English Comprehension PYQs

The correct answer is Cashewnut and Magnolia.

Key Points

• The temperate floral zone of the Himalayas is characterized by diverse vegetation that varies with altitude and climatic conditions.
• Each set of trees mentioned in the options represents different plant species found in this zone.
• Cashewnut and Magnolia (Option 1):
• Cashewnut (Anacardium occidentale): Typically found in tropical regions and not native to the temperate floral zone of the Himalayas.
• Magnolia: While magnolias are found in temperate regions, they are not exclusive to the Himalayan temperate zone.
• Oak and Maple (Option 2):
• Oak (Quercus): Various species of oaks are common in the temperate forests of the Himalayas.
• Maple: Maples are also part of the temperate forest vegetation in the Himalayas.
• Rhododendrons (Option 3):
• Rhododendrons: These are characteristic flowering shrubs and trees found abundantly in the temperate zones of the Himalayas.
• Birch and Laurels (Option 4):
• Birch (Betula): Various species of birch are native to the temperate zones of the Himalayas.
• Laurels: Laurel trees, representing evergreen and aromatic trees, are part of the Himalayan temperate zone.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• Plantation agriculture refers to a type of commercial farming where crops are grown for sale, usually in large estates or plantations.
• It involves the cultivation of a single crop on a large scale.
• Characteristics:
• Scientific Management: Plantation farm estates are scientifically managed with a focus on maximizing yields and profits.
• Heavy Capital Outlay: Plantation farming requires a substantial capital investment for land, machinery, labor, and inputs.
• Foreign Ownership and Local Labor: Historically, many plantation farm lands had foreign ownership, while local labor was employed for cultivation.
• Types of Plantation Crops:
• Tea Plantations: Found in regions like India (Assam, Darjeeling), China, Kenya, and Sri Lanka.
• Coffee Plantations: Common in countries like Brazil, Colombia, Ethiopia, and Vietnam.
• Rubber Plantations: Mainly in countries like Malaysia, Thailand, Indonesia, and India.
• Banana Plantations: Cultivated in tropical regions like Ecuador, Philippines, and Costa Rica.
• Sugar Plantations: Historic examples include sugarcane plantations in the Caribbean and Americas.
• Global Plantation Names:
• Haciendas: In Latin America, particularly associated with coffee and sugar plantations.
• Sisal Plantations: Known for sisal fiber production, found in countries like Tanzania and Brazil.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• Shifting cultivation, also known as swidden agriculture or slash-and-burn agriculture.
• It is an agricultural practice where land is cleared and cultivated for a short period, and then abandoned for several years to allow the natural vegetation to regenerate.
• This cycle is repeated on different plots of land.
• The practice is often used by indigenous communities and in areas with nutrient-poor soils.
• Different names of Shifting Cultivation in different parts of the world is given below:
• | Shifting Cultivation | Country | | --- | --- | | Ray | Vietnam | | Tavi | Madagascar | | Fang | Equatorial African Countries | | Comile | Mexico | | Milpa | Yucatan and Guatemala | | Echalin | Guadeloupe | | Konuko | Venezuela | | Chetemini | Uganda, Zambia and Zimbabwe | | Chena | Sri Lanka |

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Isampur:
• Isampur is indeed known as a prehistoric archaeological site.
• It is located in Gulbarga district of karnataka along a small stream known as Kamta Halla.
• So statement I is correct.
• Paleolithic Blade:
• A Paleolithic blade is a flake tool that is longer than it is wide, typically more than twice its width.
• Blades were an important technological advancement in Paleolithic tool industries, providing more cutting edge per unit of raw material compared to traditional flakes.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The Katapayadi System of Numerals:
• The Katapayadi system is a unique way of representing numbers using the Sanskrit alphabet.
• Each numeral is associated with a specific consonant in the Katapayadi sequence.
• This system was indeed invented by Vararuchi of Kerala, who is also known for his work "Chandra Vakyas."
• The Katapayadi system was used for various calculations, including determining the position of celestial bodies like the Moon on any given day of the year.
• Achyuta Pisharati did write "Uparagakriyakrama," a text on eclipses.
• Ravi Varma of Mahodayapuram and the Observatory:
• ​Ravi Varma, associated with Mahodayapuram, is credited with setting up an observatory.
• Additionally, he is said to have inaugurated the Kollam era, which is a regional calendar system.
• Observatories during medieval times were crucial for astronomical observations, aiding in the understanding of celestial events and timekeeping.

Additional Information

• Achyuta Pisharodi (c. 1550 – 7 July 1621) was a versatile scholar from Kerala, India, associated with Madhava of Sangamagrama's Kerala school of astronomy and mathematics. His contributions include:
• Narayaneeyam Collaboration:
• Notably remembered for his involvement in the composition of his student Melpathur Narayana Bhattathiri's devotional poem, Narayaneeyam.
• Astrological and Astronomical Works:
• Authored several key works such as Sphuta-nirnaya, Raasi-gola-sphutaneeti, Karanottama (1593), Uparagakriyakrama (a four-chapter treatise on lunar and solar eclipses), Chāyāṣṭaka, Uparāgaviṃśati, and Rāśigolasphuṭānīti.
• Sanskrit Grammar:
• Contributed to Sanskrit grammar with his work Praveśaka, serving as an introduction to the subject.
• Astronomical Computation:
• His work Karaṇottama dealt with the computation of the mean and true longitudes of planets, eclipses, and vyatūpātas of the sun and moon.
• Commentary and Adaptations:
• Provided a Malayalam commentary on the Veṇvāroha of Mādhava of Saṅgamagrāma, known as Veṇvārohavyākhyā.
• Additionally, he adapted the Jātakapaddhati of Śrīpati in his work Horāsāroccaya.

The correct answer is 3.

 Key Points

• The Pallavas of Tondaimandalam were the dynasty in South India that issued their documents first in Prakrit and later in Sanskrit.
• Pallavas of Tondaimandalam:
• Language Usage:
• The Pallavas initially used Prakrit, an ancient Indian language, for issuing their documents.
• Over time, they transitioned to Sanskrit, a classical language, for the composition of inscriptions and official documents.
• Cultural Contributions:
• The Pallavas were known for their significant contributions to South Indian art and culture, including architecture, sculpture, and literature.
• Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram) is a famous example of Pallava architecture and rock-cut temples.
• Inscriptions and Documents:
• The Pallavas issued inscriptions and documents to record their achievements, grants, and royal proclamations.
• The shift from Prakrit to Sanskrit in their inscriptions reflects changes in the linguistic and cultural preferences of the ruling elite.
• Dynastic Period:
• The Pallava dynasty ruled in the region of Tondaimandalam, which corresponds to present-day Tamil Nadu and parts of Andhra Pradesh.
• Their rule is generally divided into three eras: Early Pallavas, Middle Pallavas, and Later Pallavas.

Additional Information

• The Cholas of Tamil Nadu:
• While The Chola dynasty, another powerful dynasty in South India, primarily used Tamil for their inscriptions and documents.
• They were known for their naval prowess, extensive trade networks, and patronage of art and literature.
• The Cholas had a significant impact on the political and cultural landscape of Tamil Nadu.
• The Pandyas of the Post-Sangam Age:
• The Pandyas, like the Cholas, were part of the ancient Tamil dynasties in South India.
• During the Sangam period, the Pandyas were known for their patronage of Sangam literature, and their inscriptions and documents were likely in Tamil.
• The Gangas of Kalinganagara:
• The Eastern Ganga dynasty ruled over Kalinga (present-day Odisha) and parts of Andhra Pradesh.
• They were known for their contributions to art, especially in the construction of temples, and were patrons of literature.
• The Eastern Ganga inscriptions were generally in Sanskrit, reflecting their cultural and linguistic preferences.

The correct answer is Baladitya

Key Points

• An inscription found in Gwalior, detailing the achievements and genealogy of Mihira Bhoja.
• A significant ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, known for his military successes and contributions to the empire.
• The Gwalior Prashasti was authored by Baladitya, a court poet.
• The inscription highlights the accomplishments and victories of Mihira Bhoja, glorifying his reign and contributions.
• This prashasti serves as a historical record, providing valuable insights into the era and the ruler's legacy.

Additional Information

Some notable rulers of Gurjara -Pratihara Dynasty -

• Nagabhata I (730 – 760 AD):
• Founded the Pratihara dynasty and resisted Arab invasions successfully.
• Established an empire from Gujarat to Gwalior.
• Fought against Rashtrakuta ruler Dantidurga but was later succeeded by his brother's sons, Kakkuka and Devaraja.
• Vatsaraja (780 – 800 AD):
• Son of Devaraja, expanded control over north India and made Ujjain his capital.
• Captured Kanauj but faced conflicts with Pala and Rashtrakuta rulers.
• Defeated Dharmapala but later lost Kannauj to Dhruva.
• Nagabhata II (800 – 833 AD):
• Revived the empire's prestige by conquering Sindh, Andhra, Vidarbha.
• Defeated Rashtrakutas, expanded the empire, and rebuilt the Somnath temple in Gujarat.
• Mihir Bhoja (836 – 885 AD):
• Grandson of Nagabhata II, ruled for 46 years.
• Reorganized and consolidated the empire, known for his Vaishnavism.
• Recognized by Arabs as "King Baura," ruled from Kannauj.

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

The Sahajiya Cult, which can be traced back to the 10^th and 11^th centuries, is usually associated with Early Bhakti Traditions. 

• Here's a detailed explanation of the Sahajiya Cult:
• Origin and Timeframe:
• The Sahajiya movement originated in medieval India, particularly in Bengal, during the 10^th and 11^th centuries.
• The term "Sahajiya" can be translated to mean "those who follow the easy path" or "practitioners of the spontaneous way."
• Association with Bhakti Traditions:
• The Sahajiya cult is closely associated with the Bhakti movement, which emphasized devotion (bhakti) to a personal god or goddess, often in a more emotional and personalized manner.
• Bhakti saints like Chaitanya Mahaprabhu and his followers played a significant role in popularizing the Sahajiya philosophy.
• Philosophical Perspective:
• The Sahajiya philosophy focused on the idea of experiencing a direct and intimate connection with the divine through spontaneous and emotional devotion.
• It rejected formal rituals and external practices in favor of a heartfelt and personal relationship with the deity.
• Role of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu:
• Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, a prominent saint of the Bhakti movement, is often considered a central figure in the Sahajiya tradition.
• His teachings emphasized the importance of chanting the holy names of God, especially the Hare Krishna mantra, as a means to attain spiritual realization.

The correct answer is Judicial Review.

Key Points

• The landmark Supreme Court judgment in the case Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) refers to Judicial Review.
• Supreme Court case Subhash Sharma v. U.O.I. (1991(1) Supp. SCC 594).
• This case involved a reconsideration of the interpretation of the word "consultation" concerning the appointment of judges, particularly questioning the interpretation laid down in the case S.P. Gupta v. U.O.I. (1982 SC 149).
• The court emphasizes that the word is used in the constitutional provision to acknowledge the status of the high constitutional dignitary involved in the appointment of judges.
• The court suggests that interpreting the term without considering its constitutional background and purpose would be akin to a narrow and literal interpretation that fails to capture the constitutional essence of the term.
• The judges in the Subhash Sharma case affirmed the significance of judicial review as an integral part of the basic constitutional structure and one of the basic features of the essential Indian constitutional policy.

The correct answer is 1 Only.

Key Points

• Reservation for SCs and STs:
• Provision: The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Panchayats is enshrined in the Constitution of India.
• Articles: The relevant articles for reservation are found in Part IX of the Constitution, which deals with Panchayats. Specifically, Article 243D deals with the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Panchayats.
• 2. Tax Collection:
• Provision: Panchayats are authorized to collect taxes, fees, and other revenue for the purpose of local governance and development activities.
• Articles: The relevant articles for the powers of taxation are also found in Part IX of the Constitution.
• Article 243H specifically empowers Panchayats to levy and collect taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.

Additional Information

• Part IX of the Constitution:
• The provisions related to Panchayats are outlined in Part IX of the Constitution, which was added by the 73^rd Amendment Act, 1992.
• Article 243A to 243O: These articles (from 243A to 243O) contain various provisions related to the composition, powers, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
• They cover aspects like the structure of Panchayats, their powers to impose taxes, conduct of elections, and reservation of seats.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• Mission Indradhanush, launched by the Government of India in 2014 aims to increase the full immunisation coverage for children.
• Launch Date: Mission Indradhanush was launched by the Government of India on December 25, 2014.
• Objective:
• The primary objective of Mission Indradhanush is to strengthen and re-energize the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) by reaching every child below the age of two years and pregnant women who have been left unvaccinated or are partially vaccinated against vaccine-preventable diseases.
• Key Features and Components:
• Intensive Immunization Drive: Mission Indradhanush involves conducting special immunization drives across the country to ensure that all children and pregnant women are immunized against seven vaccine-preventable diseases.
• Vaccines Covered: The mission aims to provide protection against seven life-threatening diseases, including diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles, and hepatitis B.
• High-Intensity Approach: The program focuses on high-intensity vaccination rounds in selected districts and urban areas to achieve a rapid increase in the immunization coverage.
• Convergence with Other Health Programs:
• The mission encourages convergence with other health programs to provide a comprehensive package of services.
• It aims to ensure that the immunization efforts are integrated with other healthcare initiatives.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• 103^rd Amendment Act, 2019-
• It introduces a 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society for admission to Central Government-run educational institutions and private educational institutions (except for minority educational institutions), and for employment in Central Government jobs.

Additional Information

• 104^th Amendment Act, 2020
• It extends reservation for ten years for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
• It also removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.
• 105^th Amendment Act, 2021
• It restors the power of State Governments to identify and specify Socially and Economically Backward Classes (SEBCs).
• 102^nd Amendment Act, 2018
• It inserted articles 338B, which deals with the structure, duties and powers of the National Commission for Backward Classes.
• It also added 342A which deals with the powers of the president to notify a particular caste as an SEBC and the power of Parliament to change the list.
• 101^st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016
• It introduced the Goods and Services Tax.
• GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as The Constitution (122^nd Amendment) Bill.
• Goods and Services Tax is a widespread indirect tax on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and services throughout India.

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

• Effects on Fundamental Rights:
• During a National Emergency, Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a national emergency on the Fundamental Rights.
• Article 358 deals with suspension of Rights guaranteed by Article 19.
• Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights except thode guaranteed by Article 20 and 21.
• Hence, Article 20 which gives protection in respect of conviction for offences and Article 21 which gives protection of life and personal liberty cannot be suspended.

Additional Information

• Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution:
• Types of Emergencies:
• National Emergency (Article 352): Declared when there is a threat to the security of India or a part thereof due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• State Emergency (Article 356): Imposed on a state if the President is satisfied that the government in the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
• Financial Emergency (Article 360): Declared when the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• Any question pertaining to the disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker plays a crucial role in matters related to the disqualification of members under the anti-defection law.
• Anti-Defection Law in India:
• The Anti-Defection Law is enshrined in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• It was added by the 52^nd Amendment Act of 1985 to address the issue of defections by legislators from one party to another, which was seen as a threat to the stability of governments.
• Key Provisions of the Anti-Defection Law:
• The law prohibits members of Parliament and state legislatures from defecting to another party after their election.
• It defines defection as voluntarily giving up the membership of a party or voting against the party's directives without prior permission.
• Members disqualified under the law lose their seats in the house.
• Decision-Making Authority:
• The decision regarding the disqualification of a member is typically made by the Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha or the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha.
• The decision can also be challenged in the court.
• Exceptions:
• The law provides for certain exceptions, such as if two-thirds of the members of a party decide to merge with another party, the defection is not recognized.
• A member is also not disqualified if they vote or abstain from voting according to the party's whip on a matter that does not affect the stability of the government.
• Role of the Speaker:
• The Speaker has the authority to make decisions on disqualification petitions filed by members or political parties.
• The Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review, and members can appeal to the courts if they feel aggrieved.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• Indian Maritime University (IMU):
• Establishment: The Indian Maritime University (IMU) was established through an Act of Parliament as a Central University.
• The Indian Maritime University Act, 2008, came into force on November 14, 2008.
• The primary purpose was to provide quality education and training in maritime-related disciplines.
• Headquarters: The headquarters of the Indian Maritime University is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• Objectives and Functions:
• IMU was not established primarily to support the Indian Navy. Instead, its objectives include extending the benefits of knowledge and skill for the development of individuals and society, with a focus on local, regional, and national development issues.
• The university aims to facilitate maritime studies, training, research, and other related activities.
• It provides a platform for maritime education and training at various levels, fostering the growth of the maritime sector in India.
• Campuses and Affiliated Institutes:
• IMU has multiple campuses across the country, including in Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Visakhapatnam, Cochin, and Kandla Port.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Abyssinian Plateau (Correct): Located in Africa, it's a tectonic plateau, also known as the Ethiopian Highlands.
• Patagonian Plateau (Incorrect): Patagonia is a region in South America, not Australia. The Patagonian Plateau is part of the Andes mountain system.
• Anatolian Plateau (Correct): Situated in Asia, it's a tectonic plateau in Turkey.
• Iberian Plateau (Incorrect): The Iberian Plateau is in Europe, primarily in Spain and Portugal, not North America.

Additional Information

• Plateau:
• A plateau is a flat or gently sloping elevated area that rises sharply above the surrounding land on at least one side.
• Plateaus can be extensive or limited in size, and they are characterized by their relatively high elevation.
• They often result from tectonic activity, erosion, or volcanic activity.
• Types of Plateaus:
• Dissected Plateaus: Characterized by deep valleys and gorges due to erosion.
• Volcanic Plateaus: Formed by volcanic activity, often displaying lava plateaus.
• Tectonic Plateaus: Result from uplifted tectonic plates.
• Some Plateaus Worldwide:
• Colorado Plateau (North America): Located in the western United States.
• Deccan Plateau (Asia): In India, a large volcanic plateau.
• Tibetan Plateau (Asia): Often referred to as the "Roof of the World," it's the world's highest plateau.
• Columbia Plateau (North America): In the U.S. Pacific Northwest.
• Brazilian Highlands (South America): Comprising plateaus in Brazil.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Isohypse represents lines connecting points of equal elevation or height on a map or a geographic area. Hence 4^th pair is incorrect.
• Various Isolines with their properties is given below:
• Isotherms: Connect points of equal temperature.
• Isobars: Join locations with the same atmospheric pressure.
• Isohyets: Represent areas receiving equal amounts of precipitation.
• Isohalines: Connect points with the same salinity level in bodies of water.
• Contour Lines: Illustrate constant elevation on a topographic map.
• Isonif: refers to lines connecting points with equal amounts of snowfall in a given region.
• Isohel: represents lines connecting points with an equal amount of sunshine or solar radiation in a specific geographic area.

The correct answer is 2, 4, 1, 3.

Key Points

• Nimbostratus (2): Clouds with a large vertical extent, often associated with continuous rain or snow.
• Altostratus (4): Mid-altitude clouds, found between 6,500 and 20,000 feet.
• Cirrocumulus (1): High-altitude clouds forming a layer.
• Cirrus (3): High-altitude clouds.
• The correct order from low to high is 2413.

Additional Information

• Clouds are visible collections of tiny water droplets or ice crystals suspended in the Earth's atmosphere.
• They form as a result of the condensation of water vapor into liquid or solid particles.
• Clouds play a crucial role in the Earth's climate system by influencing weather patterns and reflecting sunlight.
• Types of Clouds Based on Height:
• High-Level Clouds (Above 20,000 feet):
• Cirrus (Ci): Wispy, feathery clouds at high altitudes.
• Cirrostratus (Cs): Thin ice-crystal clouds covering the sky, often creating halos around the sun or moon.
• Cirrocumulus (Cc): Small, white patches of clouds often arranged in rows.
• Mid-Level Clouds (6,500 to 20,000 feet):
• Altostratus (As): Gray or blue-gray clouds covering the sky, often preceding storms with continuous rain or snow.
• Altocumulus (Ac): White or gray clouds, usually forming a layer.
• Low-Level Clouds (Up to 6,500 feet):
• Stratus (St): Uniform, gray clouds covering the sky, often bringing light precipitation.
• Stratocumulus (Sc): Low, lumpy clouds covering the sky.
• Clouds with Vertical Development:
• Cumulus (Cu): Fluffy, white clouds with flat bases, often associated with fair weather.
• Cumulonimbus (Cb): Towering clouds with anvil-shaped tops, capable of producing severe weather such as thunderstorms.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• Pink Revolution is associated with onion, shrimp, meat and poultry products. Hence, the statement 1 is true.
• The Yellow Revolution is associated with oilseed production. Hence, the statement 2 is true.
• The Black Revolution is associated with Biodiesel production. Hence, the statement 3 is true.
• Silver Revolution is related to Egg Production. Hence, the statement 4 is false.

Additional Information

• Some Agricultural revolutions with their production is given below -
• Protein Revolution:
• Type: Higher Production (Technology-driven 2^nd Green Revolution).
• Commodity: General agricultural production with a focus on protein-rich sources.
• Father: Coined by Narendra Modi and Arun Jaitley.
• Yellow Revolution:
• Type: Oilseed Production (Especially Mustard and Sunflower).
• Commodity: Mustard and Sunflower, Edible Oil Production.
• Father: Sam Pitroda.
• Blue Revolution:
• Type: Fish Production.
• Commodity: Fisheries, Aquaculture.
• Father: Dr. Arun Krishnan.
• Brown Revolution:
• Type: Leather, Cocoa, Non-Conventional Products.
• Commodity: Diversification in agricultural products.
• Golden Fiber Revolution:
• Type: Jute Production.
• Commodity: Jute, Fiber Industry.
• Golden Revolution:
• Type: Fruits, Honey Production, Horticulture Development.
• Commodity: Fruits, Honey, Horticultural Products.
• Leader: Nirpakh Tutej.
• Grey Revolution:
• Type: Fertilizers.
• Commodity: Fertilizer Production.
• Pink Revolution:
• Type: Meat and Onion Production.
• Commodity: Onions and Meat.
• Leader: Durgesh Patel.
• Silver Revolution:
• Type: Egg Production, Poultry Production.
• Commodity: Eggs, Poultry.
• Leader: Indira Gandhi (Mother of the Revolution).
• Silver Fiber Revolution:
• Type: Cotton.
• Commodity: Cotton, Textile Industry.
• Round Revolution:
• Type: Potato.
• Commodity: Potatoes.
• White Revolution:
• Type: Milk Production.
• Commodity: Dairy, Milk.
• Leader: Verghese Kurien.

The correct answer is 2. 

Key Points

• NHAI does not conduct training of Highway Engineers at entry level and in-service.
• IAHE is responsible for offering customized training courses for Highway Engineers and State PWD officers for State Highways, MDRs and Rural Roads. Hence, the option 2 is false.

Explanation:

• • The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) primarily focuses on developing, maintaining, and managing national highways.
• It is responsible for the planning and implementation of highway projects.
• The regulation and control of the plying of vehicles on highways, including traffic management and enforcement, are usually functions carried out by other authorities such as the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) and the respective state transport departments.
• NHAI's core functions involve infrastructure development, toll collection, and related activities rather than day-to-day traffic regulation.
• The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was established on June 15, 1989, through the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988.