य:

  • अर्थ:
  • किसी क्रिया में कार्य करने वाले को या क्रिया के कर्ता को प्रकट करने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण:
  • राम ने पुस्तक पढ़ी। (ने - कर्तृवाच्य)

भाववाच्य:

  • अर्थ:
  • किसी क्रिया के बारे में विचार, भाव, अनुभव, भावना आदि का प्रकट करने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण:
  • मुझे भूख लगी है। (लगी - भाववाच्य)

कर्मवाच्य:

  • अर्थ:
  • किसी क्रिया के परिणाम, विपरीत, अवस्था आदि का प्रकट करने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण:
  • सुना गया है कि रात में बारिश हुई। (हुई - कर्मवाच्य)

Additional Informationवाच्य का अर्थ होता है-

  • किसी वाक्य में विधि से व्याप्त व्रीहि, उपग्रही और कर्म के प्रकट करने वाले भाग को कार्य कहते हैं।
  • इसका उपयोग वाक्य के प्रकार और परिवर्तन को समझाने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण:
  • कर्तृवाच्य: राम ने पुस्तक पढ़ी।
  • भाववाच्य: मुझे भूख लगी है।
  • कर्मवाच्य: सुना गया है कि रात में बारिश हुई।

Question 93

निम्‍नलिखित में से मुहावरा "कोढ़ में खाज होना" का क्‍या अर्थ है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अत्‍यधिक प्रसन्‍न्‍ता प्राप्‍त होना। 

  2. BOption (b)

    एक दुःख पर दूसरा दुःख होना।

  3. COption (c)

    अधिक आमदनी होना।

  4. DOption (d)

    किसी भी बात पर विश्‍वास कर लेना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

एक दुःख पर दूसरा दुःख होना।

Why this answer is correct

मुहावरा "कोढ़ में खाज होना" का अर्थ है- एक दुःख पर दूसरा दुःख होना।

Key Points

  • मुहावरा "कोढ़ में खाज होना" का अर्थ होता है एक दुःख पर दूसरा दुःख आ जाना, यानी एक मुसीबत के बाद दूसरी मुसीबत आना।
  • इसे समझाने के लिए, हम कह सकते हैं कि जैसे कोढ़ का रोग ही काफी दुःखदायी होता है, उस पर खाज का आना और भी कष्टकारी होता है।
  • उदाहरण: 
  • राम की नौकरी चली गई और उसके ऊपर से उसका दोस्त भी उसे धोखा दे गया। वाकई, उसके लिए यह 'कोढ़ में खाज होने' जैसा स्थिति थी।
  • सीता के पिताजी का निधन हो गया और साथ ही साथ उसका दीप्रेशन भी बढ़ गया। यह उसके लिए 'कोढ़ में खाज होना' की स्थिति थी।

Question 94

निम्‍नलिखित में से लोकोक्ति "जो हॉंडी में होगा वह थाली में आएगा" का क्‍या अर्थ है? 

  1. AOption (a)

    छोटे लोगों का बढ-चढकर बोलना।

  2. BOption (b)

    अपराधी सदा शंकित रहता है।

  3. COption (c)

    जो मन में है वह प्रकट होगा ही।

  4. DOption (d)

    जो कष्‍ट भोगता है वही दूसरों के कष्‍ट को समझ सकता है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

जो मन में है वह प्रकट होगा ही।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - जो मन में है वह प्रकट होगा ही।

Key Points

  • "जो हॉंडी में होगा वह थाली में आएगा" यह लोकोक्ति उस तथ्य को व्यक्त करती है कि जो भी व्यक्ति के मन में होता है, वह समय के साथ ही उसके व्यवहार या कर्मों में दिखाई देगा।

Additional Information

  • लोकोक्ति का अर्थ होता है ऐसे वाक्यांश या वाक्य, जो लोगों के द्वारा बार-बार और व्यापक रूप से प्रयोग किए जाते हैं और जिनमें कोई नैतिक, सामाजिक या व्यक्तिगत सत्य या अनुभव संक्षेपित रूप से प्रस्तुत किया गया हो।
  • अन्य लोकोक्ति उदाहरण: 
  • "धोबी का कुत्ता, ना घर का ना घाट का" - यह लोकोक्ति उन लोगों के लिए उपयोगी होती है जो किसी भी समुदाय या समूह से जुड़े नहीं होते हैं और इसलिए उन्हें कहीं भी स्थान नहीं मिलता।
  • "कर भला हो भला" - यह लोकोक्ति अच्छे कर्मों की महत्ता को बताती है, यह कहती है कि जो लोग अच्छा करते हैं, उन्हें अच्छा ही मिलता है।
  • "आवा बाटे छोटकी, बाप बड़े ना भाई" - यह लोकोक्ति यह बताती है कि सबसे महत्वपूर्ण चीज व्यक्ति की योग्यता और क्षमता होती है, ना की उसकी जन्म की स्थिति।

Question 95

"नाटक या एकांकी में निर्देश के लिए" निम्‍न में से कौन-से चिन्‍ह का प्रयोग किया जाता है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अल्‍पविराम चिन्‍ह

  2. BOption (b)

    पूर्णविराम चिन्‍ह

  3. COption (c)

    अर्द्धविराम चिन्‍ह

  4. DOption (d)

    कोष्‍ठक चिन्ह

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

कोष्‍ठक चिन्ह

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - कोष्ठक चिन्ह।

Key Points

  • नाटक या एकांकी में निर्देशकीय सूचनाएं देने के लिए कोष्ठक चिन्ह ([ ]) का प्रयोग होता है।
  • ये चिन्ह वह जानकारी देते हैं जो पाठकों या अभिनेताओं के लिए नाटक की समझ में मदद करती है, जैसे कि भावनात्मक भाव, स्थानीय विवरण, या चरित्रों के शारीरिक क्रियाकलाप।

Additional Informationचिन्हों की परिभाषाएं और उदाहरण:

  • अल्पविराम चिन्ह (,) -
  • यह चिन्ह वाक्य में विभाजन दर्शाने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण: मैं स्कूल गया, पढ़ाई की, और घर लौट आया।
  • पूर्णविराम चिन्ह (।) -
  • यह चिन्ह वाक्य के अंत को दर्शाने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण: मैं स्कूल गया।
  • अर्द्धविराम चिन्ह (;) -
  • यह चिन्ह दो संबंधित विचारों को अलग करने के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • उदाहरण: मुझे पढ़ाई में मजा आता है; यह मेरा पसंदीदा काम है।
  • कोष्ठक चिन्ह ([ ]) -
  • यह चिन्ह अतिरिक्त जानकारी, व्याख्या, या स्पष्टीकरण के लिए उपयोग होते हैं।
  • उदाहरण: "हमने [नाटक समूह] के साथ काम किया।"

निम्‍नलिखित गद्यांश का ध्‍यानपूर्वक अध्‍ययन कर प्रश्‍नों के उत्‍तर दीजिए-

व्यक्ति समाज की इकाई है और शिक्षा व्यक्ति को सत्, चित् और आनंद की अनुभूति करने योग्य बनाती हैं। शिक्षा का अर्थ है जीना सीखने की कला। हम जीते हैं समाज में अत: शिक्षा का मूल स्रोत है समाज। इस प्रकार शिक्षा और समाज का परस्पर घनिष्‍ठ संबंध है। शिक्षा व शिक्षण संस्थाओं का समाज में विशेष महत्वपूर्ण स्थान है क्योंकि यहीं से भावी नागरिक ढल कर निकलते हैं। आज समाज के मूलरूप को परिष्कृत करने हेतु नैतिक शिक्षा के प्रश्न का विशेष बल दिया जाने लगा है। यह आवश्यकता अनुभव की गई है कि हमारी मान्यताओं का स्‍खलन हो रहा है। सामाजिक जीवन में जो अनैतिकता दिनों-दिन बढ़ती जा रही है उसका मूल कारण नैतिक शिक्षा का अभाव है। आज हमने भौतिक उन्नति को एकमात्र उद्देश्य बना दिया है हम भौतिकवादी से अतिभौतिकवादी होते जा रहे हैं और यही कारण है कि विफलताएं हमारे मार्ग को अवरुद्ध करती जा रही है। आज शिक्षा का महत्व केवल पुस्तकीय ज्ञान मात्र है जो पुस्तकों में ढलता जा रहा है। यह शैक्षिक प्रक्रिया केवल मशीनीकरण का पर्याय ना बने और व्यवहारिक सद्शिक्षा का स्वरूप विकसित हो इसके लिए अपेक्षित है कि नैतिक मूल्यों की शिक्षा दी जाए अन्यथा समाज में अपराध प्रवृति निरंतर बढ़ती रहेगी। यदि हम जीवन में सामंजस्य स्थापित करना चाहते हैं तो भौतिक प्रगति के साथ-साथ आध्यात्मिक प्रगति को भी जागरूक बनाए रखना आवश्यक है। आज विद्यार्थियों में व्याप्त अनुशासनहीनता, निराशा एवं हतोत्साह के प्रमुख कारण मानसिक एवं आध्यात्मिक अनुशासन का अभाव है। अतएव विद्यार्थियों में प्रारंभ से ही चरित्र-निर्माण और देशभक्ति की भावना जागृत करने के लिए उनमें दृढ़ संस्कारों का निर्माण करने के लिए नैतिक शिक्षा देना अति आवश्यक है। नैतिक शिक्षा के बिना स्वस्थ समाज की कल्पना असंभव है।

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक निम्‍न में से कौन-सा है?

  1. AOption (a)

    नैतिक शिक्षा की उपयोगिता।

  2. BOption (b)

    मनुष्‍य की आध्यात्मिक प्रगति।

  3. COption (c)

    मनुष्‍य का अनुशासनहीनता में व्‍याप्‍त होना।

  4. DOption (d)

    समाज की सर्वोच्‍च ईकाई: व्‍यक्ति।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

नैतिक शिक्षा की उपयोगिता।

Why this answer is correct

उपयुक्त गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक "नैतिक शिक्षा की उपयोगिता" है।

Key Points

  • गद्यांश में नैतिक शिक्षा के महत्व को बताया गया है और इसे समाज, व्यक्ति और विद्यार्थियों के जीवन में कैसे लागू करना चाहिए, इस पर विचार किया गया है

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, शिक्षा का अभिप्राय क्‍या है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अत्‍यधिक ज्ञान प्राप्‍त कर लाभांश प्राप्‍त करना। 

  2. BOption (b)

    जीना सीखने की कला।

  3. COption (c)

    केवल अत्‍यधिक लाभ कमाना।

  4. DOption (d)

    शिक्षा के माध्‍यम से शिक्षण संस्थाओं का लाभ अर्जित करना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

जीना सीखने की कला।

Why this answer is correct

गद्यांश के अनुसार, शिक्षा का अभिप्राय जीना सीखने की कला होता है।

Key Points

  • यह बताया गया है कि शिक्षा व्यक्ति को जीने क��� कला सिखाती है, जिससे वह समाज में सम्बद्ध हो सके और समाज के नियमों का पालन कर सके।

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?

  1. AOption (a)

    शिक्षा और समाज का परस्पर घनिष्‍ठ संबंध है।

  2. BOption (b)

    सामाजिक जीवन में जो अनैतिकता दिनों-दिन बढ़ती जा रही है उसका मूल कारण नैतिक शिक्षा का अभाव है।

  3. COption (c)

    आज शिक्षा का महत्व केवल पुस्तकीय ज्ञान मात्र है जो पुस्तकों में ढलता जा रहा है।

  4. DOption (d)

    नैतिक शिक्षा के बिना भी स्वस्थ समाज की कल्पना संभव है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

नैतिक शिक्षा के बिना भी स्वस्थ समाज की कल्पना संभव है।

Why this answer is correct

नैतिक शिक्षा के बिना भी स्वस्थ समाज की कल्पना संभव है।- यह कथन सही नहीं है।

Key Points

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार, नैतिक शिक्षा के बिना स्वस्थ समाज की कल्पना असंभव है।

Additional Information

  • "नैतिक शिक्षा" का अर्थ होता है "आचारिक या धार्मिक मूल्यों की शिक्षा"।
  • यह शिक्षा नैतिकता, नैतिक मूल्यों, न्याय, ईमानदारी, धर्मिकता, नीति और सही-गलत की पहचान को समझाने और स्थापित करने का कार्य करती है।
  • नैतिक शिक्षा व्यक्ति को यह सिखाती है कि वे सही आचरण करें, समाज में न्यायाधीश और ईमानदार नागरिक के रूप में बरतें और नैतिक मूल्यों के आधार पर सही और उच्चतम गुणों का विकास करें।

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, आज विद्यार्थियों में व्याप्त अनुशासनहीनता, निराशा एवं हतोत्साह के प्रमुख कारण मानसिक एवं _________ है। 

  1. AOption (a)

    प्रागैतिहासिक अनुशासन की प्रचुरता।

  2. BOption (b)

    आध्यात्मिक अनुशासन की प्रचुरता।

  3. COption (c)

    प्रागैतिहासिक अनुशासन का अभाव

  4. DOption (d)

    आध्यात्मिक अनुशासन का अभाव।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

आध्यात्मिक अनुशासन का अभाव।

Why this answer is correct

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, आज विद्यार्थियों में व्याप्त अनुशासनहीनता, निराशा एवं हतोत्साह के प्रमुख कारण मानसिक एवं आध्यात्मिक अनुशासन का अभाव है। 

Key Pointsगद्यांश के अनुसार-

  • आज विद्यार्थियों में व्याप्त अनुशासनहीनता, निराशा एवं हतोत्साह के प्रमुख कारण मानसिक एवं आध्यात्मिक अनुशासन का अभाव है।

Additional Information

  • "प्रागैतिहासिक" शब्द दो भागों से मिलकर बना है - "प्रागैतिहासिक"।
  • "प्रागैतिहासिक" - इसका अर्थ होता है "प्रागैतिहासिक" यानी भूतकाल से पहले होने वाला या पूर्वकालीन। यह शब्द किसी ऐतिहासिक अवधि, समय या काल के लिए उपयोग होता है।
  • "आध्यात्मिक" शब्द संस्कृत शब्द "आध्यात्मिक" से उत्पन्न हुआ है।
  • इसका मुख्य अर्थ होता है "आत्मा संबंधी" या "आत्मा के बारे में"।
  • यह शब्द आध्यात्मिकता, आत्मानुभूति, मनोवैज्ञानिक और धार्मिक अनुभवों के संबंध में उपयोग होता है।

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, आज हमने भौतिक उन्नति को एकमात्र उद्देश्य बना दिया है, हम भौतिकवादी से ______ होते जा रहे हैं और यही कारण है कि विफलताएं हमारे मार्ग को अवरुद्ध करती जा रही है।

  1. AOption (a)

    पदार्थवाद

  2. BOption (b)

    भौतिकतावाद

  3. COption (c)

    अतिभौतिकवादी

  4. DOption (d)

    पदार्थवाद एवं भौतिकतावाद

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

अतिभौतिकवादी

Why this answer is correct

उपर्युक्‍त गद्यांश के अनुसार, आज हमने भौतिक उन्नति को एकमात्र उद्देश्य बना दिया है, हम भौतिकवादी से अतिभौतिकवादी होते जा रहे हैं और यही कारण है कि विफलताएं हमारे मार्ग को अवरुद्ध करती जा रही है।

  • अतिभौतिकवादी का अर्थ होता है कि हम भौतिकवादी सोच के बजाय अतीन्द्रिय परमार्थिक या अदृश्य तत्वों के प्रति अधिक महत्व दे रहे हैं। इसका परिणामस्वरूप, हमारे मार्ग को अवरुद्ध करने से विफलताएं हो सकती हैं।

Key Pointsगद्यांश के अनुसार-

  • "आज हमने भौतिक उन्नति को एकमात्र उद्देश्य बना दिया है हम भौतिकवादी से अतिभौतिकवादी होते जा रहे हैं और यही कारण है कि विफलताएं हमारे मार्ग को अवरुद्ध करती जा रही है।"

Additional Information

  • पदार्थवाद:
  • इस विकल्प का अर्थ होता है कि हम भौतिक पदार्थों को मानदंड बना रहे हैं और उन्हें महत्वपूर्ण मान रहे हैं।
  • भौतिकतावाद:
  • इस विकल्प का अर्थ होता है कि हम भौतिक जगत को मात्रिका सत्य मान रहे हैं और उसे प्रमुखता दे रहे हैं।

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

Question 101

Up to what percentage of methane is contained by biogas ?

  1. AOption (a)

    75 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    85 percent

  3. COption (c)

    95 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    65 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

75 percent

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Biogas:

  • It is the mixture of gases that are produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen (anaerobically), primarily consisting of methane and carbon dioxide.
  • Biogas can be produced from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste, or food waste.

Components of biogas:

Sr.NoComponentsPercentage
1.Methane (CH4)45-75 %
2.Carbon dioxide (CO2)25-50 %
3.Water vapour (H2O) Gas1-5 %
4.Nitrogen (N)0-5 %
5.Ammonium sulfide (NH4)2Strace amount
6.Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)trace amount
7.Carbon monoxide (CO) and Hydrogen (H)trace amount

 

Conclusion:

So, methane is up to 75 % in the bio gas. 75 % is the correct option. 

Additional Information

Biogas is processed in dome type structure. 

  • The bio plant has a dome-like structure built with bricks.
  • A slurry of organic waste and water is made in the mixing tank.
  • Then it goes to digester.
  • The digester is a sealed chamber in which there is no oxygen.
  • Anaerobic micro-organisms that do not require oxygen decompose or break down complex compounds of the cow-dung slurry.
  • After the biogas is released and leftover slurry can be used as manure.

Question 102

Which of the following is/are type/s of forces in nature?

  1. Gravitational
  2. Electromagnetic
  3. Strong Nuclear Force
  4. Weak Nuclear Force

Choose the correct one

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2, 3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Fundamental Forces

  • The four fundamental Force has been figured out in nature.
  • The fundamental forces are 
  • Gravitational Force
  • Electromagnetic
  • Strong Nuclear Force
  • Weak Nuclear Force

Explanation:

Gravitational Force

  • It is the force between two objects by virtue of their mass.
  • The planetary motions are based on gravitational force.
  • The Law of Gravitation was given by Sir Issac Newton. The force between two objects of mass m1 and m2 separated by distance r is given as

F=Gm1m2r2F =\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}

G is a universal Gravitational Constant having the value 6.67 × 10 -11 N m2 Kg -2

Electromagnetic Force

  • The electromagnetic force acts over large distances and does not need any intervening medium.
  • The electrostatic force acts between two charged particles.
  • It is given as

F=kq1q2r2F =\frac{kq_1q_2}{r^2}

Here, q1 and q2 are magnitudes of charges, r is the distance between them. The value of constant k is 9 × 10 9 N m2 C-2

  • We can see that k is too large compared to G. It signifies, the electric force is much larger when compared with Gravitational force in given conditions.

Strong Nuclear Force

  • The strong nuclear force binds protons and neutrons in a nucleus.
  • The strong nuclear force acts when the distance between nucleons is less than 10 -15 m or 1 fermimeter.
  • In that case, it is even stronger than electrostatic force.

Weak Nuclear Force

  • The weak nuclear force appears only in certain nuclear processes such as the β -decay of a nucleus.
  • The weak nuclear force is weaker than the strong nuclear force but stronger than the gravitational force.

So all of these are fundamental forces. 

The following table signifies the strength of different forces. 

ForceRelative Strength
Gravitational Force10 - 39
Electric Force10 - 2
Strong Nuclear Force10 -13
Weak Nuclear Force1

Question 103

Which of the following statement is correct about action and reaction ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Have same direction

  2. BOption (b)

    Both act along the line joining the bodies

  3. COption (c)

    Both may or may not have equal magnitude

  4. DOption (d)

    Both act on the same object

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both act along the line joining the bodies

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Newtons Third Law of Motion: Every action has an equal and opposite reaction. Action and reaction forces act on different bodies.

Explanation:

  • The action and reaction forces act on different bodies.
  • Considering an example, A bullet is fired from a gun.
  • The gun applies force to a bullet and the bullet applies force on the gun.
  • The magnitude of both forces is the same.  Their effect depends upon mass.

F = m a

a = F / m

So, if the mass is less at the same force, the acceleration will be more. 

  • If we consider the gun as the only object, it gives recoil which is the reaction force applied by it on the bullet.
  • So action force is a force on a bullet and reaction force is applied on the gun.
  • Another example can be a book kept on the table.

​

  • The line of action will remain the same.  The direction of the reaction force is exactly the opposite.

Conclusion:

  • Both act along the line joining the bodies. This is the only correct statement.

Question 104

In case of concave mirror if we place the object between centre of curvature and focus of the mirror then what will be the position of the image ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Between the focus and centre of curvature

  2. BOption (b)

    At the centre of curvature

  3. COption (c)

    Beyond the centre of curvature

  4. DOption (d)

    At the focus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Beyond the centre of curvature

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Concave mirror: 

  • The mirror in which the rays converge after falling on it is known as the concave mirror.
  • Concave mirrors are also known as converging mirrors.
  • The focal length of a concave mirror is negative according to the sign convention.
  • The image formation by the concave mirror at different locations can be seen in the figure in the form of a ray diagram.

EXPLANATION:

  • From the above diagram, it is clear that when the object is placed between center of curvature(C) and focus(F), then the image is real, inverted, and beyond the center of curvature.

Additional Information

Magnification:  

  • In a concave mirror, the magnification is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
  • When the image is real, the magnification will be negative because the real image is inverted.
  • When the image is virtual, the magnification will be positive because the virtual image is erect.
  • The concave mirror can form a magnified image when the object is kept at a certain distance.
  • A virtual, erect, and magnified image is formed when the object is placed very close (on focal length) to a concave mirror.
  • The dentist uses this mirror to get a magnified view of the teeth. Also used in torches and solar light collectors.

 m=−vum = \frac{-v}{u}

Where m = Magnificent, v = Distance of the image from the mirror, u = Distance of the object from the mirror.

Important Points 

  • Real images are formed by the real intersection of light and are inverted.
  • The virtual image is formed when the light intersection is apparent. Image formed
  • Mirror Formula: The following formula is known as the mirror formula:

1f=1u+1v\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{v}

Question 105

Which of the following statement is/are true ?

  1. If a body changes its position with time it is said to be moving
  2. Nothing is in absolute rest or in absolute motion
  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    1 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Rest and Motion

  • Rest: An object is said to be at rest if the position of the body remains the same with respect to a reference point.
  • Motion: An object is said to be in motion if the position is changing with time with reference to a point.

Explanation:

  • The concept of rest and motion can be explained by an example.
  • Consider Ram is moving in a train, he is in motion with respect to a person standing outside train. As the train moves, his position is changing with respect to the man outside.
  • Here the point of reference is the man sitting outside.
  • Consider, a man sitting next to him on the train.
  • Ram is at rest with respect to him because their relative position is not changing.
  • Both are moving together at the same speed on the train.
  • If the speed and direction of two objects are same they are in rest with respect to each other as their relative position remains the same.

Conclusion:

Statement 1: If a body changes its position with time it is said to be moving. This is true. 

Statement 2: Nothing is in absolute rest or in absolute motion. This is true as anything in rest from one point of reference can be in motion if the reference point is changed. 

So, both statements are true.

Question 106

Where does the centre of curvature of a concave mirror lie?

  1. AOption (a)

    On the aperture of the mirror

  2. BOption (b)

    in front of the mirror

  3. COption (c)

    On the mirror

  4. DOption (d)

    In the back of mirror

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

in front of the mirror

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The optical instrument which reflects the light and makes the image of the object is called a mirror.
  • The mirror has a spherically curved reflecting surface is called a spherical mirror.

There are two types of spherical mirror:

1. Concave mirror:

  • The spherical mirror having an inward reflecting surface is called a concave mirror.
  • The images form by the concave mirror can be real as well as virtual.
  • Centre of curvature lies in front of mirror

2. Convex mirror:

  • The mirror whose reflecting surface is outward is called a convex mirror.
  • The images formed by the convex mirror is always virtual.

The following representation depicts the New Cartesian Sign Convention for spherical mirrors:

Where, u = Object distance, v = Image distance, f = The focal length of the mirror

Focal length = R/2

Where R = radius of curvature of mirror.

Hence, the centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies in front of the mirror

Additional Information

Mirror Formula: The following formula is known as the mirror formula, which provided a relation between focal length, image distance, and objects distant as shown below 

1f=1v+1u\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u}

  • Magnification: In a concave mirror, the magnification is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
  • When the image is real, the magnification will be negative because the real image is inverted.
  • When the image is virtual, the magnification will be positive because the virtual image is erect.

m=−vum = \frac{{ - v}}{u}

Where m is magnificent, v is the distance of the image from the mirror, and u is the distance of the object from the mirror.

Question 107

A man walks with a speed of 8km/hr for 2 km and 9 km/hr for 3 km. What is the average speed for 5 km?

  1. AOption (a)

    8.5 7km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    6.25 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    8 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    9.75 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8.5 7km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total distance = 5 km

Formula used:

Average speed = Total distance / Total time

Calculation:

Time taken to travel 2 km at the speed of 8 km/h = D/S = 2/8 = 1/4 hr

Time taken to travel 3 km at the speed of 9 km/h = D/S = 3/9 = 1/3 hr

Now,

Average speed

⇒ 514+13\frac{5}{\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{3}}

⇒ 53+412\frac{5}{\frac{3+4}{12}}

⇒ 5/7 × 12

⇒ 60/7 = 8.57 km/h

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 108

A ball is thrown up at a speed of 2m/s. If g = 10m/s2, then find the maximum height the ball will reach?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.40 m

  2. BOption (b)

    0.80 m

  3. COption (c)

    0.20 m

  4. DOption (d)

    0.10 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0.20 m

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Projectile motion: When a particle is projected obliquely near the earth surface, it moves simultaneously in horizontal and vertical directions. This type of motion is called projectile motion.

Total;time;of;flight=2;u;sinθgTotal;time;of;flight = \frac{{2;u;sinθ }}{g}

Range;of;projectile=u2sin⁡2θgRange;of;projectile = \frac{{{u^2}\sin 2θ }}{g}

Maximum;Height=u2sin⁡2θ2gMaximum;Height = \frac{{{u^2}{{\sin }^2}θ }}{{2g}}​

Where, u = projected speed, θ = Angle at which an object is thrown from the ground, g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2

Maximum height is the maximum vertical distance travelled by the projectile from the horizontal plane.

Maximum;Height=u2sin⁡2θ2gMaximum;Height = \frac{{{u^2}{{\sin }^2}θ }}{{2g}}

For maximizing the vertical range, sin θ must be maximum, which is sin θ = 1

⇒ θ = 90° 

Maximum;Vertical,Height=u22gMaximum; Vertical,Height = \frac{{u^2}}{{2g}}

 

Calculation:

Given:

u = 2 ms-1, g = 10m/s2 

Maximum;Vertical,Height=u22gMaximum; Vertical,Height = \frac{{u^2}}{{2g}}

h=222 × 10h= \frac{{2^2}}{{2\ \times \ 10}}

h = 0.2 m

Question 109

What is the position of an object in front of a concave mirror so that the magnification produced by the mirror is 1?

  1. AOption (a)

    At the focus

  2. BOption (b)

    At pole

  3. COption (c)

    Beyond centre of curvature

  4. DOption (d)

    At the centre of curvature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

At the centre of curvature

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Concave Mirror:

  • The concave mirror is the mirror which is having a reflecting surface curve inward.
  • The focus lies in front of mirror and so does the center.
  • Magnification: In a concave mirror, magnification is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
  • When the image is real, the magnification will be negative because the real image is inverted.
  • When the image is virtual, the magnification will be positive because the virtual image is erect.

 m=−vum = \frac{-v}{u}

where m is magnificent, v is the distance of the image from the mirror, and u is the distance of the object from the mirror.

  • Mirror Formula: The following formula is known as the mirror formula:

1f=1u+1v\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{v}

For spherical mirrors, the focal length is half of the center of curvature. 

f = C / 2

Image Formation by Concave Mirror

Explanation:

  • It is given that the magnification obtained is 1.
  • It means the ratio of the size of image and object is 1 or size of image is equal to sign of object.
  • The - 1 sign indicates that the image is inverted and real.
  • Such kind of image is formed in the case when the object is at the center of curvature.

So, At the centre of curvature is the correct option.

Question 110

In an ideal spring, the spring force F, is proportional to x where x is the displacement of the block from the equilibrium position. The displacement could be either positive or negative. This force law for the spring is called Hooke's law and is mathematically stated as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Fs = k/x

  2. BOption (b)

    Fs = k + x

  3. COption (c)

    Fs = kx

  4. DOption (d)

    Fs = -kx

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Fs = -kx

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Spring force: In an ideal spring, the force required to stretch a string from its equilibrium position is directly proportional to the extension of the spring.

This is known as Hooke's law and commonly written:

Fs = -kx

Where Fs = Spring force, x = Displacement from the equilibrium position and k is the spring constant.

Explanation:

The Hooke's law for the spring is given by:

Fs = -kx

  • Here negative sign is very important.

  • It tells that the direction of restoring force or spring force will be opposite to the direction of the displacement (as shown in the figure).

  • So the correct answer is option 4.

Question 111

Which of the following equation is also a special case of the work-energy (WE) theorem? (where a is acceleration, u and v are the initial and final speeds and s the distance traversed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    v2 - u2 = 2as

  2. BOption (b)

    v2 . u2 = 2as

  3. COption (c)

    v2 + u2 = 2as

  4. DOption (d)

    v2 . u = 2as

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

v2 - u2 = 2as

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Work-energy theorem: It states that work done by a force acting on a body is equal to the change in the kinetic energy of the body i.e.,

W = Kf - Ki

W=12mv2−12mu2=ΔKW = \frac{1}{2}m{v^2} - \frac{1}{2}m{u^2} = {\bf{\Delta }}K

Where v = Final velocity, u = Initial velocity and m = Mass of the body

We also know that work done (W) = Fs

Where F = Force = ma, s = Displacement

a = Acceleration

∴ W = mas

Now, W=12mv2−12mu2=m×a×sW = \frac{1}{2}m{v^2} - \frac{1}{2}m{u^2} = m\times a\times s

12m(v2−u2)=m×a×s \frac{1}{2}m({v^2} - {u^2}) = m\times a\times s

v2 - u2 = 2as

Hence, the work-energy theorem is not independent of Newton's second law. It may be viewed as scalar form of the second law.

Explanation: 

  • When force and displacement are in the same direction, the kinetic energy of the body increases. The increase in K.E. is equal to the work done on the body.
  • When force and displacement are oppositely directed, the kinetic energy of the body decreases. The decrease in K.E. is equal to the work done by the body against the retarding force.
  • When a body moves along a circular path with uniform speed, there is no change in its kinetic energy. W-E theorem, the work done by the centripetal force is zero.
  • When K.E. increases, the work done is positive and when K.E. decreases, the work done is negative.
  • From the above, it is clear that only 1st statement is correct.

Question 112

If a particle travels a distance ‘s’ in time t1 to t2, the average speed Vav is ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    s/(t2-t1)

  2. BOption (b)

    s(t2 - t1)

  3. COption (c)

    2st2−t1\frac{2s}{t_2 - t_1}

  4. DOption (d)

    s2(t2−t1)\frac{s}{2(t_2 - t_1)}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

s/(t2-t1)

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Distance travelled is the product of speed and the time taken while travelling with that speed.

speed=distancetime speed = \frac{distance}{time}

  • The average speed is defined as the total distance travelled by the total time taken during the process.

Average speed=total distancetotal timeAverage \ speed = \frac{total \ distance}{total \ time}

Calculation:

Given, the distance travelled is s

time interval t = t2 - t1 

Average speed Vav

Average speed=total distancetotal timeAverage \ speed = \frac{total \ distance}{total \ time}

So

Vav=st2−t1V_{av} = \frac{s}{t_2 - t_1}

The correct option is  s/(t2-t1)

Question 113

A typical cell develops a voltage of 0.5-1 V and can produce about ______ of electricity when exposed to the Sun.

  1. AOption (a)

    5 W

  2. BOption (b)

    0.7 W

  3. COption (c)

    3 W

  4. DOption (d)

    0.3 W

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.7 W

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Solar cell: A solar cell, or photovoltaic cell, is an electrical device that converts the energy of light (Sunlight) directly into electricity by the photovoltaic effect, which is a physical and chemical phenomenon.

  • Solar cells are made of semiconductor materials like silicon, cadmium telluride, and copper indium gallium selenide.
  • The working principle of solar cells is based on the photovoltaic effect.
  • The photovoltaic effect is the production of electricity by a material when it is exposed to light.
  • The common single-junction silicon solar cell can produce a maximum open-circuit voltage of approximately 0.5 - 0.6 V and produce 0.7 W on exposure to the Sun.
  • For making the solar cell, semiconductor materials are used such that silicon, cadmium telluride, and copper indium gallium selenide.
  • Copper, Iron, and Aluminium are conductors and metals they are used to make wires and various metallic object.

Additional Information

Solar Cell:

  • A solar cell is basically a p-n junction that generates emf when solar radiation falls on the p-n junction.
  • It works on the same principle (photovoltaic effect) as the photodiode, except that no external bias is applied and the junction area is kept much larger for solar radiation to be incident because we are interested in more power.
  • A p-Si wafer of about 300 μm is taken over which a thin layer (~0.3 μm) of n-Si is grown on one side by the diffusion process.
  • The other side of p-Si is coated with a metal (back contact). On the top of the n-Si layer, a metal finger electrode (or metallic grid) is deposited. This acts as a front contact.
  • The metallic grid occupies only a very small fraction of the cell area (< 15%) so that light can be incident on the cell from the top.
  • The generation of emf by a solar cell, when light falls on, it is due to the following three basic processes: generation, separation, and collection:
  1. Generation of e-h pairs due to light (with hν > Eg) close to the junction.
  2. Separation of electrons and holes due to electric field of the depletion region. Electrons are swept to n-side and holes to p-side.
  3. The electrons reaching the n-side are collected by the front contact and holes reaching the p-side are collected by the back contact.
  • Thus p-side becomes positive and the n-side becomes negative giving rise to photovoltage.
  • When an external load is connected a photocurrent flows through the load.

Question 114

If a projectile is fired with a speed u of an angle θ with the horizontal, then what will be its speed (v) when its direction of motion makes an angle α with the horizontal?

  1. AOption (a)

    v = u cos θ sec α

  2. BOption (b)

    v = u cos α sec θ

  3. COption (c)

    v2 = u cos θ sec α

  4. DOption (d)

    v = u2 cos α sec θ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

v = u cos θ sec α

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Projectile motion: When a particle is projected obliquely near the earth surface, it moves simultaneously in horizontal and vertical directions. This type of motion is called projectile motion.

Total;time;of;flight=2;u;sinθgTotal;time;of;flight = \frac{{2;u;sinθ }}{g}

Range;of;projectile=u2sin⁡2θgRange;of;projectile = \frac{{{u^2}\sin 2θ }}{g}

Maximum;Height=u2sin⁡2θ2gMaximum;Height = \frac{{{u^2}{{\sin }^2}θ }}{{2g}}

Where, u = Projected speed, θ = Angle at which an object is thrown from the ground, g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2, 

Explanation:

Let v be the speed of projectile when it makes an angle α with horizontal.

We know that horizontal speed of projectile remains constant because of absence of acceleration in horizontal direction.

∴ v cos α = u cos θ 

⇒ v = u cos θ sec α

Question 115

What is the absolute refractive index of kerosene?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.46

  2. BOption (b)

    1.31

  3. COption (c)

    1.47

  4. DOption (d)

    1.44

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1.44

Why this answer is correct

EXPLANATION:

  • The absolute refractive index of a medium: The ratio of the speed of light in air or vacuum to the speed of light in the given medium is called the absolute refractive index of the medium.

μ = c / v

μ is the absolute refractive index, c is the speed of light in air, v is the speed of light in the given medium

  • Relative refractive index: The ratio of the speed of light in a transparent medium 1 to the speed of light in transparent medium 2 is called the refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1.
  • In general, the refractive index is a term used for absolute refractive index.
  • The optical denser medium

Absolute reflective index of some material media.

Material  mediumRefractive index
Air1.003
Ice1.31
Water1.33
Alcohol1.36
Kerosene1.44
Fused quartz1.46
Rock salt1.54
Diamond2.42

So, the correct option is 1.44.

Question 116

Which one of the following is not associated with a good source of energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Easy to store and transport

  2. BOption (b)

    It gives a minimum amount of work per unit volume or mass

  3. COption (c)

    Moderate price rate

  4. DOption (d)

    Simply accessible

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It gives a minimum amount of work per unit volume or mass

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The characteristics of a good source of energy.

  • It would do a large amount of work per unit volume or mass.
  • It is easily accessible.
  • It is easy to store or transport.
  • It is economical.​​​

Additional Information

There are basically two sources of energy:

Renewable resources or Non-ConventionalNon-Renewable resources or Conventional
The resources can renew themselves or can be used again and again.The sources cannot be replaced or reused once they are destroyed.
Renewable resources are replenished naturally and over relatively short periods of time. It is present in unlimited quantityThese are limited resources and consume millions of years to make. So these are used limitedly.
It has low carbon emission and is hence is environment friendly.These are not environmentally friendly because the amount of carbon emission is high.
The cost is low.The cost of these resources is high.
A large land area is required for the installation of these plants.Less land requirement of installation of these plants.
They require high maintenance costs.They require low maintenance costs.
Example: soil, water bodies, sun (solar energy), wind, tidal energy, atomic energy, geothermal, forest, mountains, biogas, wildlife, atmospheric resources.Example: coal, oil, nuclear energy, petroleum, natural gas, LPG, batteries, shale gas, soil and phosphate are some examples.

Question 117

Projectile motion is an example of motion in a plane with ____ acceleration.

  1. AOption (a)

    Constant

  2. BOption (b)

    Increasing

  3. COption (c)

    Zero

  4. DOption (d)

    Decreasing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Constant

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Projectile Motion:

  • It is referred to the motion of any object, thrown at an angle from horizontal.  The object is under influence of acceleration due to gravity.

  • Projectile Motion is an example of a 2-dimensional Motion. 

  • The body reaches its maximum height when its velocity along the vertical direction becomes zero. 

  • It is simply like throwing a ball vertically upward and at maximum height, its velocity becomes zero and it starts to fall back.

  • But, the horizontal speed given to the ball will remain the case.

  • We can analyze the projectile motion in two dimensions.

Motion in Two-dimension

  • Along the X-axis or horizontal axis
  • The initial speed is ux = u cos θ
  • Acceleration ax = 0
  • Along the Y- Axis or Vertical axis,
  • The initial speed is Uy = u sin θ
  • Acceleration here is the acceleration due to gravity in the downward direction or negative Y direction.
  • Acceleration ay = - g

Explanation:

  • Here, we can see the acceleration is zero in the horizontal direction and it is g in the vertical direction.
  • g is constant throughout the projectile motion.
  • Hence, the acceleration is constant.

So the correct option is 'Constant.'

Question 118

Nucleus contains about _______ percent of the mass of the atom.

  1. AOption (a)

    99.98

  2. BOption (b)

    92

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    88.9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

99.98

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • In an atom, the nucleus contains nucleons.
  • A nucleon can be either a proton or a neutron.
  • The total number of protons and neutrons (often referred to as nucleons) in an atomic nucleus is known as the mass number (A).
  • This is because most of the mass of an atom is of protons and neutrons. (99.98 %)
  • The electrons revolving have negligible mass as compared to the nucleus.
PROTONNEUTRONELECTRON
Positively charged particlesNeutral particles i.e. no charge is present on themNegatively charged particles.
Present in the nucleus of the atomPresent in the nucleus of the atompresent in the outer shell, orbiting around the nucleus of the atom.
Mass: 1.673 × 10-27 Kg1.6749275×10−27 Kg9.10938356 × 10-31 Kg
More massive than electronsMore massive than electronsQuite lighter particles
Represented as "p"Represented as "n"Represented as "e"

From the data, we can observe that the mass of electrons is small compared to that of proton and neutron up to 10 5.

Question 119

According to sign convention, the focal length of a convex mirror is _____.

A. Positive

B. Negative

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and B

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A

  3. COption (c)

    Only B

  4. DOption (d)

    Either A or B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Spherical mirror: A mirror which has a shape which is cut from a spherical surface is called a spherical mirror.

Sign convention in mirrors:

  • All distances are measured from the pole of the mirror.
  • The distance measured from the pole (p) to the left side of the mirror is taken as negative.
  • The distance measured from the pole (p) to the right side of the mirror is taken as positive.
  • The heights measured upwards and perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror is taken as positive.
  • The heights measured downwards and perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror is taken as negative.
  • The same sign convention is used for both mirrors.

Convex mirror: When the reflecting surface of the mirror bulges towards the light source is called a convex mirror.

The image formation properties of the convex mirror are given below:

  • The convex mirror always forms a virtual image that lies between pole and focus of the mirror. A virtual image is always erect.
  • The size of the image formed by the convex mirror is always smaller than that of the object.
  • When the object moves towards the mirror then the image also
  • The distance from the lens to the focal point is called the focal length.
  • For diverging or convex mirrors, the focal length is always positive.
  • For a converging or concave mirror, the focal length is always negative.
  • The focal length of a convex mirror is half of its radius of curvature.​

Additional Information

Formation of images for different positions of the object by a concave mirror:

Question 120

______ is/are called fluid/s

  1. Liquid
  2. Gas
  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

fluid, any liquid or gas or generally any material that cannot sustain a tangential, or shearing, force when at rest and that undergoes a continuous change in shape mean they has property to flow.

Key Points

  • A gas fills its container, taking both the shape and the volume of the container.
  • Liquids and gases are called fluids because they can be made to flow, or move.
  • In any fluid, the molecules themselves are in constant, random motion, colliding with each other and with the walls of any container.

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

Question 121

What is the type of the following reaction?

CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

  1. AOption (a)

    Neutralization

  2. BOption (b)

    Reduction

  3. COption (c)

    Redox

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxidation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Redox

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Oxidation reaction:

  • Oxidation Reaction refers to a reaction in which either the addition of Oxygen takes place or the removal of Hydrogen takes place.
  • It can also be said as the process of loss of one or more electrons by atoms or ions.
  • The oxidation number increases during the oxidation process.
  • Example is:

Mg + O2→Mg2O

Reduction Reaction:

  • Reduction Reaction refers to a reaction in which either the addition of Hydrogen takes place or the removal of oxygen takes place.
  • In the process of reduction, a chemical species also gains electrons.
  • The oxidation number of elements decreases during reduction.
  • It is the reverse of the oxidation reaction.
  • Example is:

H2 + F2 → HF

Redox Reaction:

CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

  • Oxidation and reduction are opposite in nature and they always take place simultaneously.
  • In a chemical reaction, when one substance is reduced, the other is oxidized.
  • In the reaction, CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O Cu is reduced whereas Hydrogen is oxidized.
  • The reactions in which oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously are called Redox- reactions.

Explanation:

Let us study the species and the oxidation number of the central elements:

For the reaction:CuO + H2→ Cu + H2O

MoleculeSpeciesOxidation state
CuOCu+2
H2H0
CuCu0
H2OH+1
  • Here, Cu is getting from oxidation state +2 to 0, i.e., the oxidation number decreases and it is reduced.
  • Hydrogen is getting oxidised (oxidation state 0 to +1)

Hence we can conclude that CuO + H2→ Cu + H2O is Redox reaction.

Question 122

A man picks up a bag of mass of 15 kg from the ground and puts it on his head 1.5 m above the ground. What is the work done by him on the bag? (g = 10 m/s2)

  1. AOption (a)

    200 J

  2. BOption (b)

    175 J

  3. COption (c)

    125 J

  4. DOption (d)

    225 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

225 J

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Work is said to be done by a force when the body is displaced actually through some distance in the direction of the applied force.

  • Since the body is being displaced in the direction of F, therefore work done by the force in displacing the body through a distance s is given by:

W = Fs = mgh

Where m = Mass of body, h = Height, g = Acceleration

Calculation:

Given:

m = 15 kg, h = 1.5 m, g = 10 m/s2 

Using, W = mgh

W = 15 × 10 × 1.5

W = 225 J

Question 123

Which one of the following is an example of Amphoteric Oxide?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zinc Oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Mercuric Oxide

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium Oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Copper Oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Zinc Oxide

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Oxides are compounds formed by the reaction of metals, non-metals with oxygen. The types of oxides are:
  • Basic oxide: It is a complex chemical substance oxide, which forms a salt with a chemical reaction with acids or acidic oxides and does not react with bases or basic oxides.
  • E.g. Copper oxide (Cu2O), Magnesium oxide (MgO)
  • Acidic oxide: It is a complex chemical substance oxide, which forms a salt with the chemical reactions with bases or basic oxides and does not react with acidic oxides.
  • E.g. Carbon dioxide (CO2), Silicon dioxide (SiO2)
  • Amphoteric oxide: It is a complex chemical substance, also oxides, which form a salt with the chemical reactions with acids (or acid oxides) and with bases (or basic oxides).
  • E.g. Zinc oxide, Tin oxide, Lead oxide, Aluminum oxide, and Beryllium oxide.

Explanation:

Nature of oxides of the elements:

  • Metals form basic oxides and Non-metals form acidic oxides.
  • Amphoteric elements can form both acidic and basic oxides.
  • For example, aluminium oxide is amphoteric in nature, it can act as a base as well as an acid.
  • So, amphoteric oxides will react with both acids and bases to form salt and water.
  • Amphoteric oxides are formed by elements of groups 2, 13, and some d block elements.
  • Here, metal X forms an amphoteric oxide, so metal X is a metalloid and its oxide can be acidic as well as basic.

Mistake Points

  • Amphoteric oxides are not the same as neutral oxides, because neutral oxides neither have basic nor acidic properties.

Question 124

Which one of the following is the best conductor of heat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper

  3. COption (c)

    Gold

  4. DOption (d)

    Iron

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Copper

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Types of material:

CONDUCTORINSULATORSEMICONDUCTOR
A conductor is a type of material that allows the flow of an electrical current in one or more directions.An insulator is a type of material that prevents any electric current from flowing through itA semiconductor is a crystal material whose ability to conduct electricity rises as its temperature goes up. That is, it sometimes acts as a conductor and sometimes as an insulator.
For a conductor, conductivity is maximum and resistivity is minimum.For an insulator, conductivity is minimum and resistivity is maximum.For a semiconductor, conductivity is less the conductor and more than an insulator, similarly, resistivity is is more than conductor and less than an insulator

Copper (Cu):The atomic number is 29.

  • It is a soft.
  • It is a very ductile and malleable metal and has the high electrical conductivity, thermal conductivity of all given elements i.e best conductor of heat.
  • It is most widely used for electrical cables and wirings.

Question 125

Which one of the following is the general formula of Alkenes?

  1. AOption (a)

    CnHn

  2. BOption (b)

    CnH2n

  3. COption (c)

    CnH2n+1

  4. DOption (d)

    CnH2n+2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CnH2n

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Hydrocarbons are the derivates of carbon and hydrogen compounds. In organic chemistry, Hydrocarbons are classified into three:- 

  1. Alkanes
  2. Alkenes
  3. Alkynes
  4. Alkanes: These are represented by Single Bond between two carbons. 
  • The chemical formula CnH2n+2
  • the first member of the alkane group  - Methane (CH4)
  • Symbolic representation of alkanes is  —C—C—
  • Methane is colourless, odourless, flammable gas. it is used primarily as fuel to make heat and light. it is used in the manufacturing of organic chemicals.
  1. Alkenes: These are represented by a Double Bond between two carbons 
  • The chemical formula CnH2n
  • The first member of the alkene group  - Ethene (C2H4)
  • Symbolic Representation of alkenes is —C=C—
  • Ethene is used in the production of ethylene glycol ( 1,2-ethanediol ) an automotive anti-freezing agent, used in the production of polymers such as polythene, polyvinyl chloride, polystyrene.
  1. Alkynes: These are represented by a Triple Bond between two carbons
  • The chemical formula CnH2n-2
  • The first member of the alkyne group - Ethyne (C2H2)
  • Symbolic representation of alkynes is —C=C—
  • Ethyne is also called Acetylene which is used in portable lighting, welding, cutting, production of Chemicals.

Additional Information

  • Water is represented by Two hydrogens attached to one oxygen by a single bond and having chemical formula H2O, also called Dihydrogen Oxide, the symbolic representation of water is H —O—H.
  • Carbon dioxide is represented by Two oxygens attached to one carbon by a Double bond and having the chemical formula CO2, the symbolic representation of carbon dioxide is O=C=O.

Question 126

What number of elements existed in nature was assumed by Newlands?

  1. AOption (a)

    53

  2. BOption (b)

    56

  3. COption (c)

    55

  4. DOption (d)

    54

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

56

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

In Newlands’ Law of Octaves, every eighth element holds the properties as same that of the first element, when elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic masses.

  • Newlands’ Law of Octaves was relevant to Calcium only, elements heavier than Calcium did not suit in his table.
  • Newlands placed two elements in the same notch to fit elements in the table.
  • Newlands arranged the 56 elements known at that time in increasing order of their atomic masses. He started with the lightest element hydrogen and ended up with thorium. He found that every eighth element had properties similar to those of the first. He termed it as the Law of octaves
  • This law was found to be applicable only up to calcium. Newlands fitted all the known elements in a table of 7 × 8 that is 56 boxes.​

Newlands periodic table:

HFClCo/NiBrPdIPt/Ir
LiNaKCuRbAgCsTl
GIMgCaZnSrCdBa/VPb
BOAlCrYCe/LaUTaTh
CSiTiInZrSnWHg
NPMnAsDi/MoSbNbBi
OSFeSeRo/RuTeAuOs
  • In a periodic table, each row of elements consists of a total of seven elements and the eighth element falls under the first element.
  • In the first column lithium (Li) is the first element and sodium (Na) is the eighth element.

Additional Information

ScientistMethods Of Classification Element
Mendeleev’s periodic lawProperties of elements are periodic function of their atomic masses
Dobereiner’s TriadsDoberiner made groups of three elements each having similar chemical properties and called them triads.
Henry MoseleyProperties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.

Important Points

Modern Periodic Table:

  • The Modern Periodic Table is classified into the following elements - p-block, s-block, d-block, and f-block.
  • The p-block elements include chalcogens, pnictogens, halogens, inert gases.
  • The 18th group is known as Inert gas, zero groups, Nonreactive gases.
  • The 17th group is known as Halogen.
  • The 16th group is known as Chalcogen.
  • The 15th group known as Pnictogen.
  • The s-block elements include alkali metals and alkaline earth metals.
  • The d-block elements include Transition elements.
  • The f-block elements include Inner Transition Elements.

Question 127

In vinegar, what is the percentage of acetic acid dissolved in water?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 - 8 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    3 - 5 percent

  3. COption (c)

    8 - 10 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    7 - 9 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5 - 8 percent

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Vinegar is a sour liquid that is made by the fermentation of numerous dilute alcoholic liquids into a liquid containing acetic acid.
  • Vinegar can be made from any liquid that is capable of being converted into alcohol in a two-step process.
  • It contains 5 - 8 percent of acetic acid dissolved in it.

Additional Information

  • Types:
  • There are many types of Vinegar which include apple cider, Balsamic, champagne, distilled white, malt, rice, sherry, and red and white wine vinegar, among others.
  • Uses: 
  • Because of its acetic acid content and low pH, vinegar is used as a preservative for both domestic use and in the food industry.
  • It is used for the preservation, or pickling, of a wide variety of foods such as vegetables, meat, fish products, and spiced fruits.
  • Floral vinegar is an easy way to preserve the vibrant flavours and aromas of edible flowers.
  • Vinegar adds acidic taste and helps to balance flavour in recipes.

Question 128

What are the properties of the image formed by the plane mirror?

A. Virtual and inverted

B. Virtual and erect

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B both are false

  2. BOption (b)

    B is true

  3. COption (c)

    Both are true

  4. DOption (d)

    A is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B is true

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Plane Mirror: A plane mirror is a mirror with a flat (planar) reflective surface.

The characteristics of an image formed in a plane mirror:

  • The image formed by the plane mirror is virtual and erect i.e. image cannot be projected or focused on a screen.

  • The distance of the image ‘behind’ the mirror is the same as the distance of the object in front of the mirror.

  • The size of the image formed is the same as the size of the object.

  • The image is laterally inverted, i.e. left hand appears to be right hand when seen from the plane mirror.

  • If the object moves towards (or away from) the mirror at a certain rate, the image also moves towards (or away from) the mirror at the same rate.

From above it is clear that images are formed by the Plane mirror is virtual, erect, and laterally inverted.

Question 129

What is the relation between Volt(V) and Joule (J)?

  1. AOption (a)

    1J=1V1C1 J = \frac{1V}{1C}

  2. BOption (b)

    1J = 1V - 1C

  3. COption (c)

    1V = 1J × 1C

  4. DOption (d)

    1V=1J1C1V=\frac{1J}{1C}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1V=1J1C1V=\frac{1J}{1C}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The electrostatic potential energy (U) of two electric charges separated by a distance r can be given as,

 U=14πϵ0×q1q2rU = \frac{1}{{4\pi {\epsilon_0}}} × \frac{{{q_1}{q_2}}}{r}

The electrostatic potential, 

V=14πϵ0×q1rV = \frac{1}{{4\pi {\epsilon_0}}} × \frac{{{q_1}}}{r}

Hence the relation between electrostatic potential and potential energy can be given as:

V=UqV = \frac{U}{q}

  • It was discovered by James Prescott joule and named after him.
  • An electric charge of one coulomb is moved through an electric potential difference and work required to do so is termed as joule.

So 1 Joule = 1 Coulomb × Volt. 

Energy: It is defined as the capacity of doing work. It is in the form of Kinetic Energy, Potential Energy, and Thermal Energy, etc. 

Here, 14πϵ0\frac{1}{{4\pi {\epsilon_0}}} = constant, q1, q2 = Any two charges, and r = Distance between two charges

Explanation:

Since V = U/q

1 volt = 1 Joule/1 coulomb = 1 J/C

Thus 1V=1J1C1V=\frac{1J}{1C}

Question 130

What is the colour of the white sliver chloride when it is placed in direct sunlight?

  1. AOption (a)

    Black

  2. BOption (b)

    Grey

  3. COption (c)

    Brown

  4. DOption (d)

    Green

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Grey

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Silver halides: 

  • A silver halide (also known as a silver salt) is a chemical compound formed when the element silver (Ag) reacts with one of the halogens.
  • Bromine (Br), chlorine (Cl), iodine (I), and fluorine (F) can all mix with silver to produce silver bromide (AgBr), silver chloride (AgCl), silver iodide (AgI), and three different types of silver fluoride.
  • They're known as the silver halides as a group, and they're typically denoted by AgX.
  • Although the majority of silver halides contain silver atoms with oxidation states of +1 (Ag+), silver halides with oxidation states of +2 (Ag2+) are also known,
  • Silver (II) fluoride is the only one that is stable where Ag is in a +2 oxidation state.
  • Silver halides are Light-sensitive compounds.
  • Silver chloride is turns grey from white when exposed to sunlight.
  • They are widely employed in photographic film and paper.
  • Silver halide crystals in gelatin are coated onto a film base, glass, or paper substrate in photographic film and photographic paper, including graphic art film and paper.
  • As a protective colloid with adequate physical and chemical properties, gelatin is an essential component of the emulsion.
  • Although modern practice employs gelatin without trace materials (such as sulphur), the gelatin may contain trace elements (such as sulphur) that boost the emulsion's light sensitivity.

Additional InformationColour intensity of silver halides:  

  • Silver halides, except for silver fluoride, are extremely water-insoluble.
  • The three most common silver halide compounds have different colours that can be used to identify halide ions in a solution fast.
  • Silver chloride precipitates as a white substance.
  • silver bromide is a creamy substance.
  • Silver iodide is a yellow substance.
  • AgI being yellow when it precipitates has greater colour intensity whereas AgCl being white appears to be dull and least colour intensive.

The correct order of silver halides on the basis of colour intensity is - AgCl < AgBr < Agl

Question 131

What is the colour of the flame when alkenes are burnt?

  1. AOption (a)

    Blue

  2. BOption (b)

    Grey

  3. COption (c)

    White

  4. DOption (d)

    Yellow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Yellow

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Sooty flame:

  • Unsaturated hydrocarbons like alkenes, and alkynes are aromatic hydrocarbons that partially burned with a yellow sooty flame.
  • It is due to the incomplete combustion of the hydrocarbon in air.
  • A large amount of carbon does not completely oxidize in the air and gives sooty flame.

Non-Sooty flame:

  • The saturated hydrocarbons burn with a Blue colour non-sooty flame.
  • Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons and classified as a type of aliphatic hydrocarbon.
  • Hexane is a type of Alkanes that burns with a blue non-sooty flame. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The blue flame emerges when the complete combustion of carbon takes place.

Additional Information

Hydrocarbons are the derivates of the carbon and hydrogen compounds.  In organic chemistry, Hydrocarbons are classified into three:- 

  1. Alkanes
  2. Alkenes
  3. Alkynes
  4. Alkanes: These are represented by Single Bond between two carbons. 
  • The chemical formula CnH2n+2
  • the first member of the alkane group  - Methane (CH4)
  • Symbolic representation of alkanes is  —C—C—
  • Methane is colorless, odorless, flammable gas. it is used primarily as fuel to make heat and light. it is used in the manufacturing of organic chemicals.
  1. Alkenes: These are represented by Double Bond between two carbons 
  • The chemical formula CnH2n
  • The first member of the alkene group  - Ethene (C2H4)
  • Symbolic Representation of alkenes is —C=C—
  • Ethene is used in the production of ethylene glycol ( 1,2-ethanediol ) an automotive anti-freezing agent, used in the production of polymers such as polythene, polyvinyl chloride, polystyrene.
  1. Alkynes: These are represented by a Triple Bond between two carbons
  • The chemical formula CnH2n-2
  • The first member of the alkyne group - Ethyne (C2H2)
  • Symbolic representation of alkynes is —C=C—
  • Ethyne is also called Acetylene which is used in portable lighting, welding, and cutting, production of Chemicals.​

Question 132

What is the atomic radius of hydrogen atom?

  1. AOption (a)

    37 pm

  2. BOption (b)

    102 pm

  3. COption (c)

    53 pm

  4. DOption (d)

    97 pm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

37 pm

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • The atomic radius is the distance between the nucleus's centre and the boundary of the electrons that surround it.
  • The atomic number of hydrogen is 1 and its standard atomic weight is 1.008.
  • It has an atomic radius of 37 pm, which stands for picometer measurement.
  • Or we can say that the range of atomic size or radius of hydrogen falls in 10-12 m.​

Question 133

What statement is true for a solenoid?

  1. AOption (a)

    A solenoid is made up of magnet.

  2. BOption (b)

    Inside a solenoid electric field is zero.

  3. COption (c)

    A solenoid does not behave like a magnet.

  4. DOption (d)

    A strong magnetic field is produced inside a solenoid.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A strong magnetic field is produced inside a solenoid.

Why this answer is correct

EXPLANATION:

Solenoid:

  • A cylindrical coil of many tightly wound turns of insulated wire with a general diameter of the coil smaller than its length is called a solenoid.

As shown in figure

  • The solenoid is not made up of a magnet
  • It behaves like a bar magnet.
  • The electric field inside the solenoid is not zero.
  • A magnetic field is produced around and within the solenoid.
  • The magnetic field within the solenoid is uniform and parallel to the axis of the solenoid.

The strength of the magnetic field in a solenoid is given by:-

B=μ0NIlB=\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}NI}{l}

Where, N = Number of turns, l = Length of the solenoid, l = current in the solenoid, and μo = Absolute permeability of air or vacuum.

The magnetic field inside a solenoid is strong and uniform.

Question 134

A galvanometer behaves like an ammeter when shunt resistance of very small value is added in _______.

A. Parallel

B. Series

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Either A or B

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Ammeter: An Ammeter is a device which is connected in series of the circuit to find the current. 

  • Ampere is the unit of current.
  • Ammeter is connected in series. So, if it is having a high resistance, it will affect the reading as the current will be reduced in the circuit.
  • So, an ammeter should have very small (ideally zero) resistance so that perfect reading can be obtained. ​

Converting Galvanometer to Ammeter:

  • A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting a shunt resistance in parallel to it.
  • The shunt resistance should have very low resistance. So, the ammeter (the parallel combination of galvanometer and shunt resistance) will have low resistance.
  • To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter of current rating ‘I’, a small resistance ‘S’ (shunt resistance) is connected in parallel across the galvanometer.

Important Points

  • For the voltmeter, the resistance should be infinite.
  • If resistance is low, it will provide an easy path for current and overall current will increase. This will affect the readings.

 Additional Information

Converting Galvanometer to Voltmeter

  • A galvanometer may be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a large resistance R in series with the galvanometer.

Question 135

Which of the following is not used as food preservatives?

  1. Sodium Benzoate
  2. Salts of sorbic acid
  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Food preservation: is a method to protect food from unwanted microbial growth and is done to preserve food for a longer time.

Different chemical preservatives are used, which involves

1. Traditional chemical food preservatives

  • Sugar
  • Salt

2. Acidulants

  • Benzoic acid (Sodium Benzoate comes under this category)
  • Sorbic acid
  • Lactic acid

3. Gaseous chemical food preservatives/ leavening agents

  • Sulphur dioxide and sulphites
  • Carbon dioxide

Sodium benzoate: It is a preservative that is most widely used in acidic foods such as salad dressings, carbonated drinks, jams and fruit juices, pickles, condiments, and yoghurt toppings.

So both Sodium Benzoate, Salts of sorbic acid are used as preservatives.

Question 136

When preparing systematic diagram of hydro power plant which of the following is not a component of it?

  1. Generator
  2. Turbine
  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

 Hydropower plant 

  • The hydropower plant converts the potential or kinetic energy of water into electrical energy.

​

Figure: Hydropower Plant

 The above schematic diagram of the hydropower plant shows its components

  • Reservoir(Forebay): It temporarily stores a large amount of water.
  • Intake: It takes water from the reservoir and directs it to penstock.
  • Penstock: These are elevated pipes carrying water from intake to turbine.
  • Turbine: As running water passes from the turbine it applies torque(Tangential force) on blades and blades start rotating. During this process, the turbine converts energy in water streams into mechanical energy and transmits it to the generator.
  • Generator:  It converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. It has 2 parts connected at its center rotor and stator. 
  • rotor: It has electromagnets on its outer surface.
  • stator: It has copper windings on its inner surface.
  • As the rotor rotates inside the stator electromagnets rotates inside the copper winding due to electromagnetic induction alternating electric current is generated.
  • Transformer: It is situated inside the powerhouse. It converts Alternating Current into high voltage current.
  • Draft tube: It connects the turbine's outlet to outflow.
  • Outflow: Water is carried which again enters the river downstream.

As both turbine and generator are present in the schematic diagram of the Hydropower plant therefore neither 1 nor 2 is the correct option.

Additional Information

There are 3 types of hydropower plants as follows:

  • Conventional plant: It uses the potential energy of water stored in dams for conversion. It uses a large water reservoir for power generation.
  • Pump storage plant: Water from the dam is passed to a small reservoir located after the turbine's outflow for conversion and it is pumped back afterward.
  • Run-of-river plant: It uses the kinetic energy of running river water by diverting it through the penstock for conversion. It is installed in between running rivers for power generation.

Question 137

Why did Rutherford select a gold foil for his experiment of finding the model of an atom?

  1. AOption (a)

    As it is thin

  2. BOption (b)

    As it is lustrous

  3. COption (c)

    As it is ductile

  4. DOption (d)

    As it is a noble metal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

As it is thin

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment: This experiment was responsible for the discovery of the atomic nucleus.

  • Ernest Rutherford was interested in knowing how the electrons are arranged within an atom. Rutherford designed an experiment for this.

  • In this experiment, fast-moving alpha (α)-particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil.

  • He selected a gold foil because he wanted as thin a layer as possible. This gold foil was about 1000 atoms thick.

  • α-particles are doubly charged helium ions. Since they have a mass of 4 u, the fast-moving α-particles have a considerable amount of energy.

  • It was expected that α-particles would be deflected by the sub-atomic particles in the gold atoms. Since the α-particles were much heavier than the protons, he did not expect to see large deflections.

  • But, the α-particle scattering experiment gave totally unexpected results. The following observations were made:

  • Most of the fast-moving α-particles passed straight through the gold foil.

  • Some of the α-particles were deflected by the foil by small angles.

  • Surprisingly one out of every 12000 particles appeared to rebound

  • On the basis of his experiment, Rutherford put forward the nuclear model of an atom, which had the following features:

  • There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus. Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.

  • The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.

  • The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.

Additional Information

  • Electron was discovered by J.J. Thomson in 1896.
  • Sir James Chadwick discovered neutrons in the year 1932.
  • The discovery of the proton is credited to Ernest Rutherford, who proved that the nucleus of the hydrogen atom (i.e. a proton) is present in the nuclei of all other atoms in the year 1917.

Question 138

_______ is one of the chemical used to produce Ocean Thermal Energy.

  1. AOption (a)

    HCl

  2. BOption (b)

    N2

  3. COption (c)

    H2

  4. DOption (d)

    NH3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

NH3

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

  • The ocean thermal energy is obtained by the temperature difference between the surface and depth of the ocean.
  • The water at the surface of the sea or ocean is heated by the Sun while the water in deeper sections is relatively cold.
  • This difference in temperature is exploited to obtain energy in ocean-thermal-energy conversion plants.
  • These plants can operate if the temperature difference between the water at the surface and water at depths up to 2 km is
  • 20 K (20°C) or more.
  • The warm surface water is used to boil a volatile liquid like ammonia. The vapors of the liquid are then used to run the the turbine of a generator.
  • The cold water from the depth of the ocean is pumped up and condensed vapor again to liquid. The energy potential from the sea (tidal energy,  wave energy and ocean thermal energy) is quite large, but efficient commercial exploitation is difficult.
  • Systems may be either closed-cycle or open-cycle. Closed-cycle OTEC uses working fluids that are typically thought of as refrigerants such as ammonia or R-134a.
  • These fluids have low boiling points, and are therefore suitable for powering the system's generator to generate electricity.

Hence we can conclude that NH3 is one of the chemical used to produce Ocean Thermal Energy.

Question 139

Which one of the following is known as Slaked Lime?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium carbonate

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium chloride

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium oxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium hydroxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Calcium hydroxide

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Slaked lime: It is chemically known as Calcium hydroxide.

  • Its chemical formula Ca(OH)2.
  • Slaked lime is obtained by the action of water on calcium oxide.
  • When it is mixed with water, a small proportion of it dissolves, forming a solution known as limewater, the rest remaining as a suspension called milk of lime.

Uses:

  • It is used for whitewashing. It reacts with carbon dioxide slowly and forms a layer of Calcium Carbonate on the wall which gives shine to the wall.
  • It is used in sewage treatment. It is used as a flocculant in water.
  • It is used in pickles.
  • It is used to process water for various beverages.
  • It is used in the paper industry.

​

Additional Information

  • Calcium bicarbonate is also called calcium hydrogen carbonate.
  • It has a chemical formula Ca(HCO3)2.
  • ​Calcium oxide, commonly known as lime, is a chemical compound with the formula CaO.
  • Calcium carbonate is a chemical compound with the formula CaCO3.
  • It is a common substance found in rocks as the minerals calcite and aragonite and is the main component of eggshells, snail shells, seashells, and pearls.

Question 140

_______ is the boiling point of CaCl2.

  1. AOption (a)

    1600°C 

  2. BOption (b)

    1708°C

  3. COption (c)

    1738°C

  4. DOption (d)

    1900°C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1900°C

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Calcium Chloride: 

  • Calcium chloride is an inorganic compound, a salt with the chemical formula CaCl2.
  • It is a white coloured crystalline solid at room temperature, and it is highly soluble in water.
  • It can be created by neutralising hydrochloric acid with calcium hydroxide.
  • The boiling point of calcium chloride is 1900 °C.

 Additional Information

Sodium Chloride

  • Sodium chloride is commonly known as salt.
  • It is an ionic compound with the chemical formula NaCl.
  • In its edible form of table salt, it is commonly used as a condiment and food preservative.
  • It is a major source of sodium and chlorine compounds used as feedstocks for further chemical syntheses.

Magnesium sulphate

  • Magnesium sulphate is a chemical compound, a salt with the formula MgSO4.
  • The main use of magnesium sulphate is in agriculture, to correct soils deficient in magnesium.

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

Question 141

Which gas is formed when metal hydrogen carbonates react with acids?

  1. AOption (a)

    H2

  2. BOption (b)

    CO2

  3. COption (c)

    O2

  4. DOption (d)

    CO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CO2

Why this answer is correct

Metal carbonates and Metal Hydrogen carbonates reacts with acids and produces corresponding metal salt, carbon dioxide and water.

Key Points

  • The reaction of acids with metal hydrogen carbonates is used in the fire extinguishers due to production of carbon dioxide.
  • Soda-acid fire extinguishers consist of sodium bicarbonate and sulphuric acid.
  • Metal hydrogen carbonate + Acid → Metal Salt + Water + Carbon dioxide
  • 2NaHCO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O + 2CO2

Hence we can conclude that CO2 gas is formed when metal hydrogen carbonates react with acids.

Additional Information

  • Acids react with metal form H2 gas.
  • Incomplete combustion produced CO.
  • O2 gas released by decomposion of hydrogen peroxide.

Question 142

Which of the following is present at the growing tips of stems and roots and increases the length of the stem and the root?

  1. AOption (a)

    Intercalary meristem

  2. BOption (b)

    Apical meristem

  3. COption (c)

    Vacuoles

  4. DOption (d)

    Cambium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Apical meristem

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

  • Apical meristem is responsible for the active division of the cell, present in the tip of the root and shoot.
  • Apical meristem is the meristematic tissue that is situated at the top of the plant, both at the shoot and the root.
  • It is present in the apical and axillary buds.
  • It is responsible for the longitudinal increase in the length of the plant. The apical meristem helps in primary growth.
  • Behind the root cap is the apical meristem which is a tissue actively dividing cells.
  • Most of them are added to the region of elongation lying just above the meristematic region.
  • Growth in length occurs in the region of elongation.

Additional Information

VacuolesVacuoles are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents. It is also used to store food for the cell.
CambiumThe main job of the cambium is to promote growth of secondary xylem and phloem. It's located directly between the primary xylem and phloem in a circular layer.
Intercalary meristemIt is present in some plants and located near the nodes. It helps in the growth of leaves and internodes.

Question 143

Washing soda is used in:

  1. Removing permanent hardness of water
  2. Glass, Soap and paper industries
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Either 1 or 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Washing Soda (Na2CO3.10H2O):

  • The chemical compound that can be obtained from sodium chloride is Na2CO3.10H2O (washing soda).
  • Sodium carbonate can be obtained by heating baking soda; recrystallization of sodium carbonate gives washing soda. It is also a basic salt.
  • Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3.10H2O

Uses of washing soda:

  • Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soap, and paper industries.
  • It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
  • Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
  • It is used for removing the permanent hardness of the water.

Additional Information

Baking Soda (NaHCO3):

  • The chemical name of the compound is sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3).
  • It is produced using sodium chloride as one of the raw materials.
  • NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3

Uses of Baking soda:

  • For making baking powder, which is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid.
  • Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also an ingredient in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralizes excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.
  • It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

Sodium:

  • ​Sodium (Na) is a chemical element of the alkali metal group of the periodic table. Sodium is a very soft silvery-white metal.
  • Because sodium is extremely reactive, it never occurs in the free state in Earth’s crust.
  • Sodium is used in the production of dyes and dye intermediates, in the synthesis of perfumes, and in various types of organic reductions.

Question 144

Synthetic detergents are classified into how many categories?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

  • Synthetic detergent works in both soft and hard water.
  • Synthetic detergent works in both soft and hard water.
  • Synthetic detergents are made up of surfactants that generate organic particles in water by forming micelles builders that enable the action of the surfactant by sequestering Ca2+ and Mg2+ and distinct softeners and fragrances.

Important Points

Synthetic detergents can be classified as:

  • Anionic: Having negatively charged head and widely used due to low cost and good performance. A detergent is said to be anionic when the large part of its molecule is an anion and is involved in the cleansing action. Uses include:
  • Laundry detergents
  • Dishwashing liquids
  • Oven cleaners
  • Cationic: Having a positively charged head.  Cationic detergents are quaternary ammonium salts [chlorides, bromides, acetates, etc.] having long chain alkyl groups. Uses include:
  • Cleaning plastics
  • Hair shampoos
  • Fabric softeners and conditioners
  • Non-ionic or neutral: Having an uncharged head. These do not contain any ion in their constitution. Uses include:
  • Car shampoos
  • Dishwasher detergents
  • Cosmetics

Question 145

Which one of the following state consists a super energetic and super excited particle?

A. Plasma State

B. Bose-Einstein Condensate

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and B

  3. COption (c)

    Neither A nor B

  4. DOption (d)

    Only B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

States of Matter: There are five states of matter.

  1. Solid
  2. Liquid
  3. Gas
  4. Plasma
  5. Bose-Eienstein Condensate(BEC)

Plasma state:

It is a mixture of free electrons and ions.

  • The state is consists of super excited and super energetic particles that are present in form of ionized gases.
  • Plasma is made by heating a gas to a very high temperature so that gas molecules lose all their electrons.
  • It does not have a definite shape and volume.
  • Example: This state is mostly observed in stars.

 

The given image shows plasma shooted from the sun

Bose-Einstein Condensate(BEC): 

  • Gases at extremely low density are cooled to extremely low-temperature therefore atoms are unable to move at all and collapsed into a single quantum state. As atoms become indistinguishable they behave as a super-atom. They are super-fluids and super-conductors. Example: Helium below temperature 2.17 K.

Therefore only A (Plasma state) is the correct option

Additional Information

  • Solid: Particles of matter are bounded very tightly so that it has very low kinetic energy (almost negligible) that's why it has a definite shape and volume and cannot be compressed. Example: Iron sheet, aluminum foil.
  • Liquid: particles of matter are bounded loosely so that it has low kinetic energy. The particles can move freely and randomly throughout liquid but do not break the boundaries. It has a definite volume and cannot be compressed. Example: milk, water.
  • Gas: particles are not bounded so that it has high kinetic energy. The particles can move freely and randomly anywhere. It does not have a definite shape and volume. It is highly compressible.  Example: Water vapor, oxygen, hydrogen.

Question 146

What is the pH of the mouth when tooth decay starts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lower than 5.5

  2. BOption (b)

    Lower than 5

  3. COption (c)

    Lower than 4.8

  4. DOption (d)

    Lower than 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lower than 5.5

Why this answer is correct

Tooth decay is damage to a tooth caused by dental plaque turning sugars into acid.

Key Points

Causes of tooth decay :

  • Our mouth is full of bacteria that form a film over the teeth called dental plaque.
  • When we consume food and drink high in carbohydrates, particularly sugary foods and drinks, the bacteria in plaque turn the carbohydrates into energy they need, producing acid at the same time.
  • The acid can break down the surface of your tooth, causing holes known as cavities.
  • When the pH value in the mouth falls below 5.5 then the tooth decay starts.
  • It is happened due to the bacteria present in the mouth.
  • The Bacteria produce the acid by the degradation of sugar and food particles, which remain in the mouth after eating.
  • Acid affects the enamel of teeth and gradually tooth decays.

Hence we can conclude that tooth decay starts when pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5

Question 147

Nitrogen gas makes up _______ of our atmosphre.

  1. AOption (a)

    80 - 85 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    75 - 80 percent

  3. COption (c)

    90 - 95 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    85 - 90 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

75 - 80 percent

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the Earth's atmosphere by volume as these two gases together account for 99% of the atmosphere.

  • Nitrogen(N2): A colourless and tasteless gas, accounts for approx 78% of the atmosphere. It is a major component of chlorophyll and amino acids, the building blocks of proteins.
  • Oxygen(O2): A colourless, odourless and tasteless gas, accounts for approx 21% of the atmosphere and makes life possible.

Hence we can conclude that Nitrogen gas makes up 75 - 80 percent of our atmosphre.

Additional Information

While other gases like-

The atmospheric composition of gases are as follow

Permanent Gases of the Atmosphere
ConstituentPer cent by Volume
Nitrogen (N2)78.084
Oxygen (O2)20.946
Argon (Ar)0.934
Carbon dioxide (CO2)0.036
Neon (Ne)0.00182
Helium (He)0.000524
Krypton (Kr)0.000114
Hydrogen (H2)0.00005

Question 148

The primary and secondary immune response are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood which are:

  1. AOption (a)

    M-lymphocytes and I-lymphocytes

  2. BOption (b)

    A-lymphocytes and F-lymphocytes

  3. COption (c)

    B-lymphocytes and P-lymphocytes

  4. DOption (d)

    B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

Why this answer is correct

As LYMPHOCYTE is a type of WHITE BLOOD CELL, it is involved in the defense function of our body, protecting us against invaders, hence the correct answer is LYMPHOCYTES. 

Key Points

WHAT ARE LYMPHOCYTES -  

  • Constitute 20 to 40% of the total WBCs.
  • Most of these cells move in the lymphatic system of the body, hence given the name LYMPHOCYTES.
  • They are responsible for humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
  • There are two types of cells of Lymphocytes
T LYMPHOCYTE CELLS- Originate in the bone marrow - Travels to the thymus and gets matured there. - Help the body kill cancer cells and control the immune response to foreign substances. They do this by destroying cells in the body that have been taken over by viruses or become cancerous.
B LYMPHOCYTE CELLS- Originates in the bone marrow and stays there. - B cells are responsible for developing antibodies, which are proteins formed by the immune system to combat foreign substances called antigens. - They form the memory cells that remember the type of antibodies to be formed against a pre-occurring invader.
NATURAL KILLER CELLS- Originates from bone marrow. - NK cells are specialized in killing cancer cells and virus-infected cells and react rapidly to a variety of foreign substances.

Hence we can conclude that B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood.

Question 149

What is the mass of 0.5 mole of calcium atom? (ALU of calcium is 40)

  1. AOption (a)

    20 g

  2. BOption (b)

    39.5 g

  3. COption (c)

    40.5 g

  4. DOption (d)

    2 g

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20 g

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Avogadro's number: The number of units present in one mole of a given substance is called Avogadro's number.

  • Avogadro's number (NA) is equal to 6.022140857 × 1023.
  • Avogadro's number is the no of atoms, elements or molecules present in 1 mole.
  • Mass of 1 mole of substance = Atomic mass of individual

Calculation:

  • The atomic mass of calcium atoms = 40
  • Mass of 1 mole of calcium atoms = atomic mass of calcium atom

Mass of 1 mole of calcium = 40 g

Mass of 0.5 mole of calcium = 40 × 0.5

⇒ 20 g

Question 150

_______ water molecules are present in one formula unit of Washing Soda.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

  • The number of water molecules present is 'washing soda' is 10.
  • We know the molecular formula for Washing Soda is Na2CO3.10H2O.
  • Recrystallisation of Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3) gives washing soda.
  • In a Washing soda, water is present in the form of crystals.

Hence we can conclude that 10 water molecules are present in one formula unit of Washing Soda.

Additional Information

CompoundsChemical Formula
GypsumCaSO₄·2H₂O
Washing sodaNa2CO3.10H2O
Copper sulphateCuSO4
Baking sodaNaHCO3
Blue vitriolCuSO4 5H2O

Question 151

What is the number of valence electron present in Al+ ion?

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

Valence electrons: Number of electrons present in outermost shell of atom are called valence electrons.

Key Points

  • The number of valence electrons present in Aluminum (Al) is 3.
  • An atom is electrically neutral due to equal no. of protons and electrons.
  • The loss of electrons makes it positively charged and the magnitude of positive charge is equal to the number of electrons lost.
  • Hence, Al atom has 3 valance electrons and on becoming Al+ ion, it loses 1 electrons. Therefore, remaining valance electrons = 2

Question 152

Which of the following fungi is responsible for ringworm which is one of the most common infection disease in humans?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fusarium

  2. BOption (b)

    Trichophyton

  3. COption (c)

    Aspergillus

  4. DOption (d)

    Candida

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Trichophyton

Why this answer is correct

​Ringworm: A common fungal skin infection that often looks like a circular rash.

  • Approximately 40 different species of fungi can cause ringworm; the scientific names for the types of fungi that cause ringworm are Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton.

Key Points

  • Trichophyton is a genus of fungi, which includes the parasitic varieties that cause tinea, including athlete's foot, ringworm, jock itch, and similar infections of the nail, beard, skin and scalp. Trichophyton fungi are molds characterized by the development of both smooth-walled macro- and microconidia.

Hence we can conclude that Tricophyton is responsible for ringworm.

Additional Information

  • Candida infections of the mouth, throat, and esophagus: Caused by the yeast Candida, also called “thrush.
  • The fungal disease, called Fusarium Wilt, is popularly known as the Panama Disease’ and afflicts banana plants.
  • Aspergillus (mold fungus) is responsible for causing Aspergillosis. It affects the respiratory tract and causes illness by its spore.

Question 153

Which one of the following is dispersing medium for Emulsion?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

  1. AOption (a)

    A and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    Only B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

A colloid is a mixture in which one substance of microscopically dispersed insoluble particles are suspended throughout another substance.

  • Dispersed phase: The phase that is scattered or present in the form of colloidal particles is known as the dispersed phase.
  • Dispersion medium: The medium in which the colloidal particles are dispersed is called the dispersion medium.

Key Points

Emulsion: An emulsion is a mixture of two or more liquids that are normally immiscible (unmixable or unblendable) owing to liquid-liquid phase separation.

Hence we can conclude that Liquid is dispersing medium for Emulsion. Thus Only B is the right option.

Additional Information

Classification of colloids:

Dispersed PhaseDispersed MediumNameExamples
Solid Solid Solid Liquid Liquid Liquid Gas GasSolid Liquid Gas Solid Liquid Gas Solid LiquidSolid-sol Sol Aerosol Gel Emulsion Liquid Aerosol Solid Foam FoamRuby glass, alloys Paint, ink Smoke, haze Curd, cheese Milk, Cream Cloud, Mist Cork, pumice stone Froths of air

Question 154

What is the original colour of Litmus solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Red

  2. BOption (b)

    Purple

  3. COption (c)

    Pink

  4. DOption (d)

    Blue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Purple

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

  • Litmus solution is derived from Lichen.
  • The colour of a neutral litmus solution is purple.
  • It is a natural Indicator and it is used to indicate the presence of an acid or a base.
  • A litmus solution will turn red in the presence of an acid and it turns blue in the presence of a base.

Thus we can conclude that Purple is the original colour of Litmus solution.

Question 155

How many electrons are present in the outermost shell of Silicon?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The element Silicon (Si) is the member of group 14 or IV A.
  • silicon is used extensively as a semiconductor in solid-state devices in the computer and microelectronics industries.
  • Silicon has 14 electrons total.
  • The electronic configuration of Silicon is 1s22s22p63s23p2.
  • So, silicon has 4 valence electrons.

Hence we can conclude that 4 electrons are present in outermost shell of Silicon.

Additional Information

  • ​3 electrons are present in outermost shell of Aluminium (Al).
  • 1 electron present in outermost shell of Sodium (Na).
  • 2 electrons are present in outermost shell of Magnesium (Mg).

Question 156

Single-celled organisms can produce two equal daughter-cells by-

  1. AOption (a)

    Sporulation

  2. BOption (b)

    Encystation

  3. COption (c)

    Budding

  4. DOption (d)

    Binary fission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Binary fission

Why this answer is correct

Option 4. Binary Fission is the correct answer.

  • Binary Fission is the process where parent cell grow and split into two new daughter cells and each cell has the capacity to grow and divide further.
  • It is a type of asexual reproduction.

Additional Information

  • Budding is the process in which a bud is grown on the parent body and grow with the cell division and separates out from the parent body as a new individual body.
  • Encystation is the process in which body is enclosed like a capsule.
  • Sporulation is the process refers to the formation of spores during unfavorable conditions.

Question 157

_______ is the change of solid state directly to gaseous state without going through liquid state.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sublimation

  2. BOption (b)

    Evaporation

  3. COption (c)

    Deposition

  4. DOption (d)

    Boiling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sublimation

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Sublimation.

Explanation:

  • Sublimation is when a solid transforms directly into vapours without changing into liquid.
  • This phenomenon can be seen in camphor or naphthalene balls.
  • Hence we can conclude that Sublimation is the change of a solid state directly to the gaseous state without going through the liquid form.

Additional Information

  • Evaporation - It is the process of conversion of a liquid into gas.
  • Fusion/Melting - It is the process of conversion of a solid into a liquid.
  • Condensation - It is the process of conversion of a gas into a liquid.
  • Boiling is the process by which a liquid turns into a vapour when it is heated to its boiling point.
  • Deposition: The settling of particles or sediment onto a surface.

Question 158

Which of the following is a property of an isobar?

  1. AOption (a)

    They have same atomic number

  2. BOption (b)

    They have same chemical property

  3. COption (c)

    They have same mass number

  4. DOption (d)

    They have same neutron number

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

They have same mass number

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

Isobars: The nuclei which have the same mass number (A) but a different atomic number (Z) are called isobars.

  • Examples of Isobars are 14 C 6, 14 N 7

Property of isobars:

  • The atomic masses are equal
  • Often the physical properties are similar
  • Atomic numbers are different
  • Chemical elements are different
  • Chemical properties also different.

Hence we can conclude that Isobars have sane mass number.

Additional Information

Isotopes: The atoms of an element having the same atomic number but a different mass number are called isotopes.

  • Example: of Isotopes are C - 12 and C - 14 (Both having same atomic number 6 but different mass numbers of 12 and 14.
  • All isotopes have the same chemical properties.
  • Isotones: The nuclei having an equal number of neutrons are called isotones.
  • For them both the atomic number (Z) and mass number (A) are different, but the value of (A – Z) is the same.

Question 159

Calculate the number of moles present in 120 g of Mg. (AMU of Mg is 24)

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Avogadro's number: The number of units present in one mole of a given substance is called the Avogadro's number.

  • Avogadro's number (NA) is equal to 6.022140857 × 1023.
  • Avogadro's number is the no of atoms, elements or molecules present in 1 mole.
  • Mass of 1 mole of substance = Atomic mass of individual

Calculation:

  • Atomic mass of Mg atom = 24
  • Mass of 1 mole of Mg atom = atomic mass of Mg atom = 24

24 g of Mg atom contain mole = 1

1 g of Mg atom will contain mole = 1 / 24

Thus 120 g of Mg will be contain mole = 1 / 24 × 120

⇒ 5

Question 160

Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is another name of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Baking Soda

  2. BOption (b)

    Washing Soda

  3. COption (c)

    Plaster of Paris

  4. DOption (d)

    Bleaching Soda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Plaster of Paris

Why this answer is correct

Plaster of Paris (POP), quick-setting gypsum plaster consisting of a fine white powder (calcium sulfate hemihydrate), which hardens when moistened and allowed to dry.

Key Points

  • Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is also known as the Plaster of Paris because for the preparation of POP, the abundant gypsum was first found near the capital city of France i.e. Paris.
  • The chemical formula of the Plaster of Paris is (CaSO4)2. H2O.

Hence we can conclude that Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is another name of Plaster of Paris.

Additional Information

Natural NameChemical NameFormula
Baking sodaSodium bicarbonateNaHCO3
Bleaching powderCalcium hypochloriteCaOCl2
Common saltSodium chlorideNaCl
Lime stoneCalcium carbonateCaCO3
LimeCalcium OxideCaO
MarbleCalcium carbonateCaCO3
Washing SodaSodium carbonateNa2CO3

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

Question 161

Which of the following movement originated from an incident in a remote village called Reni in Garhwal, high-up in the Himalayas during the early 1970s?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Chipko Andolan

  2. BOption (b)

    The Namami Gange Andolan

  3. COption (c)

    The Sai Raksha Andolan

  4. DOption (d)

    Narmada Bachao Andolan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Chipko Andolan

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Chipko movement:  

  • It is primarily a forest conservation movement.
  • It was started in 1970 aimed at protecting trees.
  • It was started from Reni village in Garhwal, in the northern Himalayan segment i.e. Uttarakhand.
  • Sunderlal Bahuguna is a prominent environmentalist from Garhwali and a member of the Chipko movement.
  • The Chipko Andolan (‘Hug the Trees Movement’) was the result of a grassroots-level effort to end the alienation of people from their forests.
  • The idea of the Chipko movement was of his wife and he took the action.
  • He has been fighting for forest protection in the Himalayas for years, first as a leader of the Chipko movement in the 1970s, and then led the Anti-Tehri Dam campaign from the 1980s until early 2004.
  • The Chipko movement was awarded the Right Livelihood Award in 1987 "for its commitment to conserving, preserving and ecologically sustainable use of the natural resources of India."
  • Chipko-type movements date back to 1730 AD when 363 Bishnois sacrificed their lives in the village of Prasanna Khamkar in Rajasthan to save the Khejri trees.

Namami Gange Programme: It was started in 2014.

  • Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved by the Government of India.
  • It was started with a budget outlay of Rs.20,000 Crore to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation, and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
  • The River Ganga is important not only for its cultural and spiritual significance but also because it hosts more than 40% of the country’s population.

Narmada Bachao Andolan:

  • Narmada Bachao Andolan is a social movement led by social activists Medha Patkar and Baba Amte.
  • The aim of this movement was to provide project information and legal representation to the affected residents of Narmada valley.
  • This movement initiated by native tribals (Adivasis), farmers, environmentalists, and human rights activists.
  • The river flows through the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
  • Sardar Sarovar is the project related to Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Environmental Protection Act:

  • Environment Protection Act, 1986 Act of the Parliament of India.
  • In the wake of the Bhopal gas Tragedy or Bhopal Disaster, the [Government of India] enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution.
  • Passed in March 1986, it came into force on 19 November 1986.

Question 162

Which of the following organisms do not have a defined nucleus or organelles, nor do any of them show multi-cellular body designs?

  1. AOption (a)

    Animalia

  2. BOption (b)

    Fungi

  3. COption (c)

    Monera

  4. DOption (d)

    Protista

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Monera

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

  • Monera does not have a defined nucleus or organelles, nor do any of them show multi-cellular body designs.
  • Some of them have cell walls while some do not have cell walls.
  • All organisms of this kingdom are microscopic.
  • The mode of nutrition of organisms in this group can be either by synthesizing their own food (autotrophic) or getting it from the environment (heterotrophic).
  • It is classified into
  • Archaebacteria (Archae).
  • Eubacteria (Bacteria).
  • This group includes bacteria, blue-green algae or cyanobacteria, and mycoplasma.

Additional Information

Animalia

  • They are multicellular organisms which do not possess chlorophyll.
  • They are eukaryotic organisms.
  • Cell wall is absent.
  • Mode of nutrition is heterotrophic i.e. they depend on other organisms for food.

Fungi

  • Fungi are eukaryotic, non-vascular, non-motile and heterotrophic organisms.
  • They may be unicellular or filamentous.
  • They reproduce by means of spores.
  • Fungi exhibit the phenomenon of alternation of generation.
  • Fungi lack chlorophyll and hence cannot perform photosynthesis.

Protista

  • They are eukaryotic, which means they have a nucleus.
  • Most have mitochondria.
  • They can be parasites.
  • They all prefer aquatic or moist environments.

Question 163

Consider the following features of a particular gas-

  1. It is a reddish-brown gas with pungent smell.
  2. It indirectly causes acid-rain.

Which of the following gases is being talked about?

  1. AOption (a)

    CFC

  2. BOption (b)

    SO2

  3. COption (c)

    NO2

  4. DOption (d)

    SO3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NO2

Why this answer is correct

Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) is one of a group of highly reactive gases known as oxides of nitrogen or nitrogen oxides.

Important Points

  • NO2 is an intermediate in the industrial synthesis of nitric acid,
  • At higher temperatures it is a reddish-brown gas with pungent smell.
  • Interaction of NO2 and other NOx with water, oxygen and other chemicals in the atmosphere can form acid rain which harms sensitive ecosystems such as lakes and forests.
  • Elevated levels of NO2 can also harm vegetation, decreasing growth, and reduce crop yields.

Hence we can conclude that NO2 gas has similar features as given above.

Additional Information

  • CFCs
  • These compounds are non-flammable, tasteless and odourless, and chemically stable.
  • These compounds are cause of Global warming.
  • SO2
  • ​It is a colorless gas, sharp/pungent suffocating odor.
  • It is also cause of Acid rain.
  • SO3
  • ​Sulfur trioxide, is a colorless to white crystalline solid which will fume in air.
  • Vapor is pungent; like sulfur dioxide. Mist is odorless.
  • It is also cause of Acid rain.

Question 164

Which of the following organisms engulfs food to form food vacuoles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plasmodium sporozolte

  2. BOption (b)

    Plasmodium merozoite

  3. COption (c)

    Paramecium

  4. DOption (d)

    Amoeba

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Amoeba

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Amoeba.

Concept:

  • Vacuoles-
  • Vacuoles are large membranous sac found in the cytoplasm.
  • These store substances that are not essentially useful for the cell (like water, sap, excretory product, and other materials).
  • Food vacuole-
  • They occur in the cells of mainly protozoan protists. These are formed by engulfing the food particles, i.e., by the fusion of lysosome and phagosome.
  • The digested material thus passes out into the surrounding cytoplasm.

Explanation:

  • Amoeba is a single-celled microscopic organism found in pond water.
  • In its cytoplasm, the amoeba has a cell membrane, a rounded, dense nucleus, and numerous small bubble-like vacuoles.
  • Amoeba constantly changes their shape and position.
  • It pushes out one, or more finger-like projections, called pseudopodia (false feet) for movement and capture of food.
  • Amoeba feeds on some microscopic organisms.
  • When it senses food, it pushes out pseudopodia around the food particle and engulfs it.
  • Amoeba takes in food using temporary finger-like extensions of the cell surface which fuse over the food particle forming a food vacuole.
  • Complex substances are broken down inside the food vacuole into simpler ones, which then diffuse into the cytoplasm.
  • The remaining undigested material is moved to the surface of the cell and thrown out.

​

Question 165

Which plants were introduced into India for their lovely flowers, but later they caused havoc by their excessive growth by causing blocks in our waterways?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pontederia Azurea

  2. BOption (b)

    Neochetina elchhorniae

  3. COption (c)

    Eichhornia crassipes

  4. DOption (d)

    Pistia Stratiotes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Eichhornia crassipes

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

  • Hyacinth type of water plants scientifically named as Eichhornia crassipes, have become the world’s most problematic aquatic weed.
  • It is an aquatic plant that is found in South America. They typically grow in damp or shady locations, in dense green clumps or mats.
  • They have pink and lavender colored flower.
  • It  introduced into India from South America  for their lovely flowers.

Important Points

  • World's most problematic aquatic weed also known as the terror of Bengal is Eichhornia Crassipes.
  • This weed chokes ponds, lakes, and rivers resulting in an imbalance in the aquatic ecosystem.
  • It accelerates eutrophication.

Key Points 

  • Eutrophication is the gradual increase in the biomass of phytoplankton resulting in 'algal blooms' due to increasing in the concentration of phosphorus, nitrogen, and other plant nutrients in an ageing aquatic ecosystem such as a lake.

Hence we can conclude that Eichhornia crassipes caused havoc by their excessive growth by causing blocks in our waterways.

Additional Information 

Pontederia Azurea 

  • Pontederia azurea is a water hyacinth from the Americas, sometimes known as anchored water hyacinth.

Neochetina elchhorniae

  • ​Neochetina is a genus of weevils known as water hyacinth weevil which are native to South America.

Pistia Stratiotes

  • The single species it comprises, Pistia stratiotes, is often called water cabbage, water lettuce, Nile cabbage, or shellflower.
  • t was first discovered from the Nile near Lake Victoria in Africa.

Question 166

Which of the following organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen?

  1. AOption (a)

    A few viruses

  2. BOption (b)

    A few algae

  3. COption (c)

    A few bacteria

  4. DOption (d)

    A few fungi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A few bacteria

Why this answer is correct

Option-3. A few bacteria is the correct answer. 

  • Because the nitrogen fixing microorganism are the prokaryotic bacteria and capable of converting the atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonia.
  • Ammonia is used by the plants for it's growth and development.

Additional Information Certain bacteria and Archaea have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into a form that can be used by plants and other organisms. The process of nitrogen fixation involves converting N2 into ammonium (NH4+), a process that can only occur in certain microorganisms. These nitrogen-fixing microorganisms can live freely in the soil or water, or in symbiotic relationships with plants or other organisms.

Here are some examples:-

  • Free-Living Bacteria: Certain free-living bacteria in the soil, such as Azotobacter and Bacillus, can fix nitrogen.
  • Cyanobacteria: Also known as blue-green algae, cyanobacteria are photosynthetic bacteria that can fix nitrogen. They are found in a variety of environments, including soil, freshwater, and marine environments.
  • Rhizobia: These bacteria form symbiotic relationships with legume plants, fixing nitrogen in exchange for carbon compounds from the plant. They live in the root nodules of legumes, such as beans, peas, and clover.

Question 167

Which of the following is/are key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution?

  1. Branching descent
  2. Natural selection

Choose the correct code-

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

  • Theory of Evolution was proposed by Charles Darwin.
  • According to Darwinian's theory, nature selects fitness.
  • Fitness is based on characteristics that are inherited.
  • Any population has built-in variation in characteristics which adapt it better to environment.
  • Branching descent (survival of the fittest): Characteristics which enable some populations or individuals to outbreed others in natural conditions (food, climate, physical factors).
  • Natural selection: Those populations which are better fit (reproductively fit) in an environment will be selected by nature and will survive more.
  • Adaptability is inherited and fitness is the end result of ability to adapt and get selected by nature.

Hence, the two key concepts of Darwinian theory are branching descent (adaptive radiation) and natural selection.

Question 168

The diameter of the pupil in a human eye is controlled by the _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cornea

  2. BOption (b)

    Retina

  3. COption (c)

    Iris

  4. DOption (d)

    Optic nerve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Iris

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Iris: A dark muscular tissue and ring-like structure behind the cornea are known as the iris.

  • The colour of the iris actually indicates the colour of the eye.
  • The iris also helps regulate or adjust exposure by adjusting the iris.
  • The iris is divided into two major regions:
  • The pupillary zone is the inner region whose edge forms the boundary of the pupil.
  • The ciliary zone is the rest of the iris that extends to its origin at the ciliary body.
  • Control pupil size is the function of an important part of the human eye, the iris.
  • It controls how much light enters the eye by changing the size of the pupil.
  • Eye colour is defined by the iris.
  • In optical terms, the pupil is the eye's aperture, while the iris is the diaphragm.

Additional Information

Retina:

  • It contains highly specialized nerve cells.
  • These convert the light which is focused there into electrical signals.
  • These are then passed through the optic nerves to the parts of the brain which process vision and build up the picture that we see.
  • It is a light-sensitive layer that consists of numerous nerve cells.
  • It converts images formed by the lens into electrical impulses.

Pupil:

  • A small opening in the iris is known as a pupil.
  • Its size is controlled by the help of the iris.
  • It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.
  • Lens:
  • Behind the pupil, there is a transparent structure called a lens.
  • By the action of ciliary muscles, it changes its shape to focus light on the retina.
  • It becomes thinner to focus on distant objects and becomes thicker to focus on nearby objects.

Cornea:

  • The front transparent part of the sclera is called the cornea.
  • Light enters the eye through the cornea.

Question 169

When the terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is broken using water, the energy released is equivalent to _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    30.5 kJ/mol

  2. BOption (b)

    111 kJ/mol

  3. COption (c)

    1.8 kJ/mol

  4. DOption (d)

    89 kJ/mol

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30.5 kJ/mol

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 30.5 kJ/mol.

Explanation:

  • ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) is the energy currency for most cellular processes.
  • The three phosphate groups in this ATP molecule are known as high energy bonds because when they are broken, they release a large amount of energy.
  • The energy released during the process of cellular respiration is immediately used to synthesize a molecule called ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.

ADP+P→EnergyADP−P=ATPADP+P\overset{Energy}{\rightarrow}ADP-P= ATP​

Where P is phosphate.

  • The synthesized molecule ATP is used to fuel all other activities in the cell.
  • In these processes, ATP is broken down which produces a fixed amount of energy that can drive the endothermic reactions taking place in the cell.

Thus, when the terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is broken using water, the energy equivalent to 30.5 kJ/mol is released.

Question 170

Which of the following approach is based on the ideal that organisms which are more distantly related will accumulate a greater number of differences in their DNA?

  1. AOption (a)

    Isotropic phylogeny

  2. BOption (b)

    Genome sequencing phylogeny

  3. COption (c)

    Atomic phylogeny

  4. DOption (d)

    Molecular phylogeny

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Molecular phylogeny

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Molecular phylogeny.

Explanation:

  • Phylogeny is the evolutionary history of a species or group.
  • The changes in the DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) during cell division lead to changes in the proteins that are made from this new DNA.
  • These changes would accumulate from one generation to the next.
  • Molecular phylogeny is used to trace the changes in DNA backwards in time.
  • Molecular phylogeny approach is based on the idea that organisms are more distantly related will accumulate a greater number of differences in their DNA.
  • This method is now extensively used to define evolutionary relationships.

Question 171

Which of the following animals are bilaterally symmetrical and also triploblastic, but in addition to that they have a true body cavity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Echinodermata

  2. BOption (b)

    Platyhelminthes

  3. COption (c)

    Annelida

  4. DOption (d)

    Coelenterate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Annelida

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Annelida.

Explanation:

Annelida- 

  • The phylum Annelida includes segmented worms such as clamworms, earthworms and leeches.
  • These organisms are aquatic, terrestrial and free-living or parasitic.
  • In Annelids the symmetry is bilateral.
  • Annelids are also triploblastic animals.
  • Annelids have true coelom or a true body cavity. It is formed by splitting of mesodermal epithelium and such a coelom is called schizocoelom.
  • In Annelids true body cavity allows them to pack true organs into the body structure.
  • Respiration occurs through skin, gills or parapodia.
  • Examples- Nereis (Earthworm),  Hirudinaria (Blood sucking leech)

Additional Information

Echinodermata- 

  • Echinodermata includes the spiny skinned animals.
  • These organisms are marine forms and are bottom dwellers.
  • In Echinodermata adults are radial (pentamerous) symmetry but the larval forms have bilateral symmetry.
  • Echinodermata are triploblastic organisms and exhibit organ system grade of organisation.
  • Examples- Asterias (Starfish), Echinus (Sea urchin)

Platyhelminthes-  

  • Platyhelminthes includes flatworms.
  • These organisms are free-living forms`
  • The body is bilaterally symmetrical with definite orientation like anterior and posterior end.
  • Platyhelminthes are triploblastic organisms.
  • They are acoelomate.
  • Examples- Fasciola (liver fuke), Taenia (Tapeworm)

Coelenterate-

  • Coelenterate includes the jely fishes, sea-anemones and corals.
  • Coelenterate are exclusively of marine forms `
  • Symmetry of Coelenterate organisms are usually radial.
  • The Coelenterates develop from two germ layers only, i.e., ectoderm and endoderm. Hence, they are diploblastic like the sponges.
  • There is no separate body cavity or coelom.
  • Examples- Pennatula (Sea-pen), Gorgonia (Sea-fan)

Question 172

_______ tissue is composed of dead cells.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sclerenchymatous

  2. BOption (b)

    Aerenchymatous

  3. COption (c)

    Collenchymatous

  4. DOption (d)

    Parenchymatous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sclerenchymatous

Why this answer is correct

Option-1. Sclerenchymatous is the correct answer. 

Sclerenchymatous : 

  • This is one of the tissues found in the plants and made up of dead cells.
  • They are permanent tissues and provide mechanical support and strength to the plant.

Additional Information Other two type of tissues found in the plants are composed of living cells .

  • Collenchymatous : are the living thin walled tissues.
  • Parenchymatous : are the living supportive tissues with irregular walls.

Question 173

For what purpose do many marine animal generally use the dissolved carbonates in sea-water?

  1. AOption (a)

    To make their shells

  2. BOption (b)

    For digestion of food

  3. COption (c)

    For underwater photosynthesis

  4. DOption (d)

    Respiration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To make their shells

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is to make their shells.

Explanation:

  • Several marine organisms' skeletons and shells are made up of calcium carbonate minerals.
  • Seashells are the outer covering of the phylum Mollusca organisms used for protecting their internal organs.
  • Mollusks have the segmented, soft body covered by a calcareous shell, which is differentiated into head, muscular foot, and visceral hump.
  • Molluscs are mostly of marine forms (Sepia, Octopus, Chiton) and some are freshwater (Example, Unio and Pila).
  • The mantle is a soft, spongy thick fold of skin over the visceral hump that secretes calcium carbonate which hardens to form a shell.
  • The shell contains Calcium carbonate and a small number of organic matrices.
  • Organic matrices help in shell formation.
  • The calcareous shell is the hard and external skeleton that protects the soft part of these tiny organisms.
  • The calcareous shell protects the soft part of the organisms.
  • This calcareous shell protects organisms from predators and damage.

Thus, many marine animals generally use the dissolved carbonates in sea-water to make their shells.

Question 174

Which of the following primates were found 15 mya and was more man-like?

  1. Dryopithecus
  2. Ramapithecus

Choose the correct code-

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2.

Explanation:

  • Ramapithecus are prehistoric primates that lived 15 million years ago.
  • Edward Lewis (1932) discovered a Ramapithecus fossil in the Shivalik Hills of India.
  • About 15 million years ago, Ramapithecus had some features like man, so it was more man-like.
  • There are a large number of hairs on Ramapithecus's body.
  • Ramapithecus is similar to chimpanzees and gorillas.
  • Their teeth are like modern men's.

Additional InformationDryopithecus-

  • Dryopithecus lived 25 million years ago.
  • Dryopithecus has more features in common with apes than with humans, so it was more ape-like.
  • Dryopithecus had a large brain and ate soft fruits and leaves.
  • Their arms and legs are the same length.

Question 175

A person with _______ can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hypermetropia

  2. BOption (b)

    Myopia

  3. COption (c)

    Presbyopia

  4. DOption (d)

    Hypopetropia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hypermetropia

Why this answer is correct

Option 1. Hypermetropia is the correct answer. 

Hypermetropia:

  • Hypermetropia is a vision defect also known as long sightedness defect.
  • Person suffering from this is able to see the distant object clearly but unable to see the nearby objects clearly.
  • This happen because the light entering the eye and form the image behind the retina, instead of on the retina.
  • It generally occur with elder age group people.
  • It is corrected with the convex lens spectacles.

Additional Information

Other vision defects are:

Myopia:

  • It is also known as near sightedness defect, In this person is unable to see the distant object clearly but can see the near by objects clearly.
  • This happen because the light falling on the eye forms the image front of retina instead of retina.
  • It generally found in the younger age groups.
  • It is corrected with the concave lens spectacles.

Presbyopia:

  • A person suffering from this defect is unable to see the nearby and far distance objects clearly.
  • It is corrected with the bifocal lens.
  • Bifocal lens consist of both concave and convex lens so to correct the sightedness and will be able to see the nearby as well distant objects clearly.

Question 176

For a young adult with normal vision, the near point is about _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    40 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    25 cm

  3. COption (c)

    35 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    40 mm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25 cm

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • The lens, in the human eye, is a translucent structure that focuses light entering the eye on the retina.
  • It is located behind the iris of the eye.
  • The lens is made up of rare elongated cells that receive nutrients from the surrounding fluids, mostly the aqueous humor that bathes the lens's front.
  • A single layer of epithelial cells and a membrane that surrounds the whole organ make up the lens's outer edge.
  • The lens is biconvex and ellipsoid in form.
  • An ellipsoid is a sphere that has been extended out like an olive,
  • It is biconvex, meaning it has been rounded outward on both sides.
  • It is biconvex so that, the light rays entering the eye are fine-tuned and converged at a single point on the retina and a clear image is formed.
  • The lens concentrates the light rays that move through it (and onto the retina) to produce transparent images of objects at different distances.
  • Ciliary muscles regulate the curvature of the lens, which is flexible.
  • Power of accommodation - 
  • Accommodation is the tendency of the eye lens to change its focal length.
  • The lens shrinks and thins as the muscles relax; as a result, its focal length increases in this position, allowing us to see distant objects clearly.
  • When you look at an object that is closer to your eye, the ciliary muscles contract, causing the curvature of the eye lens to increase. The focal length of the eye lens shortens in this situation, allowing us to see surrounding objects clearly.
  • The near point of the human eye is 25 cm and The farthest point has no limit; the human eye can see things that are infinite in sizes, such as the moon and stars.

Additional Information

Some of the defects of the human eye are - 

MYOPIA- Nearsightedness - Image is formed before the retina. - Corrected by using a concave lens in spectacles. - Faraway objects appear blurry. - the far point is nearer than infinity.
HYPERMETROPIA- Farsightedness. - Image is formed after retina. - Corrected by using convex en in spectacles. - Near objects appear blurry. - near point is farther from 25 cm
PRESBYOPIA- Gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and flexibility in the eye lens is seen. - Bifocal lenses are used(both convex and concave lenses are used).
ASTIGMATISM- Astigmatism is a refractive defect in which light is not focused uniformly on the retina by the eye. At any distance, this causes blurry or blurred vision. - Imperfection in the eye's curvature is seen.

Question 177

Which of the following hormones promote cell division and are present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell divisions, such as in fruits and seeds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gibberellins

  2. BOption (b)

    Ascorbic Acid

  3. COption (c)

    Insulin

  4. DOption (d)

    Cytokinins

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cytokinins

Why this answer is correct

Cytokinins:

  • It promotes cell division.
  • Cytokinin concentrations are high in the meristematic regions and in areas.
  • It naturally works in coordination with auxins.
  • It is helpful in making RNA and Protein.
  • It helps in breaking the dormancy of seed.
  • It helps in cell division and development such as in fruits and seeds in the presence of auxins.

Additional Information

Abscisic Acid:

  • This hormone is against growth.
  • It keeps the seeds and buds in a dormant condition.

Glibberellins:

  • Gibberellins are plant growth regulators that facilitate cell elongation, help the plants to grow taller.
  • They also play major roles in germination, elongation of the stem, fruit ripening and flowering.
  • Gibberellins hormone helps in the growth of the stem.

Insulin:

  • In the human system, insulin controls the metabolism of carbohydrates.
  • Carbohydrates are the sugars, starches, and fibres found in fruits, grains, vegetables, and milk products.
  • Insulin is a hormone created by your pancreas that controls the amount of glucose in our bloodstream.

Question 178

Which of the following hormones regulate carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body so as to provide the best balance for growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thyroxine

  2. BOption (b)

    Epinephrine

  3. COption (c)

    Oxytocin

  4. DOption (d)

    Endorphin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Thyroxine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thyroxine.

Explanation:

Thyroid gland-

  • Thyroid gland is known to be the largest endocrine gland.
  • The thyroid gland is bilobed, high vascular organ.
  • The thyroid gland is composed of follicles (round in shape) and stromal tissues.
  • Each thyroid follicle is composed of follicular cells, enclosing a cavity.

Thyroxine hormone

  • These are non-nutrient chemicals that are responsible for regulating the biological processes in the body.
  • Thyroxine hormone regulate carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body. Thus, it provide the best balance for growth.
  • When rate of synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones is increased to abnormal high levels then this condition is known as Hyperthyroidism. It adversely affects body physiology of an organism.

Thyroxine hormone has the following functions in humans:

  • They maintain the basal metabolic rate of the body.
  • They promote growth of body tissues and development of mental faculties.
  • They stimulate tissue differentiation.
  • Thyroxine also controls the working of kidneys. Its deficiency results in decreased urine output and vice-versa.

Question 179

The change in the _______ of the eye lens can thus change its focal length.

  1. AOption (a)

    Musculature

  2. BOption (b)

    Opacity

  3. COption (c)

    Fluidity

  4. DOption (d)

    Curvature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Curvature

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The excessive curvature of the eye lens changes the focal length of eye lens and leads to myopia.

  • Myopia or Nearsightedness is caused when the image forms right in front of the retina rather than on its surface.
  • It happens when the cornea or the lens is too curved for the length of the eyeball.
  • Myopia is also known as near-sightedness or short-sightedness.
  • This results in images being blurry when perceived.
  • In such a case, distant images appear out of focus but objects nearby are seen clearly.
  • This is why myopia is also called near or short-sightedness.
  • It can occur if the eyeball is elongated leading to image formation in front of the retina.
  • It can also occur if the refracting power of the lens is affected due to the cornea or lens being too curved.
  • This effect can be more pronounced with age.
  • Myopia can be corrected by the concave lens.

Additional Information

  • Presbyopia:
  • Presbyopia is the gradual loss of your eyes' ability to focus on nearby objects.
  • It's a natural, often annoying part of ageing.
  • Presbyopia usually becomes noticeable in your early to mid-40s and continues to worsen until around age 65.
  • Treatment options include wearing corrective eyeglasses (spectacle lenses) or contact lenses, undergoing refractive surgery, or getting lens implants for presbyopia.
  • Hyperopia:
  • Farsightedness is also known as hyperopia.
  • It is a refractive error in which distant objects are clearly seen, but close objects appear blurry.
  • Farsightedness or hyperopia is the inability of the eye to focus on nearby objects.
  • With the shortening of the eyeball, the retina lies closer than usual to the cornea and lens.
  • This results in the formation of an image of nearby objects beyond the retina.
  • This vision problem can be corrected by using a converging convex lens.
  • Astigmatism:
  • Astigmatism is a condition in which your eye isn’t completely round.
  • Astigmatism is an optical defect which blurs the vision.
  • When light enters the eye it is refracted more in one direction than the other, allowing only part of the object to be in focus at one time.
  • This is called a refractive error. Objects at any distance can appear blurry and wavy.
  • This defect in the eye or in a lens caused by a deviation from spherical curvature, which results in distorted images, as light rays are prevented from meeting at a common focus.
  • People with astigmatism need glasses to see clearly or LASIK (laser-assisted in situ keratomileuses).

Question 180

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The fossil fuels like coal and petroleum contain very large amounts of nitrogen and sulphur.

  2. BOption (b)

    Formation of water-vapours can be influenced by the activities of human-beings.

  3. COption (c)

    In coastal areas the direction of wind changes from day to night.

  4. DOption (d)

    The combustion of fossil fuels increases the amount of suspended particles in air.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The fossil fuels like coal and petroleum contain very large amounts of nitrogen and sulphur.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Explanation:

Fossil fuel

  • Fossil fuel is the buried combustible geologic deposits of organic materials, formed from decayed plants and animals that have been converted to crude oil, coal, natural gas, or heavy oils by exposure to heat and pressure in the earth's crust over hundreds of millions of years.
  • Fossil fuels emit more than just carbon dioxide when burned.
  • Fossil fuel-powered cars, trucks, and boats are the main contributors of poisonous carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxide, which produces smog (and respiratory illnesses) on hot days.
  • These are made up of hydrocarbons with some impurities.
  • The burning of fossil fuels by humans is the largest source of emissions of carbon dioxide, which is one of the greenhouse gases contributing heavily to global warming.
  • Combustion of these increases the number of suspended particles in the air.

Additional Information

Greenhouse gas:

  • Greenhouse gas is any gas that has the property of absorbing infrared radiation net heat energy emitted from the earth's surface and radiating it back to the Earth's surface.
  • Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit infrared radiation in the wavelength range emitted by Earth.

Carbon dioxide (0.04%), nitrous oxide, methane, and ozone are trace gases that account for almost 0.1% of Earth's atmosphere and have an appreciable greenhouse effect. In order, the most abundant (clarification needed) greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are

  • Water vapour (H2O)
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2)
  • Methane (CH4)
  • Nitrous oxide (N2O)
  • Ozone (O3)
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
  • Hydrofluorocarbons (includes HCFCs and HFCs)
  • Out of these GHGs Water Vapour is not created by human activity but their influence is affected by human activities.

Forced Convection: 

  • An external source such as fans & pumps is used for creating induced convection, known as forced convection.
  • One of the common examples of natural convection is Land & sea breeze.
  • This phenomenon occurs during the day as land gets warmer quickly than the sea, the temp above the land rises and heats the surrounding air.
  • Warm air is less dense, it expands and starts rising to create a low-pressure area over the land meanwhile there is relatively high pressure over the sea.
  • The difference in pressure causes the air to flow from sea to land known as the Sea Breeze and Vice-versa the night is known as the Land breeze.

Discipline 5 (10 questions)

Question 181

Xanthlum and Cyperinus rotundus are examples of-

  1. AOption (a)

    Crop-damanging insects

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitrogen fixing micro-organisms

  3. COption (c)

    Crop-eating birds

  4. DOption (d)

    Weeds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Weeds

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Weeds.

Explanation:

  • Xanthium and Cyperinus rotundus are examples of Weeds.
  • Weeds
  • Weeds are unwanted plants in cultivated fields.
  • Examples, Xanthium (gokhroo), Cyperinus rotundus (motha), Parthenium (gajar ghas).
  • Field crops are infested by a large number of weeds, diseases, and insect pests.
  • Weeds that are not controlled at the appropriate time can cause significant crop damage, resulting in the loss of the majority of the crop.
  • They compete for food, space, and light.
  • Weeds take up nutrients from the plants and reduce the growth of the crop.
  • Weeds also produce toxic substances by which the growth of the crop is reduced and hence less yield is obtained.
  • Thus, weeds also affect the health of the crop and reduce yields.
  • As a result, weed removal from cultivated fields during the early stages of crop growth is essential for a good harvest.
  • Pesticides, which include herbicides, insecticides, and fungicides, are one of the most commonly used methods for weed control.

Question 182

Apis cerana indica is a type of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Horse

  2. BOption (b)

    Hen

  3. COption (c)

    Bee

  4. DOption (d)

    Cow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bee.

Explanation:

  • Pollinators of many crops like sunflower, Brassica, apple and pear are bees. So keeping beehives in crop fields during the flowering period increases crop yield as well as honey yield.
  • Bee-keeping or apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.
  • Bee-keeping is a practice in any area where there is the availability of sufficient bee pastures of some wild shrubs, fruit orchids and cultivated crops.
  • One of the most common species of bees that can be reared is Apis cerana indica.
  • Apis cerana indica is a type of bee commonly known as the Indian bee.

Additional Information

  • Pollination is the act of transferring pollen grains from the male anther of a flower to the female stigma. The goal of every living organism, including plants, is to create offspring for the next generation. One of the ways that plants can produce offspring is by making seeds.
  • Pollination is carried by different agents-
AgentsPollination
AirAnemophily
WaterHydrophily
InsectsEntomophily
AnimalsZoophily
BirdsOrnithophily

Question 183

What are the hens called which are reared for eggs?

  1. AOption (a)

    Eggers

  2. BOption (b)

    Broilers

  3. COption (c)

    Layers

  4. DOption (d)

    Brailers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Layers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Layers.

Explanation:

  • The method of maintaining and rearing of domestic fowl (bird) is known as Poultry farming. It includes chicken, duck turkey, and geese.
  • Broilers and layers are the two types of chickens found on a poultry farm.
  • Layers are egg-laying hens that are raised for commercial egg production.
  • Layer chickens are a unique breed of hen that must be raised from the time they are one day old.
  • They begin laying eggs commercially at the age of 18-19 weeks.
  • They continue to lay eggs till they are 72-78 weeks old.
  • Broilers are chickens that are raised for meat.

Additional Information 

  • Pisciculture: The rearing of fishes
  • Apiculture: Rearing of bees
  • Poultry: Rearing of hens
  • Sericulture: Rearing of the silkworm.
  • Dairy farming: Raising of Cattle

Question 184

The levels of which vitamins are kept high in the poultry feeds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamins A and B

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamins C and D

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamins A and K

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamins E and K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vitamins A and K

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vitamins A and K.

Concept:

  • The domestic fowl (bird) used for food or their eggs are called poultry. It includes chicken, duck, turkey, and geese.
  • Poultry feed is a food used by chicken, duck, turkey, geese, and other domestic fowl.

Explanation:

  • Vitamins are organic substances that are needed in sufficient quantities to maintain good health.
  • Natural sources of vitamins are fruits and vegetables.
  • Vitamins are divided into two groups– water-soluble vitamins (Vitamins of B group and Vitamin C) and fat-soluble vitamins (Vitamins A, D, E, and K).
  • The levels of vitamins A and K are kept high in poultry feeds.
  • In poultry animals, vitamin A promotes fertility and vitamin K promotes bone health.

Additional Information

Name of VitaminSourcesNeedDeficiency diseases
Vitamin KCabbage, cauliflower, spinach and other green leafy vegetables, cereals, soyabeansClotting of bloodExcessive bleeding from wounds
Vitamin DCheese, butter, milk, green vegetables, fish liver oil, sunlightFormation of strong bones and teethRickets
Vitamin AMilk, butter, egg, carrots, cod liver oil, tomatoes, pumpkin, green leafy vegetablesNormal growth and to keep eyes and skin healthyNight blindness, Irregular growth of teeth

Question 185

Which of the following can NOT be classified as a group of activities that can give a good yield?

  1. AOption (a)

    Crop efficiency improvement

  2. BOption (b)

    Crop protection improvement

  3. COption (c)

    Crop production improvement

  4. DOption (d)

    Crop variety improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Crop efficiency improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is crop efficiency improvement.

Explanation:

  • The yield in agriculture is a measurement of the quantity of a crop cultivated on a given land.
  • The major groups of activities for improving crop yields can be classified as:
  • Crop variety improvement-
  • It depends on finding a crop variety that can give a good yield.
  • Crop varieties or strains can be selected for useful characteristics such as disease resistance, fertilizer response, product quality, and high yields through breeding.
  • Crop production improvement-
  • Farmers are able to adopt new farming practices and agricultural technologies due to financial conditions.
  • There is a correlation between higher inputs and yields.
  • Therefore, Production practices can vary in level. They include ‘no cost’ production, ‘low cost’ production, and ‘high cost’ production practices.
  • Crop protection management-
  • Field crops are infested by a large number of weeds, insect pests and diseases.
  • Weeds and pests that are not controlled at the appropriate time can cause significant crop damage, resulting in the loss of the majority of the crop.

Thus, crop efficiency improvement is not classified as a group of activities that can give a good yield.

Question 186

Which of the following is a macronutrient for plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Molybdenum

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper

  3. COption (c)

    Magnesium

  4. DOption (d)

    Zinc

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Magnesium

Why this answer is correct

Concept :

Most of the minerals present in soil can enter plants through roots.

These elements are further divided into two broad categories based on their quantitative requirements.

  • Macronutrients
  • Micronutrients

MACRONUTRIENTS - 

  • Generally present in plant tissues in large amounts (in excess of 10 mmole Kg –1 of dry matter).
  • The macronutrients include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous, sulfur, potassium, calcium, and MAGNESIUM.
  • Of these, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are mainly obtained from CO2 and H2O, while the others are absorbed from the soil as mineral nutrition.

MICRONUTRIENTS -

  • Micronutrients or trace elements are needed in very small amounts (less than 10 mmole Kg –1 of dry matter).
  • These include IRON, manganese, copper, molybdenum, zinc, boron, chlorine, and nickel.

​Hence we can conclude that Magnesium is a macronutrient for plants.

Question 187

Which of the following is considered to be the purest form of natural water (distilled water) free from impurities?

  1. AOption (a)

    River water

  2. BOption (b)

    Spring water

  3. COption (c)

    Rain water

  4. DOption (d)

    Well water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rain water

Why this answer is correct

Distilled water is a type of purified water that has had both contaminants and minerals removed.

Key Points

  • Distilled water is purified water produced by condensing steam or water vapor from impure water, such as well water, seawater, tap water, snow, Spring water, streams, River water or even plants or damp rock.
  • Rain and snow are two forms of naturally distilled water.
  • Distilled water is water that has been purified by vaporizing it and condensing the vapor. Many of the contaminants in the source water don't ever the gas phase, so the resulting water is cleaner.

Hence we can conclude that Rain water is the purest form of natural water (distilled water) free from impurities.

Question 188

Which of the following is termed The True Friends of the farmers' or 'The Natural ploughers'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Earthworms

  2. BOption (b)

    Bees

  3. COption (c)

    Rabbits

  4. DOption (d)

    Bulls

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Earthworms

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Earthworms.

Explanation:

Earthworms are useful in several ways for farmers-

  • Earthworms make the soil porous by digging burrows in the soil. Hence they are called friends of the farmers.
  • The nitrogenous wastes and other waste products of the earthworms form food for plants. This process of increasing the fertility of the soil by earthworms is called vermicomposting.
  • Earthworms are used as fish bait to catch fish.
  • Some tribals in India use earthworms as medicine to cure jaundice, piles, diarrhoea, bladder stones, etc.
  • The earthworms reduce both the acidity and alkalinity of the soil and create optimum conditions for plant growth.
  • The density of earthworms in the soil is considered to be a good indicator of healthy soil because they increase the soil's water-holding capacity and moisture content.

Thus, Earthworms are known as "The True Friends of the farmers ' or 'The Natural ploughers.

Additional Information

Different organisms use different types of organs to remove excreta.

  • Unicellular Animals / Amoeba – Diffusion through the surface of the body.
  • Platyhelminthes/ Flatworms – Flame cells
  • Roundworms/Earthworms – Nephridia
  • Arthropods/ Cockroaches – Malpighian tubules
  • Crustaceans / Prawns – Antennal glands / Green Glands
  • Vertebrates – Kidney

Question 189

The credit for Green Revolution in India goes to _____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Dr. Verghese Kurien

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. R. S. Paroda

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. P. A. Sanchez

  4. DOption (d)

    Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Green Revolution in India:

  • The term green revolution was first used by William Gaud and Norman Borlaug is the Father of the Green Revolution.
  • After Independence, Indian policy-makers adopted all measures to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.
  • In the year 1965, the government of India launched the Green Revolution with the help of a geneticist, now known as the father of the Green revolution (India) M.S. Swaminathan.
  • The movement of the green revolution was a great success and changed the country’s status from a food-deficient economy to one of the world’s leading agricultural nations.
  • It started in 1967 and lasted till 1978.
  • India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in the 'Green Revolution', especially in the production of wheat and rice.
  • Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India, officially recorded the impressive strides of the Green Revolution in agriculture by releasing a special stamp entitled 'Wheat Revolution' in July 1968.
  • The success of wheat was later replicated in rice.
  • Thus, to signify the achievements of the Green Revolution, a stamp was released by the then Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi entitled as ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968.

Yellow Revolution:

  • The Yellow Revolution is concerned with Oilseeds production.
  • This revolution means the cultivation of mustard as a part of crop rotation.
  • The Father of the Yellow Revolution is Sam Pit Roda.
  • It was also called People Power Revolution.
  • It was first launched in 1986-87 in India.
  • To popularize the four major oilseeds- groundnut, mustard, soyabean, and sunflower.

Question 190

What is the density of water at 4°C?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 g/cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 g/cm3

  3. COption (c)

    4 g/cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 g/cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 g/cm3

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • Water exhibits an anomalous behaviour; it contracts on heating between 0°C and 4°C.

  • The volume of a given amount of water decreases as it is cooled from room temperature until its temperature reaches 4°C. Below 4 °C, the volume increases, and therefore the density decreases.

  • This means that water has a maximum density (1 g/cm3) at 4°C.

  • As explained above due to anomalous behaviour of water when water is heated from 0° C to 10° C, then its volume first decreases and then increases although mass remains constant.

  • This can be represented as below

  • When water boils at a certain temperature it turns into steam. When it is cooled to a certain temperature it freezes and becomes ice.

  • Water boils at 100°C and freezes at 0°C.

Teaching Methodology (10 questions)

Question 191

What is the full-form of TLM for teachers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Teacher Language Mechanism

  2. BOption (b)

    Teaching Learning Materials

  3. COption (c)

    Teaching Learning Mechanism

  4. DOption (d)

    Training and Learning Method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Teaching Learning Materials

Why this answer is correct

The learning process is aimed to bring out the permanent desirable changes in the behaviour of an individual. The teaching-learning process respects the diversity among students and the teacher follows different paths to achieve the goals of learning.

  • The teachers use different materials such as charts, models, film-strips, video clips, etc. to arouse the interest of students in learning and to keep them indulging actively in the teaching-learning process. These materials are known as  "TLM" or "teaching-learning materials".

Important Points

  • TLM stands for "teaching/learning materials" in the subject of education and is a regularly used abbreviation. The phrase broadly refers to a variety of instructional resources that instructors employ in the classroom to meet particular learning objectives as outlined in lesson plans.
  • Learners benefit from a variety of learning experiences, both direct and indirect, that are provided through teaching-learning resources. The learning experiences were grouped on a continuum of 'directness to indirectness' by Edgar Dale (1969), which corresponded to a continuum of 'concreteness to abstractness.' A 'Cone of Experiences,' as he described it.

In the classroom, TLMs are used to help pupils learn more effectively. It is used by a teacher to improve the effectiveness of teaching-learning. After classroom teaching and learning, TLMs can also assist learners in achieving their learning objectives. The following are some of the reasons why TLMs should be used in the classroom:

  • Motivate students - The first stage in any learning process is to capture the attention of the students, and TLMs can assist in this process. The youngsters are eager to learn new topics after being inspired to study TLMs. TLMs offer a wide range of stimuli, which aids in the most effective classroom instruction.
  • Longer information retention - The more sensory pathways that connect with TLMs, the longer information will be retained. As a result, the learning process will be efficient and long-lasting.
  • TLMs also assist in improving learners' attitudes about learning in general and topic knowledge in particular. Learners can be instilled with a positive attitude via pictures, models, and other TLMs.
  • TLMs demonstrate how theoretical knowledge is used in real-world situations. For successful learning, TLMs show the theoretical knowledge learned in class in a concrete manner.

​Thus it is clear that the full form of TLM is Teaching - Learning Material.

Question 192

Which of the following is not a characteristic of learning process?

  1. AOption (a)

    Learning is non-transferable.

  2. BOption (b)

    Learning is the outcome of the interaction of the individual with the environment.

  3. COption (c)

    Learning is individualistic.

  4. DOption (d)

    Learning is intentional.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Learning is non-transferable.

Why this answer is correct

“Learning is a relatively permanent change in personality (including cognitive, affective, attitudinal, motivational, behavioral, and experiential) and reflects a change in performance usually brought about by practice although it may arise from insight or other factors, including memory.”

Key Points 

The characteristics of the learning process are:

  • Learning is a continuous process: From childhood every human being tries to change his/her behavior, thinking, attitude, interest, etc. continuously to fit himself/ herself to the ever-changing conditions of life.
  • Learning is goal-directed: Every human being aspires to achieve some goals in his/her life. These goals may be achieved through learning. If there is no goal to achieve, then there would be no necessity of learning.
  • Learning is intentional: Since an individual sets a goal to achieve, he/she has to deliberately do some activity to attain the goal. If he/she does not have any intention to reach the goal or is quite casual about it, then it is difficult to reach the goal and in that sense, learning is weak or may not take place at all.
  • Learning is an active process: One has to perform some activity, may be physical or mental, or both to learn something. The mind has to remain active to acquire new experiences; otherwise, no learning can take place.
  • Learning is individualistic: You might have observed that in a class there are some students who learn more quickly while others learn slowly. In fact, the pace of learning differs from person to person.
  • Learning is the outcome of the interaction of the individual with the environment: As a teacher, you have to organize the environment carefully to motivate the students so as to interact with you, peer students, and teaching-learning materials.
  • Learning is transferable: Learning in one situation can be used to solve problems in another situation. Learning of mathematics, science, social science and language help the child to perform different activities in their real life.

Hence, we conclude that learning is non-transferable is not a characteristic of the learning process.

Question 193

How many dimensions of science education was identified in the 'Science Education for First Ten Years of Schooling - Guidelines for Upper Primary and Secondary Classes'?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

The NCF-88 principles were expanded upon in a leaflet titled "Science Education for the First Ten Years of Schooling: Guidelines for Upper Primary and Secondary Classes." In reality, the seven dimensions of science education defined in this text correlate to the various validity requirements. Science was taught at the secondary level for the first time as a single topic rather than three different disciplines.

Important Points

  • In the early nineteenth century, science was introduced as a separate topic to the school curriculum. General science was the term used at the time. In 1948, the Indian government established the University Education Commission I, which was chaired by Dr. Radha Krishnan, after the country achieved political independence in 1947. The Commission's primary responsibility was to report on university education, but it also provided useful recommendations for secondary education. General Science should be offered as a secondary school course, according to the Commission.
  • Between 1947 and 1952, the Basic Education system, which was later adopted as a national educational system, envisioned the General Science method to teach science at the primary level.
  • Seven parts of scientific education were defined in 'Scientific Education for the First Ten Years of Schooling - Guidelines for Upper Primary and Secondary Classes.'
  • Good scientific education is genuine to the learner, true to life, and honest to science, according to NCF-2005. The curriculum's content, method, language, and pedagogical approaches must be age-appropriate and within the learner's cognitive grasp to be considered cognitively legitimate (NCF-2005).

Thus it is clear that there are 7 dimensions of science education were identified in the 'Science Education for First Ten Years of Schooling - Guidelines for Upper Primary and Secondary Classes'.

Question 194

Which of the following chapters of the Right to Education Act, 2009 provides for the responsibilities of schools and teachers?

  1. AOption (a)

    IV

  2. BOption (b)

    V

  3. COption (c)

    III

  4. DOption (d)

    II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

IV

Why this answer is correct

For many years, India has had educational difficulties at both the national and state levels. The Right to Education Act of 2009 establishes duties and obligations for the federal government, states, and local governments in order to close gaps in the country's educational system and improve educational quality. The Right to Education Act ensures that teachers are deployed in a sensible manner by guaranteeing that every school maintains the prescribed Pupil-Teacher-Ratio with no urban-rural disparity. The RTE Act's major goal is to ensure that every kid in India, regardless of their economic or caste background, obtains a quality elementary education, including those who are forced to leave out.

Key Points

  • Section 11 states that the competent authorities may implement required pre-school education arrangements. Responsibilities of Schools and Teachers (Chapter IV).
  • The Right to Education Act of 2009 (RTE Act) is a law that protects children's right to an education. The government will provide free education to children aged 6 to 14 in government schools around the country, which will be overseen by school management committees.
  • This act took effect on April 1, 2010, making India one of 135 nations to make education a basic right for all children. It establishes basic standards for primary schools, forbids unregistered schools from operating, and opposes contribution fees and admissions interviews. The Right to Education Act monitors all communities through monthly surveys and identifies children who are eligible for but lack the resources to receive an education.

As a result, we may deduce that chapter IV of the Right to Education Act of 2009 outlines the obligations of schools and instructors.

Question 195

In which of the following teaching strategies does not student acquire the knowledge himself/herself by discovering the facts himself/herself supported by the guidance of the teacher?

  1. AOption (a)

    Discussion method

  2. BOption (b)

    Lecture method

  3. COption (c)

    Heuristic method

  4. DOption (d)

    Demonstration method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lecture method

Why this answer is correct

Teaching with a heuristic approach is a cost-effective and quick way. The pupil must be a self-discoverer while using the Heuristic technique. As a result, this technique does not include any instructor support or direction. The teacher gives an issue to the pupils and then steps away while they figure out the solution.

Important Points

  • The teaching strategy in which students do not acquire the knowledge themselves by discovering the facts themselves supported by the teacher's guidance is the Lecture method. In this method, the teacher presents information to the students in a structured and organized manner through lectures, presentations, and other forms of verbal communication.
  • The students are passive recipients of the information and do not actively engage in discovering the facts themselves.
  • The other methods listed - The discussion method, Heuristic method, and Demonstration method - all involve active student engagement in the learning process, with guidance from the teacher.

​Thus we can conclude lecture method teaching strategies does not allow student to acquire knowledge himself/herself by discovering the facts himself/herself supported by the guidance of the teacher

Additional Information

  • Discussion techniques are several platforms for an open-ended, collaborative exchange of ideas between a teacher and students or among students with the goal of improving students' thinking, learning, problem-solving, comprehension, or literary appreciation..
  • A heuristic technique is a strategy for locating a solution to a problem derived from the ancient Greek term 'eurisko,' which means 'to find, search, or discover.' It's all about employing a realistic approach that doesn't have to be flawless.

Question 196

Which age range is associated with later childhood?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 - 11 years

  2. BOption (b)

    5 - 10 years

  3. COption (c)

    10 - 15 years

  4. DOption (d)

    12 - 18 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6 - 11 years

Why this answer is correct

Stages of development:- Developmental influences cover a range of behaviours and transformations in a child's faculties and personalities. Social norms, institutions, customs, and laws also influence these stages.

  • Infancy (birth to 18 months)
  • Early childhood(2 to 3 years)
  • Preschool(3 to 5 years)
  • School-age or Pre Adolescence or Late childhood(6 to 11 years)
  • Adolescence(12 to 18 years)
  • Pre or Young Adulthood(19 to 40 years)

Key Points

Characteristics of Late Childhood:

  • Increased logical reasoning.
  • High Interest in science fiction.
  • Use of analogies in explanation.
  • Development of problem-solving skills.
  • Powers of perception and observation become keen.
  • Ability to exercise own power of memory and imagination.

Thus it is clear that the age range is associated with later childhood is 6 - 11 years.

Question 197

In which year was the 10 + 2 + 3 pattern of education introduced in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    1974

  2. BOption (b)

    1975

  3. COption (c)

    1973

  4. DOption (d)

    1972

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1975

Why this answer is correct

The Kothari Commission suggested that India's education system follow 10 + 2 + 3 patterns. By establishing UGC, the Radhakrishnan Commission, commonly known as the University Education Commission, proposed that secondary and higher education be integrated.

 Important Points

  • India had four patterns of school-leaving exams in effect in 1975, right before the Government adopted the 10+2+3 system: 10+2+3, 10+2+2+2, 11+3, and 11-12+1+3.
  • This educational pattern was accepted by teachers, students, and other educational groups across the country, and it was hoped that by the end of the Fifth Five Year Run, the entire country would have embraced it.
  • The 10+2+3 educational framework is an attempt to establish a uniform educational pattern across the country. There is considerable flexibility in this educational structure to make required adjustments to meet local needs. As a result, assuming that this new pattern is an imposition will be incorrect.

As a result, we may deduce that the 10 + 2 + 3 schooling paradigm was first used in India in 1975.

Question 198

Which out of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Joseph Priestley [1733] is known for his discovery of Liquid Nitrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Henry Cavendish [1732] discovered Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Robert Hook [1636] discovered Microscope

  4. DOption (d)

    Antony Van Leeuwenhoek [1632] discovered Microorganisms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Joseph Priestley [1733] is known for his discovery of Liquid Nitrogen

Why this answer is correct

According to the Los Alamos National Laboratory, nitrogen was discovered in 1772 by scientist and physician Daniel Rutherford, who demonstrated that the leftover gas could neither sustain living beings or combustion after removing oxygen and carbon dioxide from the air.

Key Points

  • Henry Cavendish, a British natural philosopher, theoretical chemist, and physicist, was born on October 10, 1731, and died on February 24, 1810. In a 1766 work titled "On Factitious Airs," Cavendish studied the density of inflammable air, noting that it produced water on the fire and is credited with discovering hydrogen.
  • Before 1800, oxygen was found. Priestley used the term "oxygen" to describe his finding. Priestley was well aware of the chemical changes that occur when things burn. Priestley was a fervent Church of England member.
  • Robert Hooke FRS was an English scientist and architect who was the first to observe a microorganism using a microscope. His book, 'Micrographia,' was the first major effort on the subject (the study of minute objects by means of a microscope). The book, which was first published in 1664, includes magnificent pictures of some of the specimens Hooke observed with the microscopes he built.
  • Antonie Philips van Leeuwenhoek, sometimes known as "the Father of Microbiology," was a pioneer in the field of microscopy and microbiology. He discovered bacteria and protozoa for the first time.

As a result, we may deduce that Joseph Priestley [1733], who is well renowned for his discovery of liquid nitrogen, is erroneous.

Question 199

According to the 2011 Census what is the sex-ratio in our country?

  1. AOption (a)

    929

  2. BOption (b)

    951

  3. COption (c)

    940

  4. DOption (d)

    935

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

940

Why this answer is correct

In a particular population, the sex ratio refers to the number of females per 1000 males. The sex ratio is measured in 940 females per 1000 males in India.

Important Points

  • According to Census 2011 preliminary figures, India's total population is 1,21,01,93,422, with 62,37,24,248 men and 58,64,69,174 females, for a sex ratio of 940 females per 1000 males.
  • The number of females per 1,000 males is referred to as the sex ratio.
  • A sex ratio is a useful tool for determining the female population in India and the female-to-male ratio.
  • The child-to-adult sex ratio is also calculated in India.
  • The number of girls per thousand men in a population is referred to as the child sex ratio.

Thus it is clear that according to the 2011 Census, our country's sex ratio is 940.

Additional Information

  • The sex ratio has an impact on wild population growth rates as well as evolutionary paths. Birth, mortality, immigration, and emigration rates all influence and are influenced by the population's sex ratio.
  • The ratio of one sex's number of persons to the other sex's number of individuals, or the allocation ratio in each, is used to calculate it. Because of competition for mates among individuals of the same sex, the most prevalent evolutionarily stable strategy (ESS) is to produce males and females in a 1:1 ratio.
  • The lopsided sex ratio represents a socio-cultural prejudice that persists in our society, expressing a feudal mindset that views women as things that are not comparable to men.

Question 200

Who is of the view "There is no such thing as a philosophy-free science there is only science whose philosophical baggage is taken on border without examination?

  1. AOption (a)

    Richard Dawkins

  2. BOption (b)

    Sam Harris

  3. COption (c)

    Daniel Dennett

  4. DOption (d)

    David Chalmers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Daniel Dennett

Why this answer is correct

Since science's gradual evolution from "natural philosophy" throughout the 16th and 17th centuries, the link between science and philosophy has always been contentious. Philosophy of science emerged as a distinct discipline as a result of the work of persons who claimed to be philosophers but were actually scientists.

Key Points

  • "There is no such thing as a philosophy-free science, there is only science whose philosophical baggage is transferred across the border without investigation," writes Daniel Dennett in his 1995 book "Darwin's Dangerous Idea."
  • Science is the process of conceiving the natural world in a way that humans can comprehend while also reflecting as much as possible what we can empirically learn about how the world works. The use of images and metaphors, on the one hand, and the capacity to assume certain beginning points on which to develop new pathways of investigation, on the other, are both critical tools that allow scientists to formulate hypotheses and contribute to a growing knowledge of nature.
  • Philosophy may contribute to the critique of scientific assumptions in addition to its function in conceptual clarity, and it can even be proactive in constructing creative, testable, and predictive theories that help define new directions for empirical inquiry.

As a result, we may say that science philosophy is concerned with all of science's assumptions, foundations, techniques, and consequences, as well as its application and worth. Daniel Dennett is a brilliant American philosopher and author who is acknowledged for making substantial contributions to the philosophy of science, mind, and biology.

200 questions in the full paper