Combined Defence Services (CDS) · Topic Collection

English Comprehension PYQs

Reading comprehension, vocabulary, synonyms and antonyms, idiom usage, error spotting, sentence improvement, and cloze tests.

4560 Total Questions38 Official PapersYears: 2016–2025Search in English Comprehension
Showing questions 881–900 of 4560Page 45 of 100
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 881

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

In which one of the following revolts did the Koya and Konda tribal chiefs rise against the local overlord from a Mansabdar family? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The Rampa Rebellion, 1879-1880 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Gudem Uprising, 1886 

  3. COption (c)

    The Rampa Rebellion, 1922-1924 

  4. DOption (d)

    The Telangana Armed Struggle, 1946-1951 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Rampa Rebellion, 1879-1880 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Rampa Rebellion, 1879-1880.

Key Points

  • The rebellion in which the Koya and Konda tribal chiefs rose up against the local overlord of the prominent Mansabdar family is known as the Rampa Rebellion (1879-1880).
  • The Rampa Rebellion took place in the Rampa region of Andhra Pradesh, India in the early 18th century.
  • Tribal chiefs, mainly from the Koya and Konda tribes, rebelled against the oppressive rule of the local zamindar (landlord), who belonged to the mansabdar family.
  • This rebellion was one of the many regional rebellions against feudal exploitation during that period.

Additional Information

  • The Gudem rebellion, also known as the Gudem Ryotu Kuli Sangham, was a tribal peasant rebellion that occurred in 1886 in the Gudem hills of Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. This rebellion was an important tribal movement against the British colonial administration and local landlords.
  • The Telangana armed struggle (1946–1951) was an important chapter in the history of the Indian independence movement and involved violent resistance against feudal landlords and the ruling Nizam of Hyderabad in the region of Telangana (now part of the Indian state of Telangana). ,
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 882

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which country won the FIFA World Cup (Men) for maximum number of times ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Argentina

  2. BOption (b)

    Brazil

  3. COption (c)

    France

  4. DOption (d)

    Spain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Brazil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

  • Brazil has won the FIFA World Cup the most number of times.
  • Brazil has won this title 5 times.
  • Brazil won its first title in 1958.
  • Italy is the most successful team in FIFA after Brazil.
  • Italy won 4 titles.

Additional Information

  • The 2022 FIFA World Cup: 
  • It took place in Qatar.
  • It was the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world.
  • The tournament was won by Argentina.
  • International Federation of Association Football​ (FIFA):
  • Founded: 1904
  • Headquarters: Zurich, Switzerland
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 883

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Who among the following is the author of  the famous novel, City of Joy ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Larry Collins

  2. BOption (b)

    Dominique Lapierre

  3. COption (c)

    Rudyard Kipling  

  4. DOption (d)

    Mark Tully  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dominique Lapierre

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dominique Lapierre.

Key Points

  • The famous novel "City of Joy" was written by Dominique Lapierre.
  • The book was first published in 1985 and is set in the slums of Kolkata (formerly Calcutta), India.
  • It was adapted as a film by Roland Joffé in 1992.
  • Calcutta has been nicknamed the "City of Joy" after this novel, although the slum was based on an area in its twin city, Howrah.

Additional Information

Some of the important books:

Book NameAuthor
Tomb of SandGeetanjali Shree
AdamS. Hareesh
Asoca: A SutraIrwin Allan Sealy
Platform Scale: For a Post-Pandemic WorldSangeet Paul Choudhary
A House for Mr. BiswasV.S. Naipaul
A Bunch of Old LettersJawaharlal Nehru
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 884

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Who among the following is honoured with the UN Environment Programme’s 2022 Champions of the Earth Award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ela Bhatt 

  2. BOption (b)

    Amit Dasgupta 

  3. COption (c)

    Purnima Devi Barman 

  4. DOption (d)

    Vanshika Parmar  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Purnima Devi Barman 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Purnima Devi Barman.

Key Points

  • UN Environment Programme's 2022 Champions of the Earth Award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category was presented to Dr. Purnima Devi Burman.
  • She is a wildlife biologist and the leader of the "Hargila Army", a women-led conservation movement dedicated to saving the Greater Adjutant Stork from extinction in Assam, India.
  • Dr. Burman's innovative approach combines ecological restoration with income generation for local communities, demonstrating a sustainable and community-driven model for environmental conservation.

Additional Information

  • Ela Bhatt was the founder of the Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA), a trade union representing self-employed female textile workers in India. His successful leadership of SEWA brought him national and international recognition.
  • Amit Dasgupta was appointed as an Honorary Member in the General Division of the Order of Australia (AM) for his service to Australia-India bilateral relations.
  • Vanshika Parmar is a resident of Nadaun, Hamirpur and is the first girl from the state to become Miss Earth India 2022 at the age of 19.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 885

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

The theme of India’s G20 Presidency 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’ or ‘One Earth-One Family-One Future’ is drawn from the  

  1. AOption (a)

    Maha Purana 

  2. BOption (b)

    Maha Upanishad 

  3. COption (c)

    Rig Veda 

  4. DOption (d)

    Smriti

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maha Upanishad 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maha Upanishad.

Key Points

  • The theme of India's G20 presidency—"Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" or "One Earth, One Family, One Future"—is taken from the ancient Sanskrit text of the Maha Upanishad.
  • Guest countries- India has invited Bangladesh, Egypt, Mauritius, the Netherlands, Nigeria, Oman, Singapore, Spain and UAE as guest countries during its G20 presidency.

Additional Information

  • The G20 or Group of Twenty is an intergovernmental forum that includes 19 countries and the European Union (EU).
  • The G20 was established in 1999 in response to several world economic crises.

List of G20 Summits

G-20 SummitsG20 Host Countries
15thSaudi Arabia
16thItaly
17thIndonesia
18thIndia
19thBrazil
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 886

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

The 16th edition of Indo-Nepal annual joint training exercise in jungle warfare and counterterrorism operations was held in December 2022 at Nepal Army Battle School, Saljhandi. What is the name of this exercise?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sampriti

  2. BOption (b)

    Mitra Shakti 

  3. COption (c)

    Yudh Abhyas 

  4. DOption (d)

    Surya Kiran 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Surya Kiran 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Surya Kiran.

Key Points

  • The 16th edition of the India-Nepal joint training exercise “Surya Kiran-XVI” between India and Nepal will be conducted from 16 to 29 December 2022 at Nepal Army Battle School, Saljhandi (Nepal).
  • India and Nepal aim to enhance interoperability in jungle warfare and counter-terrorism operations and HADR in mountainous areas under the UN mandate.

Additional Information

Some of the important Indian bilateral army exercises are as below:

Exercise NameParticipant Nations
SampritiIndia & Bangladesh
Mitra ShaktiIndia & Sri Lanka
Maitree ExerciseIndia & Thailand
Vajra PraharIndia & US
Yudh AbhyasIndia & US
Nomadic ElephantIndia & Mongolia
Garuda ShaktiIndia & Indonesia
Shakti ExerciseIndia & France
Dharma GuardianIndia & Japan
Surya KiranIndia & Nepal
Hand-in-Hand ExerciseIndia & China
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 887

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

If it is 10:00 a.m. at Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), then what will be the time at 90° E longitude? 

  1. AOption (a)

    5:00 a.m. 

  2. BOption (b)

    4:00 a.m. 

  3. COption (c)

    3:00 p.m.  

  4. DOption (d)

    4:00 p.m.  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4:00 p.m.  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4:00 p.m. 

Important Points

Longitudes are imaginary lines circling the globe, used to measure time, with the Prime Meridian (0° longitude) standardized as Greenwich Mean Time (GMT or UTC). The Earth is revolving 360 degrees each day (24 hours). That means in one hour, the Earth revolves by 15 degrees.

  • If it is 10:00 a.m. at Greenwich Mean Time (0°), the time at any other longitude can be calculated by taking into account these 15 degrees per hour.

Therefore, at 90° E longitude, being East, it would be ahead of Greenwich time.

  • 90°/15° = 6 hours

Hence, the time at 90° E longitude would be 10:00 a.m. GMT + 6 hours = 4:00 p.m.

So the correct option is: 4:00 p.m.

CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 888

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which of the following groups of planets is termed as ‘gas planets’ as they are composed primarily of lighter ices, liquids and gases? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mars, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus 

  2. BOption (b)

    Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn 

  3. COption (c)

    Saturn, Mars, Jupiter, Neptune 

  4. DOption (d)

    Neptune, Saturn, Mars, Uranus 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn.

Key Points

  • The gas giants of our solar system are Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
  • These four large planets, also called jovian planets after Jupiter, reside in the outer part of the solar system past the orbits of Mars and the asteroid belt.

Additional Information

  • Terrestrial Planets (Inner Planets):
  • Mars: Often called the "Red Planet," Mars has a thin atmosphere and surface features like valleys, canyons, and polar ice caps.
  • Earth: The only known planet to support life, Earth has a diverse environment with oceans, continents, and a life-sustaining atmosphere.
  • Venus: Similar in size and composition to Earth, Venus has a thick atmosphere, mostly composed of carbon dioxide.
  • Mercury: The closest planet to the Sun, Mercury is a small, rocky planet with a thin atmosphere.
  • There is a category of celestial objects known as "dwarf planets."
  • Pluto, formerly considered the ninth planet, was reclassified as a dwarf planet by the International Astronomical Union (IAU) in 2006.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 889

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Consider the following characteristics of a soil type :

  1. These soils consist of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
  2. These soils contain adequate proportions of potash, phosphoric acid and lime.
  3. These soils can be further classified on the basis of their age.

Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics.

  1. AOption (a)

    Alluvial

  2. BOption (b)

    Laterite

  3. COption (c)

    Arid

  4. DOption (d)

    Black

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alluvial

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alluvial.

Key Points

  • The characteristics described correspond more to alluvial soils.
  • It is formed by the accumulation of sediment carried by rivers and streams. These generally contain a mixture of sand, silt and clay.
  • It contains considerable amounts of potash, phosphoric acid and lime. Alluvial soils are often fertile due to the minerals deposited by running water.
  • Alluvial soils can be classified based on their age and the processes that led to their formation. 
  • Two different types of alluvial soils develop in the upper and middle Gangetic plains.
  • They are Khadar and Bhangar.
  • Khadar is new alluvium and is deposited annually by floods, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silt.
  • Bhangar represents a system of old alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains.

Additional Information

  • Laterite Soil:
  • Composition: Rich in iron and aluminum oxides.
  • Texture: Variable texture.
  • Properties: Poor fertility, may harden when dry.
  • Arid soils are associated with dry regions.
  • These soils have unique characteristics influenced by the arid climate.
  • Characteristics of Arid soils are - Low Organic Content, High Mineral Content, Low Fertility, High Salinity, Coarse Texture, Poor Water-Holding Capacity.
  • Black Soil (Regur Soil):
  • Composition: Rich in clay, with a dark color.
  • Texture: Heavy and sticky when wet.
  • Properties: Highly fertile, good for agriculture.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 890

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Consider the following statement and identify the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. In a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal or Natural gas are used to generate electricity,
  2. Fuels are burned to heat water and turn it into steam, which goes through a turbine, which spins and turns, generating electricity.
  1. AOption (a)

    Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct  

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is not correct 

  3. COption (c)

    Both the statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both the statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Statement 1

  • It states that in a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal, or natural gas are used to generate electricity.
  • This is accurate because thermal power stations primarily rely on the combustion of fossil fuels to produce heat energy.

Statement 2

  • It explains the process of electricity generation in a thermal power station.
  • It mentions that fuels are burned to heat water and convert it into steam.
  • The steam then passes through a turbine, which spins and generates electricity.
  • This explanation corresponds to the basic principle of a thermal power station, where the heat energy from burning fuels is utilized to produce steam, which in turn drives a turbine to generate electricity.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and statement 2 provides an accurate explanation for statement

  1. The correct answer is option (3)
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 891

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Indus river basin is extended up to  

  1. AOption (a)

    Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana 

  3. COption (c)

    Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan 

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The Indus river basin is one of the largest river basins in the world and covers an area of around 1.16 million square kilometers.
  • The basin is mainly located in Pakistan and India, with parts of it also extending to China and Afghanistan.
  • In India, the basin covers the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
  • The Indus river, which is the main river in the basin, originates in Tibet and flows through India and Pakistan before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
  • The basin is home to a large population and is an important agricultural and industrial region in both India and Pakistan.

​

CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 892

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which one of the following statements about the Solicitor General of India (SGI) is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The SGI is not the Government's chief legal advisor.

  2. BOption (b)

    The SGI is the secondary law officer of the country.  

  3. COption (c)

    The post of the SGI is a constitutional post.  

  4. DOption (d)

    The SGI is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The post of the SGI is a constitutional post.  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is the second-highest ranking law officer in the country, subordinate only to the Attorney General.
  • Assists the Attorney General in representing the Union of India in all legal matters before the Supreme Court and other courts.
  • Acts independently on assigned cases and provides legal advice to the government on various issues.
  • The SGI is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
  • The post of the SGI is not a constitutional post. Hence, option 3 is correct answer.

Additional Information

​​Responsibilities:

  • Arguing cases on behalf of the Union of India in the Supreme Court and other high courts.
  • Advising the government on legal matters related to legislation, policy, and international agreements.
  • Drafting legal documents and opinions.
  • Supervising Additional Solicitor Generals and other law officers.

Appointment and Tenure:

  • Appointed by the President of India, on the recommendation of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
  • Term of office is three years, but can be reappointed with the approval of the ACC.
  • Current Solicitor General:
  • As of today, December 29, 2023, Tushar Mehta is the Solicitor General of India. He was first appointed in 2017 and reappointed in 2020.

Mistake Points

  • Statement 1 given in the question was wrong, Attorney-General of India is the Government's chief legal advisor. Hence we have modified that statement.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 893

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The Public Accounts Committee  

  2. BOption (b)

    The Committee on Public Undertakings

  3. COption (c)

    The Estimates Committee 

  4. DOption (d)

    The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Estimates Committee 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Estimates Committee.

Key Points

  • The Estimates Committee has 30 members and all these members are from Lok Sabha(Lower House).
  • There is no representation from the Rajya Sabha (Upper House).
  • It is constituted to scrutinize the functioning of Government Ministries and departments in terms of allocation of Funds.
  • All the recommendations made by the committee are advisory and stand non-binding for the Parliament.
  • Public Accounts Committee is formed every year with not more than 22 members.
  • Out of 22 members, 15 members are from Lok Sabha and 7 members are from Rajya Sabha.
  • None of the members of this committee are allowed to be ministers in the Government.
  • The chairperson of this committee is appointed by Lok Sabha Speaker.
  • Committee on Public Undertakings also consists of 22 members from both houses of the Parliament.
  • 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
  • It is constituted by the Parliament of India to examine the reports and accounts of the Public Sector Undertakings.
  • Departmentally Related Standing Committee (DRSC) on Finance consists of 31 members.
  • Out of these 21 are from Lok Sabha and not more than 10 from Rajya Sabha.
  • The Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members – 20 elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members according to the system of proportional representation using the single transferable vote and 10 elected by the Rajya Sabha from among its members.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 894

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which one of the following statements about the election of the President of India is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The President is elected by the elected members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.

  3. COption (c)

    The Electoral College does not include elected members of the Legislative Councils.

  4. DOption (d)

    The system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote is followed.  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President. 

Why this answer is correct

Explanation

  • The President of India is the ceremonial head of state of the Republic of India.
  • Acts as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
  • Plays an integral role in the law-making process as bills passed by the Parliament become law only after receiving the President's assent.
  • Holds certain discretionary powers to be used during unforeseen circumstances, such as returning a bill for reconsideration or imposing President's rule in a state.

Eligibility Criteria:

  • Citizenship: Must be a citizen of India.
  • Age: Must be 35 years of age or older.
  • Mental State: Must be of sound mind and not be insolvent or bankrupt.
  • Office of Profit: Should not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the government of any state or under any local or other authority.
  • Residency: Must have been a resident of India for at least 14 years (however, this is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, but it's inferred from the requirement that the President should not be a non-resident Indian).
  • No Criminal Record: Ideally should not have any criminal records. Though it's not a constitutional requirement, it is generally understood that the person should be of high moral character.

The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both houses of Parliament, as well as the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories. The tenure of the President is 5 years, but they can be re-elected for subsequent terms.

CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 895

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after

  1. AOption (a)

    26th January, 1950

  2. BOption (b)

    26th November, 1949

  3. COption (c)

    15th August, 1947

  4. DOption (d)

    14th August, 1947

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

26th January, 1950

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 26th January, 1950.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship for the whole of India.
  • The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with matters relating to acquisition, determination, and termination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
  • Every person who was at the commencement of the Constitution (26 January 1950) domiciled in the territory of India, and
  • who was born in India
  • Either of whose parents were born in India
  • Who has been ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years, became a citizen of India.

Additional Information

  • ​The date 26 November 1949 has great historical significance for India as it marks the adoption of the Constitution of India.
  • On this day, the Constituent Assembly of India formally adopted the Constitution, which came into force on January 26, 1950, replacing the Government of India Act (1935) as the governing document of India.
  • 15 August 1947 is an important date in the history of India because it is the day when India got independence from British rule.
  • On 14 August 1947, Pakistan came into existence as a separate nation, marking the end of British rule in the Indian subcontinent.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 896

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

According to the National Multi dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog, a household is considered deprived if 

1. a single member of the household is identified as under-nourished 2. the body mass index of a woman member, between 15 years and 49 years of age, is below 18.5 kg/m2

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2 

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • According to the National Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog:
  • A woman (15 to 49 years) or a man (15 to 54 years) is

considered undernourished if their Body Mass Index (BMI) is below 18.5 kg/m2.

  • It is to be noted that even if a single member of the

household is identified as undernourished, the entire

household is treated as deprived of nutrition. 

  • This is owing to two primary reasons:
  • the unit of analysis is the household, and
  • the indicator for nutrition operates within the implicit principle of shared positive or negative externality, wherein the debilitating effects of undernourishment on one household member will have a direct or indirect effect on other members of the same household.

Important Points

  • Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is published annually by the UN Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 897

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

The titles of ‘Rayagajakesari’ and ‘Dayagajakesari’ were associated with which one of the following dynasties? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Kakatiya

  2. BOption (b)

    Vijayanagara

  3. COption (c)

    Gajapati

  4. DOption (d)

    Rashtrakuta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kakatiya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kakatiya

Key Points

Rayagajakesari and Dayagajakesari are titles of the Kakatiya dynasty. The title Daya Gaja Kesari was given to the first Kakatiya king Prataparudra. In the Kakatiya dynasty coins were inscribed with this title. Raya-gaja-kesari title belongs to Rudrama Devi, she inherited this title from her father.

CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 898

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Name the location of the musical inscription containing groups of musical notes arranged for the benefit of his pupils by a king in the seventh or eighth century CE.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ennayiram

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttaramerur

  3. COption (c)

    Siyyamangalam

  4. DOption (d)

    Kudumiyamalai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kudumiyamalai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kudumiyamalai.

Key Points

  • Kudumiyamalai was a musical inscription containing groups of musical notes arranged for the benefit of his pupils by a king in the seventh or eighth century CE.
  • The Pallava inscription at Kudumiyaan Malai mentions Rudracharya, a great musician.
  • ​The inscriptions were written on the rocks of the cave temple.
  • It is a famous musical inscription as it gives musical notes in seven classical ragas.

Additional Information

  • Ennayiram
  • The Chola kings took great interest in establishing educational institutions around the temples.
  • The Ennairam inscription provides important details about the colleges that existed at these places.
  • Apart from Vedas and epics, subjects like mathematics and medicine were also taught in these institutions.
  • Uttaramerur 
  • ​The Uttarmerur Inscription is a 1,100-year-old inscription from Tamil Nadu, made during the reign of the Chola king Parantaka I, which describes the processes of village self-governance.
  • Siyyamangalam
  • Siyamangalam is a small village in Vandavasi taluk of Tiruvannamalai, Tamil Nadu.
  • It is believed that the famous Buddhist master and philosopher Dignagar (6th century CE) was born in Siyamangalam.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 899

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

In the context of eighteenth century India, what was 'Dastak’ ?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Signature

  2. BOption (b)

    Land document 

  3. COption (c)

    Trade permit 

  4. DOption (d)

    Tax on textiles 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Trade permit 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Trade permit.

Key Points

  • Dastak was a trade permit mostly issued to European traders by East India Company officials.
  • The Mughal emperor Farrukh Siyar Farman decreed in 1717 and allowed the East India Company to enter the kingdom.
  • In the mid-18th century, the British East India Company enjoyed and abused the benefits of dastak (free duty-free passes).
  • These passes are preventing the East India Company from paying taxes during trade, due to which the local traders of Bengal have suffered losses.
  • In 1757, Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-Daula snatched these rights which ultimately resulted in the Battle of Plassey.

Additional Information

  • The Portuguese (1498) were the first company that came to India with Vasco da Gama, who discovered the sea route to India through the Cape of Good Hope (Africa).
  • The Dutch East India Company came in 1595.
  • The British East India Company came to India in 1600.
  • The Danish East India Company came to India in 1616.
  • The French East India Company was the last company to come to India in 1664.
CDS General Knowledge 16 April 2023 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 900

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2023• English• English

Which one of the following was primarily associated with ‘Dadni’ system? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Textile production 

  2. BOption (b)

    Warfare

  3. COption (c)

    Payment to officials 

  4. DOption (d)

    Revenue collection 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Textile production 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Textile production.

Key Points

  • The 'Dadni' system was mainly related to textile production.
  • The Mughal Empire saw significant growth in trade and commerce, and the Dadni system was one of the methods by which credit was provided to merchants and artisans.
  • This system allowed money to be advanced to artisans, who would then produce goods for merchants, with the borrowed money being placed on ships sailing to a particular destination as material.

Additional Information

  • Kamiyati system:
  • Under this system prevalent in Bihar and Orissa, people of the Kamiya caste, who used to farm as serfs, served their masters for the rest of their lives in exchange for the amount of interest paid on the loans received.
  • Tinkathia tradition:
  • In this practice prevalent in the Champaran (Bihar) region, farmers had to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of the land as per contracts with the English planters.
  • Hali system:
  • Under this practice prevalent in the western region of India, mainly Surat (Gujarat), Hali zamindars considered their owners as protectors of their property and themselves.
  • Girmitiya system:
  • In this practice, which started in the third decade of the 19th century, Indian workers had to work abroad for 5 or 7 years under an agreement.
  • This agreement was called Girmit and this practice was called Girmitiya system.

How should I prepare for English Comprehension in Combined Defence Services (CDS)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.