Previous Year Paper

UPPSC AE Civil 2013 Official Paper - I (Previous Year Paper)

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Civil Engineering (100 questions)

Question 1

A soil sample with specific gravity of solids 2.70 has a mass specific gravity of 1.84. Assuming soil to be perfectly dry, the void ratio of soil will be

  1. AOption (a)

    0.47

  2. BOption (b)

    0.57

  3. COption (c)

    0.28

  4. DOption (d)

    0.70

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0.47

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

From a fundamental relationship, the density of soil is given by:

γbulk=(G+S×e)×γw1+e=(G+w×G)×γw1+e=(1+w)×G×γw1+e;{{\rm{\gamma }}_{{\rm{bulk}}}} = \frac{{\left( {{\rm{G}} + S × e} \right) × {\gamma _w}}}{{1 + e}} = \frac{{\left( {{\rm{G}} + w × G} \right) × {\gamma _w}}}{{1 + e}} = \frac{{\left( {1 + {\rm{w}}} \right) × G × {\gamma _w}}}{{1 + e}};      ----(i)

Where

γ = Density of soil, γw = Density of water, G = Specific gravity of soil, S = Degree of saturation, w = Water content, and e = void ratio

For the dry density of soil: Degree of saturation (S) = 0

The dry density of soil is given by γd=(G)×γw1+e{{\rm{\gamma }}_{\rm{d}}} = \frac{{\left( {\rm{G}} \right) × {\gamma _w}}}{{1 + e}}      ----(ii)

Calculation:

1 + e = (2.70 × 1)/1.84

⇒ e = 0.467 ≈ 0.47

Question 2

The compactive energy used in IS modified proctor test is ______ times the compactive energy used in case of IS standard proctor test.

  1. AOption (a)

    4.56

  2. BOption (b)

    1.0

  3. COption (c)

    2.5

  4. DOption (d)

    3.14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4.56

Why this answer is correct

In compaction test:

PropertyIS light compaction testIS Heavy Modified compaction test
Weight of hammer2.6 kg4.9 kg
Number of Layers35
Number of blows2525
Hight of fall310 mm450 mm
Volume of mould1000 cc1000 cc

 

Compactive;Energy;Ratio;(r)=Compactive;effort;in;modified;compaction;testCompactive;effcot;in;standart;compaction;test{\rm{Compactive;Energy;Ratio;}}\left( {\rm{r}} \right) = \frac{{{\rm{Compactive;effort;in;modified;compaction;test}}}}{{{\rm{Compactive;effcot;in;standart;compaction;test}}}}

∴r=4.9×450×5×252.6×310×3×25=4.559\therefore {\rm{r}} = \frac{{4.9 \times 450 \times 5 \times 25}}{{2.6 \times 310 \times 3 \times 25}} = 4.559

Question 3

Maximum permissible upward gradient in a previous sand of porosity n = 45%, specific gravity Gs = 2.65 with a factor of safety 4 will be

  1. AOption (a)

    0.425

  2. BOption (b)

    0.225

  3. COption (c)

    0.375

  4. DOption (d)

    0.275

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.225

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Critical hydraulic gradient (ic): The quicksand / boiling condition occurs at a critical upward hydraulic gradient typically around 1.0 for many soils, when the seepage force just balances the buoyant weight of an element of soil.

At the critical conditions, the effective stress is equal to zero.

ic=G−11+e;OR;(G−1)×(1−n){i_c} = \frac{{G - 1}}{{1 + e}};{\rm{OR;}}\left( {{\rm{G}} - 1} \right) \times \left( {1 - {\rm{n}}} \right)

Calculations:

Critical hydraulic gradient

\(\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} {{i_c} = \left( {{\rm{G}} - 1} \right) \times \left( {1 - {\rm{n}}} \right) = 1.65 \times \left( {1 - 0.45} \right) = 0.9075} \end{array}\)

is = ic/4 = 0.9075/4 = 0.225

Question 4

Which is not a method of obtaining flow nets?

  1. AOption (a)

    Electrical flow analogy

  2. BOption (b)

    Capillary flow analogy

  3. COption (c)

    Sand model

  4. DOption (d)

    Flow model

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Flow model

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Flow net: It is a graphical representation of two dimensional steady state flow consisting of two sets of lines – the flow and the equipotential lines.

In case of isotropic soil these lines are orthogonal to each other but need not be orthogonal in anisotropic soil.

Various methods of obtaining flow nets are:

  1. Graphical method

  2. Electrical flow Analogy method

  3. Sand Model

  4. Capillary flow Model

  5. Solution of Laplace equation/Analytical method.

Flow model is not used to obtain flow nets.

Question 5

A silty soil of high compressibility is represented by the symbol

  1. AOption (a)

    SM

  2. BOption (b)

    ML

  3. COption (c)

    OI

  4. DOption (d)

    MH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MH

Why this answer is correct

Soil classification as per Indian standards:

Coarse-grained soils (More than half of the material is larger than 75 μ sieve)
GravelsSands
More than half of the coarse fraction is larger than 4.75 mm sieveMore than half of the coarse fraction is smaller than 4.75 mm sieve
Clean gravelGravel with appreciable finesClean sandsSand with appreciable fines
GWGPGMGCSWSPSMSE
Fine-grained soils (More than half of the material is smaller than 75 μ sieve)
Silts and clay
Low compressibility (wL < 35)Medium compressibility (50 < wL > 35)Higher compressibility (wL > 50)
MLCLOLMICIOIMHCHOH
High organic peat soil → (Pt)

∴ According to IS Classification, there are 18 groups of soils:

8 groups of coarse-grained, 9 group of fine-grained, and 1 of peat

From the above reference, highly compressible silty soil is designated by MH.

Question 6

In a triaxial shear test a sample of c-φ soil fails making angle of αc0 with horizontal, then value of φ can be determined as

  1. AOption (a)

    2(αc0 – 45°)

  2. BOption (b)

    (αc0 + 45°)

  3. COption (c)

    2(45° - αc0)

  4. DOption (d)

    2αc0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2(αc0 – 45°)

Why this answer is correct

Explanation

Mohr’s circle for a c-ϕ soil is shown below:

Any angle αc0 on the horizontal plane becomes equal to 2αc0 Mohr’s circle.

Here,

σ1f = Major Principal Stress, σ3f = Minor Principal Stress, ϕ = Angle of internal friction of soil, and c = Cohesion.

In ΔAOB,

Φ + (180 – 2 αc0) + 90° = 180°

⇒ Φ = (2 αc0 – 90°)

⇒ Φ = 2 (αc0 – 45°)

Important Point:

  • The triaxial test is the most widely used shear strength test in which drainage can be controlled irrespective of the type of soil. Both pore water pressure and volume changes can be measured in a triaxial test.
  • At the time of failure, the horizontal plane is the major principal plane and the vertical plane is the minor principal plane.
  • A triaxial test is performed in two stages.

 

1st stage2nd stage
1) Drainage allowed (Consolidated)1) Volume change allowed (Drained)
2) Drainage not allowed (Unconsolidated)2) Volume change not allowed (undrained)

 

The three types of triaxial tests are as follows:

  1. CD → Consolidated drained Test
  2. CU → Consolidated undrained Test
  3. UU → Unconsolidated undrained Test

Question 7

Depth below the ground surface is c-φ soil, where active earth pressure intensity is zero, given by

Where,

γ is the effective unit weight of soil and kA = coefficient of active earth pressure by the soil.

  1. AOption (a)

    2cKAγ\frac{{2c\sqrt {{K_A}} }}{\gamma }

  2. BOption (b)

    2cγKA\frac{{2c\gamma }}{{\sqrt {{K_A}} }}

  3. COption (c)

    2cγKA\frac{{2c}}{{\gamma \sqrt {{K_A}} }}

  4. DOption (d)

    2cγKA\frac{{2c\gamma }}{{{K_A}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2cγKA\frac{{2c}}{{\gamma \sqrt {{K_A}} }}

Why this answer is correct

Rankine’s Active earth Pressure theory in cohesive Soil:

Pa=KaγZ−2c′Ka\rm{{P_a} = {K_a}\gamma Z - 2c'\sqrt {{K_a}}}

So, at Z =0,

Pa=−2c′Ka\rm{{P_a} = - 2c'\sqrt {{K_a}}}

Negative sign shows that the pressure is negative.

For the stress to reverse its nature, a point will reach where the earth pressure value will be zero,

Therefore, Pa = 0,

KaγZ−2c′Ka=0\rm{{K_a}\gamma Z - 2c'\sqrt {{K_a}} = 0}

Zc=2c′KaKaγ=2c′γKa\rm{{Z_c} = \frac{{2c'\sqrt {{K_a}} }}{{{K_a}\gamma }} = \frac{{2c'}}{{\gamma \sqrt {{K_a}} }}}

The above depth is known as the depth of tensile crack (Zc).

Question 8

For 6 m deep excavation in soft clay, γ = 18 kN/m3, c = 26 kN/m2, Taylor’s stability number, Sn = 0.172, factor of safety (Fc) against sliding will be

  1. AOption (a)

    1.2

  2. BOption (b)

    1.3

  3. COption (c)

    1.4

  4. DOption (d)

    1.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

For purely cohesive soil,

\({{\rm{s}}{\rm{n}}} = \frac{{\rm{c}}}{{{{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{t}}}{\rm{H;}}{{\rm{f}}_{\rm{c}}}}}\)

Where,

c = cohesion, fc = Factor of safety with respect to cohesion, and H = Depth of excavation.

Calculation:

Given:

c = 26 kN/m3, γt = 18 kN/m3, Sn = 0.172, and H = 6 m

Using the formula,

0.172=2618×6×Fc0.172 = \frac{{26}}{{18 \times 6 \times {F_c}}}

⇒ Fc = 1.4

Important Point:

Taylor’s stability number (sn) = cos β × sin β

Where, β = slope angle

Theoretical maximum value of stability number is 0.5 and practically its value is in the range of 0.25 - 0.30.

Question 9

Given that plasticity Index (PI) of local soil is 15 and PI of sand is zero. For a desired PI of 6, the percentage of sand in the mix should be

  1. AOption (a)

    70

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60

Why this answer is correct

Let the percentage/ratio of sand be 1 : x (soil: sand)

Thus,

6=(15×1)+(0×x)(1+x)6 = \frac{{\left( {15 \times 1} \right) + \left( {0 \times x} \right)}}{{\left( {1 + x} \right)}}

⇒ x = 1.5

Thus soil: sand ∷ 1 : 1.5

Thus,

Percentage;of;sand=1.51+1.5×100;{\rm{Percentage;of;sand}} = \frac{{1.5}}{{1 + 1.5}} \times 100;= 60%

Important point:

Plasticity index is the range of water content over which soil behaves in plastic range.

Plasticity is exhibited due to clay minerals present in soil and hence clay can assimilate large quantity of water without getting converted into liquid state.

Normally plasticity index of clay is 15 - 100.

Question 10

The natural void ratio of a saturated clay strata, 3 m thick is 0.90. The final void ratio of the clay at the end of the consolidation is expected to be 0.71. The total consolidation settlement of the clay strata is

  1. AOption (a)

    30 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    25 cm

  3. COption (c)

    20 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    15 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30 cm

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

;ΔHH=Δe1+e0=ΔVV{\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{\Delta H}}}}{{\rm{H}}} = \frac{{{\rm{\Delta e}}}}{{1 + {{\rm{e}}_0}}} = \frac{{{\rm{\Delta V}}}}{{\rm{V}}}

Where,

e0 = initial void ratio, H = Initial height of strata, V = Initial volume

Calculation:

Given:

H = 3 m, e0 = 0.90, and ef = 0.71

∴ Δe = 0.90 – 0.71 = 0.19

Applying the formula given above,

ΔH3=0.191+0.9\frac{{{\rm{\Delta H}}}}{3} = \frac{{0.19}}{{1 + 0.9}}

⇒ ΔH = 0.1 × 3 = 0.3 m = 30 cm

Thus, total consolidation settlement = 30 cm

Question 11

A 30 cm diameter friction pile is embedded 10 m into a homogeneous consolidated deposit. Unit cohesion developed between clay and pile shaft is 4t/m2 and adhesion factor is 0.7 The safe load for factor of safety 2.5 will be

  1. AOption (a)

    21.50 t

  2. BOption (b)

    11.57 t

  3. COption (c)

    10.55 t

  4. DOption (d)

    6.85 t

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10.55 t

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The given pile is a friction pile hence all the load is carried through friction only.

Static pile load formula is given as-

QU = QPU + Qf

where,

QU = Ultimate pile load capacity,

QPU = qp × Ab ; Ultimate point bearing capacity.

Qf = fsAS ; Frictional pile load capacity.

where,

fs  = α cu

cu  =  Cohesion averaged over the pile length.

α = Adhesion factor.

qp = Effective stress at the base of pile.

Ab = Base area of pile.

As = Surface area of pile.

Given:

α = 0.7, cu = 4t/m2, FOS = 2.5, Pile diameter (φ) = 30 cm = 0.3 m

Thus, by using static pile load formula –

QU = QPU + Qf

⇒ QU = 0 + fs­AS

⇒ QU  = (α CU)As

⇒ QU  = (0.7 × 4)× (π ∅ l)

⇒ QU  = (0.7 × 4)× (π × 0.3× 10)

⇒ QU  = 26.389 t

Thus,

Safe load = QUFOS;=;26.3892.5;=;10.55;t\frac{{{{\rm{Q}}_{\rm{U}}}}}{{{\rm{FOS}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{26.389}}{{2.5}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}10.55{\rm{;t}}

Important Point:

Static pile load formula assumes that both point bearing capacity and frictional capacity develop its full value. But both do not mobiles to full capacity simultaneously as for developing full frictional resistance movement of the pile required is small but for developing point bearing moment of pile required is large. Thus when full point bearing develops friction falls below its peak value.

Adhesion factor (α) depends upon adhesion b/w soil and pile. Softer is the clay, larger is the value of α.

Question 12

In Newmark’s influence chart for stress distribution, there are ten concentric circles and ten radial lines. The influence factor of the chart is

  1. AOption (a)

    0.1

  2. BOption (b)

    0.01

  3. COption (c)

    0.001

  4. DOption (d)

    0.0001

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.01

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Newmark’s influence chart: It is a graphical method used to compute vertical, horizontal and shear stress due to uniformly distributed load over an area of any shape or geometry, below any point that lies either below or outside the loaded area. It is based on Boussinesq’s equation.

Stress below any point is calculated as :-

σz;=;1m×n×q×N;{{\rm{\sigma }}_{\rm{z}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{1}{{{\rm{m}} \times {\rm{n}}}} \times {\rm{q}} \times {\rm{N;}}

where,

m = No. of concentric circles, n = No. of Radial lines, q = Intensity of load, and N = Equivalent number of areas covered by plan area.

The product (1m×n)\left( {\frac{1}{{m \times n}}} \right) is called influence factor.

Given: m = 10, and n = 10

∴ Influence factor (If);=;110×10\left( {{{\rm{I}}_{\rm{f}}}} \right){\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{1}{{10 \times 10}} = 0.01

Question 13

Ultimate bearing capacity (qf) of a square footing 2.5 m wide resting at 1.5 m depth in a sandy soil having unit weight γ = 18 kN/m3, Nq = 33, Nγ = 48, using factor of safety as 3, will be

  1. AOption (a)

    487 kN/m2

  2. BOption (b)

    585 kN/m2

  3. COption (c)

    741 kN/m2

  4. DOption (d)

    512 kN/m2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

585 kN/m2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Ultimate Bearing capacity (qu): It is defined as the maximum gross intensity of loading that the soil can support before it fails in shear.

As per Terzaghi’s bearing capacity equation –

qu = cNc + qNq + 12BγNγ\frac{1}{2}{\rm{B\gamma }}{{\rm{N}}_{\rm{\gamma }}}

where,

Nc, Nq and Nγ are the dimensionless bearing capacity factors that are a function of ∅ only.

The above formula is derived for strip footing and some modifications are carried out various shapes of footing.

Modifications in Terzaghi’s Bearing capacity equation:-

a) Rectangular footing :

\({{\rm{q}}{{\rm{nu}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\left( {1 + 0.3\frac{{\rm{B}}}{{\rm{L}}}} \right){\rm{C}}{{\rm{N}}{\rm{C}}} + {\rm{q}}\left( {{{\rm{N}}{\rm{q}}} - 1} \right) + \left( {1 - 0.2\frac{{\rm{B}}}{{\rm{L}}}} \right)0.5{\rm{B\gamma }}{{\rm{N}}{\rm{\gamma }}}\)

b) Square footing:

qnu = 1.3 CN­c + q(Nq – 1) + 0.8 × 0.5 BγNγ

qnu = 1.3 CNc + q(Nq -1) + 0.4 BγNγ

c) Circular footing :

qnu = 1.3 cNc + q(Nq - 1) + 0.6 × 0.5 BγNγ

qnu = 1.3CNc + q(Nq -1) + 0.3BγNγ

Given:

c = 0 {∵ sandy soil} , γ t = 18 kN/m3, Nq = 33, and Nγ = 48

Thus by using Terzaghi’s bearing capacity equation ,

Qu = (qNq) + \(\left( {1 - 0.2} \right) \times \left( {\frac{1}{2}{\rm{B}}{{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{t}}}{{\rm{N}}{\rm{\gamma }}}} \right)\)

Qu = (γt × Df × Nq) + 0.8 × \(\left( {\frac{1}{2}{\rm{B}}{{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{t}}}{{\rm{N}}{\rm{\gamma }}}} \right)\)

Qu = (18 × 1.5 × 33) + 0.8 × (0.5 × 2.5 × 18 × 48)

Qu = 1755 kN/m2

Thus safe load (qs) =quFOS=17553= \frac{{{{\rm{q}}_{\rm{u}}}}}{{{\rm{FOS}}}} = \frac{{1755}}{3}

⇒ qs = 585 kN

The above calculation has been done according to the options give although the calculation is incorrect as Factor of safety is applied on net ultimate bearing capacity and net gross ultimate bearing capacity.

Correct explanation should be as under

Qnu = q(Nq -1) + 0.8 × (12BγNγ)\left( {\frac{1}{2}{\rm{B\gamma }}{{\rm{N}}_{\rm{\gamma }}}} \right)

⇒ qnu = (18 × 1.5) × (33 - 1) + 0.8 × (0.5 × 2.5 × 18 × 48) = 1728 kN/m2

∴qns = qnuFOS=17283=576;kN/m2\frac{{{{\rm{q}}_{{\rm{nu}}}}}}{{{\rm{FOS}}}} = \frac{{1728}}{3} = 576{\rm{;kN}}/{{\rm{m}}^2}

Hence \({{\rm{q}}{\rm{S}}} = \frac{{{{\rm{q}}{{\rm{nu}}}}}}{{{\rm{FOS}}}} + {{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{t}}}{{\rm{D}}{\rm{f}}}\) = 576 + 18 × 1.5 = 603 kN/m2

Question 14

Using Engineering News formula, the allowable load (Qa) of a wooden pile hammered with a drop hammer (W = 30 kN), having free fall (H) 1.5 m, penetration in last blow (S) 5 mm, using empirical constant (C) as 2.5 and factor of safety as 6, will be

  1. AOption (a)

    185 kN

  2. BOption (b)

    250 kN

  3. COption (c)

    212 kN

  4. DOption (d)

    231 kN

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

250 kN

Why this answer is correct

Engineering News formula:

Q allowable=wH6(s+c)= \frac{{wH}}{{6\left( {s + c} \right)}}

where

w = Weight of drop (kg), H = Height of free fall in ‘cm’, and S = Settlement per blow in ‘cm’

The factor of Safety is taken as 6.

‘c’ is a constant which depends on the type of hammer used.

c = 2.5 cm; For drop hammer.

c = 0.25 cm, For single-acting steam hammer

Note: On single-acting steam hammer, steam is used to lift the hammer and it is always free fall.

Another form of engg. News formula.

QkN;=;166.64ES+2.54{{\rm{Q}}_{{\rm{kN}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{166.64{\rm{E}}}}{{{\rm{S}} + 2.54}}

E = Energy per blow in ‘KJ’

S = Settlements per blow in ‘mm’

Given:

w = 30 KN, H = 1.5 m = 1500 cm, S = 5 mm, c = 2.5 cm, and FOS = 6

As per Engineering News formula:

Qallowable=wH6(S+c)=30×(1.5×100)6(2.5;+;0.5)=250;kN{{\rm{Q}}_{{\rm{allowable}}}} = \frac{{{\rm{wH}}}}{{6\left( {{\rm{S}} + {\rm{c}}} \right)}} = \frac{{30 \times \left( {1.5 \times 100} \right)}}{{6\left( {2.5{\rm{;}} + {\rm{;}}0.5} \right)}} = 250{\rm{;kN}}

Question 15

The ratio of average permeability in horizontal direction (Kn) to that in vertical direction (Kv) of a 3 layer soil deposit with thickness ratio 1 : 2 : 3. The permeability of second layer is twice that of first and third is twice that of second, kn : kv will be

  1. AOption (a)

    1 : 0.51

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 0.67

  3. COption (c)

    1 : 0.59

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 0.77

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 : 0.77

Why this answer is correct

Let the thickness of first layers be H

Then the thickness of 2nd layer = 2H

The thickness of 3rd layer = 3H

Also,

Let the permeability of first layer be K.

Thusthe permeability of 2nd layer = 2K

Permeability of 3rd layer = 2 × (2k) = 4k

The formula for horizontal and vertical permeability is given as:-

Keq;horizontal=H1K1+H2k2+Hk3H1+H2+H3{{\rm{K}}_{{\rm{eq;horizontal}}}} = \frac{{{{\rm{H}}_1}{{\rm{K}}_1} + {{\rm{H}}_2}{{\rm{k}}_2} + {\rm{H}}{{\rm{k}}_3}}}{{{{\rm{H}}_1} + {{\rm{H}}_2} + {{\rm{H}}_3}}}

Keq;vertical=H1+H2+H3(H1K1)+(H2K2)+(H3K3){{\rm{K}}_{{\rm{eq;vertical}}}} = \frac{{{{\rm{H}}_1} + {{\rm{H}}_2} + {{\rm{H}}_3}}}{{\left( {\frac{{{{\rm{H}}_1}}}{{{{\rm{K}}_1}}}} \right) + \left( {\frac{{{{\rm{H}}_2}}}{{{{\rm{K}}_2}}}} \right) + \left( {\frac{{{{\rm{H}}_3}}}{{{{\rm{K}}_3}}}} \right)}}

Applying the formula given above,

\({{\rm{K}}{{\rm{eq;horizontal}}}} = {{\rm{k}}{\rm{n}}} = \frac{{\left( {{\rm{H}} \times {\rm{K}}} \right) + \left( {2{\rm{H}} \times 2{\rm{K}}} \right) + \left( {3{\rm{H}} \times 4{\rm{K}}} \right)}}{{{\rm{H}} + 2{\rm{H}} + 3{\rm{H}}}} = \frac{{17{\rm{K}}}}{6}\)

\({{\rm{K}}{{\rm{eq;vertical;}}}} = {{\rm{k}}{\rm{v}}} = \frac{{{\rm{H;}} + {\rm{;}}2{\rm{H}} + 3{\rm{H}}}}{{\left( {\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\rm{K}}}} \right) + \left( {\frac{{2{\rm{H}}}}{{2{\rm{K}}}}} \right) + \left( {\frac{{3{\rm{H}}}}{{4{\rm{K}}}}} \right)}} = \frac{{6{\rm{H}}}}{{\left( {\frac{{2{\rm{H}}}}{{\rm{K}}} + \frac{{3{\rm{H}}}}{{4{\rm{K}}}}} \right)}} = \frac{{24}}{{11}}{\rm{k}}\)

\(\therefore {\rm{Ratio}} = \frac{{{{\rm{k}}{\rm{n}}}}}{{{{\rm{K}}{\rm{v}}}}} = \frac{{\left( {\frac{{17}}{6}{\rm{k}}} \right)}}{{\left( {\frac{{24}}{{11}}{\rm{k}}} \right)}}\)

⇒ Kn : Kv = 1.29 = 1: 0.77

Question 16

If undisturbed undrained strength of clay is 40.5 kN/m2 and its remoulded undrained strength is 26.6 kN/m2, the sensitivity of clay will be

  1. AOption (a)

    1.42

  2. BOption (b)

    1.52

  3. COption (c)

    1.62

  4. DOption (d)

    1.72

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.52

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The sensitivity of the soil is given by:

S=quqrS{\rm{}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{{q_u}}}{{{q_r}}}

qu = unconfined compressive strength of soil in an undisturbed state

qr = unconfined compressive strength of soil in the remoulded state

Calculation:

s=40.526.6=1.52\rm{s = \frac{40.5}{26.6}=1.52}

Classification of soil based on Sensitivity:

SensitivityNature of soilStructure
Less than 1Insensitive-
1 to 2Little Sensitive-
2 to 4Moderately SensitiveHoneycomb Structure
4 to 8SensitiveHoneycomb or Flocculent structure
8 to 16Extra sensitiveFlocculent Structure
>16QuickUnstable

Question 17

Vertical point load (Q) on the surface is 500 kN, σz (pressure increment) at 10 m depth (Z = 10 m,) directly under the axis of load will be

  1. AOption (a)

    1.68 kN/m2

  2. BOption (b)

    2.38 kN/m2

  3. COption (c)

    9.54 kN/m2

  4. DOption (d)

    4.636 kN/m2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2.38 kN/m2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Vertical stress due to concentrated load is given as per Boussinesq’s equation.

Formula:

σz;=;32πQz2(11+(rZ)2)52{{\rm{\sigma }}_{\rm{z}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{3}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}\frac{{\rm{Q}}}{{{{\rm{z}}^2}}}{\left( {\frac{1}{{1 + {{\left( {\frac{{\rm{r}}}{{\rm{Z}}}} \right)}^2}}}} \right)^{\frac{5}{2}}}

where,

σz = Stress magnitude, q = Vertical point load, r = Radial distance, and Z = Vertical distance.

Given:

Z = 10 m, and Q = 500 kN

R = 0  {∵ directly below the load axis}

∴σz=32π×500(102)×(11+(010)2)5/2=2.38;kN/m2\therefore {{\rm{\sigma }}_{\rm{z}}} = \frac{3}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}} \times \frac{{500}}{{\left( {{{10}^2}} \right)}} \times {\left( {\frac{1}{{1 + {{\left( {\frac{0}{{10}}} \right)}^2}}}} \right)^{5/2}} = 2.38{\rm{;kN}}/{{\rm{m}}^2}

Important Point:

As per Boussinesq’s stress directly below a point load at any distance ‘z’ is given as

σz;=;32πQz2{{\rm{\sigma }}_{\rm{z}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{3}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}\frac{{\rm{Q}}}{{{{\rm{z}}^2}}}

Difference between Boussinesq’s and Westergaard’s equation of vertical stress :

Boussinesq’sWestergaard’s
Soil mass is considered isotropicSoil mass is considered anisotropic
It is used for unstratified soilIt is used for stratified soil
Poisson’s ratio in derivation is not assumed zeroPoisson’s ratio is assumed zero
σz;=;32πQz21(1+(rz)2)52{\sigma _z}; = ;\frac{3}{{2\pi }}\frac{Q}{{{z^2}}}\frac{1}{{{{\left( {1 + {{\left( {\frac{r}{z}} \right)}^2}} \right)}^{\frac{5}{2}}}}}σz;=;1πQz21(1+2(rz)2)32{\sigma _z}; = ;\frac{1}{\pi }\frac{Q}{{{z^2}}}\frac{1}{{{{\left( {1 + 2{{\left( {\frac{r}{z}} \right)}^2}} \right)}^{\frac{3}{2}}}}}

Question 18

A soil has discharge velocity of 6 × 10-7 m/s and void ratio of 0.5. Its seepage velocity is

  1. AOption (a)

    18 × 10-7 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    12 × 10-7 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    6 × 10-7 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    3 × 10-7 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

18 × 10-7 m/s

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Seepage;Velocity;(Vs)=Discharge;Velocity;(V)Porosity;(n)\rm{Seepage;Velocity;(V_s) = \frac{Discharge;Velocity;(V)}{Porosity;(n)}}

Porosity;(n)=e1+e\rm{Porosity;(n)=\frac{e}{1+e}}

Where, e = Void Ratio

Given:

Void ratio, e = 0.5, and Discharge velocity = 6 × 10-7 m/s

Calculation:

Porosity, n=e1+e=0.51+0.5=0.333\rm{n= \frac{{\rm{e}}}{{1 + {\rm{e}}}} = \frac{{0.5}}{{1 + 0.5}} = 0.333} 

Seepage velocity, Vs=Vn=6×10−70.333=18×10−7m/sVs = \frac{V}{n} = \frac{{6 \times {{10}^{ - 7}}}}{{0.333}} = 18 \times {10^{ - 7}}m/s

Question 19

In a fully saturated soil, Skempton’s pore pressure parameter B becomes equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5

  3. COption (c)

    0.75

  4. DOption (d)

    1.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1.0

Why this answer is correct

Skempton’s Pore Pressure coefficients are A and B,

Where A → depends upon the degree of saturation and over consolidation ratio

B → depends upon the degree of saturation of soil

For over-consolidated soil, the value of A is negative.

For fully saturated soil, the value of B is 1

Question 20

In order to minimize sampling disturbance the area ratio Ar , \(\left( {{{\rm{A}}{\rm{r}}} = \frac{{{\rm{D}}{\rm{e}}^2 - {\rm{D}}{\rm{i}}^2}}{{{\rm{D}}{\rm{i}}^2}}{\rm{;}}} \right)\) should be

  1. AOption (a)

    Zero

  2. BOption (b)

    as high as possible

  3. COption (c)

    as low as possible

  4. DOption (d)

    equal to unity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

as low as possible

Why this answer is correct

For a Good Soil Sampler,

Area Ratio should be less than 10%

Inside Clearance should be between 0.5 to 3

Outside Clearance should be between 0 to 2

Cutting edge angle should be within 20°

∴ The area ratio shall be as low as possible to minimize the disturbance to the soil sample.

Question 21

Four vertical columns of the same material, height and have the same end conditions. The buckling load will be the largest for column having the cross-section of

  1. AOption (a)

    solid square

  2. BOption (b)

    thin hollow circle

  3. COption (c)

    solid circle

  4. DOption (d)

    H- section

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

thin hollow circle

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Columns can be classified as:

  1. Long Column: It fails due to buckling.
  2. Short column: It fails due to crushing.
  3. Intermediate column: It can fail due to both crushing and buckling.

Analysis of long column is done using Euler’s formula:

fcr;=;π2Eλ2{{\rm{f}}_{{\rm{cr}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{{\rm{\pi }}^2}{\rm{E}}}}{{{{\rm{\lambda }}^2}}}

Where,

E = Modulus of elasticity of material, and λ = slenderness Ratio

\({\rm{\lambda ;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{l}}{{\rm{e}}{{\rm{ff}}}}}}{{{{\rm{r}}{{\rm{min}}}}}}\)  & Imin = A × rmin2

Where,

rmin = Minimum radius of gyration of the section, Imin = Minor principle Moment of Inertia, A = Cross-sectional Area, and Leff­ = It depends on the end conditions of the column section.

Eulers Load is given as

\({\rm{P;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{{\rm{\pi }}^2}{\rm{E}}}}{{{\rm{l}}{{\rm{eff}}}^2}}{\rm{r}}{{\rm{min}}}^2 \times {\rm{A;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{{\rm{\pi }}^2}{\rm{E;Imin}}}}{{{\rm{l}}_{{\rm{eff}}}^2}}\)

Thus by Euler’s load formula,

\({\rm{Load;}} \propto {\rm{;}}{{\rm{I}}{{\rm{min}}}}{\rm{;and;Load}} \propto \frac{1}{{{{\left( {{{\rm{l}}{{\rm{eff}}}}} \right)}^2}}}\)

For same end conditions:

Effective length will remain same for every cross-section of the column.

Thus, Load α Imin.

Hence buckling load will be largest for the column with the largest value of minor principal moment of inertia.

Given:

Four different sections with variable cross-sections but similar end conditions and having the same height.

Moment of inertia is maximum for the hollow circular section because the maximum mass, in this case, lies away from the centroidal axis as compared to all other cross sections.

Hence load carrying capacity is maximum for hollow circular section.

Question 22

Effective length of steel column effectively held at both ends in position but not restrained in directions is ‘x’ times its length between two ends, where ‘x’ is equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    0.65

  2. BOption (b)

    0.85

  3. COption (c)

    1.00

  4. DOption (d)

    2.00

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.00

Why this answer is correct

As per IS: 800 – 2007

For column, the effective length of a column effectively held at both ends in position but not restrained in directions L.

The design value of the effective length factor for various combination is given below:

Question 23

Effective length of a column is the length between the points of

  1. AOption (a)

    support

  2. BOption (b)

    maximum moment

  3. COption (c)

    zero moment

  4. DOption (d)

    zero shear

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

zero moment

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Effective length is defined as the distance between two adjacent points of zero bending moment or contra flexure.

The value of the effective length varies according to the support condition.

End conditionBoth ends hingedOne end fixed other freeBoth ends fixedOne end fixed and other hinged
Effective lengthL2LL/2L/√2

According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length L,

Pcr=;π2EI(Le)2{P_{cr}}= ;\frac{{{\pi ^2}EI}}{{{{\left( {L_e} \right)}^2}}}

Where Leq is the effective length of the column.

Question 24

A steel plate is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. It has one rivet of nominal diameter 18 mm. The net sectional area of the plate is

  1. AOption (a)

    1800 mm2

  2. BOption (b)

    2805 mm2

  3. COption (c)

    2820 mm2

  4. DOption (d)

    3240 mm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2805 mm2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Net Sectional area:

When tension members are attached to the gusset plate, some material of plate is removed due to bolt/rivet hole. The net area at any section is equal to the gross area minus the deductions for holes at that section.

As per IS 800,

i. For a rivet upto 25 mm diameter:

Dia of rivet hole = Rivet Dia + 1.5 mm

ii. For rivet diameter > 25 mm

Dia of rivet hole = (d + 2) mm

Given:

d = 18 mm, B = 300 mm, t = 10 mm

Net sectional area = (b – nd0) x t

Where,

n = Number of rivet holes, d0 = Diameter of one rivet hole, t = Thickness of plate, and b = Width of plate.

Here, d0 = (18 + 1.5) = 19.5mm

∴ Net Sectional Area = (300 – 19.5) × 10 = 2805 mm2

Important Point:

Consideration of Net Sectional area makes conservative design.

Dia of holes in case of:

RivetBolt
Upto 25mm diameter rivet: Hole diameter = d + 1.5 mm For rivet diameter > 25mm Hole diameter = d + 2mm| Bolt dia | (12 - 14) mm | (16 - 24) mm | >24 mm | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Hole dia | Bolt dia + 1 mm | Bolt dia + 2 mm | Bolt dia + 3 mm |Bolt dia(12 - 14) mm(16 - 24) mm>24 mmHole diaBolt dia + 1 mmBolt dia + 2 mmBolt dia + 3 mm
Bolt dia(12 - 14) mm(16 - 24) mm>24 mm
Hole diaBolt dia + 1 mmBolt dia + 2 mmBolt dia + 3 mm

Question 25

Vertical web stiffness are used in plate girder to

  1. AOption (a)

    Avoid buckling of web plate.

  2. BOption (b)

    Improve the aesthetic of girder.

  3. COption (c)

    Increase the moment capacity of girder.

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Avoid buckling of web plate.

Why this answer is correct

Stiffeners are classified into two types:

(a) Vertical Stiffeners

(b) Horizontal stiffeners.

a) Vertical stiffeners: These are provided at right angles to the flanges and are also known as transverse stiffeners.

These are further classified as:

(i) End stiffeners: These are provided at the ends of the girder as they receive the load from the beam and transfer it to support. The web when subjected to compressive load, may get crushed and thus the end stiffeners protects web from crushing.

(ii) Intermediate stiffeners: These are used when there is concentrated load acting on the plate girder. When the web thickness is less than (1/85 × depth of web), web may buckle due to heavy shear. These stiffeners are provided to sustain the web from buckling and avoid buckling of web plate.

b**) Horizontal stiffeners** can be classified as continuous and discontinuous horizontal stiffeners.

Continuous horizontal stiffeners are designed to take loads from the flanges whereas discontinuous stiffeners are not designed to take any load and they only prevent buckling of web.

Question 26

In case of I-section steel beam

  1. AOption (a)

    Shear capacity of flange is neglected.

  2. BOption (b)

    Shear capacity of web is neglected.

  3. COption (c)

    Shear capacity of both flange and web is neglected.

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shear capacity of flange is neglected.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Shear stress distribution in I-section-

Shear stress for flange:

τ;=;V[D24−d24]2I{\rm{\tau ;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}\left[ {\frac{{{{\rm{D}}^2}}}{4} - \frac{{{{\rm{d}}^2}}}{4}} \right]}}{{2{\rm{I}}}}

τ;=;V[B(D2−y)][y+D2−y2]I×B;=;V(D24−y)2I{\rm{\tau ;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}\left[ {{\rm{B}}\left( {\frac{{\rm{D}}}{2} - {\rm{y}}} \right)} \right]\left[ {{\rm{y}} + \frac{{\frac{{\rm{D}}}{2} - {\rm{y}}}}{2}} \right]}}{{{\rm{I}} \times {\rm{B}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}\left( {\frac{{{{\rm{D}}^2}}}{4} - {\rm{y}}} \right)}}{{2{\rm{I}}}}

Shear stress for web:

Ayˉ;=;A1yˉ1+A2yˉ2{\rm{A\bar y;}} = {\rm{;}}{{\rm{A}}_1}{{\rm{\bar y}}_1} + {{\rm{A}}_2}{{\rm{\bar y}}_2}

\(\therefore {\rm{\tau ;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}\left[ {{\rm{B}}\left( {\frac{{{\rm{D}} - {\rm{d}}}}{2}} \right)\left{ {\frac{{\rm{d}}}{2} + \frac{{\frac{{{\rm{D}} - {\rm{d}}}}{2}}}{2}} \right} + \left( {\frac{{\rm{d}}}{2} - {\rm{y}}} \right) + \left( {{\rm{y}} + \frac{{\frac{{\rm{d}}}{2} - {\rm{y}}}}{2}} \right)} \right]}}{{{\rm{I}} \times {\rm{t}}}}\)

τ;=;V2I(D24−d24)Bt+V(D24−y24)2I{\rm{\tau ;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{\rm{V}}}{{2{\rm{I}}}}\left( {\frac{{{{\rm{D}}^2}}}{4} - \frac{{{{\rm{d}}^2}}}{4}} \right)\frac{{\rm{B}}}{{\rm{t}}} + \frac{{{\rm{V}}\left( {\frac{{{{\rm{D}}^2}}}{4} - \frac{{{{\rm{y}}^2}}}{4}} \right)}}{{2{\rm{I}}}}

Note that more than 85% of shear in the I section is resisted by the web.

Thus because most of the shear stress is taken by the web of a steel section, hence shear capacity of the flange is neglected.

Important Point:

Shear stress distribution for various important sections are:

Diamond:

Circular

H/Plus Beam:

Punched section:

Question 27

The weakest plane in a fillet weld is

  1. AOption (a)

    a side parallel to force

  2. BOption (b)

    a side normal to the force

  3. COption (c)

    along the throat

  4. DOption (d)

    normal to the throat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

along the throat

Why this answer is correct

Butt Weld: In this joint, the parts lie in the same plane and are joined at their edges. This joint is designed if members are to be subjected to direct tension or compression.

Fillet Weld: A fillet weld is used to fill in the edges of the plates created by corner, lap and tee joints. It is adopted when two members are to be welded at 90° to each other. e.g. Single J, Single bevel, square, etc.

Slot Weld: It is used for attaching flat plates using one or more holes or slots in the top part and then filling with filler metal to fuse the two parts together.

Seam Weld: In seam welding, overlapping sheets are gripped between two wheels or roller disc electrodes and current is passed to obtain either the continuous seam. Hence pressure is continuously applied for welding the two members.

For a given amount of weld material, the fillet weld is not as strong as due to the heavy concentration of the stress.

∴ For fillet weld, the weakest plane is along the throat section.

Question 28

The strength at which steel fails under repeated load application is known as 

  1. AOption (a)

    impact strength

  2. BOption (b)

    tensile strength

  3. COption (c)

    yield strength

  4. DOption (d)

    fatigue strength

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

fatigue strength

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Impact strength: It is also called as toughness i.e. resistance against impact loading.

Toughness is the total strain energy that can be stored in a given volume of material up to fracture limit and it is equal to the area of load-deflection curve up to fracture limit.

Tensile strength: It is the resistance against pull applied in longitudinal direction on material. It is the maximum amount of stress developed in the material under tension before it fails or stress at the fracture point in stress-strain curve under tension.

Yield strength: It is defined as the strength at first fibre failure and at which the material begins to change its shape.

Fatigue strength: In case of cyclic loading, in every cycle, certain amount of strain energy is stored in the specimen which is not released due to fast rate of loading.

After large no. of such cycles, the stress accumulated exceeds the modulus of toughness and specimen fails due to fatigue.

Hence, Fatigue strength is that level of stress, below which there is very high probability that structure will not fail after large no. of repetitions (approx. 106 cycles).

The design stress in case of cyclic loading is known as endurance limit.

Question 29

If the angle between fusion faces of a fillet weld is 60° - 90°, the effective throat thickness as per Indian standard is equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    12\frac{1}{{\sqrt 2 }} size of weld

  2. BOption (b)

    13\frac{1}{{\sqrt 3 }} size of weld

  3. COption (c)

    √2 size of weld

  4. DOption (d)

    √3 size of weld

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12\frac{1}{{\sqrt 2 }} size of weld

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The Value of Effective throat thickness either depends upon K values which depend on the angle between fusion faces or depend upon the size of the weld.

Throat Thickness (Tt) = K × Size of the weld

The K values vary as mentioned in the table below

Angle between fusion faces (in degrees)60 to 9091 to 100101 to 106107 to 113114 to 120
K0.70.650.60.550.5

Explanation:

If the angle between fusion faces of a fillet weld is 60° - 90°, the effective throat thickness as per Indian standard is equal to 12\frac{1}{{\sqrt 2 }} size of weld.

Question 30

The junction between flange and web of an I-section is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Lap joint

  2. BOption (b)

    Butt joint

  3. COption (c)

    Fillet Joint

  4. DOption (d)

    Shear Joint

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fillet Joint

Why this answer is correct

Butt Weld: In this joint, the parts lie in the same plane and are joined at their edges. This joint is designed if members are to be subjected to direct tension or compression.

Fillet Weld: A fillet weld is used to fill in the edges of the plates created by corner, lap and tee joints. It is adopted when two members are to be welded at 90° to each other. e.g. Single J, Single bevel, square, etc.

Slot Weld: It is used for attaching flat plates using one or more holes or slots in the top part and then filling with filler metal to fuse the two parts together.

Seam Weld: In seam welding, overlapping sheets are gripped between two wheels or roller disc electrodes and current is passed to obtain either the continuous seam. Hence pressure is continuously applied for welding the two members.

Question 31

Which one of the following methods does not fall under the category of force method?

  1. AOption (a)

    Method of consistent deformation

  2. BOption (b)

    Column analogy method

  3. COption (c)

    Equilibrium method

  4. DOption (d)

    Three moment equation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Equilibrium method

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

In the force method of analysis:

Primary unknown are forces in the members, and compatibility equations are written for displacement and rotations (which are calculated by force displacement equations) in this method.

Solving these equations, redundant forces are calculated. Once the redundant forces are calculated, the remaining reactions are evaluated by equations of equilibrium.

In the displacement method of analysis:

Primary unknowns are the displacements and initially force -displacement relations are computed and subsequently equations are written satisfying the equilibrium conditions of the structure in this method. After determining the unknown displacements, the other forces are calculated satisfying the compatibility conditions and force displacement relations.

Difference between Force & Displacement Methods

Force MethodsDisplacement Methods
Types of indeterminacy: Static IndeterminacyTypes of indeterminacy: Kinematic Indeterminacy
Governing equation: Compatibility EquationsGoverning equations: Equilibrium Equations
Force displacement relations: Flexibility matrixForce displacement relations: Stiffness matrix
Example: 1. Method of consistent deformation 2. Theorem of least work 3. Column analogy method 4. Flexibility matrix method 5. Castigliano’s Theorem- IIExample: 1. Slope deflection method 2. Moment distribution method 3. Kani’s method 4. Stiffness matrix method 5. Castigliano’s Theorem- I

Question 32

In a triangular section placed with its base horizontal, ratio of max. shear stress to average shear stress is

  1. AOption (a)

    1.25

  2. BOption (b)

    1.33

  3. COption (c)

    1.43

  4. DOption (d)

    1.50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1.50

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Shear stress distribution is given by-

τ=SAyˉI⋅b{\rm{\tau }} = \frac{{{\rm{SA\bar y}}}}{{{\rm{I}} \cdot {\rm{b}}}}

where,

τ = Shear stress.

S = Shear force at section where stress is required.

A = Cross-section area above or below the point at which stress is required.

y̅ = Centroidal distance of area A from neutral axis,

I = Area moment of inertia of cross-section about neutral axis, and

b = Width of section at the point where stress is required.

Calculation:

 

A=12×b′×y{\rm{A}} = \frac{1}{2} \times {\rm{b'}} \times {\rm{y}}

yˉ=2d3−2y3{\rm{\bar y}} = \frac{{2{\rm{d}}}}{3} - \frac{{2{\rm{y}}}}{3}

I=bd336{\rm{I}} = \frac{{{\rm{b}}{{\rm{d}}^3}}}{{36}}

Substituting the above values:

τ=S×(12b′y)×(2d3−2y3)bd336×b′;{\rm{\tau }} = \frac{{{\rm{S}} \times \left( {\frac{1}{2}{\rm{b'y}}} \right) \times \left( {\frac{{2{\rm{d}}}}{3} - \frac{{2{\rm{y}}}}{3}} \right)}}{{\frac{{{\rm{b}}{{\rm{d}}^3}}}{{36}} \times {\rm{b'}}}}{\rm{;}}

τ=18Sy(2d3−2y3)bd3{\rm{\tau }} = \frac{{18{\rm{Sy}}\left( {\frac{{2{\rm{d}}}}{3} - \frac{{2{\rm{y}}}}{3}} \right)}}{{{\rm{b}}{{\rm{d}}^3}}}

Now, to maximize shear stress, τ' = 0

2d3−2y3×2=0\frac{{2{\rm{d}}}}{3} - \frac{{2{\rm{y}}}}{3} \times 2 = 0

y=d2{\rm{y}} = \frac{{\rm{d}}}{2}

Now using above equation:

τ=18S×d2×(2d3−2d2×3)bd3{\rm{\tau }} = \frac{{18{\rm{S}} \times \frac{{\rm{d}}}{2} \times \left( {\frac{{2{\rm{d}}}}{3} - \frac{{2{\rm{d}}}}{{2 \times 3}}} \right)}}{{{\rm{b}}{{\rm{d}}^3}}}

τ=3sbd{\rm{\tau }} = \frac{{3{\rm{s}}}}{{{\rm{bd}}}}  (Maximum shear stress)

Now, average shear stress (τavg­)

τavg=Total;shear;forceTotal;area{{\rm{\tau }}_{{\rm{avg}}}} = \frac{{{\rm{Total;shear;force}}}}{{{\rm{Total;area}}}}

τavg=sbd2{{\rm{\tau }}_{{\rm{avg}}}} = \frac{{\rm{s}}}{{\frac{{{\rm{bd}}}}{2}}}

τavg=2sbd{{\rm{\tau }}_{{\rm{avg}}}} = \frac{{2{\rm{s}}}}{{{\rm{bd}}}}

Now, ratio of maximum to average shear stress:

ττavg=3sbd2sbd\frac{{\rm{\tau }}}{{{{\rm{\tau }}_{{\rm{avg}}}}}} = \frac{{\frac{{3{\rm{s}}}}{{{\rm{bd}}}}}}{{\frac{{2{\rm{s}}}}{{{\rm{bd}}}}}}

τ/τavg­ = 1.5

Shear stress about neutral axis = 43×τavg=43×2Sbd=;8S3bd\frac{4}{3} \times {{\rm{\tau }}_{{\rm{avg}}}} = \frac{4}{3} \times \frac{{2{\rm{S}}}}{{{\rm{bd}}}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{8{\rm{S}}}}{{3{\rm{bd}}}}

Question 33

The effective slenderness ratio of a cantilever column is

  1. AOption (a)

    0.5L/Rr

  2. BOption (b)

    L/r

  3. COption (c)

    √2L/r 

  4. DOption (d)

    2L/r

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2L/r

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Slenderness ratio: It is defined as the ratio of the effective length of the column to the radius of gyration corresponding to the minor axis. It is denoted as λ.

Given,

Cantilever beam

This is a case of one end free and the other end fixed. In this case, the effective length is twice the length of the column.

Leff = 2L and slenderness ratio= 2L/r

 

Following are the different values of effective slenderness ratios for different arrangements:

Buckled shape of the column is shown by dashed line
Theoretical K value0.50.71.01.02.02.0
Recommended design value when ideal conditions are approximated0.650.801.01.22.02.0
End Condition codeRotation fixed          Translation fixed Rotation free           Translation fixed Rotation fixed          Translation free Rotation free            Translation free
<br>

Clearly, for the cantilever column; i.e. fixed at one end and free from other ends, the value of slenderness ratio is KL/R = 2L/R.

Question 34

A horizontal semi-circular beam of radius ‘R’ is fixed at the ends and carries a uniformly distributed load ‘W’ over the entire length. The bending moment at the fixed support is

  1. AOption (a)

    WR24\frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{R}}^2}}}{4}

  2. BOption (b)

    WR23\frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{R}}^2}}}{3}

  3. COption (c)

    WR22\frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{R}}^2}}}{2}

  4. DOption (d)

    WR2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

WR23\frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{R}}^2}}}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

As it is a Semi-Circular Beam Length = 2 R

The semi-circular fixed beam can be depicted as the horizontal beam length of ‘2R’.

The standard result for fixed end moments can be used to obtain the fixed end moments at the supports.

Fixed end moment:

\({{\rm{M}}{{\rm{AB}}}} = {{\rm{M}}{{\rm{BA}}}} = \frac{{{\rm{W}}{\ell ^2}}}{{12}} = \frac{{{\rm{W}} \times {{\left( {2{\rm{R}}} \right)}^2}}}{{12}} = \frac{{{\rm{W}} \times {{\rm{R}}^2}}}{3}\)

Important Point:

Fixed end moments developed due to various load combinations is given below:

 

LoadingFixed End Moment
Mˉab{{\rm{\bar M}}_{{\rm{ab}}}}Mˉba{{\rm{\bar M}}_{{\rm{ba}}}}
−WI8 - \frac{{{\rm{WI}}}}{8}+WI8 + \frac{{{\rm{WI}}}}{8}
−Wab2I2 - \frac{{{\rm{Wa}}{{\rm{b}}^2}}}{{{{\rm{I}}^2}}}+Wab2I2 + \frac{{{\rm{Wa}}{{\rm{b}}^2}}}{{{{\rm{I}}^2}}}
−WI212 - \frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{I}}^2}}}{{12}}+WI212 + \frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{I}}^2}}}{{12}}

Question 35

The deflection is ‘δ’, strain energy ‘U’ and load ‘W’ on a truss. These are related by

  1. AOption (a)

    δ=∂U∂W{\rm{\delta }} = \frac{{\partial {\rm{U}}}}{{\partial {\rm{W}}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    δ=∂2U∂W2{\rm{\delta }} = \frac{{{\partial ^2}{\rm{U}}}}{{\partial {{\rm{W}}^2}}}

  3. COption (c)

    δ=∂3U∂W3{\rm{\delta }} = \frac{{{\partial ^3}{\rm{U}}}}{{\partial {{\rm{W}}^3}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    δ=(∂U∂W)2{\rm{\delta }} = {\left( {\frac{{\partial {\rm{U}}}}{{\partial {\rm{W}}}}} \right)^2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

δ=∂U∂W{\rm{\delta }} = \frac{{\partial {\rm{U}}}}{{\partial {\rm{W}}}}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The two theorems of Castigliano's for structural analysis are as follows:

Castigliano’s 1st theorem: The partial derivative of total strain energy of the system with respect to any particular deflection at a point is equal to the force applied at that point in the same direction as that of the deflection.

∂u∂δ=w\frac{{\partial {\rm{u}}}}{{\partial {\rm{\delta }}}} = {\rm{w}}

Castigliano’s 2nd theorem: The partial derivative of strain energy of the system with respect to load at any point is equal to deflection at that point.

∂u∂w=δ\frac{{\partial {\rm{u}}}}{{\partial {\rm{w}}}} = {\rm{\delta }}

Also, the partial derivative of strain energy of the system with respect to couple at any point is equal to slope at that point.

∂u∂M=θ\frac{{\partial {\rm{u}}}}{{\partial {\rm{M}}}} = {\rm{\theta }}

Where,

u is the strain energy of the system.

Note:

These theorems are valid in both the beams and truss, but in truss strain energy is only due to axial loads.

Question 36

Eccentricity of connections introduces

  1. AOption (a)

    Primary stresses

  2. BOption (b)

    Vibrating stresses

  3. COption (c)

    Secondary stresses

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Secondary stresses

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Primary stresses are mainly force driven and are caused by imposed mechanical loading on the structure and excessive primary stress causes yielding and plastic deformation of the material. They are not self limiting. e.g Dead and Live load on a cantilever beam etc.

Secondary stresses are mainly displacement driven and are caused due to geometric discontinuity and stress concentration. They are self limiting and beyond a certain stage the stresses begin to decrease. e.g Thermal loads, Eccentric loads etc.

Eccentric connection: If the applied forces do not pass through the C.G of joint, it causes an additional moment about the C.G and these types of connections are called eccentric connections.

The stresses induced due to these eccentric connections are known as secondary stresses because they arise due to geometric dissimilarity.

Here eccentricity ‘e’ introduces a moment Pe and secondary stresses are generated consequently.'

Eccentric connection in lap joint

Here also secondary stresses are generated due to eccentricity in connections.

Question 37

A point load ‘W’ is acting at a distance ‘a’ from the left support of a three hinged arch of span 2 l and rise ‘h’ hinged at the crown. The horizontal reaction at the support is

  1. AOption (a)

    Wa/h

  2. BOption (b)

    Wa/2h

  3. COption (c)

    2W/ha

  4. DOption (d)

    2h/Wa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Wa/2h

Why this answer is correct

Let the vertical reactions at A and B be RA and RB respectively.  Similarly, the horizontal reactions at A and B are HA and HB respectively.

∑Fy = 0

⇒ RA + RB = W     --- (i)

∑MA = 0 

⇒ W × a - RB × 2 L = 0

⇒RB=wa2L \Rightarrow {{\rm{R}}_{\rm{B}}} = \frac{{{\rm{wa}}}}{{2{\rm{L}}}}

⇒RA=(w−wa2L) \Rightarrow {{\rm{R}}_{\rm{A}}} = \left( {{\rm{w}} - \frac{{{\rm{wa}}}}{{2{\rm{L}}}}} \right)

∑Fx = 0

⇒ HA = HB

∵ There is a hinge at crown C, the bending moment at C must be zero.

∑ MC on the BC part of arch = 0

⇒ HB × h - RB × ℓ = 0

⇒HB×h−wa2ℓ×ℓ=0 \Rightarrow {{\rm{H}}_{\rm{B}}} \times {\rm{h}} - \frac{{{\rm{wa}}}}{{2\ell }} \times \ell = 0

⇒HB=wa2h \Rightarrow {{\rm{H}}_{\rm{B}}} = \frac{{{\rm{wa}}}}{{2{\rm{h}}}}

Hence \({{\rm{H}}{\rm{A}}} = {{\rm{H}}{\rm{B}}} = \frac{{{\rm{wa}}}}{{2{\rm{h}}}}\)

Important Point:

A three hinged arch is a statically determinate structure with two supports hinged and an internal hinge provided in the body of the arch generally at the crown. Such arches are analysed using equations of static equilibrium only.

Question 38

As per IS code, the reinforcement in a column should not be less than

  1. AOption (a)

    0.5% and not more than 5% of gross sectional area

  2. BOption (b)

    0.6% and not more than 6% of gross sectional area

  3. COption (c)

    0.7% and not more than 7% of gross sectional area

  4. DOption (d)

    0.8% and not more than 6% of gross sectional area

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.8% and not more than 6% of gross sectional area

Why this answer is correct

As per IS 456: 2000, clause 26.5.3.1,

Longitudinal reinforcement in a column:

Percentage of steel:

The cross-sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement shall be not less than 0.8 percent and not more than 6 percent of the gross cross-sectional area of the column.

Minimum diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bars:

The main longitudinal reinforcement bars used in column shall not be less than 12 mm in diameter.

Minimum number of longitudinal bar:

The minimum number of the longitudinal bar provided in column shall be

  • four in rectangular columns
  • six in circular columns

Helical reinforcement:

A reinforced concrete column having helical reinforcement shall have at least six-bar of longitudinal reinforcement within the helical reinforcement.

Spacing:

The spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of the column shall not exceed 300 mm.

Question 39

As per IS 456: 2000, the development length is given by

  1. AOption (a)

    ϕσs8τbd\frac{{\phi {\sigma _s}}}{{8\tau bd}}

  2. BOption (b)

    ϕσs4τbd\frac{{\phi {\sigma _s}}}{{4\tau bd}}

  3. COption (c)

    8τbdϕσs\frac{{8\tau bd}}{{\phi {\sigma _s}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    4τbdϕσs\frac{{4\tau bd}}{{\phi {\sigma _s}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ϕσs4τbd\frac{{\phi {\sigma _s}}}{{4\tau bd}}

Why this answer is correct

Development Length:

A development length is the amount of rebar length that is needed to be embedded or projected into concrete to create desired bond strength between the two materials and also to develop required stress in steel at that section.

As per IS 456: 2000, clause 26.2.1,

The development length is given by: 

Ld=ϕσs4τbd{L_d} = \frac{{\phi {\sigma _s}}}{{4{\tau _{bd}}}}

where

ϕ = nominal diameter of the bar

σs = stress in the bar at the section considered at design load

τbd = design bond stress

Points to be remembered:

  1. The development length includes anchorage values of hooks in tension reinforcement.

  2. For bars other than circular cross-section, the development length should be sufficient to develop the stress in the bar by the bond.

Question 40

The target mean strength of concrete mix should be

  1. AOption (a)

    The characteristic strength + 1.65 times standard deviation

  2. BOption (b)

    The characteristic strength + 1.45 times standard deviation

  3. COption (c)

    The ultimate strength + 1.65 times standard deviation

  4. DOption (d)

    The ultimate strength + 1.45 times standard deviation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The characteristic strength + 1.65 times standard deviation

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

fm=fck+1.65;σ{f_m} = {f_{ck}} + 1.65;σ

Where,

fm is target mean compressive strength

fck is the characteristics strength of concrete

σ is the standard deviation

The standard deviation for different grade of concrete as per Clause 9.2.4.2 IS:456-2000

Grade of ConcreteAssumed Standard Deviation (N/mm2)
M10, M153.5
M20, M254.0
M30, M35, M40, M45, M505.0

Question 41

A stationary hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular channel with the initial and sequent depths being equal to 0.20 m and 1.20 m, respectively. The energy loss will be equal to 

  1. AOption (a)

    1.042 m

  2. BOption (b)

    0.521 m

  3. COption (c)

    1.563 m

  4. DOption (d)

    0.265 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1.042 m

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Energy loss in a hydraulic jump is given as

EL=(y2−y1)34y1y2{{\rm{E}}_{\rm{L}}} = \frac{{{{\left( {{{\rm{y}}_2} - {{\rm{y}}_1}} \right)}^3}}}{{4{{\rm{y}}_1}{{\rm{y}}_2}}}

Where, y1 & y2 are conjugate depths of flow.

Given: y1 = 0.2 m, y2 = 1.2 m

∴EL;=;(1.2−0.2)34×1.2×0.2\therefore {{\rm{E}}_{\rm{L}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{{\left( {1.2 - 0.2} \right)}^3}}}{{4 \times 1.2 \times 0.2}}

EL = 1.042 m

Important Point:

Conjugate depth: The conjugate depths refer to the depth upstream and the depth downstream of the hydraulic jump whose momentum fluxes are equal for a given discharge. 

When the flow condition changes from supercritical (Fr > 1) to subcritical (Fr < 1), the result is an abrupt rise in water surface accompanied by turbulent rollers. This phenomenon is called hydraulic jump and is used to dissipate excess available energy in the flow to avoid scouring of bed.

Question 42

In a rectangular channel, the depth of flow is 1.6 m and the specific energy at that section is 2.7 m, the flow is

  1. AOption (a)

    Sub-critical

  2. BOption (b)

    Super-critical

  3. COption (c)

    Critical

  4. DOption (d)

    Not possible

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Super-critical

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Any flow in open channel is classified on the basis of Froude’s number.

Froude’s number > 1 ⇒ super critical flow

Froude’s number = 1 ⇒ critical flow

Froude’s number < 1 ⇒ subcritical flow

For rectangular channel

Froude’s number =VgA/T=Vg×(ByB)=Vgy=\frac{{\rm{V}}}{{\sqrt {\frac{{\rm{g}}}{{\rm{A}}}{\rm{/T}}} }} = \frac{{\rm{V}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{g}} \times \left( {\frac{{{\rm{By}}}}{{\rm{B}}}} \right)} }} = \frac{{\rm{V}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{gy}}} }}

Calculation:

Given: y = 1.6 m, and E = 2.7 m

We know, specific energy

E=y+v22g{\rm{E}} = {\rm{y}} + \frac{{{{\rm{v}}^2}}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

2.7=1.6+v22×9.812.7 = 1.6 + \frac{{{{\rm{v}}^2}}}{{2 \times 9.81}}

⇒ v = 4.65 m

Froude’s number =4.659.81×1.6; = \frac{{4.65}}{{\sqrt {9.81 \times 1.6} }};= 1.17

∵ Froude’s number > 1

⇒ Super critical flow.

Question 43

For a triangular channel having side slope of a 2 horizontal to 1 vertical, the Froude number, F is given by

  1. AOption (a)

    vgy\frac{v}{{\sqrt {gy} }}

  2. BOption (b)

    2vgy\frac{{2v}}{{\sqrt {gy} }}

  3. COption (c)

    v2gy\frac{v}{{\sqrt {2gy} }}

  4. DOption (d)

    vg(y2)\frac{v}{{\sqrt {g\left( {\frac{y}{2}} \right)} }}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

vg(y2)\frac{v}{{\sqrt {g\left( {\frac{y}{2}} \right)} }}

Why this answer is correct

Froude’s number= vg×(AT)\frac{{\rm{v}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{g}} \times \left( {\frac{{\rm{A}}}{{\rm{T}}}} \right)} }}

Where,

A = Area of cross-section, and T = Top width

For a triangular channel as stated above

Fr=vgAT{{\rm{F}}_{\rm{r}}} = \frac{{\rm{v}}}{{\sqrt {\frac{{{\rm{gA}}}}{{\rm{T}}}} }}

T = 2y + 2y = 4y

A=12×4y×y=2y2{\rm{A}} = \frac{1}{2} \times 4{\rm{y}} \times {\rm{y}} = 2{y^2}

∴Fr=vg×2y24y\therefore {{\rm{F}}_{\rm{r}}} = \frac{{\rm{v}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{g}} \times \frac{{2{{\rm{y}}^2}}}{{4{\rm{y}}}}} }}

Fr=vg(y2){{\rm{F}}_{\rm{r}}} = \frac{{\rm{v}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{g}}\left( {\frac{{\rm{y}}}{2}} \right)} }}

Question 44

Lacey’s regime scour depth, d is expressed by the equation, d = _____

Where q = Discharge per unit width, and f = slit factor

  1. AOption (a)

    1.35(q2f)161.35{\left( {\frac{{{q^2}}}{f}} \right)^{\frac{1}{6}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    1.35(q2f)131.35{\left( {\frac{{{q^2}}}{f}} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}}}

  3. COption (c)

    1.35(qf)131.35{\left( {\frac{q}{f}} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    1.35(qf)161.35{\left( {\frac{q}{f}} \right)^{\frac{1}{6}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.35(q2f)131.35{\left( {\frac{{{q^2}}}{f}} \right)^{\frac{1}{3}}}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

According to Lacey, the design formulas to build canal is as follows:

1) silt factor ⇒ f=1.76dmm\rm{f = 1.76\sqrt {{d_{mm}}}}

  1. Lacey's Normal scour depth ⇒ Rr′=1.35[q2f]13R_r' = 1.35{\left[ {\frac{{q^2}}{{f}}} \right]^{\frac{1}{3}}}

  2. velocity of flow ⇒V=[Qf2140]16V = {\left[ {\frac{{Q{f^2}}}{{140}}} \right]^{\frac{1}{6}}}

4) hydraulic mean depth ⇒R=5V22fR = \frac{{5{V^2}}}{{2f}}

  1. wetted perimeter ⇒ P=4.75QP = 4.75\sqrt Q

6) bed slope ⇒S=f533340×Q16S = \frac{{{f^{\frac{5}{3}}}}}{{3340 \times {Q^{\frac{1}{6}}}}}

Question 45

Neglecting uplift pressure, the base width of an elementary profile of a gravity dam shall be taken as

  1. AOption (a)

    HμG\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{{\rm{\mu G}}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    HG\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\sqrt {\rm{G}} }}

  3. COption (c)

    \({\rm{greater;of;}}\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\sqrt {\rm{G}} }}& \frac{{\rm{H}}}{{{\rm{\mu G}}}}\)

  4. DOption (d)

    \({\rm{lesser;of;}}\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\sqrt {\rm{G}} }}& \frac{{\rm{H}}}{{{\rm{\mu G}}}}\)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

\({\rm{greater;of;}}\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\sqrt {\rm{G}} }}& \frac{{\rm{H}}}{{{\rm{\mu G}}}}\)

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Gravity Dam: Gravity dams are massive structure dam which is constructed of concrete or stone masonry. These dams are held by the gravity to the ground and resist the water force by its weight. As they rely on their weight, it is necessary to construct them on a solid foundation of bedrocks.

It is designed such that there is no tension anywhere in the dam as the concrete is weak in tension. It should also resist sliding and overturning to avoid any kind of failure.

1. No tension condition:

Let resultant of self-weight (W), hydrostatic force (P), and uplift force (U) passes through the outermost point of middle 3rd portion.

Moment about B = W×B3−U×B3−P×H3;=;0{\rm{W}} \times \frac{{\rm{B}}}{3} - {\rm{U}} \times \frac{{\rm{B}}}{3} - {\rm{P}} \times \frac{{\rm{H}}}{3}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}0

⇒ WB – UB = PH

\( \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2}{{\rm{B}}^2}{\rm{H}}{{\rm{\gamma }}{{\rm{concrete}}}} - \frac{1}{2}{\rm{C}}{{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{w}}}{{\rm{B}}^2}{\rm{H}} = \frac{1}{2}{{\rm{\gamma }}_{\rm{w}}}{{\rm{H}}^3}\)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2}{{\rm{B}}^2}{\rm{H}}\left( {{{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{w}}}} \right)\left( {{{\rm{G}}{\rm{c}}} - {\rm{C}}} \right) = \frac{1}{2}{{\rm{\gamma }}_{\rm{w}}}{{\rm{H}}^3}\)

⇒B=HGc−C \Rightarrow {\rm{B}} = \frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\sqrt {{{\rm{G}}_{\rm{c}}} - {\rm{C}}} }}

2. No Sliding Condition:

\({{\rm{\mu }}{\rm{v}}} > {\rm{\Sigma }}{{\rm{F}}{\rm{H}}}\)

⇒μ (W – U) > P

\( \Rightarrow {\rm{\mu }}\left( {\frac{1}{2}{\rm{BH}}{{\rm{\gamma }}{{\rm{concrete}}}} - \frac{1}{2}{\rm{C}}{{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{w}}}{\rm{BH}}} \right) > \frac{1}{2}{{\rm{\gamma }}_{\rm{w}}}{{\rm{H}}^2}\)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2}{\rm{HB}}{{\rm{\gamma }}{\rm{w}}}{\rm{\mu ;}}\left( {{{\rm{G}}{\rm{c}}} - {\rm{C}}} \right) > \frac{1}{2}{{\rm{\gamma }}_{\rm{w}}}{{\rm{H}}^2}\)

⇒B>Hμ(Gc−C) \Rightarrow {\rm{B}} > \frac{{\rm{H}}}{{{\rm{\mu }}\left( {{{\rm{G}}_{\rm{c}}} - {\rm{C}}} \right)}}

Neglecting the uplift pressure (c) in both cases i.e. for no tension and no sliding conditions;

B>HGc{\rm{B}} > \frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\sqrt {{{\rm{G}}_{\rm{c}}}} }}      ----(i)

B>HμGc{\rm{B}} > \frac{{\rm{H}}}{{{\rm{\mu }}{{\rm{G}}_{\rm{c}}}}}      ----(ii)

Hence base width should be greater of HG;andHμG\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{\sqrt {\rm{G}} }}{\rm{;and}}\frac{{\rm{H}}}{{{\rm{\mu G}}}}

Question 46

The graphical solution of Kennedy’s equation and Kutter’s equation is given by

  1. AOption (a)

    Garret’s diagram

  2. BOption (b)

    Mohr’s diagram

  3. COption (c)

    Kennedy’s diagram

  4. DOption (d)

    Kutter’s diagram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Garret’s diagram

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Kennedy carried out his research in the upper Baridoab canal system in Punjab and introduced the term critical velocity ‘V0’ which will keep the channel free from silting and scouring. This is given as:

V0;=;0.55;m;y0.64{{\rm{V}}_0}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}0.55{\rm{;m;}}{{\rm{y}}^{0.64}}

where,

y = Depth of flow in ‘m’, and m = critical velocity ratio, whose value depends on the type of soil.

m > 1 ; for coarse-grained soil.

m < 1 ; for fine grained soil.

Kennedy suggested using Kutter’s equation to find the actual velocity of flow.

Kuttler’s equation is given as:

V;=;[23+0.00155S+1n1+(23+0.00155S)nR]RSV; = ;\left[ {\frac{{23 + \frac{{0.00155}}{S} + \frac{1}{n}}}{{1 + \left( {\frac{{23 + 0.00155}}{S}} \right)\frac{n}{{\sqrt R }}}}} \right]\sqrt {RS}

A lot of mathematical calculations are required in designing irrigation channels by Kennedy’s method. To avoid this a graphical solution was suggested by Garrett for Kennedy’s and Kutter’s equation.

Garret’s diagram is a graphical representation of the design of canal dimensions based on Kennedy's theory. The diagram is discharge plotted on the abscissa (X-axis), and slope of the channel on the left side of an ordinate (Primary Y-axis) and depth of the channel and critical velocity on the right side of the ordinate. (Secondary Y-axis).

Garret’s diagram is applicable only for the side slope of the channel of 0.5:1.

Question 47

Which of the following conditions is the chief characteristic of critical flow?

  1. AOption (a)

    Q2;TgA3=1\frac{{{{\rm{Q}}^{2{\rm{;}}}}{\rm{T}}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^3}}} = 1

  2. BOption (b)

    QT2;gA2=1\frac{{{\rm{Q}}{{\rm{T}}^{2{\rm{;}}}}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^2}}} = 1

  3. COption (c)

    Q2;RgA3=1\frac{{{{\rm{Q}}^{2{\rm{;}}}}{\rm{R}}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^3}}} = 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Q2;T2gA3=1\frac{{{{\rm{Q}}^{2{\rm{;}}}}{{\rm{T}}^2}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^3}}} = 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Q2;TgA3=1\frac{{{{\rm{Q}}^{2{\rm{;}}}}{\rm{T}}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^3}}} = 1

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Critical Flow: It is defined as the flow for which the specific energy is minimum and Froude’s number is equal to unity.

Froude’s no. (Fr) = Inertial;forcegravity;force\sqrt {\frac{{{\rm{Inertial;force}}}}{{{\rm{gravity;force}}}}}

Where,

Inertial force = ρ × Q × v

(ρ = Density, Q = Discharge, v = velocity)

Gravity force = ρ × g × V;

(ρ = Density, g = Gravity acceleration, V = Volume)

Now,

Fr=ρQvρgV=QvgAL=Q(QA)gA(AT)=Q2TgA3{{\rm{F}}_{\rm{r}}} = \sqrt {\frac{{{\rm{\rho Qv}}}}{{{\rm{\rho gV}}}}} = \sqrt {\frac{{{\rm{Qv}}}}{{{\rm{gAL}}}}} = \sqrt {\frac{{{\rm{Q}}\left( {\frac{{\rm{Q}}}{{\rm{A}}}} \right)}}{{{\rm{gA}}\left( {\frac{{\rm{A}}}{{\rm{T}}}} \right)}}} = \sqrt {\frac{{{{\rm{Q}}^2}{\rm{T}}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^3}}}}

 (∵ A = L × T, ν = Q/A)

A = Area, L = Length, and T = Top width

Now, for a critical flow Fr = 1

∴Fr=1\therefore {{\rm{F}}_{{{r}}}} = 1

⇒Q2TgA3=1 \Rightarrow \frac{{{{\rm{Q}}^2}{\rm{T}}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^3}}} = 1

Important points:

For a critical flow:

Specific energy is minimum for a given discharge.

Discharge is maximum for a given specific energy.

Specific force is minimum for a given discharge.

Question 48

The velocity of pressure wave in a rigid pipe carrying a fluid of density ‘ρ’, viscosity ‘µ’ varies as

  1. AOption (a)

    ρ

  2. BOption (b)

    √ρ

  3. COption (c)

    ρ/µ

  4. DOption (d)

    1/√ρ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1/√ρ

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

If pipe is rigid, then pressure wave will travel in the medium at a velocity C equal to the velocity of sound which is given by:

C=Kρ{\rm{C}} = \sqrt {\frac{{\rm{K}}}{{\rm{\rho }}}}

Where, K = bulk modulus of fluid in MPa and ρ = density of fluid in kg/m3.

Hence, the velocity of pressure wave is proportional to 1/√ρ

Important Point:

Pressure waves are generated due to the water hammer action which is caused due to sudden closure of valve.

Due to this the momentum of water gets destroyed and hence a pressure wave is generated which will travel in opposite direction.

Question 49

The flow will be in super critical state in the following profile:

  1. AOption (a)

    M3, S3 and M1

  2. BOption (b)

    M2, S1 and M3

  3. COption (c)

    S2, S3 and M3

  4. DOption (d)

    S1, S2 and S3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

S2, S3 and M3

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Flow is classified based on Froude’s number which is given as

Fr;=;VgAT{{\rm{F}}_{\rm{r}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{\rm{V}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{g}}\frac{{\rm{A}}}{{\rm{T}}}} }}

FlowFroude's NumberDepth of flow
SubcriticalFr < 1y > yc
SupercriticalFr > 1y < yc
CriticalFr = 1y = yc

Where, yc = critical depth of flow.

Flow profile in gradually varied flow for mild and steep slope is shown below:

For mild slope:

(NDL is above CDL) 

For steep slope:

(CDL is above NDL)

Thus, the depth of flow is less than the critical depth of flow in the case of S2, S3 and M3 profiles.

Hence flow is supercritical in case of S2, S3 and M3 profiles.

Question 50

The critical velocity V0 = 0.55 my0.64 as suggested by Kennedy for design of trapezoidal irrigation channel is

  1. AOption (a)

    the maximum permissible velocity.

  2. BOption (b)

    the minimum permissible velocity

  3. COption (c)

    both (a) and (b)

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Kennedy’s theory:

According to Kennedy, the critical velocity (vo) in a channel is defined as the mean velocity which will keep the channel free from silting and scouring.

Silting occurs when velocity of flow in canal is less than critical velocity and particles get sufficient time to settle down and hence silting occurs.

But when velocity of flow is greater than critical flow, particles does not get enough time to settle down, but due to their high kinetic energy, it scours the bed of the channel, and hence scouring occurs.

From the discussion above it is clear that critical velocity is neither minimum (silting velocity) not maximum (scouring) velocity, so its magnitude will be somewhat between these two veolocity

The critical velocity (vo) is given as V0 = 0.55 m d0⋅64

Where,

m = critical velocity ratio and d = depth of water in the channel (in meters).

 

Important Point:

Critical velocity ratio is used to account for the type of soil through which the canal has to pass.

No silting – No scouring condition is known as no regime condition and the mean velocity is designed for this regime condition in a canal.

Value of m is [1.1, 1.2] when sand is coarse sand and is [0.8, 0.9] when sand is fine sand.

Question 51

If ψ = xy, the magnitude of the velocity vector at (2, -2) is

  1. AOption (a)

    4√2

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    -8

  4. DOption (d)

    √8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

√8

Why this answer is correct

Stream function: (ψ) (Not valid in 3-D cases)

It is a scalar function of space and time such that its partial derivative with respect to any duration gives the velocity component in the right angle to this direction.

∂ψ∂x=ν;and∂ψ∂y=−u\frac{{\partial {\rm{\psi }}}}{{\partial {\rm{x}}}} = {\rm{\nu ;and}}\frac{{\partial {\rm{\psi }}}}{{\partial {\rm{y}}}} = - {\rm{u}}

The difference of stream function values b/w two points is equal to the flow occurring between the line joining the two points. Stream line is a line of constant stream function.

Discharge per unit width (q) = ψA - ψB

<sub> </sub>

Given: ψ = xy

∵∂ψ∂x;=;ν⇒∂(xy)∂x;=;ν\because\frac{{\partial {\rm{\psi }}}}{{\partial {\rm{x}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;\nu }} \Rightarrow \frac{{\partial \left( {{\rm{xy}}} \right)}}{{\partial {\rm{x}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;\nu }}

⇒ ν = y 

∵∂ψ∂y;=;−u⇒u;=;−∂ψ∂y⇒u;=;−∂(xy)∂y\because \frac{{\partial {\rm{\psi }}}}{{\partial {\rm{y}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}} - {\rm{u}} \Rightarrow {\rm{u;}} = {\rm{;}} - \frac{{\partial {\rm{\psi }}}}{{\partial {\rm{y}}}} \Rightarrow {\rm{u;}} = {\rm{;}} - \frac{{\partial \left( {{\rm{xy}}} \right)}}{{\partial {\rm{y}}}}

⇒u = -x

Hence the velocity vector is written as

V⃗;=;ui^+ν;j^\vec V; = ;u\hat i + \nu ;\hat j

V⃗;=;(−x)i^+yj^\vec V; = ;\left( { - x} \right)\hat i + y\hat j

Hence magnitude at (2, -2)

∣V⃗∣;=;(x)2+(y)2;=;(2)2+(−2)2;=;8;=;22\left| {{\rm{\vec V}}} \right|{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\sqrt {{{\left( {\rm{x}} \right)}^2} + {{\left( {\rm{y}} \right)}^2}} {\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\sqrt {{{\left( 2 \right)}^2} + {{\left( { - 2} \right)}^2}} {\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\sqrt 8 {\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}2\sqrt 2

Important Point:

Velocity potential (ϕ): It is defined as a scalar function of space and time such that its partial negative derivative with respect to any direction gives the velocity of flow in that direction.

Velocity potential exists only for irrotational flow and when it satisfies the Laplace equation, the continuity equation gets satisfied.

Consider ϕ = f(x, y, z, t)

∴∂ϕ∂x;=;−u;;;∂ϕ∂y;=;−v;and;∂ϕ∂q;=;−w\therefore \frac{{\partial \phi }}{{\partial {\rm{x}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}} - {\rm{u;}};{\rm{;}}\frac{{\partial \phi }}{{\partial {\rm{y}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}} - {\rm{v;and;}}\frac{{\partial \phi }}{{\partial {\rm{q}}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}} - {\rm{w}}

Question 52

The velocity potential function for a line source varies with radial distance, r as

  1. AOption (a)

    1/r

  2. BOption (b)

    1r2\frac{1}{{{r^2}}}

  3. COption (c)

    r

  4. DOption (d)

    In r

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

In r

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Source flow: Flow is coming out from a single source point and proceed radially.

vr=q2πr;Ψ=−q2πθ{{\rm{v}}_{\rm{r}}} = \frac{{\rm{q}}}{{2{\rm{\pi r}}}}{\rm{;\Psi }} = - \frac{{\rm{q}}}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}{\rm{\theta }}

vθ=0,ϕ=−q2πln⁡r{{\rm{v}}_{\rm{\theta }}} = 0,\phi = - \frac{{\rm{q}}}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}\ln {\rm{r}}

Circulation (Γ) = 0 around any closed curve.

Hence, velocity potential function, ϕ ∝ ln r

Important Point:

Flow-net: It is the grid obtained by drawing a series of streamlines and equipotential lines. Some types of flow nets are:

Uniform flow: positive x-direction

U = v,ψ = -vy

V = 0,ϕ = -vx

Circulation, (Γ) = 0 around any closed curve

Sink flow: Flow is terminating on a single point called sink in radial direction.

vr=−q2πr,ψ=q2πθ{{\rm{v}}_{\rm{r}}} = \frac{{ - {\rm{q}}}}{{2{\rm{\pi r}}}},{\rm{\psi }} = \frac{{\rm{q}}}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}{\rm{\theta }}

vθ=0,ϕ=q2πln⁡r{{\rm{v}}_{\rm{\theta }}} = 0,\phi = \frac{{\rm{q}}}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}\ln {\rm{r}}

Irrotational vortex: Flow is circumferentially anti-clockwise in direction; centre is at origin.

Vr=0,;Ψ=−k2πln⁡r{{\rm{V}}_{\rm{r}}} = 0,{\rm{;\Psi }} = - \frac{{\rm{k}}}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}\ln {\rm{r}}

v0=k2πr,;ϕ=−k2πθ{{\rm{v}}_0} = \frac{{\rm{k}}}{{2{\rm{\pi r}}}},{\rm{;}}\phi = - \frac{{\rm{k}}}{{2{\rm{\pi }}}}{\rm{\theta }}

Circulation, (Γ) = k around any closed curve enclosing origin

Circulation, (Γ) = 0 around any closed curve not enclosing origin. 

Doublet: two different points as source and sink. Such that from one point it originates and at other point, it terminates.

vr=−Ar2cos⁡θ,ψ=−Arsin⁡θ{{\rm{v}}_{\rm{r}}} = \frac{{ - {\rm{A}}}}{{{{\rm{r}}^2}}}\cos {\rm{\theta }},{\rm{\psi }} = - \frac{{\rm{A}}}{{\rm{r}}}\sin {\rm{\theta }}

vθ=−Ar2sin⁡θ,ψ=−Acos⁡θr{{\rm{v}}_{\rm{\theta }}} = - \frac{{\rm{A}}}{{{{\rm{r}}^2}}}\sin {\rm{\theta }},{\rm{\psi }} = \frac{{ - {\rm{A}}\cos {\rm{\theta }}}}{{\rm{r}}}

Circulation, (Γ) = k around any closed curve enclosing origin.

Question 53

In a pipeline the hydraulic grade line is above the pipe centre line in the longitudinal section at point A and below the pipe centre line at another point B. From this it can be inferred that

  1. AOption (a)

    vacuum pressure prevails at B

  2. BOption (b)

    vacuum pressure prevails at A

  3. COption (c)

    the flow is from A to B

  4. DOption (d)

    the flow is from B to A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

vacuum pressure prevails at B

Why this answer is correct

Hydraulic Gradient line (HGL): It is a plot of piezo metric head (Pγ+Z)\left( {\frac{{\rm{P}}}{{\rm{\gamma }}} + {\rm{Z}}} \right) along the length of flow. It may rise or fall along flow direction.

Total Energy line (TEL): It is a plot of total head (piezometric head + kinematic head) (Pγ+z+v22g)\left( {\frac{{\rm{P}}}{{\rm{\gamma }}} + {\rm{z}} + \frac{{{{\rm{v}}^2}}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}} \right) along the length of flow. TEL always falls in the direction of flow.

At point A, because Hydraulic gradient line is above the elevation head i.e piezometric head ˃ elevation head

Pr+ZA>ZA\frac{P}{r} + {Z_A} > {Z_A}

⇒ PA/γ is positive

At point B, because Hydraulic gradient line is below the elevation head, i.e. piezometric head ˂ elevation head

PBr+ZB<ZB\frac{{{P_B}}}{r} + {Z_B} < {Z_B}

⇒ PB/γ is negative

i.e. vacuum pressure prevails at B.

Important Point:

At any point above the HGL, there is negative pressure or vacuum pressure and at any point below HGL there is positive pressure.

Question 54

In a steady incompressible fluid flow with uniform velocity distribution, the momentum flux in a given x-direction past a given section is expressed as Mx =

  1. AOption (a)

    ρQV

  2. BOption (b)

    ρV22\frac{{{\rm{\rho }}{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{2}

  3. COption (c)

    ρQVx

  4. DOption (d)

    Q2A\frac{{{Q^2}}}{A}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ρQVx

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Momentum flux : It is defined as a flow of momentum (mass × velocity) past a cross-section perpendicular to the flow.

Mathematically,

Momentum flux =(mass;flow)×(momentum→mass) = \left( {{\rm{mass;flow}}} \right) \times \left( {\frac{{\overrightarrow {{\rm{momentum}}} }}{{{\rm{mass}}}}} \right)

Where,

 momentum→mass\frac{{\overrightarrow {{\rm{momentum}}} }}{{{\rm{mass}}}} = velocity vector (v̅)

For incompressible flow momentum flux along any given direction x is given as

Mx = ρ × Q × Vx

Where, Vx is the velocity along that direction.

Important points:

ρQ has a unit of mass flow per unit time.

ρ (kg/m3) × Q (m3/s) = ρQ (kg/s)

Incompressible and Compressible flow: If the fluid density remains constant along with the flow it is called incompressible flow and when this density changes along with the flow it is called compressible flow.

Question 55

In a tidal model, the horizontal scale ratio is 1/1500. The vertical scale ratio is 1/50. The model period corresponding to a prototype period of 12 hours will be

  1. AOption (a)

    10 minutes 10 second

  2. BOption (b)

    1 minute 10 second

  3. COption (c)

    5 minutes 5 second

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None of the above

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

In tidal model, the most dominating of all the forces is gravity force and hence Froude’s law will be applicable in such cases.

As per this law, Froude number of model should be equal to Froude number of prototype i.e. FRM = FRP

\( \Rightarrow \frac{{{{\rm{V}}{\rm{m}}}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{g}}{{\rm{y}}{\rm{m}}}} }} = \frac{{{{\rm{V}}{\rm{p}}}}}{{\sqrt {{\rm{g}}{{\rm{y}}{\rm{p}}}} }}\)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{{{{\rm{V}}{\rm{m}}}}}{{{{\rm{V}}{\rm{p}}}}} = \sqrt {\frac{{{{\rm{y}}{\rm{m}}}}}{{{{\rm{y}}{\rm{p}}}}}} \)

\( \Rightarrow {{\rm{V}}{\rm{r}}} = \sqrt {{{\rm{L}}{{\rm{rv}}}}} \)

Thus, time ratio (tm) = \(\frac{{\frac{{{{\rm{L}}{\rm{m}}}}}{{{{\rm{T}}{\rm{m}}}}}}}{{\frac{{{{\rm{L}}{\rm{p}}}}}{{{{\rm{T}}{\rm{p}}}}}}} = \sqrt {{{\rm{L}}_{{\rm{rv}}}}} \)

\( \Rightarrow \frac{{{{\rm{L}}{\rm{m}}}}}{{{{\rm{L}}{\rm{p}}}}} \times \frac{{{{\rm{T}}{\rm{p}}}}}{{{{\rm{T}}{\rm{m}}}}} = \sqrt {{{\rm{L}}_{{\rm{rv}}}}} \)

Given:

Time period for prototype (Tp) = 12 hours and vertical scale ratio = 1/50

Calculation:

∴12Tm×11500=150\therefore \frac{{12}}{{{{\rm{T}}_{\rm{m}}}}} \times \frac{1}{{1500}} = \sqrt {\frac{1}{{50}}}

⇒ Tm = 0.056 hours = 0.056 × 60 min = 3.36 min = 3 min 21.6 sec

Important point:

Froude’s model law is applicable if free surface flow occurs such as flow over spillway, weir, flow in open channels and flow from jet orifice.

In the case of rivers, distorted model law is applicable because if all dimensions are reduced equally, the depth will become very small and hence predominant forces in actual condition may not remain predominant in model.

Question 56

The equation of motion for laminar flow of a real fluid are known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Euler’s equation

  2. BOption (b)

    Bernoulli’s equation

  3. COption (c)

    Navier-Stokes’ equation

  4. DOption (d)

    Hagen-Poiseuille equation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Navier-Stokes’ equation

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

In a typical laminar flow, the forces which are dominant while motion of fluid are viscous forces.

Navier-Stoke’s equation considered pressure and viscous forces into account and turbulence and surface tension forces was ignored.

Hence, Navier-Stoke’s equation represents equation of motion for laminar flow.

Euler’s Equation has assumptions as flow is laminar, irrotational and inviscid and it is given by

dpρ+gdz+vdv=0\frac{{{\rm{dp}}}}{{\rm{\rho }}} + {\rm{gdz}} + {\rm{vdv}} = 0

Where,

P = pressure, g =acceleration due to gravity, and v is the velocity.

Bernoulli’s Equation is used for incompressible flow. Flow is steady, flow is frictionless and inviscid fluid. Bernoulli’s equation is given by

pρ+gz+v22=constant\frac{{\rm{p}}}{{\rm{\rho }}} + {\rm{gz}} + \frac{{{{\rm{v}}^2}}}{2} = {\rm{constant}}

Hagen-Poiseuille flow: This flow is especially for a particular case of laminar flow through circular pipes only.

Question 57

In turbulent pipe flow, inside the laminar boundary, the velocity distribution is

  1. AOption (a)

    Parabolic

  2. BOption (b)

    Linear

  3. COption (c)

    Logarithmic

  4. DOption (d)

    Exponential decay type

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Linear

Why this answer is correct

Velocity distribution for turbulent flow in smooth pipe:

u=u∞kln⁡y+cu = \frac{{{u_\infty }}}{k}\ln y + c

Velocity distribution for laminar flow:

u=−14μ∂p∂x[R2−r2]u = - \frac{1}{{4\mu }}\frac{{\partial p}}{{\partial x}}\left[ {{R^2} - {r^2}} \right]

In turbulent pipe flow, the velocity distribution inside the laminar sublayer is linear, while in the outer turbulent layer, it follows a logarithmic law. 

The question is asking about the inside the laminar boundary, so linear will be the correct answer.

Additional Information

Question 58

The friction factor f in a laminar pipe flow was found to be 0.04. The Reynold’s number of the flow is

  1. AOption (a)

    2000

  2. BOption (b)

    1000

  3. COption (c)

    800

  4. DOption (d)

    1600

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1600

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

For laminar flow:

Friction factor (f) =64Re= \frac{{64}}{{{{\rm{R}}_{\rm{e}}}}}

For turbulent flow:

Friction factor (f) =0.316(Re)1/4 = \frac{{0.316}}{{{{\left( {{{\rm{R}}_{\rm{e}}}} \right)}^{1/4}}}}

Given:

Friction factor (f) = 0.04

∴ Re=(640.04)=1600\rm{R_e={(\frac{64}{0.04})}}=1600

Important Points:

→ Friction factor = 4 × Co-efficient of friction

→ For laminar flow, the friction factor is inversely proportional to the diameter of the pipe.

→ For turbulent flow, friction factor ∝ (dia of pipe)1/4

Question 59

In a turbulent flow through a pipe of radius r0, the radial distance at which the local velocity is equal to the mean velocity

  1. AOption (a)

    0.1 r0

  2. BOption (b)

    0.223 r0

  3. COption (c)

    0.777 r0

  4. DOption (d)

    0.5 r0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.223 r0

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The velocity distribution of a turbulent flow in a pipe in terms of mean velocity is given as:

u−uˉV∗=5.75log⁡10(yR)+3.75\frac{{{\rm{u}} - {\rm{\bar u}}}}{{{{\rm{V}}^{\rm{*}}}}} = 5.75{\log _{10}}\left( {\frac{{\rm{y}}}{{\rm{R}}}} \right) + 3.75

(For both rough and smooth pipe)

Where,

u is local velocity, u̅ is mean velocity, V* is shear velocity, R is the radius of pipe and y is the radial distance from the end.

Calculation:

Now, for local velocity to be equal to mean velocity; i.e. u = u̅ 

0=5.75log⁡(yR)+3.750 = 5.75\log \left( {\frac{{\rm{y}}}{{\rm{R}}}} \right) + 3.75

⇒log⁡(yR)=−3⋅755.75 \Rightarrow \log \left( {\frac{y}{R}} \right) = \frac{{ - 3 \cdot 75}}{{5.75}}

yR=0.223⇒y=0.223R\frac{{\rm{y}}}{{\rm{R}}} = 0.223 \Rightarrow {\rm{y}} = 0.223{\rm{R}}

Question 60

In the moody diagram the values of f for turbulent flow are based on

  1. AOption (a)

    Nikuradse’s uniform sand grain data.

  2. BOption (b)

    Date on non-uniform sand grains coated in pipe.

  3. COption (c)

    Colebook-white date on commercial pipe.

  4. DOption (d)

    Hazen-William pipe flow formula.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Colebook-white date on commercial pipe.

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Friction factor for laminar flow is dependent only on Reynold’s number and it is given as

f=64RE{\rm{f}} = \frac{{64}}{{{{\rm{R}}_{\rm{E}}}}}

Friction factor ‘f’ in turbulent flow is based on (KsD)\left( {\frac{{{{\rm{K}}_{\rm{s}}}}}{{\rm{D}}}} \right) ratio which is called as relative roughness.

Friction factor for Turbulent flow:-

For the turbulent flow regime, the relationship between the friction factor the Reynolds number Re, and the relative roughness is more complex. One model for this relationship is the Colebrook equation 

1. Smooth pipe:

\({\rm{f}} = \frac{{0.316}}{{{{\left( {{{\rm{R}}{\rm{E}}}} \right)}^{\frac{1}{4}}}}}{\rm{;}};{\rm{for;}}4000 \le {{\rm{R}}{\rm{E}}} \le {10^5}\)

\({\rm{f}} = 0.0032 + \frac{{0.221}}{{{{\left( {{{\rm{R}}{\rm{E}}}} \right)}^{0.237}}}}{\rm{;}};{\rm{for;}}{10^5} \le {{\rm{R}}{\rm{E}}} \le 4 \times {10^7}\)

2. Rough pipe:

\(\frac{1}{{\sqrt {\rm{f}} }} = 2{\log {10}}\left( {\frac{{\rm{R}}}{{{{\rm{K}}{\rm{s}}}}}} \right) + 1.74\)

The  above formula are called Nikuradse’s formula and has been obtained from artificially roughened pipe.

3. Neither smooth nor rough pipe:

Friction factor in transition is dependent on both Reynolds number and relative roughness and is obtained by Moody’s chart.

→ Friction factor for commercial pipes (Moody’s chart):

Here, \(\left( {\frac{{{{\rm{K}}_{{\rm{s}}3}}}}{{{{\rm{D}}3}}}} \right) > \left( {\frac{{{{\rm{K}}{{\rm{s}}2}}}}{{{{\rm{D}}2}}}} \right) > \left( {\frac{{{{\rm{K}}{{\rm{s}}1}}}}{{{{\rm{D}}_1}}}} \right)\)

The value of relative roughness depends upon the average roughness Ks. Nikuradse used the diameter of the uniform sand grain particles to represent the roughness ‘Ks’. Nikuradse performed an experiment by pasting screened sand grains of uniform diameter onto the inner wall of a tube and obtained the result across the pipe for various Reynold’s number.

Hence ‘f’ depends upon the Nikuradse’s uniform sand grain data and Reynolds number in a commercial pipe.

Important Point:

Although Moody’s chart has been derived for circular pipe but it can be used for other shape of cross section also provided that diameter is replaced by 4 times hydraulic radius.

Question 61

The head loss in a sudden expansion from 6 cm diameter pipe to 12 cm diameter pipe, in terms of velocity V1, in the 6 cm dia pipe is

  1. AOption (a)

    1516×V22g\frac{{15}}{{16}} \times \frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    34×V122g\frac{3}{4} \times \frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

  3. COption (c)

    14×V122g\frac{1}{4} \times \frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    916×V122g\frac{9}{{16}} \times \frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

916×V122g\frac{9}{{16}} \times \frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Head loss occurs in the expansion zone.

The general formula for minor head loss is given as kV22g\frac{{{\rm{k}}{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

where, V = velocity in smaller dia pipe

For sudden expansion head loss is given as,

hL;=;(V1−V2)22g{{\rm{h}}_{\rm{L}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{{\left( {{{\rm{V}}_1} - {{\rm{V}}_2}} \right)}^2}}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

⇒hL;=;V122g(1−V2V1)2;=;V122g(1−A1A2)2; \Rightarrow {{\rm{h}}_{\rm{L}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}{\left( {1 - \frac{{{{\rm{V}}_2}}}{{{{\rm{V}}_1}}}} \right)^2}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}{\left( {1 - \frac{{{{\rm{A}}_1}}}{{{{\rm{A}}_2}}}} \right)^2}{\rm{;}}

Comparing with the general formula for minor head loss hL=kV22g{{\rm{h}}_{\rm{L}}} = {\rm{k}}\frac{{{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

K;=;(1−A1A2)2{\rm{K;}} = {\rm{;}}{\left( {1 - \frac{{{{\rm{A}}_1}}}{{{{\rm{A}}_2}}}} \right)^2}

Given:

A1;=;π4×62;=;9π{{\rm{A}}_1}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{4} \times {6^2}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}9{\rm{\pi }}

A2;=;π4×122;=;36;π{{\rm{A}}_2}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{\rm{\pi }}}{4} \times {12^2}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}36{\rm{;\pi }}

∴;hL;=;V122g(1−9π36π)2;=;V122g(34)2=916V122g\therefore {\rm{;}}{{\rm{h}}_{\rm{L}}}{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}\left( {1 - \frac{{9{\rm{\pi }}}}{{36{\rm{\pi }}}}} \right)^2{\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}\left( {\frac{3}{4}} \right)^2= \frac{9}{16}\frac{{{\rm{V}}_1^2}}{{2{\rm{g}}}}

Question 62

For maximum transmission of power through a pipeline with total head, H, the head loss due to friction, (hf) is given by bf =

  1. AOption (a)

    H/3

  2. BOption (b)

    H/2

  3. COption (c)

    23H\frac{2}{3}H

  4. DOption (d)

    0.1 H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

H/3

Why this answer is correct

Net available head (h) at the outlet of the pipe is given by:

h = H - hf

 

Where,

H is the total head at the source and hf be the head loss in the transmission.

h=H−4flV22gd\rm{h = H - \frac{{4fl{V^2}}}{{2gd}}}

Power available at the pipe outlet is given by:

P=w×Q×h=w×π4×d2×V[H−4flV22gd]\rm{P = w\times Q\times h = w\times\frac{\pi }{4}\times{d^2}\times V\left[ {H - \frac{{4fl{V^2}}}{{2gd}}} \right]}

For maximum power

dPdV=0;to;H=3hf\rm{\frac{dP}{{dV}} = 0; \\to ;H = 3{h_f}}

∴ hf = H/3.

Question 63

Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D and friction f, are connected in parallel between two points. The length of a single pipe of diameter D and the same friction f, equivalent to the above pair is 

  1. AOption (a)

    2L\sqrt {2L}

  2. BOption (b)

    L/2

  3. COption (c)

    L/√2

  4. DOption (d)

    L/4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

L/4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Equivalent pipe: It refers to imaginary pipes that are used to determine the head loss and discharge considering that the head loss and discharge in the actual pipe are the same as that of the equivalent pipe.

The length and friction factor of the equivalent pipe need not be equal to the actual pipe.

Given:

When two pipes are connected in parallel which have same dia, length and friction factor then the discharge gets equally distributed.

Head loss given by Darcy weisbach formula,

hL=flV22gD=fLQ212.1;D5{{\rm{h}}_{\rm{L}}} = \frac{{{\rm{fl}}{{\rm{V}}^2}}}{{2{\rm{gD}}}} = \frac{{{\rm{fL}}{{\rm{Q}}^2}}}{{12.1{\rm{;}}{{\rm{D}}^5}}}

When pipes are connected in parallel,

hL=fL;(Q2)212.1;D5=fLQ24×12.1;D5{{\rm{h}}_{\rm{L}}} = \frac{{{\rm{fL;}}{{\left( {\frac{{\rm{Q}}}{2}} \right)}^2}}}{{12.1{\rm{;}}{{\rm{D}}^5}}} = \frac{{{\rm{fL}}{{\rm{Q}}^2}}}{{4 \times 12.1{\rm{;}}{{\rm{D}}^5}}}

Let the equivalent length of pipe having diameter D and same discharge be L’. The head loss through this pipe is given as

h′L=fL′Q212.1;D5{\rm{h}}{{\rm{'}}_{\rm{L}}} = \frac{{{\rm{fL'}}{{\rm{Q}}^2}}}{{12.1{\rm{;}}{{\rm{D}}^5}}}

But for the pipes to be equivalent both head losses should be equal :

∴f;L;Q24×12.1;D5=f;L′Q212.1;D5\therefore \frac{{{\rm{f;L;}}{{\rm{Q}}^2}}}{{4 \times 12.1{\rm{;}}{{\rm{D}}^5}}} = \frac{{{\rm{f;L'}}{{\rm{Q}}^2}}}{{12.1{\rm{;}}{{\rm{D}}^5}}}

⇒L′;=;L4 \Rightarrow {\rm{L';}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{\rm{L}}}{4}

Question 64

Which one of the following is analogous to normal shock wave?

  1. AOption (a)

    An elementary wave in a still liquid

  2. BOption (b)

    Flow of liquid in an expanding nozzle.

  3. COption (c)

    Hydraulic jump

  4. DOption (d)

    Subcritical flow in a rough channel.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

An elementary wave in a still liquid

Why this answer is correct

Normal shock wave:

  • Shock waves that occur in a plane which is normal to the direction of flow are called normal shock wave.
  • An elementary wave in a still liquid is an example of normal shock wave.

Important Points

  • Abrupt changes in fluid properties across a very thin section is called as shock wave. Shock waves have large amplitude.
  • Hydraulic jump occurs in a channel when flow condition changes from supercritical to subcritical. There is an abrupt rise in flow depth and it is an example of rapidly varied flow.

Question 65

The Mach number, M of a compressible fluid flow is 0.3 < M < 0.8. The fluid flow is usually classified as

  1. AOption (a)

    Incompressible

  2. BOption (b)

    Subsonic

  3. COption (c)

    Supersonic

  4. DOption (d)

    Hypersonic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Subsonic

Why this answer is correct

Gases are considered to be compressible only if its Mach number is greater than 0.3. Hence, for Mach number, less than 0.3 gases are considered incompressible as density change in the fluid is insignificant.

Note:

Based on Mach Number, Gases are classified as:

  • Ma < 0.3: incompressible flow; change in density is negligible
  • 0.3< Ma < 0.8: Subsonic flow; density changes are significant, but shock waves do not appear
  • 0.8< Ma < 1.2: transonic flow; shock waves appear and divide the subsonic and supersonic regions of the flow; Transonic flow is characterized by mixed regions of locally subsonic and supersonic flow
  • 1.2 < Ma < 5.0: supersonic flow; flow field everywhere is above acoustic speed; Shock waves appear and across the shock wave, the streamline changes direction discontinuously
  • 5.0 < Ma: hypersonic flow; where the temperature, pressure, and density of the flow increase almost explosively across the shock wave

Question 66

With the increasing aging of pipes, the proportion between maximum velocity and the mean velocity in turbulent flow

  1. AOption (a)

    Initially decreases and then increases

  2. BOption (b)

    Initially increases and then decreases

  3. COption (c)

    decreases

  4. DOption (d)

    increases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

increases

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Common mean velocity distribution for turbulent flow,

u−uˉV∗=5.75log⁡10yR+3.75\frac{{u - \bar u}}{{{V^*}}} = 5.75{\log _{10}}\frac{y}{R} + 3.75

Where, V* = shear velocity, u = Flow velocity, u̅ = avg. velocity

V∗=uˉ×f8{V^*} = \bar u \times \sqrt {\frac{f}{8}}

f = friction factor

At y = R, u = umax

umax−uˉuˉ×f8=3.78\frac{{{u_{max}} - \bar u}}{{\bar u \times \sqrt {\frac{f}{8}} }} = 3.78

umaxuˉ−1=3.758×f\frac{{{u_{max}}}}{{\bar u}} - 1 = \frac{{3.75}}{{\sqrt 8 }} \times \sqrt f

umaxuˉ=1+1.33;f\frac{{{u_{max}}}}{{\bar u}} = 1 + 1.33;\sqrt f

umaxuˉ=1+1.43;f\frac{{{u_{max}}}}{{\bar u}} = 1 + 1.43;\sqrt f

So, from the above equations, we can conclude that the Ratio of maximum velocity to mean velocity is dependent on the friction factor.

As the pipe ages, the absolute roughness increases linearly with time.

So, the proportion between maximum velocity and the mean velocity in turbulent flow increases.

Question 67

In a laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates, the shear stress is

  1. AOption (a)

    constant across the passage

  2. BOption (b)

    maximum at centre and zero at boundary

  3. COption (c)

    zero all through the passage

  4. DOption (d)

    maximum at the boundary and zero at the centre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

maximum at the boundary and zero at the centre

Why this answer is correct

For the flow between two parallel spaced plates (as shown in the figure below): 

The velocity distribution is given by:

v=12μ(−∂p∂x)(By−y2)\rm{v = \frac{1}{{2\mu }}\left( {\frac{{ - \partial p}}{{\partial x}}} \right)\left( {By - {y^2}} \right)}

Shear stress is given by:

τ=μdudy τ=12×(−∂p∂x)(B−2y) y=B2,;τ=0\rm{\begin{array}{l} \rm{\tau = \mu \frac{{du}}{{dy}}}\ \rm{\tau= \frac{1}{2} \times \left( { - \frac{{\partial p}}{{\partial x}}} \right)\left( {B - 2y} \right)}\ y = \frac{B}{2},;\tau = 0 \end{array}}

At y = 0, τ = τmax

Thus, the stress distribution across a section is depicted below:

∴ The shear stress is maximum at the boundaries and zero at the center.

Question 68

The Blasius equation for friction factor ’f’ in a turbulent flow through pipes relates ‘f’ to the Reynold’s number ‘Re’ as, f =

  1. AOption (a)

    65/Re

  2. BOption (b)

    0.316Re14\frac{{0.316}}{{{\rm{R}}{{\rm{e}}^{\frac{1}{4}}}}}

  3. COption (c)

    1.328Re12\frac{{1.328}}{{{\rm{R}}{{\rm{e}}^{\frac{1}{2}}}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    0.316Re15\frac{{0.316}}{{{\rm{R}}{{\rm{e}}^{\frac{1}{5}}}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.316Re14\frac{{0.316}}{{{\rm{R}}{{\rm{e}}^{\frac{1}{4}}}}}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

For laminar flow:

Friction factor (f) =64Re= \frac{{64}}{{{{\rm{R}}_{\rm{e}}}}}

For turbulent flow:

Case I: Smooth Pipe

Friction factor (f) =0.316(Re)1/4 = \frac{{0.316}}{{{{\left( {{{\rm{R}}_{\rm{e}}}} \right)}^{1/4}}}}

Case II: Rough Pipe

1f=2log⁡10(rk)+1.74\frac{1}{{\sqrt {\rm{f}} }} = 2{\log _{10}}\left( {\frac{{\rm{r}}}{{\rm{k}}}} \right) + 1.74

Case III: In between smooth & rough (Transition)

Friction (f) = ϕ(Re,kD)\rm{\phi (R_e, \frac{k}{D})}

It is the function of Reynold's No and roughness depth value. The exact value is obtained from Moody's Diagram.

∴ The most appropriate option is 0.316Re14\frac{{0.316}}{{{\rm{R}}{{\rm{e}}^{\frac{1}{4}}}}} for turbulent flow.

Question 69

According to Lacey, regime theory is applicable to channel in

  1. AOption (a)

    Initial regime

  2. BOption (b)

    True regime

  3. COption (c)

    Final regime

  4. DOption (d)

    (b) and (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(b) and (c)

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Lacey’s regime theory:

According to Lacey,

If a channel is showing no silting – scouring, then also it can’t be said that it is in the regime or not.

The perfect regime conditions do not exist and the three types of regime possible in a channel are as follows:

a) True regime: A channel can be in regime if there is neither silting nor scouring is occurring and there is only one such channel present at which true Regime conditions prevail.

b) Initial Regime: It is the state of the channel that has only formed its section and is yet to form the longitudinal bed slope completely.

c) Final regime: This stage is achieved by the channel when both the slope and width of the channel can be adjusted.

Hence, Lacey’s regime theory is applicable to true regime and final regime.

Question 70

For a hydraulically efficient triangular section the hydraulic radius, R =

  1. AOption (a)

    2√2 y

  2. BOption (b)

    y2√2\frac{y}{{2\surd 2}}

  3. COption (c)

    y/2

  4. DOption (d)

    y

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

y2√2\frac{y}{{2\surd 2}}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Most efficient channel: A channel is said to be efficient if it carries the maximum discharge for the given cross-section which is achieved when the wetted perimeter is kept a minimum.

For a triangular channel, the channel with a side slope of 1:1 is the most efficient channel.

The hydraulic radius for the given section is the ratio of the cross-sectional area to the wetted perimeter of the section.

R=AP=y222y=y22{\rm{R}} = {\rm{}}\frac{{\rm{A}}}{{\rm{P}}} = \frac{{{{\rm{y}}^2}}}{{2\sqrt 2 {\rm{y}}}} = \frac{{\rm{y}}}{{2\sqrt 2 }}

Important Point:

Froude;number=Q2TgA3{\rm{Froude;number}} = \sqrt {\frac{{{{\rm{Q}}^2}{\rm{T}}}}{{{\rm{g}}{{\rm{A}}^3}}}}

Where, Q = discharge, T = top width, g = acceleration due to gravity and A = area of flow

Question 71

The effect of sinking of supports by ‘δ’ is to create a bending moment equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    2EIδl2\frac{{2{\rm{EI\delta }}}}{{{{\rm{l}}^2}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    6EIδl2\frac{{6{\rm{EI\delta }}}}{{{{\rm{l}}^2}}}

  3. COption (c)

    3EIδℓ2\frac{{3{\rm{EI\delta }}}}{{{\ell ^2}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    EIδℓ2\frac{{{\rm{EI\delta }}}}{{{\ell ^2}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6EIδl2\frac{{6{\rm{EI\delta }}}}{{{{\rm{l}}^2}}}

Why this answer is correct

Let a continuous beam ABCD as follows:

Let the support B takes by ‘δ’ mm

Clockwise moment is considered negative and anticlockwise moment is considered positive.

Moment due to loading without sink of support B is depicted as below:

Moment produced due to downward sink of the support B is as below:

∴ The effect of the sinking of supports by ‘δ’ is to create a bending moment equal to 6EIδl2\frac{{6{\rm{EI\delta }}}}{{{{\rm{l}}^2}}}.

Question 72

Column Analogy method may be used to analyse

  1. AOption (a)

    Fixed beam

  2. BOption (b)

    Portal frame

  3. COption (c)

    Box frame

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Column analogy method: It is a method used to analyze indeterminate structures specifically fixed beams, frames, and arches. It is ideally suited for computing stiffness and carryover factor in beams and frames having variable cross-section.

Note:

  • It is applicable to a maximum of 3rd degree of indeterminacy.
  • It is based on the mathematical similarity between the stresses developed on a column section and the moment imposed due to the fixity of support.

 

A fixed beam has three degrees of static indeterminacy and hence column analogy method is used to analyze fixed beam only.

Any portal frame and box frame up to 3 degrees of indeterminacy can also be analyzed using the column analogy method.

Question 73

Which of the followings are indeterminate structure?

  1. AOption (a)

    3-hinged arch

  2. BOption (b)

    continuous beam

  3. COption (c)

    redundant frame

  4. DOption (d)

    both (b) and (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

both (b) and (c)

Why this answer is correct

It is statically determinate and all the reactions can be found using equations of static equilibrium only.  The internal hinge present makes the 3 hinged arch, statically determinate.

A continuous beam is a statically indeterminate structure and degree of indeterminacy depends on support conditions.

The above shown frame is an example of redundant frame. It is also statically indeterminate to 3 degree.

Hence continuous beam and redundant frame are statically indeterminate structures.

Important Point:

Statically Determinate Structures: Those structures in which reactions and internal member forces can be obtained from equations of static equilibrium only the called statically determinate structures. e.g. simply supported Beam, 3 hinged arch.

Statically Indeterminate Structure: Those structures where all the member forces and support reactions cannot be evaluated using equations of static equilibrium only and need additional compatibility equations are called statically indeterminate structures. e.g. fixed Beam, 2-hinged arch.

Question 74

No. of degree of static indeterminancy for the beam shown below is

  1. AOption (a)

    -1

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The degree of static indeterminacy refers to the extra number of compatibility/equilibrium equations required in order to find all the support reactions and member forces.

For a beam,

Ds = (No. of support reactions removed) – (No. of restrains added)

The above result is to make a cantilever.

Thus in the beam given,

Thus,

No. of support reactions removed = 3

No. of restraints added = 3

⇒ Ds = 3 – 3 = 0

Alternate Method Reaction at Hinge = 2 as there are 2 Hinges ; Total Reaction = 4

Reaction at Roller = 1

Number of Internal Hinges = 2

Each internal hinge is connected to 2 members (n)

External equilibrium equation because of internal Hinge = ( n - 1) = (2 - 1) = 1

As 2 internal Hinge So 2 External Equilibrium equation

We know 3 equilibrium equations : ΣMx = 0, ΣFy = 0, ΣFx = 0. (3 Reactions)

So Ds = 4 + 1 - (3) - (2) = 0

Question 75

In the truss shown below which statement is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Externally unstable

  2. BOption (b)

    Internally unstable

  3. COption (c)

    Statically determinate structure

  4. DOption (d)

    Statically indeterminate structure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Internally unstable

Why this answer is correct

For a truss, degree of static indeterminacy = m + r – 2j

Where,

m = number of members, r = number of reactions, and j = number of Joints

In the given truss,

m = 9, r = 3, j = 6

∴ Ds = 9 + 3 – 2 × 6

Ds = 0

The given truss is determinate but internally unstable due to the absence of triangular mechanism in the right panel of the truss.

Note: There are 6 (m) members present in left panel but the requirement is 5 members (i.e. 2j-3) So, left panel is overstiff to one degree. In the right panel, there are 4 (m) members present but the requirement of 5 members (i.e. 2j-3). Therefore, it is internally unstable.

Question 76

The fixed end moment at A for the structure shown below is:

  1. AOption (a)

    40 kN-m

  2. BOption (b)

    80 kN-m

  3. COption (c)

    100 kN-m

  4. DOption (d)

    120 kN-m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

40 kN-m

Why this answer is correct

The distance of 20 kN load from the fixed end is 2m.

Thus moment at fixed end A

= Load × Perpendicular distance from load

= 20 × 2

= 40 kN - m

Question 77

For the beam shown below, correct BMD is:

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Let RA and RB are the reactions on both the supports.

Now applying the equilibrium equations:

\(\sum {{\rm{F}}{\rm{v}}} = 0 \Rightarrow {{\rm{R}}{\rm{A}}} + {{\rm{R}}{\rm{B}}} = 0 \Rightarrow {{\rm{R}}{\rm{A}}} = - {{\rm{R}}_{\rm{B}}}\)

Moment about A is taken as zero.

\(\sum {{\rm{M}}{\rm{A}}} = 0 \Rightarrow \sum {{\rm{M}}{\rm{A}}} = {\rm{M}} - {{\rm{R}}_{\rm{B}}} \times {\rm{L}} = 0\)

\({{\rm{R}}{\rm{B}}} = \frac{{\rm{M}}}{{\rm{L}}}{\rm{and;}}{{\rm{R}}{\rm{A}}} = - \frac{{\rm{M}}}{{\rm{L}}}\)

Now moment at arbitrary location x from left side,

\({{\rm{M}}{\rm{x}}} = {{\rm{R}}{\rm{A}}} \times {\rm{x}}\)

⇒Mx=−MxLup;to;0<x<L2\Rightarrow {{\rm{M}}_{\rm{x}}} = \frac{{ - {\rm{Mx}}}}{{\rm{L}}}{\rm{up;to;}}0 < {\rm{x}} < \frac{{\rm{L}}}{2}

Mx=M−MxL,;for;x≥L2{{\rm{M}}_{\rm{x}}} = {\rm{M}} - \frac{{{\rm{Mx}}}}{{\rm{L}}},{\rm{;for;x}} \ge \frac{{\rm{L}}}{2}

At x = 0 and L, Mx = 0 and at x = L/2, Mx = M/2

BMD:

Question 78

The ILD of thrust in a 2 hinge parabolic arch is 

  1. AOption (a)

    Parabolic

  2. BOption (b)

    Circular

  3. COption (c)

    Triangular

  4. DOption (d)

    Funicular Polygon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Parabolic

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The influence line diagram for thrust in parabolic arch:

The horizontal thrust due to a concentrated load W at a distance x from end A is given by:

H=58WL3hx(L−x)(L2+xL−x2){\rm{H}} = \frac{5}{8}\frac{{\rm{W}}}{{{{\rm{L}}^3}{\rm{h}}}}{\rm{x}}\left( {{\rm{L}} - {\rm{x}}} \right)\left( {{{\rm{L}}^2} + {\rm{xL}} - {{\rm{x}}^2}} \right)

Which is a 4° parabolic equation.

Now, to draw influence line diagram for horizontal thrust, W = 1 kN

H=58hL3x(L−x)(L2+xL−x2){\rm{H}} = \frac{5}{{8{\rm{h}}{{\rm{L}}^3}}}{\rm{x}}\left( {{\rm{L}} - {\rm{x}}} \right)\left( {{{\rm{L}}^2} + {\rm{xL}} - {{\rm{x}}^2}} \right)

⇒H=58hx(1−2x2L2+x3L3)\Rightarrow {\rm{H}} = \frac{5}{{8{\rm{h}}}}{\rm{x}}\left( {1 - \frac{{2{{\rm{x}}^2}}}{{{{\rm{L}}^2}}} + \frac{{{{\rm{x}}^3}}}{{{{\rm{L}}^3}}}} \right)

Question 79

The reaction at support A for the beam shown below is

  1. AOption (a)

    15 kN

  2. BOption (b)

    16 kN

  3. COption (c)

    17 kN

  4. DOption (d)

    18 kN

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16 kN

Why this answer is correct

FBD

Now, considering beam only with loadings transferred as shown

∑Fy = 0

⇒ RA + RE = 30 kN     ---(i)

⇒ 20 × 2 + 40 + 10 × (6 + 2) – 20 – RE × 10 = 0

⇒ RE = 14 kN

⇒ RA = 16 kN

Question 80

The point of contraflexure is a point where

  1. AOption (a)

    Shear force changes sign

  2. BOption (b)

    Bending moment changes sign

  3. COption (c)

    Shear force is maximum

  4. DOption (d)

    Bending moment is maximum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bending moment changes sign

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • In a bending beam, a point of contraflexure is a location where the bending moment is zero (changes its sign). In a bending moment diagram, it is the point at which the bending moment curve intersects with the zero lines.
  • At the point of contraflexure, the bending moment is zero.

For example:

A propped cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load over the entire span

The corresponding BMD is

At distance L/4 from the left support, we get point of contraflexure, as there is the change in sign. At that point, the Bending moment is zero.

Question 81

A two hinged arch is statically indeterminate by

  1. AOption (a)

    0 degree

  2. BOption (b)

    1 degree

  3. COption (c)

    2 degree

  4. DOption (d)

    3 degree

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 degree

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Degree of indeterminacy is determined by the following formula:

Degree of indeterminacy = No. of unknown reactions – No. of equilibrium equations – No of external hinges.

Calculation:

No. of unknown forces in a two hinges arch = 4

No. of equilibrium conditions = 3

Degree of indeterminacy = 4 - 3 = 1

Question 82

In three hinged arch, maximum hogging moment occurs when, the point load is at

  1. AOption (a)

    springing

  2. BOption (b)

    crown

  3. COption (c)

    quarter span

  4. DOption (d)

    the section itself

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

crown

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

When load is at springing:

Clearly, horizontal thrusts would be zero.

Hence, moment at a section x distance from A is:

Mx = P x – H (x) = 0

When load is at x distance from left:

Hence, Maximum moment will occur when thrust becomes maximum.

dHAdx=0⇒x=L2\frac{{{\rm{d}}{{\rm{H}}_{\rm{A}}}}}{{{\rm{dx}}}} = 0 \Rightarrow {\rm{x}} = \frac{{\rm{L}}}{2}

Hence, the maximum hogging moment will be generated when point load is at the crown.

Question 83

Deflections in a truss depends upon

  1. AOption (a)

    axial rigidity

  2. BOption (b)

    flexural rigidity

  3. COption (c)

    axial and flexural rigidity

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

axial rigidity

Why this answer is correct

Assumption for truss analysis are as follows:

Truss members are designed to take axial load.

The forces are assumed to act at the joint only.

All the joints are hinged.

Members of a truss do not carry any Flexural load.

Hence the deflection of a truss depends on axial rigidity only.

Important Point:

Beams and frames carry flexural load as well as axial load.

Question 84

Influence line diagram for bending moment in a simply supported beam is a

  1. AOption (a)

    straight line

  2. BOption (b)

    parabola

  3. COption (c)

    triangle

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

triangle

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Above is the simply supported beam AB. A section x-x is taken at x distance from left side A.

A unit load is applied and unit rotation is provided at x-x section. Then, BMs due to rolling action of load at different section is given by:

\({{\rm{M}}{\rm{x}}} = {{\rm{R}}{\rm{a}}} \times {\rm{x}} - 1 \times {\rm{x}} \Rightarrow {{\rm{M}}{\rm{x}}} = \left( {{{\rm{R}}{\rm{A}}} - 1} \right){\rm{x}}\)

RA=L−xL{{\rm{R}}_{\rm{A}}} = \frac{{{\rm{L}} - {\rm{x}}}}{{\rm{L}}}

Mx=x(L−a)L{{\rm{M}}_{\rm{x}}} = \frac{{{\rm{x}}\left( {{\rm{L}} - {\rm{a}}} \right)}}{{\rm{L}}}

X = L, Mc = 0 and at x = 0, Mc = 0

The above equation is a one degree equation in terms of x and hence and shape ILD for BM will be a Triangle.

Question 85

For a fixed beam loaded as shown below, if the support, B rotates + θB radian anticlockwise, the fixed end moment at ‘B’ is

  1. AOption (a)

    −Wl212+2EIθBl- \frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{l}}^2}}}{{12}} + \frac{{2{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_{\rm{B}}}}}{{\rm{l}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    −Wl212+4EIθBl - \frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{l}}^2}}}{{12}} + \frac{{4{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_{\rm{B}}}}}{{\rm{l}}}

  3. COption (c)

    +Wl212+2EIθBl + \frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{l}}^2}}}{{12}} + \frac{{2{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_{\rm{B}}}}}{{\rm{l}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    +Wl212+4EIθBl + \frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{l}}^2}}}{{12}} + \frac{{4{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_{\rm{B}}}}}{{\rm{l}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

−Wl212+4EIθBl - \frac{{{\rm{W}}{{\rm{l}}^2}}}{{12}} + \frac{{4{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_{\rm{B}}}}}{{\rm{l}}}

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

For the given fixed beams:

Fixed end moments can be thought of as the superposition of moments induced due to uniformly distributed load and due to rotational slip of end B calculated separately.

Thus net fixed end moment at B –

MBA = MBA1 – MBA2 {Taking clockwise as positive}

Calculation for moment uniformly distributed load:-

By using standard result,

MBA1=wℓ212{{\rm{M}}_{{\rm{BA}}1}} = \frac{{{\rm{w}}{\ell ^2}}}{{12}}

Calculation for moment due to rotational slip:-

Compatibility Equation:

θB = -θ0

⇒ On conjugate Beam - S.F at B = - θ0  

δB = 0

⇒ On conjugate Beam - B.M at B = 0

From BMD

−M1ℓEI+M1+M2EI×ℓ2=−θ0 - \frac{{{{\rm{M}}_1}\ell }}{{{\rm{EI}}}} + \frac{{{{\rm{M}}_1} + {{\rm{M}}_2}}}{{{\rm{EI}}}} \times \frac{\ell }{2} = - {{\rm{\theta }}_0}         ---(i)

&

M1+;M2EI×ℓ2×2ℓ3−M1EI×ℓ×ℓ2=0\frac{{{{\rm{M}}_1} + {\rm{;}}{{\rm{M}}_2}}}{{{\rm{EI}}}} \times \frac{\ell }{2} \times \frac{{2\ell }}{3} - \frac{{{{\rm{M}}_1}}}{{{\rm{EI}}}} \times \ell \times \frac{\ell }{2} = 0

⇒M1+M23−M12=0 \Rightarrow \frac{{{{\rm{M}}_1} + {{\rm{M}}_2}}}{3} - \frac{{{{\rm{M}}_1}}}{2} = 0

⇒M23−M16=0 \Rightarrow \frac{{{{\rm{M}}_2}}}{3} - \frac{{{{\rm{M}}_1}}}{6} = 0

⇒ M1 = 2M2

From (1)

−2M1+M1+M2=−2EIθ0ℓ - 2{{\rm{M}}_1} + {{\rm{M}}_1} + {{\rm{M}}_2} = \frac{{ - 2{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_0}}}{\ell }

⇒M2−;M1=−2EIθ0ℓ \Rightarrow {{\rm{M}}_2} - {\rm{;}}{{\rm{M}}_1} = \frac{{ - 2{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_0}}}{\ell }

⇒M2−2M2=−2EIθ0L\Rightarrow {{\rm{M}}_2} - 2{{\rm{M}}_2} = \frac{{ - 2{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_0}}}{{\rm{L}}}

⇒M2=2EIθ0ℓ \Rightarrow {{\rm{M}}_2} = \frac{{2{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_0}}}{\ell }

& M1=4EIθ0ℓ{{\rm{M}}_1} = \frac{{4{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}_0}}}{\ell }

Thus MBA2 = M1 as explained above

⇒MBA2=4EIθBℓ\Rightarrow {M_{BA2}} = \frac{{4EI{\theta _B}}}{\ell }

Hence

MBA=wℓ212−4EIθBℓ{M_{BA}} = \frac{{w{\ell ^2}}}{{12}} - \frac{{4EI{\theta _B}}}{\ell }

∵ Our assumed direction is not similar to those given in the option hence the adopted sign convention must be opposite to that given. Adopting proper sign convention.

\( \Rightarrow {{\rm{M}}{{\rm{BA}}}} = {\rm{;}} - \frac{{{\rm{w}}{\ell ^2}}}{{12}} + \frac{{4{\rm{EI}}{{\rm{\theta }}{\rm{B}}}}}{\ell }\)

Question 86

Stiffness matrix with reference to coordinates 1, 2 and 3 as shown in Fig. below is:

  1. AOption (a)

    \(\left[ K \right] = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} {4EI/l}&{ - 6EI/{l^2}}&0\ { - 6EI/{l^2}}&{12EI/{l^3}}&0\ 0&0&{AE/l} \end{array}} \right]\)

  2. BOption (b)

    \(\left[ K \right] = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} { - 6EI/{l^2}}&{4EI/l}&0\ {4EI/l}&{12EI/{l^3}}&0\ 0&0&{AE/l} \end{array}} \right]\)

  3. COption (c)

    \(\left[ K \right] = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} 0&{4EI/l}&{ - 6EI/{l^2}}\ {4EI/l}&0&{12EI/{l^3}}\ 0&0&{AE/l} \end{array}} \right]\)

  4. DOption (d)

    \(\left[ K \right] = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} 0&{4EI/l}&{ - 6EI/{l^2}}\ {4EI/l}&0&{12EI/{l^3}}\ {AE/l}&0&0 \end{array}} \right]\)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

\(\left[ K \right] = \left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} {4EI/l}&{ - 6EI/{l^2}}&0\ { - 6EI/{l^2}}&{12EI/{l^3}}&0\ 0&0&{AE/l} \end{array}} \right]\)

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Development of stiffness matrix:

To develop jth column of a stiffness matrix – unit displacements will be given in jth coordinate direction without giving displacement in any other coordinate directions and forces developed in all the coordinate direction are found out.

Ist Column:

K11=4EIℓ{{\rm{K}}_{11}} = \frac{{4{\rm{EI}}}}{\ell }

K21=−6EIℓ2{{\rm{K}}_{21}} = - \frac{{6{\rm{EI}}}}{{{\ell ^2}}}

K31=0{{\rm{K}}_{31}} = 0

IInd Column:

K12=;−6EIℓ2{{\rm{K}}_{12}} = {\rm{;}} - \frac{{6{\rm{EI}}}}{{{\ell ^2}}}

K22=12EIℓ3{{\rm{K}}_{22}} = \frac{{12{\rm{EI}}}}{{{\ell ^3}}}

K32=0{{\rm{K}}_{32}} = 0

IIIrd column:

K13 = 0

K23 = 0

K33=AEℓ{{\rm{K}}_{33}} = \frac{{{\rm{AE}}}}{\ell }

Thus, the stiffeness matrix is

\(\left[ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}} {\frac{{4EI}}{\ell }}&{ - \frac{{6EI}}{\ell }}&0\ { - \frac{{6EI}}{{{\ell ^2}}}}&{\frac{{12EI}}{{{\ell ^3}}}}&0\ 0&0&{\frac{{AE}}{\ell }} \end{array}} \right]\)

Important Point:

Stiffness Matrix is a displacement method of analysis in which Degree of Kinematic Indeterminacy is found and number of coordinate direction are chosen accordingly. The structure is analysed by developing stiffness matrix.

Flexibility Matrix is a force method of analysis in which Degree of Static Indeterminacy is found and number of coordinate direction are chosen accordingly. The structure is analysed by developing flexibility matrix.

Question 87

The plastic theory is generally used for

  1. AOption (a)

    Column

  2. BOption (b)

    Beams

  3. COption (c)

    Rigid frame structures

  4. DOption (d)

    Roofs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rigid frame structures

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

In plastic method of design, strength is considered beyond yield strength; i.e. Ultimate strength and behaviour of material in plastic range is considered.

The structure fails at much higher load than the working load and that is called as Collapse load. To represent Collapse load, plastic section modulus (ZP) is used which is the ratio of plastic moment to yield stress.

In plastic design, plastic hinges are formed followed by collapse occurs at those points. Hence, large deformations observed.

Generally, rigid frame structures are designed on the basis of plastic theory as they have zero degree of freedom and hence plastic hinge formation will require time.

Hence, before failure it will absorb much load and large deformations will be shown.

When entire cross-section of structure becomes plastic, infinite rotations take place.

Question 88

The reversible nature of loads are

  1. AOption (a)

    Earthquake loads

  2. BOption (b)

    Wind loads

  3. COption (c)

    Both (a) and (b)

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both (a) and (b)

Why this answer is correct

When the direction of loads changes during the life cycle of a structure they are called as reversible loads. Earthquake loads are reversible in nature and it depends on the direction of acceleration of the tectonic plates.

It is generated due to inertia force produced because of seismic excitations.

Wind exerts loading on a structure because of air density and it also changes its direction depending upon the velocity of wind.

Hence earthquake and wind loads are reversible in nature.

Important Point:

IS 875: Part 1: Dead Load, Part 2 – Imposed Load, Part 3 – Wind Load, and Part 4 – Snow Load

IS 1873:2002 – Earthquake Load.

Question 89

An under reinforced section means

  1. AOption (a)

    reinforcing steel reaches its yield stress first

  2. BOption (b)

    concrete reaches its maximum stress first

  3. COption (c)

    reinforcement provided is equal to maximum reinforcement

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

reinforcing steel reaches its yield stress first

Why this answer is correct

The different types of sections are as follows:

Under reinforcedBalanced sectionOver reinforced
Xu < Xu(lim)Xu = Xu(lim)Xu > Xu(lim)
Ast < Ast(lim)Ast = Ast(lim)Ast > Ast(lim)
MOR < MORlimMOR = MORlimMOR > MORlim
Z > ZlimZ = ZlimZ < Zlim
Steel yields first then concrete reaches maximum strain of 0.0035Both steel yields and concrete reaches a maximum strain of 0.0035 simultaneouslyConcrete reaches a maximum strain of 0.0035 before steel yields
The final failure is due to cracking of concrete (when strain is 0.0035)
Ductile failure (Gradual / Warning is issued)Brittle failure (Sudden / No warning is issued)
Secondary compression failurePrimary compression failure

Question 90

The live load to be considered for an inaccessible roof is 

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    75 kg/m2

  3. COption (c)

    150 kg/m2

  4. DOption (d)

    250 kg/m2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

75 kg/m2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The live load considered for an inaccessible roof is 75 kg/m2. This is obtained from is 875 – Part – 2.

Type of RoofUniformly Distributed Imposed load Measured on Plan areaMinimum Imposed Load Measured on Plan
1. Flat, sloping or curved roof with slopes up to and including to degrees.
(a) Access provided1.5 kN/m23.75 kN uniformly distributed over any span of one metre width of the roof slab and 9 kN uniformly distributed over the span of any beam or truss or wall
(b) Access not provided except for maintenance0.75 kN/m21.9 kN uniformly distributed over any span of one metre width of the roof slab and 4.5 kN uniformly distributed over the span of any beam or truss or wall
2. Sloping roof with slope greater than 10 degrees
For roof membrane sheets or put-line 0.75 kN/m2 less 0.02 kN/m2 for every degree increase in slope over 10 degreesSubject to a minimum of 0.4 kN/m2

 

Important Point:

Various parts of IS 875

IS 875 – part 1 → Dead load

IS 875 – part 2 → Imposed load

IS 875 – part 3 → wind load

IS 875 – part 4 → show load

Question 91

Spacing of shear stirrups in a rectangular RC simply supported beam is

  1. AOption (a)

    kept constant throughout the span

  2. BOption (b)

    decreased towards the centre of beam

  3. COption (c)

    increased towards the ends of beam

  4. DOption (d)

    increased towards the centre of beam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

increased towards the centre of beam

Why this answer is correct

Assuming a simply supported reinforced concrete beam carrying uniformly distributed load of intensity w kN/m over the span length 'L'.

The maximum shear force would be produced at the supports and shear force at the center of the span is zero.

∴ The maximum shear resistance is required at the ends of the supports and minimum at the center of the span.

Shear reinforcement shall be provided in any of the following forms:

a) Vertical stirrups

b) The bent-up bar along with stirrups

c) Inclined stirrups

Shear reinforcement shall be provided to carry a shear force equal to (Vu−τc×bd)(V_u - {\tau}_c\times bd)

Note that, the shear reinforcement increases as the spacing among the stirrups decreases and vice versa.

As shear strength requirement is more at the supports than the center, the spacing of stirrups increases towards the center of the beam.

Question 92

The minimum grade of concrete that can be used for pre-tensioned beam system is

  1. AOption (a)

    M20

  2. BOption (b)

    M25

  3. COption (c)

    M30

  4. DOption (d)

    M40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

M40

Why this answer is correct

A minimum grade of concrete to be used in the design of the prestressed concrete structure as per IS 1343 is as below:

1. For Post-tensioning minimum grade of concrete used is M-30.

2. For Pre-tensioning minimum grade of concrete used is M-40.

Cover to be used in the design of the prestressed concrete structure as per IS 1343 is as below:

  1. For Posttensioning minimum cover to be used is 30 mm.
  2. For Pre-tensioning minimum cover to be used is 20 mm.

Question 93

The strength of compression member with helical reinforcement shall be taken as the no. of times the strength of similar member with lateral ties

  1. AOption (a)

    1.03

  2. BOption (b)

    1.05

  3. COption (c)

    1.10

  4. DOption (d)

    1.15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.05

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

As per IS 456:2000, clause 39.4,

Compression Member with Helical Reinforcement

The strength of compression members with helical reinforcement shall be taken as 1.05 times the strength of similar member with lateral ties provided the condition

 Volume;of;helical;reinforcementVolume;of;the;core<0.36(AgAc−1)fckfy;{Volume; of; helical; reinforcement\over Volume; of; the; core}\lt0.36\left( {\frac{{{A_g}}}{{{A_c}}} - 1} \right)\frac{{{f_{ck}}}}{{{f_y}}};should be satisfied.

where

Ag = gross area of the section

Ac = area of the core of the helically reinforced column measured to the outside diameter of the helix

fck = characteristic compressive strength of the concrete

fy = characteristic strength of the helical reinforcement but not exceeding 415 N/mm2

Hence, the load-carrying capacity of the column with helical reinforcement is increased by 5% due to increased strength as a result of better confinement.

Question 94

For limit state of collapse, the partial safety factors recommended by IS 456 : 2000 for estimating the design strength of concrete and reinforcing steel are respectively-

  1. AOption (a)

    1.5 and 1.15

  2. BOption (b)

    1.0 and 1.0

  3. COption (c)

    1.15 and 1.5

  4. DOption (d)

    1.5 and 1.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1.5 and 1.15

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The Acceptable limit for safety and service ability requirements before failure occurs is called a limit state.

It is further divided into two parts:

Limit state of collapse: It deals with strength and stability of the structure under maximum design load.

As per Clause 36.4.2 of IS 456, the material partial safety factor (γm) for concrete and steel should be taken as 1.5 and 1.15, respectively when assessing the strength of the structures or structural members employing limit state of collapse.

Limit state of serviceability: It deals with the deflection and cracking under service loads, durability, stability, fire resistance etc.

Question 95

In case of cantilever beam, the vertical deflection limits may generally be assumed to be satisfied provided that the span to depth ratio are not greater than

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

It is necessary to impose a check on the magnitude of deflection in a structural member:

a) To ensure that the extent of deflection does not adversely affect the appearance or efficiency of the structure or finishes or partition etc.

b) To prevent the structural behavior of the member is different from the assumption made in the design. As per IS 456:2000, for beams and slabs, the vertical deflection limits may be assumed to be satisfied, provided that the span to depth ratio is not greater than the values obtained as below: 

Type of BeamSpan to Depth ratio
Cantilever7
Simply Supported20
Continuous26

Question 96

The diameter of longitudinal bars of an RC column should not be less than

  1. AOption (a)

    6 mm

  2. BOption (b)

    8 mm

  3. COption (c)

    10 mm

  4. DOption (d)

    12 mm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12 mm

Why this answer is correct

As per IS 456: 2000, clause 26.5.3.1,

Longitudinal reinforcement in a column:

Percentage of steel:

The cross-sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement shall be not less than 0.8 percent nor more than 6 percent of the gross cross-sectional area of the column.

Minimum diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bars:

The main longitudinal reinforcement bars used in the column shall not be less than 12 mm in diameter.

Minimum number of longitudinal bar:

The minimum number of the longitudinal bar provided in column shall be

a) Four in rectangular columns

b) Six in circular columns

Helical reinforcement:

A reinforced concrete column having helical reinforcement shall have at least six-bar of longitudinal reinforcement within the helical reinforcement.

Spacing:

The spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of the column shall not exceed 300 mm.

Question 97

Enlarged head of a supporting column of an RC flat slab is called

  1. AOption (a)

    capital

  2. BOption (b)

    drop panel

  3. COption (c)

    column head

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

capital

Why this answer is correct

The flat slab is a two-way reinforced concrete slab that usually does not have beams and girders, and the loads are transferred directly to the supporting concrete columns.

The thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column is technically known as drop panel as can be observed in the figure below:

∴ The enlarged head of a supporting column of an RC flat slab is called capital.

Important Point:

The flat slabs may be supported by three methods:

a) Using a drop panel and a column capital in flat slab

b) Using a drop panel without a column capital in flat slab

c) Using a column capital without drop panel in flat slab

Question 98

An RC column is reported as long column if the ratio of its effective length and least lateral dimension exceeds

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12

Why this answer is correct

Strut: It is primarily a compression member in the truss which may be subjected to stress reversal and thus requires to resist tension too.

Stanchion: It is a heavily loaded steel column.

R.C.C. compression member can be classified based upon the ratio of effective length to the lateral dimension of the column.

If effective length to lateral dimension is less than 3, it is termed as a pedestal.

If effective length to lateral dimension is more than 3, it is termed a column.

ld<12→\frac{{\rm{l}}}{{\rm{d}}} < 12 \to short columns andld>12→{\rm{and}}\frac{{\rm{l}}}{{\rm{d}}} > 12 \to long column

Question 99

Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported RC slab is provided to distribute

  1. AOption (a)

    load

  2. BOption (b)

    temperature stresses

  3. COption (c)

    shrinkage stresses

  4. DOption (d)

    All of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of these

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

In one way slab main reinforcements are provided along shorter direction and reinforcement parallel to longer direction are called as distribution reinforcement.

Functions of Distribution Reinforcements are as follows:

(a) Provided to resist any shear stress that may develop any cracks in slab on top

(b) Provided to resist any shrinkage or temperature cracks that may develop.

Although the distribution reinforcements are not designed to take any load but they carry an additional moment in orthogonal direction to the main reinforcements.

Hence all the 3 options given are correct.

Important Point:

As per IS 456:2000, the limit on minimum reinforcement along either direction has been specified.

In case of mild steel, minimum reinforcement along either direction shall not be less than 0.15% of the total cross-sectional area of the slab (bD).

In case of HYSD bars, minimum reinforcement along either direction shall not be less than 0.12% of the total cross-sectional area of the slab (bD).

Also the maximum diameter of reinforcing bars shall not exceed one eighth the total thickness of slab.

Question 100

As per IS 456 : 2000, the tensile strength of concrete can be obtained from

  1. AOption (a)

    0.67fck0.67\sqrt {{{\rm{f}}_{{\rm{ck}}}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    0.7fck0.7\sqrt {{{\rm{f}}_{{\rm{ck}}}}}

  3. COption (c)

    0.75fck0.75\sqrt {{{\rm{f}}_{{\rm{ck}}}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    0.87fck0.87\sqrt {{{\rm{f}}_{{\rm{ck}}}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.7fck0.7\sqrt {{{\rm{f}}_{{\rm{ck}}}}}

Why this answer is correct

Modulus of rupture: It is a measure of the tensile strength of concrete beams or slabs.

Flexural strength of concrete/ Bending tensile strength of concrete/Modulus of rupture of concrete (fcr) is given by

\({{\text{f}}{\text{cr}}}\text{ }!!!!\text{ }=\text{ }!!!!\text{ }0.7\times \sqrt{{{\text{f}}{\text{ck}}}}\)

∴ Flexure strength of concrete is determined as a modulus of rupture.

Important Points:

Modulus of Elasticity of Concrete: It can be defined as the ratio of applied stress to corresponding strain within elastic limits.

It may be given as:

i) Short Term Modulus of elasticity = 5000 √fck

ii) Long Term Modulus of elasticity =5000fck1+θ=\frac{5000\sqrt{{{f}_{ck}}}}{1+\theta }

where θ is the creep coefficient

100 questions in the full paper