Combined Defence Services (CDS) · Topic Collection

English Comprehension PYQs

Reading comprehension, vocabulary, synonyms and antonyms, idiom usage, error spotting, sentence improvement, and cloze tests.

4560 Total Questions38 Official PapersYears: 2016–2025Search in English Comprehension
Showing questions 901–920 of 4560Page 46 of 100
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 901

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which of the following policies help to raise interest rate unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Expansionary fiscal and monetary policy 

  2. BOption (b)

    Contractionary fiscal and monetary policy  

  3. COption (c)

    Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy

  4. DOption (d)

    Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy 

 Key PointsContractionary monetary policy typically involves increasing interest rates to curb inflation or slow down an overheating economy. By increasing interest rates, borrowing costs become higher, which tends to reduce spending and investment. This can also attract foreign investment due to higher returns, leading to the appreciation of the currency.

Expansionary fiscal policy, on the other hand, involves increasing government spending and/or cutting taxes to stimulate the economy. This can lead to higher economic growth. However, when combined with contractionary monetary policy, the increase in interest rates can still attract foreign investment, contributing to the currency's appreciation. This combination also manages the inflation that could result from the expansionary fiscal policy, making the combination a balanced approach for managing an economy.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy, as it unambiguously helps raise interest rates and can lead to currency appreciation

CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 902

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

The contraction of private investment spending due to deficit spending by the Government is called 

  1. AOption (a)

    crowding out 

  2. BOption (b)

    crowding in 

  3. COption (c)

    pump priming 

  4. DOption (d)

    dumping

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

crowding out 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is crowding out.

Key PointsCrowding Out Effect

  • This refers to a phenomenon where increased borrowing by the government to meet its spending needs causes a decrease in the number of funds that are available to meet the investment needs of the private sector.
  • In other words, when the government is increasing its expenditure, private expenditure comes down. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Sometimes, the government adopts an expansionary fiscal policy stance and increases its spending to boost economic activity.
  • This leads to an increase in interest rates. Increased interest rates affect private investment decisions.
  • A high magnitude of the crowding-out effect may even lead to lesser income in the economy.
  • With higher interest rates, the cost for funds to be invested increases and affects their accessibility to debt financing mechanisms.
  • This leads to lesser investment ultimately and crowds out the impact of the initial rise in the total investment spending.

Important Points

  • Pump priming
  • It is the action taken to stimulate an economy, usually during a recessionary period, through government spending, and interest rate and tax reductions.
  • The term pump priming is derived from the operation of older pumps; a suction valve had to be primed with water so that the pump would function properly.
  • Dumping:
  • Dumping in the financial world occurs when a company or a country exports its products at a price lower than its domestic price.
  • Exporters dump to compete with the producers and sellers in the importing country.
  • Dumping enables consumers in the importing country to obtain access to goods at an affordable price.
  • However, it can also destroy the local market of the importing country, which can result in layoffs and the closure of businesses.
  • The World Trade Organization (WTO) and European Union(EU) regulate dumping by putting tariffs and taxes on trading partners.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 903

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which among the following is/are the objectives of the NITI Aayog?

  1. Imposing policies on the States /UTs
  2. Allocation of funds at National and State levels
  3. Design strategies and long-term policies and programme frameworks

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3  

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3 only.

Key Points

  • Some of the objective of the NITI Aayog:
  • To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors, and strategies with the active involvement of States in the light of national objectives.
  • The vision of the NITI Aayog will then provide a framework ‘national agenda’ for the Prime Minister and the Chief Ministers to provide impetus to.
  • To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States continuously, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.
  • To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government.
  • To design strategic and long-term policy and program frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy.  The lessons learned through monitoring and feedback will be used for making innovative improvements, including necessary mid-course corrections.

 

Additional Information

  • The Planning Commission was replaced by a new institution – NITI Aayog on January 1, 2015, with an emphasis on a 'bottom up' approach to envisage a vision of maximum governance, minimum government, reflecting the spirit of 'cooperative federalism'. was given.
  • Structure of NITI Aayog:
  • Chairman: Prime Minister
  • Vice President: To be appointed by the Prime Minister
  • Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories.
  • Regional Council: To address specific regional issues, consisting of the Chief Minister and Lieutenant Governor, chaired by the Prime Minister or his nominee.
  • Ad-hoc Membership: 2 members in ex-officio capacity on rotation basis from leading research institutions.
  • Ex-officio membership: A maximum of four from the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
  • Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure in the post of Secretary to the Government of India.
  • Special Invitees: Experts with domain knowledge nominated by the Prime Minister.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 904

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

The computation of poverty in terms of Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) based on the Mixed Reference Period was recommended by the 

  1. AOption (a)

    Lakdawala Committee 

  2. BOption (b)

    Tendulkar Committee 

  3. COption (c)

    Dandekar Committee 

  4. DOption (d)

    Alagh Committee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tendulkar Committee 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tendulkar Committee.

Key Points

  • ​In December 2005, the Planning Commission constituted an expert group under the chairmanship of Professor Suresh D. Tendulkar to review the methodology of poverty estimation.
  • The Tendulkar Committee submitted its report in December 2009 and calculated the poverty line and poverty ratio for 2004–05.
  • According to the Tendulkar method, the poverty line is expressed in terms of MPCE (monthly per capita consumption expenditure) based on a mixed reference period.
  • The respective proportions for rural and urban areas in 2004–05 were 41.8% and 25.7% and 37.2% for the country as a whole.

Additional Information

  • Lakdawala Committee:
  • The committee was constituted in the year 1993 and was headed by Professor D T Lakdawala.
  • According to the Lakdawala Committee, the poor cannot meet these average energy requirements.
  • This committee defined the poverty line based on household per capita consumption expenditure.
  • The committee used CPI-IL (Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers) and CPI-AL (Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Workers) to estimate the poverty line.
  • VM Dandekar and N Rath (1971) conducted the first systematic assessment of poverty in India based on National Sample Survey (NSS) data.
  • Alagh Committee (1979):
  • ​The task force constituted by the Planning Commission under the chairmanship of YK Alagh constructed poverty lines for rural and urban areas based on nutritional requirements and related consumption expenditure.
  • Poverty estimates for subsequent years were to be calculated by adjusting the price level for inflation.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 905

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which of the following is/are the submission /sub-missions of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)?

  1. Institutional training
  2. Overseas employment
  3. Leveraging of public infrastructure

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3 

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • Sub Mission under National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)
  • Institutional Training: Enhance the quantity, quality, and reach of training programs and outcomes.
  • Infrastructure
  • Convergence
  • Trainers
  • Overseas Employment: Ensure that Indian youth receive training at global standards to enhance their employability abroad.
  • Sustainable Livelihoods
  • Leveraging Public Infrastructure: It aims to maximize the use of existing public infrastructure to expand skill development initiatives across India.

Additional Information

  • The Union Cabinet approved the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM) on 1 July 2015.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi officially launched it on World Youth Skills Day on 15 July 2015.
  • This initiative includes the following:
  • National Skill Development Mission.
  • Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY).
  • National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  • Skill Loan Scheme.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 906

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which of the following strategies is/are adopted for implementing the POSHAN Abhiyaan?

  1. Inter-sectoral convergence for better service delivery
  2. Use of technology (ICT) for real-time growth monitoring of women and children

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only  

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2  

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • The features of Poshan Abhiyaan are as follows:
  • POSHAN Abhiyaan is a comprehensive scheme that monitors, supervises, targets and guides nutrition-related interventions across ministries.
  • Poshan Abhiyaan monitors various schemes that contribute to eliminating malnutrition in India.
  • The nutrition campaign will focus on maternal nutrition, infant and young child feeding norms and treatment protocols.
  • Mass movement and multi-sector intervention are the two main components of Poshan Abhiyaan.
  • It encourages Anganwadi workers (AWWs) to use IT-based tools at the community level.
  • The Poshan Tracker app is designed for Anganwadi workers and Anganwadi centers to enter beneficiaries' data into forms.
  • It encourages states and union territories to meet their targets.
  • It sets up Nutrition Resource Centers (NRCs) to increase public nutrition awareness through various social activities and audits.
  • To ensure that all Anganwadi centers are equipped with smartphones and Growth Monitoring Devices (GMDs) such as infantometers, stadiometers, mother and child weighing scales, the Ministry has revised technical specifications and guidelines for replacement of GMDs by States. Have been issued.

Additional Information 

  • Poshan Abhiyaan, or National Nutrition Mission, is a multi-ministerial convergence mission that began on March 8, 2018, to improve the nutritional status of children under six years of age, adolescent girls, pregnant women and lactating mothers promptly.
  • This is supported by the National Nutrition Strategy of NITI Aayog, which aims to achieve "Kuposhyan Mukt Bharat" or malnutrition-free India by 2022.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 907

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the issue of a writ of certiorari in India?

  1. There should be a tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine questions affecting rights of subjects and having a duty to act judicially.
  2. Such tribunal or officer has acted without jurisdiction

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only  

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2  

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Certiorari means to be certified.
  • For the issuance of the writ of certiorari, the following conditions must be fulfilled:
  • The existence of an officer or a tribunal having the judicial authority as per the law to decide on the cases affecting the rights of people.
  • Such an officer or the tribunal must have acted- 
  • in excess of judicial power, or
  • without requisite jurisdiction, or
  • in violation of the principles of natural justice.

Additional Information

  • There are five types of Writs - Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto which are provided by the Supreme Court under Article 32. The High Court can issue other writs under Article 226.
  • Habeas Corpus: The writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
  • Mandamus: This writ of command is issued by the supreme or high court when any government, court, corporation or any public authority has to do a public duty but fails to do so.
  • Certiorari: The writ of certiorari can be issued by the supreme or high court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.
  • Prohibition: It is popularly known as 'Stay Order'.
  • Quo-Warranto: It is a writ issued to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 908

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Who among the following Chief Justices of India ordered the constitution of a Special Bench called ‘Social Justice Bench’? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Justice H. L. Dattu 

  2. BOption (b)

    Justice K. G. Balakrishnan  

  3. COption (c)

    Justice R. M. Lodha 

  4. DOption (d)

    Justice Y. K. Sabharwal 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Justice H. L. Dattu 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Justice H. L. Dattu.

Key Points

  • The Chief Justice of India, who ordered the formation of a special bench called 'Social Justice Bench', was Justice H.L. Dattu.
  • The Social Justice Bench was established in the Supreme Court of India during the tenure of Justice Dattu and was dedicated to addressing issues related to social justice, including matters relating to the deprived and marginalized sections of society.
  • The objective of the Social Justice Bench is to expedite the hearing of cases related to social justice and ensure timely justice for deprived and vulnerable groups.

Additional Information

  • The Supreme Court (SC) consists of the Chief Justice and 33 other judges appointed by the President of India.
  • The first Chief Justice of India was Sir Harilal Jekisundas Kania.
  • The current Chief Justice of India is Dhananjay Y Chandrachud.
  • The Supreme Court of India came into existence on 26 January 1950 and is located at Tilak Marg, New Delhi.
  • On 28 January 1950, two days after India became a sovereign democratic republic, the Supreme Court was inaugurated.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 909

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Who among the following is the author of the book, Bandi Jivan ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Rash Behari Bose

  2. BOption (b)

    Veer Savarkar

  3. COption (c)

    Aruna Asaf Ali 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sachindranath Sanyal 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sachindranath Sanyal 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sachindranath Sanyal.

Key Points

  • Sachindranath Sanyal was an Indian independence activist and a prominent figure in the revolutionary movements against British colonial rule in India.
  • He is best known for his association with the revolutionary organization Anushilan Samiti and for his role in the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925.
  • The book "Bandi Jivan" was written by Sachindranath Sanyal.

Additional Information

  • Rash Behari Bose:
  • Rash Behari Bose was a revolutionary leader and played a key role in the Indian independence movement.
  • He was associated with the Ghadar Party and later the Indian National Army (INA) led by Subhas Chandra Bose.
  • Veer Savarkar:
  • Veer Savarkar, also known as Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, was a freedom fighter, poet, and political leader.
  • He is credited with popularizing the term "Hindutva" and was a strong advocate of Hindutva ideology.
  • Aruna Asaf Ali:
  • Aruna Asaf Ali was a prominent freedom fighter known for her participation in the Quit India Movement.
  • She played a significant role in the Indian National Congress and later became the first woman to be elected as the Mayor of Delhi.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 910

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

In the election held in 1937, in which two provinces was the Indian National Congress not able to emerge as the single largest party?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab and Sind  

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam and North-West Frontier Province 

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab and Assam 

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam and Madras

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Punjab and Sind  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Punjab and Sind.

Key Points

  • Provincial elections were held in British India in the winter of 1936–37 as ordered by the Government of India Act 1935.
  • Elections were held in 11 provinces – Madras, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, United Provinces, Bombay Presidency, Assam, NWFP, Bengal, Punjab and Sindh.
  • In the 1937 elections, the Indian National Congress emerged in power in eight provinces – Bengal, Punjab and Sindh being the three exceptions.
  • The final results of the elections were declared in February 1937. The Congress emerged in power in eight provinces – the exceptions being Punjab and Sindh.
  • Of the total 11 provinces, Congress formed ministries in 8 provinces – Madras, UP, Bombay, Central Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, Assam and NWFP.
  • In 2 provinces, Punjab and Sindh, the Congress was in alliance with regional parties.
  • Muslim League was the largest party in Bengal, it did not have a majority. The Muslim League was unable to form a government in any province.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 911

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Consider the following

Statements:

After forming the Indian National Army, Subhas Chandra Bose

  1. Recruited a large number of soldiers from the Indian Prisoners of War in Japanese camp
  2. Introduced a women’s detachment named after the Rani of Jhansi

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2  

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • After taking over the Indian National Army (INA) in 1943, Subhas Chandra Bose recruited a significant number of soldiers from among Indian prisoners of war, who had been captured by the Japanese in Southeast Asia during World War II. He saw an opportunity to form a force that could fight for India's independence from British rule and worked vigorously to expand the INA by inspiring these soldiers with the cause of freedom.. Hence, statement 1 is true.
  • Rash Behari Bose handed over INA to Subhas Chandra Bose. It was revived under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose after his arrival in Southeast Asia in 1943.
  • Subhas Chandra Bose introduced a women’s detachment named after the Rani of Jhansi. Hence, statement 2 is true.

Additional Information

  • The Azad Hind Fauz was declared to be the army of Bose's Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind (the Provisional Government of Free India).
  • Under Bose's leadership, the INA drew ex-prisoners and thousands of civilian volunteers from the Indian expatriate population in Malaya (present-day Malaysia) and Burma.
  • This second INA (Bose's INA) fought along with the Imperial Japanese Army against the British and Commonwealth forces in the campaigns in Burma, in Imphal and Kohima, and later against the Burma Campaign of the Allies.
  • On October 21, 1943, Subhash Bose formed the Provisional Government for Free India at Singapore with H.C. Chatterjee (Finance portfolio), M.A. Aiyar (Broadcasting), Lakshmi Swaminathan (Women Department), etc.
  • The famous slogan- “Give me blood, I will give you freedom” was given in Malaya.
  • This provisional government declared war on Britain and the United States and was recognised by the Axis powers. Recruits were trained and funds collected for the INA.
  • The INA headquarters was shifted to Rangoon (in Burma) in January 1944, and the army recruits used to march from there with the war cry “Chalo Delhi” on their lips.
  • On November 6, 1943, Andaman and Nicobar islands were given by the Japanese army to the INA; the islands were renamed as Shahid Dweep and Swaraj Dweep respectively.
  • On July 6, 1944, Subhas Bose addressed Mahatma Gandhi as ‘Father of Nation’- from the Azad Hind Radio (the first person to call Gandhi, ‘Father of Nation’).
  • One INA battalion commanded by Shah Nawaz was allowed to accompany the Japanese Army to the Indo-Burma front and participate in the Imphal campaign.
  • However, the Indians received discriminatory treatment from the Japanese, which included being denied rations and arms and being made to do menial work for the Japanese units, and this disgusted and demoralised the INA units.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 912

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which one of the following pairs denoting various forms of ‘Bhakti’ is not correctly matched? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Saguna : Belief in Gods with attributes 

  2. BOption (b)

    Nirguna : Belief in Gods without attributes 

  3. COption (c)

    Alvars : Believed in devotion of Shakti

  4. DOption (d)

    Nayanars : Believed in devotion of Shiva 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alvars : Believed in devotion of Shakti

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alvars : Believed in devotion of Shakti.

Key Points

  • The Alvars were Tamil poet-saints who were devoted to Lord Vishnu, not Shakti.
  • They composed devotional hymns praising Lord Vishnu and are considered instrumental in the Bhakti movement in South India.
  • Shakti is more commonly associated with the Shakta tradition, where the worship is focused on the divine feminine, often personified as various forms of the goddess.

Additional Information

  • Some notable forms of Bhakti:
  • Saguna Bhakti: This form of Bhakti involves worshiping a personal god with attributes (saguna), such as Vishnu, Shiva, or Devi. Devotees engage in rituals, prayers, and worship to connect with the divine in a more personalized way.
  • Nirguna Bhakti: In contrast to Saguna Bhakti, Nirguna Bhakti involves worshiping the formless, attributeless aspect of the divine. Devotees focus on the abstract, transcendent nature of the ultimate reality, often represented by terms like Brahman.
  • Shakta Bhakti: Devotees following Shakta Bhakti worship the divine feminine, often in the forms of Goddess Durga, Kali, Lakshmi, or Saraswati. Shaktism emphasizes the creative and nurturing aspects of the feminine divine.
  • Vaishnav Bhakti: Devotees of Vishnu engage in Vaishnav Bhakti, worshiping him in various forms such as Rama and Krishna. This tradition includes various sects like the followers of Ramanuja, Madhva, and Chaitanya, each with its unique practices.
  • Shaiva Bhakti: Devotees of Shiva follow Shaiva Bhakti, worshiping Lord Shiva as the supreme deity. They may focus on different aspects of Shiva, such as the meditative and ascetic Rudra or the benevolent Nataraja.
  • Smartism: This form of Bhakti is associated with the Smarta tradition, which encourages the worship of multiple deities, including Vishnu, Shiva, Devi, Ganesha, and Surya, among others.
  • Alvar and Nayanar Bhakti: Alvars and Nayanars were poet-saints in Tamil Nadu who contributed to the Bhakti movement. Alvars were devoted to Lord Vishnu, while Nayanars were devoted to Lord Shiva.
  • Guru Bhakti: Some forms of Bhakti emphasize devotion to a spiritual teacher or guru. Devotees believe that by surrendering to the guru, they can attain spiritual enlightenment.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 913

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which two rivers flow in the region between Gulbarga and Vijayanagara Hampi?

  1. AOption (a)

    Narmada ang Godavari 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahanadi and Godavari 

  3. COption (c)

    Kaveri and Periyar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Krishna and Tungabhadra 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Krishna and Tungabhadra 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Krishna and Tungabhadra.

Key Points

  • The two rivers that flow in the area between Gulbarga and Vijayanagara Hampi are the Tungabhadra and Krishna rivers.
  • During the reign of Harihara I in Vijayanagara, the empire extended from the Konkan coast on the western end to Nellore and Cuddapah on the eastern end.
  • ​Krishna River:
  • It originates in the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar in Satara district of Maharashtra.
  • It is the major source of irrigation in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Left bank tributaries - Bhima, Dindi, Peddavagu, Musi, Paleru, Munneru.
  • Right bank tributaries - Kudali (Niranjna) Venna, Koyna, Panchganga, Dudhaganga, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Tungabhadra.

Tungabhadra River:

  • The Tungabhadra River rises from the Karnataka state and flows through Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana states.
  • The ancient name of the river Tungabhadra was Pampa.
  • The Historic city 'Hampi' is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.
  • The Tungabhadra River is formed by the confluence of the Tunga River and the Bhadra River at Koodli, Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Hampi: 
  • Hampi is an ancient village in the Indian state of Karnataka.
  • Hampi's name is derived from that of the local mother goddess, Pampadevi.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 914

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which of the following is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Central Reserve Police Force

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam Rifles 

  3. COption (c)

    Indo-Tibetan Border Police 

  4. DOption (d)

    Central Industrial Security Force

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Assam Rifles 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Assam Rifles.

Key Points

  • The Assam Rifles is the only paramilitary force in India that operates under a dual control structure.
  • It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) as well as the operational control of the Indian Army.
  • The Assam Rifles came into being in 1835, as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’.

Additional Information

  • ​The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) is one of the premier central armed police forces of India (under the Ministry of Home Affairs) for internal security.
  • Originally formed as the Crown Representatives Police in 1939, it is one of the oldest central paramilitary forces.
  • After independence, the force was renamed the Central Reserve Police Force by an Act of Parliament on 28 December 1949.
  • Central Industrial Security Force (CISF): Provides security cover to nuclear installations, space installations, airports, ports, power plants, sensitive government buildings, and historical monuments.
  • Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP): ITBP is a specialized mountain force and most of the officers and men are professionally trained mountaineers and skiers.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 915

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which one of the following is an ethnic community of Assam? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhil

  2. BOption (b)

    Gond

  3. COption (c)

    Ahom

  4. DOption (d)

    Adi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ahom

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ahom.

Key Points

  • The Ahom people are an ethnic community native to the Assam region of northeastern India.
  • The Ahom dynasty, originally from the Shan region of present-day Myanmar, ruled the state of Assam for several centuries.
  • The Ahom dynasty, which established its rule in Assam in the 13th century, had a profound impact on the socio-cultural landscape of the region.

Additional Information

  • The Bhil is an ethnic group mainly found in the Indian states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and parts of Andhra Pradesh. They are primarily associated with central and western India.
  • The Gond people are an Adivasi group predominantly found in central India, including states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and parts of Orissa, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and West Bengal
  • The Adi is an ethnic group in the northeastern state of Arunachal Pradesh. The Adi people are among the major tribes in Arunachal Pradesh and have their own distinctive culture, language, and traditions.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 916

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

The Chevrons is the name of the cricket team of which one of the following countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Australia

  2. BOption (b)

    The Netherlands 

  3. COption (c)

    Ireland

  4. DOption (d)

    Zimbabwe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Zimbabwe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zimbabwe.

Key Points

  • The Zimbabwe men's national cricket team is also known as the Chevrons.
  • The Chevrons refers to the stylized V-shaped graphic featured on the team's uniform and flag.

Additional Information

  • The Australian national cricket team is often informally referred to as the "Baggy Greens" (due to their traditional green caps) or simply as the "Aussies."
  • The New Zealand national cricket team is commonly known as the "Black Caps." The term "Kiwis" is also used informally, referencing the national bird of New Zealand, the kiwi.
  • The term "Dutch" is used for the Netherlands national cricket team. They are often referred to as the "Oranje" or the "Dutch Lions," reflecting the national color and a symbol of strength.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 917

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Cheetahs, brought from Namibia, were introduced in India to which one of the following National Parks? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Kaziranga National Park

  2. BOption (b)

    Keoladeo Ghana National Park 

  3. COption (c)

    Keibul Lamjao National Park 

  4. DOption (d)

    Kuno National Park 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kuno National Park 

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Conservation of biodiversity refers to the protection, upliftment, restoration and management of natural resources (flora and fauna).
  • The following are the objectives of biodiversity conservation:
  • Conservation of species diversity.
  • Sustainable use of biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem.
  • The conservation strategies can be of 2 types:
  • In-situ - conserving the species in its own natural habitat. E.g. - National Parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, Tiger Reserves.
  • Ex-situ - conserving the species outside its habitat. E.g. - Botanical gardens, Zoos, gene banks, Seed banks.
  • National park is an area set aside by a national government for the preservation of the natural environment.
  • They are large protected areas meant for the conservation of plants and animals.
  • Most of the time, human intervention in these areas is not allowed and they are kept well protected.

Important Points

  • The Kuno National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is also a wildlife sanctuary that has been selected for reintroduction of Cheetahs in India.
  • Cheetahs have been extinct in the country for about 70 years.
  • A total of 8 Namibian Cheetahs, 5 females and 3 males, were brought to India in order to revive their population in India.
  • Though one of them has died, one other has given birth to 4 cubs in the national park.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 918

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Who among the following is not a recipient of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2022? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Alain Aspect 

  2. BOption (b)

    John F. Clauser 

  3. COption (c)

    Klaus Hasselmann 

  4. DOption (d)

    Anton Zeilinger  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Klaus Hasselmann 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Klaus Hasselmann. 

Key Points

  • The Nobel Prize in Physics 2022 was awarded jointly to Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, and Anton Zeilinger "for experiments with entangled photons, establishing the violation of Bell inequalities and pioneering quantum information science".
  • In 2021, the Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann (jointly) for their research on climate models and to Giorgio Parisi for his work on the interplay of disorder and fluctuations in physical systems.

Additional Information

  • The Nobel Prize is a set of prestigious international awards given annually in several categories, including Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, Peace, and Economic Sciences.
  • The prizes were established by the will of Alfred Nobel, a Swedish inventor, engineer, and industrialist, in 1895.
  • Among the recipients till now, 12 are Indians (five Indian citizens and seven of Indian ancestry or residency).
  • Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian citizen to be awarded and also the first Asian to be awarded in 1913.
  • Mother Teresa is the only woman on the list of recipients.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 919

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Reflex arcs are evolved in animals for quick and efficient responses. Which one of the following sequences correctly represents a reflex arc?

  1. AOption (a)

    Receptor - Sensory neuron - Relay neuron in spinal cord - Motor neuron - Effector

  2. BOption (b)

    Receptor - Sensory neuron - Brain - Relay neuron in spinal cord - Motor neuron - Effector

  3. COption (c)

    Receptor - Motor neuron - Relay neuron in spinal cord - Sensory neuron - Effector

  4. DOption (d)

    Receptor - Motor neuron - Brain - Sensory neuron - Effector

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Receptor - Sensory neuron - Relay neuron in spinal cord - Motor neuron - Effector

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

  • The sudden response to peripheral nervous stimulation, that occurs involuntarily, is called reflex action.
  • The reflex action occurs without conscious thoughts and involves a part of the central nervous system.
  • Components of a Reflex Arc:
  • Receptor → Detects the stimulus (e.g., skin receptors sense heat when you touch something hot).
  • Sensory neuron (afferent neuron) → Carries the message from the receptor to the spinal cord.
  • Interneuron (association neuron) → Present in the spinal cord; processes the information and connects sensory to motor neurons.
  • Motor neuron (efferent neuron) → Sends signals from the spinal cord to the effector organ.
  • Effector (muscle or gland) → Produces the response (e.g., muscle contracts to withdraw hand).
  • Some examples of reflex action are, a sudden withdrawal of a body part that comes in contact with objects such as extremely hot, cold, or pointed; sudden blinking of eyes when an insect comes very close to the eyes; sneezing due to the irritants of the nasal passages, etc.
  • It helps the organisms to respond quickly to an adverse situation that could have caused bodily harm.
  • Reflex arc - is the nervous pathway that is involved in a reflex action.
  • The components of a reflex arc include receptor organs, sensory neurons, nerve center, associated neurons, motor neurons, and effector neurons.

Important Points

  • The reflex arc comprises at least one afferent or sensory neuron and one efferent or motor neuron.
  • These neurons are appropriately arranged in a series.
  • Receptors are the muscle spindles or the sensory organs.
  • The receptor receives signals from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse via sensory neuron into the relay neuron of spinal cord.
  • The motor neuron carries signals from the CNS to the effector.
  • So, in a reflex action the reflex arc is formed by:

Receptor - Sensory neuron - Relay neuron in spinal cord - Motor neuron - Effector

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
View full paper

Question 920

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which one of the following is essential for thyroid gland to make thyroxin? 

  1. AOption (a)

    NaCl

  2. BOption (b)

    KCl

  3. COption (c)

    Cholesterol

  4. DOption (d)

    Iodine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Iodine

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Endocrine glands are the ductless glands that secrete hormones.
  • The human endocrine system consists of a number of endocrine glands such as the hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, pancreas, etc.
  • These glands secrete the hormones into the blood, from where they are transported to the target organs or tissues.

Important Points

  • The thyroid gland consists of 2 lobes, located on either side of the trachea.
  • It consists of some follicular cells, which are responsible for the synthesis of 2 hormones:
  • Tetraiodothyronine (T4) - It is also known as thyroxine.
  • Triiodothyronine (T3)
  • As the name suggests, iodine is an important component of thyroxine and is required for normal biosynthesis of T3 and T4.
  • Deficiency of iodine in the diet leads to a condition called hypothyroidism.
  • This is often accompanied by goitre, where the thyroid glands enlarge.
  • Hypothyroidism during pregnancy may cause several developmental defects in the foetus:
  • stunted growth or cretinism
  • mental retardation
  • low intelligence quotient
  • abnormal skin
  • deaf-mutism

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

How should I prepare for English Comprehension in Combined Defence Services (CDS)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.