English Comprehension PYQs

The correct answer is Panaji.

Key Points

• Among the listed state capitals, Panaji (capital of Goa) is closest to the equator.
• The Equator is an imaginary line that divides the Earth into the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere.
• The closer a place is to the equator, the more tropical its climate is. Panaji is located at approximately 15.5°N latitude, making it closest to the equator compared to the other listed cities:
• Hyderabad is around 17.4°N,
• Bhubaneswar is around 20.3°N,
• Mumbai is around 19.1°N
• Hence, among these options, Panaji is closest to the equator.

Additional Information

• There are about 13 equator countries that lie on the equator.
• It passes through countries like Ecuador, Brazil, Colombia, Sao Tome and Principe, the Republic of the Congo, Gabon, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Uganda, Somalia, Indonesia,  Maldives, and Kiribati.

The correct answer is Bhutan.

Key Points

• The phrase 'gross national happiness' was first coined in 1972 by the fourth king of Bhutan, King Jigme Singye Wangchuck.
• The concept implies that sustainable development should take a holistic approach to notions of progress and give equal importance to non-economic aspects of well-being.
• The Gross National Happiness Index: Bhutan sought to create a measurement tool that would be useful for policy-making and create policy incentives for the government of Bhutan, NGOs and businesses to increase GNH.

Additional Information

• The GNH measure has been designed to include nine core domains that are regarded as components of happiness in Bhutan and are constructed of indicators that are robust and informative with respect to each of the domains.
• The nine domains are:
• Psychological wellbeing.
• Health.
• Time use.
• Education.
• Cultural diversity and resilience.
• Good Governance.
• Community vitality.
• Ecological diversity and resilience.
• Living standard.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4.

Key Points

• Clouds form when the air is saturated or filled with water vapor. Warm air can hold more water vapor than cold air, so reducing the temperature of an air mass is like squeezing a sponge. Clouds are a direct result of that squeezing of cool, moist air.
• There are two major forms of clouds:
• stratiform
• cumuliform.
• Clouds are classified into high, medium and low clouds based on their height.
• Stratus, nimbostratus, and stratocumulus are low types of clouds, not high clouds.
• Clouds that have "nimbo" in their name (such as nimbostratus) or "nimbus" as a suffix (such as cumulonimbus) are those associated with precipitation.

The correct answer is Interest payments.

Key Points

• The primary deficit is calculated by subtracting interest payments from the fiscal deficit.
• It essentially indicates the borrowing requirements of a government, excluding interest paid on its existing debts.
• By focusing on the primary deficit, one can get an idea of the fiscal health of the government, independent of the interest burden due to its past borrowings.

Additional Information

• Fiscal policy is a government strategy that uses tax rates, government spending, and public debt to influence the overall direction of the economy. It is driven by two main components:
• Government Expenditure: It includes expenditure for public services, infrastructure development, public welfare, defence, etc.
• Taxation: The government collects taxes from individuals and businesses.
• Monetary policy is the process by which a central bank or monetary authority manages the money supply to achieve specific goals such as controlling inflation, maintaining exchange rate stability, and achieving high economic growth. This involves the management of interest rates and the total money supply:
• Open market operations: The central bank buys and sells government bonds to regulate the money supply.
• Discount rate: The interest rate charged by the central bank on loans given to commercial banks.
• Reserve requirements: The percentage of deposit liabilities that commercial banks must keep with the central bank.

The correct answer is 1, 3 and 4.

Key Points

• The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures overall changes in producer prices over time. It is a measure of inflation based on the prices of goods before they reach consumers.
• The convergence between the WPI and CPI indices was mainly driven by two factors.
• Firstly, the decline in WPI was due to moderation in the inflation of commodities like crude oil, iron, aluminum and cotton.
• Secondly, CPI inflation rose due to an increase in the prices of services.
• WPI-based inflation remained low during the COVID-19 period, and it started to gain momentum in the post-pandemic period as economic activities resumed.
• The Russia-Ukraine conflict further increased the burden as it disrupted the free movement of essential goods as well as global supply chains.
• As a result, the wholesale inflation rate increased to about 13.0 percent in FY22.

The correct answer is Money multiplier will decrease.

Key Points

• Money multiplier will reduce:
• The money multiplier effect depends on the fractional reserve banking system, where banks lend out a portion of the deposits they hold.
• If people start holding more currency in hand instead of in deposits, banks will have less money to lend, reducing the money multiplier effect.

Additional Information

• In monetary economics, the demand for money is the desired holding of financial assets in the form of money: that is, cash or bank deposits rather than investments. This may refer to money demand defined as M1 (directly spendable holdings) or money in the broader sense of M2 or M3.
• The nominal demand for money increases with the level of nominal output (price level times real output) and decreases with the nominal interest rate.
• The real demand for money is defined as the nominal amount of money divided by the price level.

The correct answer is Reduced unemployment.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index developed by NITI Aayog is based on the United Nations' 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
• The goals included are:
• N o Poverty
• Zero Hunger
• Good Health and Well-being
• Quality Education
• Gender Equality
• Clean Water and Sanitation
• Affordable and Clean Energy
• Decent Work and Economic Growth
• Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure
• Reduced Inequality
• Sustainable Cities and Communities
• Responsible Consumption and Production
• Climate Action
• Life Below Water
• Life On Land
• Peace and Justice Strong Institutions
• Partnerships to achieve the Goal

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• If the price of the good increases, producers are likely to supply more of it to take advantage of the higher prices. So, the market supply for the good will increase.
• If the price of its factors of production decreases, the cost of producing the good will decrease. This would make it more profitable for producers to supply more of the good, hence increasing the market supply.
• The price of other goods decreasing may or may not affect the market supply of the good.
• For example, if the price of a substitute good decreases, producers might shift their resources to produce more of that substitute good, potentially decreasing the supply of the original good.
• So, this statement is not universally true.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• While determining the poverty line in India, the minimum level of requirement of food, clothing, shoes, fuel and light, educational and medical requirements, etc. for subsistence is determined.
• Based on these calculations, for the year 2000, the poverty line for a person was fixed at Rs. 328 per month for the rural areas and Rs. 454 for the urban areas.
• It means a person living in rural areas and earning less than Rs. 328 per month will be below the poverty line. In the same way, a person living in urban areas and earning less than Rs. 454 per month will be below the poverty line.
• The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) recommends 2400 kcal per person per day for rural areas and 2100 kcal for urban areas.
• The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) uses a common minimum required calorie norm of 1800 kcal per person per day for both rural and urban populations.
• Despite low-calorie requirements, high prices for many essential products in urban centers have led to higher intakes for urban areas.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• Shivaji sent an ambassador to Bombay to negotiate with the British. He attempted to form alliances that could help him in his military campaigns.
• His main objective was to secure English assistance against the Siddis of Danda-Rajpuri. Shivaji sought English assistance to counter the threat posed by the Siddis of Danda-Rajpuri.
• Shivaji was interested in receiving military aid, including arms and ammunition, from the British.

Additional Information

• Shivaji I was an Indian ruler and a member of the Bhonsle Maratha dynasty.
• Shivaji carved out his independent kingdom from the declining Adilshahi Sultanate of Bijapur, giving rise to the Maratha Empire.
• In 1674, he was formally crowned Chhatrapati of his kingdom at Raigad Fort.

The correct answer is 113 years old.

Key Points

• The Hathigumpha inscription, preserved in a sinkhole near Bhubaneswar, Odisha, is a seventeen-line Prakrit inscription written in Brahmi script.
• This historical artifact was crafted by the Jain ruler Kharavela, who ruled the Kalinga region during the second and early years of the BCE era.​

Additional Information

• The Hathigumpha inscription serves as a comprehensive record, offering a detailed biography of a ruler from ancient India's eastern region.
• In addition to the ruler's life, it encapsulates various aspects such as religious principles, public infrastructure initiatives, military campaigns along with their objectives, and socio-cultural information.
• Palaeographically, the inscription spans from the middle of the 2^nd century BCE to the early 1^st century CE.
• This valuable historical document sheds light on the rich history, governance, and cultural landscape of the Kalinga domain during Kharavela's reign.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• In the late fifteenth century in Assam, Shankardeva emerged as a prominent Vaishnava Bhakti saint.
• His teachings, rooted in the Bhagavad Purana and Bhagavad Gita, are known as Bhagavati Dharma. Hence 1 is correct.
• Central to his philosophy was the concept of absolute surrender to the supreme deity, Vishnu.
• Shankardeva advocated the practice of Naam Kirtan, the recitation of the names of the Lord, particularly in Satsang or congregations of devout followers.
• Additionally, he actively promoted the establishment of Satras, monasteries designed for the transmission of spiritual knowledge, and Namghars, prayer halls for congregational worship. Hence 2 is correct.
• Among his notable literary contributions is the "Kirtana-Ghosha," a collection of devotional songs. Shankardeva's teachings and cultural contributions left a lasting impact on the religious and spiritual landscape of Assam. Hence 3 is correct.
• Establishment of Satras and Namghars:
• Satras: Shankardeva actively encouraged the establishment of Satras, which are monasteries or religious institutions.
• Namghars: He also promoted the creation of Namghars, which are prayer halls for the congregation of devotees.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Abdur Razzaq, a Persian ambassador in the 15^th century, praised the fortifications of Calicut (present-day Kozhikode).
• Seven lines of forts surrounded the city, covering both urban areas and the agricultural hinterland and forests.
• The outermost wall connected the surrounding hills and was massive masonry, slightly tapered, without mortar.
• Stone blocks were wedge-shaped for stability, and the inner walls were made of earth packed with rubble.
• Bastions projected outward, with square or rectangular shapes.
• Notably, the fortifications enclosed agricultural tracts, as Razzaq observed cultivated fields, gardens, and houses between the first, second, and third walls.
• Additionally, he marveled at the overall prosperity and thriving trade activities of the region.

Additional Information

• Abdur Razzaq, a Persian envoy in the 15^th century, undertook a diplomatic mission to India.
• Additionally, Razzaq visited the Vijayanagar Empire, documenting his experiences in the travelogue "Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul-Bahrain" (The Rising Place of Two Lights and the Confluence of Two Oceans).
• His writings provide valuable insights into the economic, cultural, and political aspects of the regions he explored.
• The travelogue stands as a crucial historical source, contributing to our understanding of diplomatic ties, trade routes, and cultural exchanges between Persia and India during the 15^th century.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

• One of the main objectives of the Race to Zero Campaign is to build momentum around the shift to a decarbonized economy.
• This statement is correct.
• The Race to Zero Campaign aims to accelerate the global transition toward a decarbonized economy.
• It mobilizes various stakeholders, including businesses, cities, regions, and investors, to commit to actions aligned with the goals of the Paris Agreement.
• The campaign signals to governments the collective will for a low-carbon future.
• It is related to the theory of Zero-Sum Game.
• This statement is incorrect. The Race to Zero Campaign is not related to the theory of Zero-Sum Game.
• Unlike a Zero-Sum Game, where one participant's gain is offset by the losses of others, the Race to Zero emphasizes collaboration and collective efforts to address climate change.
• It focuses on achieving a shared benefit of a sustainable and resilient global economy, rather than competitive and opposing dynamics.

Additional Information

• The Race to Zero Campaign is a global initiative aimed at accelerating the shift to a decarbonized economy in alignment with the Paris Agreement.
• It involves diverse stakeholders, such as businesses, cities, regions, and investors, committing to actions that reduce carbon emissions.
• The primary goal is to send a strong signal to governments, urging them to strengthen their commitments to address climate change.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

• Emphasis on High Growth Rate:
• This statement is correct.
• The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) of India indeed emphasizes that maintaining a high growth rate is essential for raising the living standards of the vast majority of people and reducing their vulnerability to the impacts of climate change.
• Economic development is seen as a crucial factor in enhancing adaptive capacity.
• Release Year:
• This statement is incorrect.
• The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was released in 2008, not in 2014.

Additional Information

• National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC):
• Launched in 2008, the NAPCC outlines India's strategy for addressing climate change.
• It encompasses eight national missions, serving as comprehensive, long-term strategies to attain key climate change goals.
• These missions include - 
• The National Solar Mission.
• National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
• National Mission on Sustainable Habitat.
• National Water Mission.
• National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem.
• National Mission for A Green India.
• National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture.
• National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change.
• The NAPCC operates based on principles such as protecting the poor and vulnerable through inclusive and sustainable development, achieving national growth with a focus on ecological sustainability.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• India's "Blue growth" refers to a long-term strategy aimed at fostering sustainable growth in the marine and maritime sectors.
• This encompasses initiatives and policies directed towards the responsible and balanced development of activities related to oceans, seas, and coastal areas.
• The focus is on promoting economic opportunities while ensuring the conservation of marine ecosystems and biodiversity.
• "Blue Growth" is a concept that revolves around the sustainable and responsible development of various economic sectors related to oceans, seas, and coastal areas.
• It aims to harness the potential of these marine and maritime resources for economic growth while ensuring environmental conservation.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

• Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) represents a compassionate initiative led by the Indian Army in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, addressing the aspirations of those affected by terrorism with ties to Pakistan.
• This humane operation encompasses diverse welfare activities, including the operation of Army Goodwill Schools, Infrastructure Development Projects, and Educational Tours for children residing in remote areas of the Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh.
• To elevate educational standards and provide quality learning, the Indian Army administers seven Army Goodwill Schools (AGS) in Ladakh under Operation Sadbhavana. ​

Additional Information

• The operation has successfully achieved objectives such as national integration tours, women empowerment, employment generation, and education, contributing significantly to nation-building efforts.
• Projects under Operation Sadbhavana are meticulously selected, considering local aspirations in collaboration with civil administration, ensuring no duplication with civil administration projects.

The correct answer is Japan.

Key Points

• United Nations (UN):
• The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945 after World War II to promote peace, security, and cooperation among member countries.
• The UN has various specialized agencies and bodies working on issues such as human rights, health, education, and international development.
• UN Security Council (UNSC):
• The UN Security Council is one of the principal organs of the UN, responsible for maintaining international peace and security.
• It has 15 members, including five permanent members with veto power and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms.
• Permanent Members (P5) with Veto Power:
• United States
• Russia (formerly the Soviet Union)
• China
• United Kingdom
• France
• Non-Permanent Members:
• Ten non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.
• They do not possess veto power.

The correct answer is: 1,3 and 4.

Key Points

• Mercury has no atmosphere.
• This statement is correct.
• Mercury has a very thin and virtually nonexistent atmosphere.
• It lacks a significant atmosphere compared to other planets.
• Venus has two moons.
• This statement is incorrect.
• Venus does not have any moons.
• Venus is the second planet from the sun.
• It is sixth in the solar system in size and mass.
• It is similar in structure but slightly smaller than Earth (Earth’s Twin).
• Venus has a thick and toxic atmosphere that consists primarily of carbon dioxide, with clouds of sulfuric acid droplets.
• Venus is one of just two planets that rotate from east to west.

Only Venus and Uranus have this “backward” rotation.

• It is the hottest planet in the solar system because of the high concentration of carbon dioxide which works to produce an intense greenhouse effect.
• There is no land on Jupiter.
• This statement is correct.
• Jupiter is a gas giant, and it does not have a solid surface.
• The outer layers of Jupiter are composed mainly of hydrogen and helium.
• Fifth in line from the Sun, Jupiter is, by far, the largest planet in the solar system – more than twice as massive as all the other planets combined.
• Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called Jovian or Gas Giant Planets.
• Jupiter rotates once about every 10 hours (a Jovian day), but takes about 12 Earth years to complete one orbit of the Sun (a Jovian year).
• Jupiter has more than 95  moons as of 2023.
• The planet Jupiter's four largest moons are called the Galilean satellites after Italian astronomer Galileo Galilei, who first observed them in 1610.
• These large moons, named Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto, are each distinctive world.
• Rings of Saturn are composed of lumps of ice and dust.
• This statement is correct.
• Saturn is the sixth planet from the Sun and the second largest planet in our solar system.
• It is not the only planet to have rings—made of chunks of ice and rock—but none are as spectacular or as complicated as Saturn's.
• Saturn has the highest number of satellites or moon, i.e., 146 as of 2023 in the solar system.
• Like fellow gas giant Jupiter, Saturn is a massive ball made mostly of hydrogen and helium.

Additional Information

• Formation and Composition of Planetary Rings
• Rings are believed to be formed from debris left over from the formation of the planet or from objects such as moons that were broken apart by the planet's gravity.
• Saturn's rings are the most extensive and complex; other gas giants like Jupiter, Uranus, and Neptune also have ring systems, though less prominent.
• key natural satellites of the major planets in our solar system:
• Earth has a single natural satellite, known simply as the Moon.
• Mars is accompanied by two small moons, Phobos and Deimos.
• Jupiter hosts a vast number of moons, four of which are particularly noteworthy: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
• Saturn, famous for its rings, also has many moons, with Titan and Enceladus as the most remarkable.
• Uranus possesses moons like Titania and Oberon.
• Neptune’s most significant moon is Triton.

The correct answer is Bolan Pass. 

Key Points

• Zojila Pass:
• Location: Indian Himalayan region, specifically in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Significance: Connects Srinagar and Leh.
• Bolan Pass:
• Location: Bolan Pass is located in the Sulaiman Range in Pakistan.
• Shipkila Pass:
• Location: Located in the Indian Himalayan region, connecting Himachal Pradesh with Tibet.
• Significance: Part of the ancient trade route and strategic for border security.
• Lipulekh Pass:
• Location: Located in the Indian Himalayan region, connecting Uttarakhand with Tibet.
• Significance: Important for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra pilgrimage and as a border pass.

Additional Information

• Some major passes with their states is given below:
• Jammu and Kashmir:
• Zoji La Pass
• Banihal Pass
• Khardung La Pass
• Fotu La Pass
• Himachal Pradesh:
• Shipki La Pass
• Baralacha La Pass
• Kunzum La Pass
• Jalori Pass
• Sach Pass
• Rohtang Pass
• Uttarakhand:
• Lipulekh Pass
• Mana Pass
• Niti Pass
• Kuari Pass
• Milam Pass
• Sikkim:
• Nathu La Pass
• Jelep La Pass
• Arunachal Pradesh
• Bomdila Pass
• Sela Pass
• Bum La Pass