Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Public Administration 22 Nov 2021 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

100 questions120 minutes
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Question 1

V. A. Graicunas theory on span of management/control was based on

  1. AOption (a)

    Flat organisational structure

  2. BOption (b)

    Mathematical calculation

  3. COption (c)

    Empirical Studies

  4. DOption (d)

    Rule of Thumb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mathematical calculation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Mathematical calculation

Key Points

  • V. A. Graicunas' theory
  • Focused on the span of management, which refers to the number of subordinates a manager can effectively oversee.
  • He used mathematical calculations to demonstrate the complexity of relationships as the number of subordinates increases.
  • Graicunas emphasized that the total number of relationships in an organization grows exponentially with the addition of each subordinate.
  • This theory was the foundation for understanding the limitations of managerial control in organizations.
  • Key formula
  • The number of relationships (R) is calculated as: R = n(2ⁿ⁻¹ + n - 1), where "n" is the number of subordinates.
  • This formula highlights the rapid increase in complexity as the span of control expands.

Additional Information

  • Span of control
  • Refers to the number of subordinates directly reporting to a manager.
  • Can be classified into:
  • Wide span of control: Fewer hierarchical levels, higher efficiency, but increased managerial workload.
  • Narrow span of control: More hierarchical levels, closer supervision, but reduced efficiency.
  • Factors influencing the span of control
  • Competence of the manager and subordinates.
  • Nature of tasks: Complex tasks often require closer supervision.
  • Technology: Advanced tools may enable wider spans of control.
  • Geographical dispersion: Managers with geographically dispersed teams may have narrower spans.
  • Flat vs. Tall organizational structure
  • Flat structure: Wider span of control, fewer hierarchical levels.
  • Tall structure: Narrower span of control, more hierarchical levels.

Question 2

Who stated, "Administration is now so vast an area that a philosophy of administration comes to bring a Philosophy of life"?

  1. AOption (a)

    H.A. Simon

  2. BOption (b)

    Marshal E. Dimock

  3. COption (c)

    Piffner

  4. DOption (d)

    L.D. White

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Marshal E. Dimock

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Marshal E. Dimock

Key Points

  • Marshal E. Dimock is credited with the statement, "Administration is now so vast an area that a philosophy of administration comes to bring a philosophy of life."
  • This statement emphasizes the interconnection between administration and broader life philosophies.
  • Marshal E. Dimock was a prominent scholar in the field of public administration, known for his contributions to the understanding of administrative processes and their impact on society.
  • His views highlight how the scope of administration extends beyond mere organizational management to influence societal values and ethics.

Additional Information

  • Philosophy of Administration
  • Aims to integrate organizational principles with broader societal values.
  • Focuses on aligning administrative goals with ethical and philosophical considerations.
  • Contributes to the development of policies that reflect the collective aspirations of society.
  • Marshal E. Dimock's Contributions
  • Known for his work on the theory and practice of public administration.
  • Emphasized the role of administrators as both decision-makers and ethical leaders.
  • His writings often explored the philosophical underpinnings of administrative practices.
  • Relationship Between Administration and Society
  • Public administration is a reflection of societal needs and values.
  • Administrators must balance efficiency with ethical considerations to serve the public interest.
  • Effective administration requires an understanding of social dynamics and cultural contexts.

Question 3

Which of the following is viewed as an alternative to market and hierarchy in public policy and management literature?

  1. AOption (a)

    Professionalism

  2. BOption (b)

    Networks

  3. COption (c)

    Collegiality

  4. DOption (d)

    Procedural mode

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Networks

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Networks

Key Points

  • Networks as an alternative to markets and hierarchies:
  • In public policy and management, networks refer to collaborative arrangements between various stakeholders, including governments, private organizations, and civil society, to achieve shared goals.
  • They are viewed as a flexible and adaptive governance structure that operates outside the rigid frameworks of traditional markets or bureaucratic hierarchies.
  • Networks rely on trust, mutual dependence, and shared information rather than formal authority or contracts.
  • They are particularly effective in addressing complex policy challenges that require multi-stakeholder collaboration.

Additional Information

  • Alternative Governance Mechanisms
  • Markets: Operate through competition and price mechanisms. They are based on the principles of supply and demand and are effective in achieving efficiency in resource allocation.
  • Hierarchies: Operate through formal authority structures, such as bureaucracies. They are characterized by rules, procedures, and a chain of command to ensure compliance and accountability.
  • Networks: Serve as a middle ground between markets and hierarchies, emphasizing relationships, collaboration, and shared goals.
  • Advantages of Networks
  • Facilitate innovation by bringing together diverse perspectives and expertise.
  • Encourage decentralized decision-making, enabling more localized and context-specific solutions.
  • Promote resilience and adaptability in governance, especially in dynamic and uncertain environments.
  • Examples of Networks in Public Policy
  • Public-private partnerships (PPPs) in infrastructure development.
  • Collaborative initiatives between governments and NGOs for social welfare programs.
  • Global networks addressing climate change, such as the Paris Agreement.

Question 4

The book "The Frontiers of Public Administration" written by John M. Gaus was co-authored by which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    L.D. White and Luther Gulick

  2. BOption (b)

    M.E. Dimock and P.A. Appleby

  3. COption (c)

    Luther Gulick and FM Marx

  4. DOption (d)

    L.D. White and M.E. Dimock

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

L.D. White and M.E. Dimock

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - L.D. White and M.E. Dimock

Key Points

  • The book "The Frontiers of Public Administration"
  • Co-authored by John M. Gaus, L.D. White, and M.E. Dimock.
  • The book is a significant contribution to the field of Public Administration, exploring foundational concepts and principles.
  • It emphasizes the interdisciplinary nature of Public Administration and its role in addressing societal challenges.
  • L.D. White
  • A prominent scholar in the field of Public Administration, known for his works on administrative theory and practice.
  • His collaboration in this book highlights his focus on the importance of ethics and efficiency in public service.
  • M.E. Dimock
  • Another key author of this book, recognized for his contributions to the development of public administration as a discipline.
  • He emphasized the role of administration in enhancing democracy and public policy formulation.

Additional Information

  • Public Administration as a Discipline
  • Public Administration is the academic study of the implementation of government policies and the management of public programs and services.
  • It encompasses a variety of topics, including organizational theory, public policy, budgeting, and personnel management.
  • Early thinkers like Woodrow Wilson (often called the "father of Public Administration") laid the groundwork for the academic study of administration.
  • Contributions of L.D. White
  • He authored several seminal books, including "Introduction to the Study of Public Administration," which is considered a cornerstone in the field.
  • His work focused on the importance of structure, efficiency, and ethics in the management of public organizations.
  • Significance of Collaborative Works
  • Books like "The Frontiers of Public Administration" represent collaborative efforts to advance the understanding of administrative practices.
  • These works often integrate insights from multiple authors, enriching the discussion with diverse perspectives.

Question 5

Who among the following, made distinction between obedience and acceptance of Authority?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chester I Barnard

  2. BOption (b)

    Herbert A Simon

  3. COption (c)

    Max Weber

  4. DOption (d)

    JD Mooney

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chester I Barnard

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Chester I Barnard

Key Points

  • Chester I Barnard made a clear distinction between obedience and acceptance of authority.
  • According to Barnard, an individual obeys authority only when they accept that the authority is legitimate and aligns with their own values or goals.
  • He emphasized that the acceptance of authority depends on the willingness of subordinates to comply with directives.
  • He introduced the concept of the "zone of indifference," which refers to the range of orders that an individual is willing to follow without questioning their legitimacy.
  • This distinction is fundamental in understanding organizational behavior and how managers can effectively exercise authority.
  • Barnard's work is a cornerstone of management theories, particularly in the study of leadership and authority dynamics.

Additional Information

  • Chester I Barnard's Contributions
  • He is known for his book "The Functions of the Executive" (1938), where he discussed the role of executives in fostering cooperation and maintaining organizational effectiveness.
  • He viewed organizations as cooperative systems where individuals work together to achieve shared objectives.
  • Barnard emphasized the importance of communication and effective decision-making in organizational success.
  • Difference Between Obedience and Acceptance
  • Obedience: Following orders without necessarily agreeing with them.
  • Acceptance of Authority: Willing compliance because the individual perceives the authority as legitimate and relevant to their goals.
  • Related Theories
  • Herbert A. Simon: Known for his work on decision-making and the concept of bounded rationality but did not focus on the distinction between obedience and authority acceptance.
  • Max Weber: Known for his theory of bureaucracy and types of authority (traditional, charismatic, legal-rational), but his work does not specifically address obedience versus acceptance.

Question 6

The public-choice school sets a concept of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Bureaucratic administration

  2. BOption (b)

    Hierarchical administration

  3. COption (c)

    Democratic administration

  4. DOption (d)

    Oligrachic administration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Democratic administration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Democratic administration

Key Points

  • Public-choice school
  • The public-choice school focuses on the application of economic principles to political and administrative decision-making.
  • It emphasizes the importance of democratic participation, where individuals have the right to influence decisions that impact their lives.
  • It advocates for a decentralized and participatory approach to governance, aligning with the concept of democratic administration.
  • Democratic administration
  • Involves the use of public input and accountability in decision-making processes.
  • Promotes transparency, ensuring that administrative actions are open to public scrutiny.
  • Encourages collaboration between government bodies and citizens to achieve common goals.

Additional Information

  • Comparison with other forms of administration
  • Bureaucratic administration
  • Based on rigid hierarchical structures and strict adherence to rules and procedures.
  • Focuses on efficiency and control rather than public participation.
  • Hierarchical administration
  • Characterized by a top-down approach where decision-making is centralized at higher levels.
  • Limits the scope for public involvement and democratic input.
  • Oligarchic administration
  • Power is concentrated in the hands of a few individuals or groups.
  • Contrasts sharply with democratic administration, which seeks to distribute power more equitably.
  • Relevance of democratic administration
  • Widely recognized as a cornerstone of good governance and public administration.
  • Ensures that government actions reflect the will and needs of the people.
  • Promotes social equity, transparency, and accountability in administrative processes.

Question 7

The aim of Napoleonic code introduced in 1804 during the regime of Napolean Bonaparte was to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Abolish Bureaucracy

  2. BOption (b)

    Strengthen Bureaucracy

  3. COption (c)

    Reform Bureaucracy

  4. DOption (d)

    Further Bureaucratic despotism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Reform Bureaucracy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Reform Bureaucracy

Key Points

  • Napoleonic Code
  • The Napoleonic Code, also known as the Civil Code of 1804, was introduced under the rule of Napoleon Bonaparte in France.
  • The primary aim was to reform and simplify the legal system, ensuring that laws were uniform and accessible to all citizens.
  • It abolished the feudal system and privileges based on birth, creating a more merit-based and equitable legal framework.
  • Reforms in Bureaucracy
  • The Napoleonic Code focused on creating a clear and systematic legal structure that reduced the arbitrary practices of old bureaucratic systems.
  • It introduced reforms to ensure a more efficient and accountable administrative system.
  • These changes empowered the middle class, provided legal equality, and promoted a centralized governance model.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of the Napoleonic Code
  • Legal Equality: It established that all male citizens were equal before the law, abolishing privileges based on birth or class.
  • Property Rights: The code guaranteed the protection of private property, which was important for the emerging middle class.
  • Secular Law: It separated church and state, reducing the influence of religious institutions in civil matters.
  • Impact of the Napoleonic Code
  • The code served as a model for many countries, influencing legal systems across Europe and beyond.
  • It modernized administrative and legal systems, laying the foundation for contemporary civil law traditions.
  • While it promoted fairness and efficiency, critics argue that it reinforced patriarchal norms, particularly in family law.

Question 8

Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of participative management?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hierarchical structures

  2. BOption (b)

    Vertical communication

  3. COption (c)

    Directionless activities

  4. DOption (d)

    Cross-functional linkages

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cross-functional linkages

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Cross-functional linkages

Key Points

  • Participative management
  • Refers to a management style in which employees at all levels are actively involved in decision-making processes.
  • It fosters collaboration and ensures that diverse perspectives are considered.
  • Cross-functional linkages
  • Cross-functional linkages involve interaction and collaboration between different departments or teams within an organization.
  • They are a key characteristic of participative management as they promote synergy, better communication, and collective problem-solving.
  • Encourages employees to work together across various functions, breaking down silos.

Additional Information

  • Key characteristics of participative management
  • Involves horizontal communication, ensuring that ideas flow across all levels of the organization.
  • Promotes employee empowerment by encouraging them to contribute to decisions and share their opinions.
  • Reduces the dominance of hierarchical structures, making the organization more democratic.
  • Benefits of participative management
  • Improves employee morale and job satisfaction as they feel valued.
  • Enhances organizational performance by leveraging diverse expertise.
  • Encourages innovation by fostering a culture of trust and collaboration.
  • Other management styles
  • Authoritative management: Focuses on top-down decision-making, with little to no input from employees.
  • Delegative management: Relies heavily on employees to make decisions, with minimal supervision from managers.

Question 9

Micheal Crozier's “The Bureaucratic Phenomenon" was a study of the bureaucracy of :

  1. AOption (a)

    England

  2. BOption (b)

    Germany

  3. COption (c)

    Italy

  4. DOption (d)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

France

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - France

Key Points

  • Micheal Crozier
  • Micheal Crozier was a French sociologist renowned for his work in organizational sociology and bureaucracy.
  • "The Bureaucratic Phenomenon"
  • This book, published in 1964, was a groundbreaking analysis of bureaucratic organizations.
  • It focused on the inefficiencies and dysfunctions in bureaucratic structures, particularly in France.
  • Study Focus
  • The study examined the behavior and structure of bureaucracies in French organizations.
  • Crozier highlighted how centralization and rigid hierarchical structures led to inefficiencies and resistance to change.

Additional Information

  • Bureaucracy
  • It refers to a system of administration characterized by hierarchical structure, formal rules, and impersonal relationships.
  • Commonly associated with public administration, bureaucracies are designed to ensure efficiency and consistency.
  • Key Observations from Crozier's Study
  • Crozier identified the phenomenon of rigidity in French bureaucracies, leading to difficulties in adapting to change.
  • He emphasized the role of power dynamics and how individuals or groups could manipulate bureaucratic systems to retain control.
  • The study also highlighted the problem of isolation within bureaucratic structures, which hindered effective communication and collaboration.
  • Global Relevance
  • While Crozier's work focused on France, his insights on bureaucracy are applicable to organizations worldwide.
  • His analysis remains a reference point for understanding organizational behavior and improving administrative efficiency.

Question 10

 "Zone of Indifference" as a concept is attributed to

  1. AOption (a)

    Herbert Simon

  2. BOption (b)

    Rensis Likert

  3. COption (c)

    Chester Barnard

  4. DOption (d)

    M.P. Follett

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chester Barnard

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Chester Barnard

Key Points

  • Zone of Indifference
  • The concept of the "Zone of Indifference" was introduced by Chester Barnard in his book "The Functions of the Executive" (1938).
  • It refers to the range of actions or decisions that subordinates are willing to accept and comply with without critical evaluation or resistance.
  • Within this "zone," employees follow instructions because they perceive them as reasonable and aligned with organizational goals.
  • The boundaries of this "zone" are determined by factors such as the authority of the manager, the legitimacy of the request, and the employee's values or interests.

Additional Information

  • Chester Barnard's Contributions to Management
  • Chester Barnard was a key figure in the field of organizational theory and management.
  • He emphasized the importance of communication, authority, and cooperation within organizations.
  • His work laid the foundation for the behavioral approach to management, focusing on understanding human behavior in organizational settings.
  • Relevance of the Zone of Indifference
  • The "Zone of Indifference" is crucial for effective authority delegation in organizations.
  • Managers can expand this zone by building trust and ensuring that their instructions are perceived as legitimate and aligned with organizational objectives.
  • It highlights the psychological aspects of authority and the willingness of employees to accept managerial directives.
  • Comparison with Other Thinkers
  • Herbert Simon: Known for his concept of "bounded rationality" and decision-making processes.
  • Rensis Likert: Known for his work on leadership styles and the Likert scale in organizational psychology.
  • M.P. Follett: Focused on the concept of collaborative management and integration in conflict resolution.

Question 11

Which one of the following thinkers did not accept duality or dichotomy between individuals and group?

  1. AOption (a)

    Luther Gulick

  2. BOption (b)

    Henri Fayol

  3. COption (c)

    Max Weber

  4. DOption (d)

    Mary Parker Follett

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mary Parker Follett

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Mary Parker Follett

Key Points

  • Mary Parker Follett
  • Mary Parker Follett is known for her pioneering work on organizational behavior and management theory.
  • She emphasized the integration of individuals and groups rather than treating them as separate entities.
  • Follett rejected the traditional dichotomy between individuals and the group, proposing that both are interconnected and must work in harmony for organizational success.
  • Her concept of "Power-with" instead of "Power-over" reflects her belief in collaborative relationships rather than hierarchical dominance.
  • Her ideas were revolutionary in contrast to thinkers like Max Weber and Henri Fayol, who focused more on structured and hierarchical approaches.

Additional Information

  • Henri Fayol
  • Henri Fayol is known as the father of modern management. He emphasized principles of administration and hierarchical structure.
  • He focused on concepts like division of work, authority, and discipline, which align more with structured organizational systems.
  • Max Weber
  • Max Weber introduced the concept of bureaucracy, which emphasized clear hierarchies and rules.
  • He supported the idea of separating individuals from the group by focusing on formal roles and responsibilities.
  • Luther Gulick
  • Luther Gulick contributed to administrative theory and is known for the acronym POSDCORB (Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting).
  • He focused on the practical aspects of management rather than integration between individuals and groups.
  • Mary Parker Follett’s Contributions
  • She emphasized concepts like participatory management, group dynamics, and the role of conflict resolution in organizations.
  • Her work laid the foundation for modern ideas of team-based management and organizational collaboration.

Question 12

Who has referred to the Comparative Public Administrative Movement as "self conscious movement"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fred Riggs

  2. BOption (b)

    John Montgomery

  3. COption (c)

    Dwight Waldo

  4. DOption (d)

    Martin Landau

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dwight Waldo

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Dwight Waldo

Key Points

  • Dwight Waldo
  • Dwight Waldo was a prominent theorist in public administration, contributing significantly to its academic development.
  • He described the Comparative Public Administrative Movement as a "self-conscious movement" due to its focus on systematically studying administrative systems across different nations.
  • This movement aimed to compare administrative processes, structures, and functions to understand governance in varying political, social, and economic contexts.
  • Waldo emphasized the importance of studying administration comparatively to identify universal principles and contextual variances in governance.

Additional Information

  • Comparative Public Administration
  • It is a subfield of public administration that studies and compares administrative systems across nations.
  • The movement gained traction during the mid-20th century due to the globalization of administrative practices and the need to understand cross-cultural governance.
  • Key objectives include:
  • Identifying universal administrative principles applicable across contexts.
  • Understanding cultural and contextual differences in administrative practices.
  • Developing frameworks for improving governance globally.
  • Key Contributors
  • Fred Riggs: Known for his work on the "prismatic model" in comparative administration.
  • John Montgomery: Focused on the role of administration in developing countries.
  • Martin Landau: Contributed to discussions on redundancy in administrative systems.

Question 13

Who has distinguished between 'normally conceived planning' and 'unplanned change planning"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gerald E. Caiden

  2. BOption (b)

    Donald C. Stone

  3. COption (c)

    John Montgomery

  4. DOption (d)

    Edward Weidner

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Edward Weidner

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Edward Weidner

Key Points

  • Edward Weidner
  • Edward Weidner is recognized for his significant contributions to the field of public administration and planning.
  • He made a distinction between "normally conceived planning" and "unplanned change planning", which provides clarity in understanding organized vs. reactive approaches to change.
  • The two types of planning are critical in addressing different scenarios in administration:
  • Normally conceived planning: Refers to planned, systematic, and structured approaches to achieving specific objectives.
  • Unplanned change planning: Refers to reactive approaches to address unforeseen or urgent issues.
  • This distinction helps public administrators and policymakers adapt their strategies to varying circumstances effectively.

Additional Information

  • Planning in Public Administration
  • Planning in public administration is crucial for achieving developmental goals, ensuring efficient use of resources, and addressing societal challenges.
  • It involves two major types:
  • Proactive Planning: Focused on future goals, long-term objectives, and preventive measures.
  • Reactive Planning: Focused on immediate actions to address crises or unexpected challenges.
  • Contributions of Edward Weidner
  • Weidner emphasized the importance of understanding administrative structures and their adaptability in different planning scenarios.
  • His work is often referenced in discussions on administrative planning and development studies.
  • Significance of Planning Distinctions
  • Distinguishing between different planning methods enables better decision-making and resource allocation.
  • It highlights the importance of flexibility and preparedness in administration and governance.

Question 14

In comparative studies of Administrative Systems and processes which one of the following factors are valid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Administrative structure is a dependent variable

  2. BOption (b)

    Power is dependent variable

  3. COption (c)

    Administrative behaviour is an independent variable

  4. DOption (d)

    Dependent/Independent variables are depend on the nature of research problem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dependent/Independent variables are depend on the nature of research problem

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Dependent/Independent variables are dependent on the nature of the research problem

Key Points

  • Dependent/Independent variables depend on the nature of the research problem
  • In comparative studies of Administrative Systems, the classification of variables is highly context-specific.
  • Whether a variable is dependent or independent is determined by the research objectives and the nature of the problem being studied.
  • This approach avoids generalization and ensures the validity of the research findings.
  • For example, in one study, the administrative structure may be treated as a dependent variable, while in another, it may function as an independent variable.

Additional Information

  • Dependent Variable
  • A dependent variable is the factor being measured or observed in a study.
  • It is influenced or determined by the independent variable.
  • Examples in administrative systems: efficiency of public services, policy outcomes.
  • Independent Variable
  • An independent variable is the factor that is manipulated or categorized to observe its effect on the dependent variable.
  • Examples in administrative systems: power dynamics, organizational culture.
  • Nature of Research Problem
  • The research problem sets the framework for identifying dependent and independent variables.
  • For example, if studying the impact of power distribution on administrative behavior, power may be the independent variable and behavior the dependent variable.
  • This flexible approach ensures that the analysis is tailored to the specific goals of the study.

Question 15

Which country's administration has been called modernizing administration?

  1. AOption (a)

    French Administrative System

  2. BOption (b)

    British Administrative System

  3. COption (c)

    American Administrative System

  4. DOption (d)

    Japanese Administrative System

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Japanese Administrative System

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Japanese Administrative System

Key Points

  • Japanese Administrative System
  • The Japanese administration is often referred to as a modernizing administration due to its focus on achieving rapid industrialization and technological advancement.
  • It emphasizes efficiency, innovation, and modernization, particularly in the post-World War II period.
  • The system incorporates a unique blend of Western administrative practices and traditional Japanese values, making it a model for modernization and economic development.
  • Key reforms in the Japanese administration include streamlining bureaucracy and promoting public-private partnerships for economic growth.

Additional Information

  • Post-War Modernization
  • After World War II, Japan underwent a period of rapid modernization and economic recovery, supported by significant administrative reforms.
  • The government prioritized sectors like education, infrastructure, and technology, which played a pivotal role in transforming Japan into a global economic power.
  • Key Features of the Japanese Administrative System
  • Meritocracy: The Japanese bureaucracy is known for its merit-based recruitment and promotion system.
  • Public-Private Collaboration: Strong coordination between the government and private sector has been a hallmark of the Japanese model.
  • Policy Planning and Execution: The system is designed for long-term planning and efficient execution of policies to ensure consistent development.
  • Comparison with Other Systems
  • Unlike the British Administrative System, which has colonial influences, or the American Administrative System, which focuses on decentralization, the Japanese system is more centralized and development-oriented.
  • The French Administrative System is known for its rigid structures, while the Japanese system is more adaptable to modern needs.

Question 16

The concept of Judicial Review was borrowed for Indian Constitution from:

  1. AOption (a)

    United Kingdom

  2. BOption (b)

    Canada

  3. COption (c)

    South Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    United States of America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - United States of America

Key Points

  • Judicial Review
  • The concept of Judicial Review allows courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative acts and executive decisions.
  • It is a system of checks and balances that ensures the separation of powers among the judiciary, legislature, and executive.
  • Origin of Judicial Review
  • The concept was first established in the United States of America through the landmark case Marbury v. Madison (1803).
  • In this case, the Supreme Court, under Chief Justice John Marshall, declared that courts have the authority to review laws and determine their compliance with the Constitution.
  • Adoption in India
  • India adopted the concept of Judicial Review in its Constitution under Articles 13, 32, and 226.
  • It empowers the judiciary to ensure that laws passed by the legislature and actions taken by the executive are in accordance with the Constitution.

Additional Information

  • Judicial Review in Indian Constitution
  • Article 13: Declares that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights shall be void.
  • Article 32: Empowers individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • Article 226: Provides High Courts with the power to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for other purposes.
  • Judicial Review in Other Countries
  • United Kingdom: The UK follows the principle of Parliamentary Sovereignty, and judicial review is limited to ensuring that administrative actions comply with the law.
  • Canada: Judicial review exists under the Constitution Act, 1982, with courts empowered to strike down unconstitutional laws.
  • South Africa: Judicial review is provided under the South African Constitution, ensuring laws and executive actions comply with constitutional provisions.
  • Significance of Judicial Review
  • It acts as a safeguard for the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
  • Ensures the supremacy of the Constitution.
  • Prevents arbitrary actions by the legislature and executive.

Question 17

The Indian Council Act of 1909 is also known as :

  1. AOption (a)

    Montague Chelmsford Reforms

  2. BOption (b)

    Simon Commission

  3. COption (c)

    Sadler Commission Report

  4. DOption (d)

    Morley-Minto Reforms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Morley-Minto Reforms

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Morley-Minto Reforms

Key Points

  • Morley-Minto Reforms
  • The Indian Councils Act of 1909, commonly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, was introduced during the tenure of Lord Minto as Viceroy and John Morley as Secretary of State for India.
  • It marked a significant step in constitutional reforms by introducing limited representation for Indians in the legislative councils.
  • The Act provided for the inclusion of non-official members in the councils, thereby giving Indians a platform to voice their opinions.
  • One of its key features was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims, which sowed the seeds of communal representation in Indian politics.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of the Indian Councils Act, 1909
  • It expanded the size of legislative councils at both the central and provincial levels.
  • For the first time, Indians were allowed to become members of the Executive Council of the Governor-General.
  • The Act introduced the concept of communal representation, allowing Muslims to elect their representatives separately.
  • It was aimed at placating the demands of various Indian groups while maintaining British control.
  • Historical Context
  • The reforms were introduced to address the growing demands for greater Indian participation in governance, especially after the Swadeshi Movement.
  • The policy of divide and rule became evident with the introduction of separate electorates, paving the way for communal tensions.
  • Comparison with Later Reforms
  • The Morley-Minto Reforms were followed by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919), which introduced dyarchy in provincial governance.
  • It laid the foundation for future legislative reforms, including the Government of India Act, 1935, which introduced provincial autonomy.

Question 18

In which year, the office of the special officer for Linguistic Minorities was created under the provision of Article 350-B of the constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    1955

  2. BOption (b)

    1956

  3. COption (c)

    1957

  4. DOption (d)

    1958

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1957

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 1957

Key Points

  • Office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
  • The Office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was established under the provisions of Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution.
  • This office was created in the year 1957.
  • The primary role of the Special Officer is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution and report to the President of India.
  • Purpose of Article 350-B
  • Article 350-B was inserted as part of the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
  • It ensures that the rights of linguistic minorities are protected and constitutional safeguards are effectively implemented.

Additional Information

  • Role of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
  • The Special Officer is responsible for monitoring the implementation of constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities.
  • He/She submits annual reports to the President of India, who forwards them to the state governments for necessary actions.
  • Safeguards for Linguistic Minorities
  • Provisions related to linguistic minorities are primarily covered under Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Article 29 ensures the protection of cultural and educational rights of minorities.
  • Article 30 provides minorities with the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  • Constitutional Amendment of 1956
  • The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, reorganized states on a linguistic basis and introduced Article 350-B to address the concerns of linguistic minorities.
  • This amendment also laid the foundation for the creation of the Office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

Question 19

Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees protection from social injustice and all forms of exploitation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 15

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 16

  3. COption (c)

    Article 18

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Article 46

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Article 46

Key Points

  • Article 46 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • It directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of society, particularly the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
  • It also ensures protection from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
  • Article 46 represents the commitment of the State towards social justice and equitable development.
  • The provision emphasizes the need to uplift marginalized communities to achieve the constitutional goal of equality.

Additional Information

  • Related Articles of the Indian Constitution:
  • Article 15: Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • Article 16: Provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
  • Article 18: Abolishes titles except for military and academic distinctions.
  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • These principles are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36-51).
  • They provide guidelines to the State for framing policies aimed at ensuring social and economic justice.
  • Though not enforceable by courts, they are considered fundamental in governance.
  • Social Justice and its importance:
  • Social justice aims to eliminate inequalities and promote fair treatment of all individuals irrespective of caste, religion, or economic status.
  • It is a cornerstone of the Indian Constitution, ensuring dignity and equality for all citizens.

Question 20

In which year was a separate Department of Disability Affairs created within Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment?

  1. AOption (a)

    October 1998

  2. BOption (b)

    May 1998

  3. COption (c)

    October 2011

  4. DOption (d)

    May 2012

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

May 2012

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - May 2012 

Key Points

  • Separate Department of Disability Affairs
  • The Department of Disability Affairs was established under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment on May 1, 2012.
  • This department was created to provide focused attention on issues concerning persons with disabilities.
  • It aims to enhance the effectiveness of policy implementation and ensure better coordination with various stakeholders.
  • Objective of the Department
  • The department formulates and monitors policies, programs, and legislative measures for the empowerment of persons with disabilities.
  • It also oversees the implementation of disability-related Acts such as the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • The Ministry is responsible for ensuring the welfare, social justice, and empowerment of marginalized groups including persons with disabilities.
  • It implements schemes for the economic and educational development of disadvantaged groups.
  • Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
  • This Act replaces the earlier Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995, and expands the scope of disabilities from 7 to 21 categories.
  • It provides for reservation in education and employment for persons with disabilities.
  • The Act mandates the creation of an accessible environment for persons with disabilities.
  • Key Focus Areas
  • Ensuring inclusive education and vocational training.
  • Providing assistive devices and rehabilitation services.
  • Promoting social awareness and removing barriers to accessibility.

Question 21

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the National Commission for Backward Classes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 321

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 330

  3. COption (c)

    Article 338 A

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 338 B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Article 338 B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Article 338 B

Key Points

  • Article 338 B
  • Article 338 B of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
  • The NCBC is a constitutional body established to address the concerns and welfare of socially and educationally backward classes.
  • Under this Article, the NCBC is empowered to:
  • Investigate and monitor safeguards provided for backward classes under the Constitution and other laws.
  • Participate and advise on policy-making processes related to backward classes.
  • Evaluate the implementation of development programs for backward classes.

Additional Information

  • Background of NCBC
  • The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially established by the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
  • However, it was later granted constitutional status through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018.
  • Difference Between Article 338 and 338 B
  • Article 338 deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC).
  • Article 338 B, on the other hand, focuses on the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
  • Significance of NCBC
  • The NCBC plays a crucial role in identifying and advocating for measures to uplift socially and educationally backward classes.
  • It works to ensure that the rights and entitlements of backward classes are upheld, contributing to equitable socio-economic development.

Question 22

In which year was the maintenance and welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act enacted by the Parliament?

  1. AOption (a)

    2006

  2. BOption (b)

    2007

  3. COption (c)

    2009

  4. DOption (d)

    2010

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2007

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 2007

Key Points

  • The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 2007.
  • The Act aims to provide legal protection to elderly parents and senior citizens by making children or heirs legally obligated to take care of them.
  • It promotes the establishment of old-age homes and ensures provisions for medical care for senior citizens.
  • The Act empowers senior citizens or parents to claim maintenance from their children or legal heirs in case of neglect or abandonment.
  • It was introduced to address the growing concern of neglect faced by elderly citizens in India due to urbanization and the breakdown of traditional family structures.

Additional Information

  • Key Provisions of the Act
  • Maintenance Tribunal: The Act provides for the establishment of Maintenance Tribunals to ensure quick redressal of cases related to the maintenance of senior citizens.
  • Penalty for Abandonment: Abandonment of a senior citizen by a person responsible for their care is considered a punishable offense under the Act, with imprisonment up to 3 months or a fine of ₹5,000, or both.
  • Right to Maintenance: Senior citizens unable to maintain themselves can claim a monthly maintenance amount, which is capped at ₹10,000 in most states.
  • Government's Role
  • The government is tasked with ensuring proper implementation of the Act through awareness campaigns and the establishment of old-age homes in every district.
  • State governments are responsible for framing specific rules and regulations under the Act to cater to the local needs of senior citizens.
  • Relevance of the Act
  • The Act is a significant legal step to address the challenges posed by India’s aging population, which is expected to grow significantly in the coming decades.
  • It strengthens the societal commitment to protect the dignity and welfare of senior citizens.

Question 23

Which agency has the authority to consolidate the plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in the district?

  1. AOption (a)

    State Planning Board

  2. BOption (b)

    District Planning Committee 

  3. COption (c)

    District Planning Department

  4. DOption (d)

    State Planning Department

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

District Planning Committee 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - District Planning Committee

Key Points

  • District Planning Committee (DPC)
  • The District Planning Committee is a constitutional body established under Article 243ZD of the Indian Constitution.
  • Its primary responsibility is to consolidate and prepare the development plans for the entire district by integrating the plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities.
  • The DPC ensures that the development strategies align with the district’s priorities and are consistent with the resources available.
  • The committee comprises representatives from Panchayats, Municipalities, and other relevant bodies, ensuring inclusive and participatory planning.

Additional Information

  • Constitutional Provisions
  • Article 243ZD of the Indian Constitution mandates the establishment of a District Planning Committee in every district.
  • The DPC’s role is to integrate rural and urban development for holistic district-level planning.
  • State Planning Board
  • The State Planning Board is a state-level advisory body responsible for preparing the State Development Plan.
  • It does not directly consolidate plans at the district level but considers inputs from DPCs for state-level strategies.
  • Panchayats and Municipalities
  • Local governments such as Panchayats and Municipalities prepare their respective development plans based on local needs and priorities.
  • These plans are submitted to the District Planning Committee for consolidation and integration.

Question 24

Which one of the following is NOT in the purview of the Governor of a State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Power to dismiss the Ministry

  2. BOption (b)

    Power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly

  3. COption (c)

    Power to form the Council of Ministers

  4. DOption (d)

    Power to assent the bills passed by the Legislature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Power to form the Council of Ministers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Power to form the Council of Ministers

Key Points

  • Power to form the Council of Ministers
  • The formation of the Council of Ministers is not directly within the purview of the Governor. The Governor merely appoints the Chief Minister and, on their advice, appoints the Council of Ministers.
  • This process is guided by the constitutional provision under Article 164 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Governor does not independently "form" the Council of Ministers; they act on the advice of the Chief Minister.
  • The other options listed, such as the power to dismiss the Ministry, power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly, and power to assent the bills, are constitutionally sanctioned powers of the Governor.

Additional Information

  • Role and Powers of the Governor
  • The Governor is the constitutional head of a state, functioning as per the advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister.
  • Key powers include:
  • Executive Powers: Appointing the Chief Minister, other ministers, and key state officials.
  • Legislative Powers: Summoning, proroguing, and dissolving the Legislative Assembly; assenting to bills; recommending the introduction of certain bills in the state legislature.
  • Judicial Powers: Granting pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment under certain circumstances.
  • The Governor acts as a representative of the President in the state, ensuring the state functions in accordance with the Constitution.
  • Limitations of the Governor’s Powers
  • The Governor cannot act independently but must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in cases where the Constitution allows discretionary powers.
  • Discretionary powers are limited to specific situations, such as recommending President's Rule under Article 356 or reserving bills for the consideration of the President.
  • Articles Related to the Governor
  • Article 153: Provides for a Governor in every state.
  • Article 154: Vests the executive power of the state in the Governor.
  • Article 163: Specifies the role of the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor.
  • Article 164: Deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister and other ministers.

Question 25

Who succeeds the office of the Governor, if it falls vacant suddenly?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chairman of the Legislative Council

  2. BOption (b)

    Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

  3. COption (c)

    Commissioner to Governor

  4. DOption (d)

    Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective State

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective State

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective State

Key Points

  • Chief Justice of the High Court
  • When the office of the Governor falls vacant suddenly, the Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective state takes over as the acting Governor.
  • This arrangement is outlined in the Indian Constitution to ensure continuity in governance.
  • It is a temporary measure until a new Governor is appointed by the President of India.
  • Constitutional Provisions
  • Article 159 of the Indian Constitution prescribes the oath and affirmation required for the Governor.
  • The appointment of an acting Governor in case of sudden vacancy is governed by the provisions under Article 160.

Additional Information

  • Governor's Role and Responsibilities
  • The Governor is the constitutional head of a state and functions as a link between the Union Government and the state.
  • They exercise their powers as per the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
  • Key responsibilities include:
  • Giving assent to state bills passed by the legislature.
  • Appointing the Chief Minister and other ministers.
  • Managing special responsibilities like President's Rule in the state.
  • Appointment of Governors
  • The Governor is appointed by the President of India under Article 155.
  • Their tenure is typically 5 years, but they can remain in office at the pleasure of the President.
  • The Governor can hold office for multiple states simultaneously as per Article 153.
  • High Court's Role
  • The Chief Justice of the High Court steps in as acting Governor to avoid administrative vacuum.
  • This ensures that governance and constitutional functions continue without disruption.

Question 26

Which one of the following is the oldest and a traditional form of organising public enterprises?

  1. AOption (a)

    Government Company

  2. BOption (b)

    Public Corporation

  3. COption (c)

    Department Undertaking

  4. DOption (d)

    Holding Company

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Department Undertaking

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Department Undertaking

Key Points

  • Department Undertaking
  • A Department Undertaking is the oldest and most traditional form of organizing public enterprises.
  • It is directly managed by the government as part of its administrative structure.
  • This form of organization is commonly found in sectors that are critical to national interests, such as defense, railways, and postal services.
  • All decisions, policies, and operations are controlled by the respective government department, ensuring complete accountability and alignment with national priorities.
  • Examples include Indian Railways and the Postal Department.

Additional Information

  • Government Company
  • A Government Company is an enterprise registered under the Companies Act, with the government owning at least 51% of its shares.
  • Examples include Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) and Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL).
  • It operates with greater autonomy compared to Department Undertakings but is still under government control.
  • Public Corporation
  • A Public Corporation is established under a special act of Parliament or State Legislature.
  • It enjoys legal independence while being accountable to the government.
  • Examples include Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) and Food Corporation of India (FCI).
  • Holding Company
  • A Holding Company controls subsidiary companies through ownership of shares.
  • It is a less traditional form of organizing public enterprises.
  • Examples include Coal India Limited, which functions as a holding company for its subsidiaries.

Question 27

Which one of the following industrial policy was also named as the economic constitution of the country?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1973

  3. COption (c)

    The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1977

  4. DOption (d)

    The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1991

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956

Key Points

  • The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956
  • It is widely regarded as the economic constitution of India because it laid the foundational framework for industrial development in the country.
  • It emphasized the establishment of a socialistic pattern of society, giving the government control over the commanding heights of the economy such as heavy industries, defense, and infrastructure.
  • The resolution classified industries into three categories:
  • Category I: Industries exclusively owned and operated by the state.
  • Category II: Industries where state and private sectors could coexist.
  • Category III: Industries left to the private sector, with state regulation.
  • It was a landmark policy that shaped India's industrial development for decades by promoting state-led planning.

Additional Information

  • Historical Context
  • The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956, was built on the principles of the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948, which first outlined the state's role in industrial development.
  • It was influenced by the Soviet model of planned economy, emphasizing public sector dominance.
  • Impact on the Economy
  • It led to the expansion of the public sector and encouraged heavy industrialization.
  • Private sector participation was limited to areas not reserved for the state, leading to a mixed economy.
  • The policy fostered growth but also introduced challenges like inefficiency in the public sector and lack of competition.
  • Reforms in Later Policies
  • The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1991, marked a shift towards liberalization and reduced government control to boost private sector participation.
  • It addressed inefficiencies of the 1956 model and promoted competition and globalization.

Question 28

Which one of the following committee recommended that the civil servants should not be appointed as Chairmen of the Governing Boards of the public enterprises?

  1. AOption (a)

    Krishna Menon Committee

  2. BOption (b)

    Arjun Sengupta Committee

  3. COption (c)

    Tandon Committee

  4. DOption (d)

    Committee on Public Undertakings

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Krishna Menon Committee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Krishna Menon Committee

Key Points

  • Krishna Menon Committee
  • The Krishna Menon Committee was specifically tasked with reviewing the governance structure of public enterprises in India.
  • This committee recommended that civil servants should not be appointed as Chairmen of the Governing Boards of public enterprises.
  • The rationale behind this suggestion was to ensure that these enterprises are managed by professionals with expertise in the respective domains, rather than bureaucrats.
  • This recommendation was aimed at improving the efficiency and accountability of public enterprises.

Additional Information

  • Other Committees on Public Enterprises
  • Arjun Sengupta Committee:
  • This committee focused on restructuring public sector enterprises to improve their performance.
  • It emphasized the need for disinvestment and professional management in public enterprises.
  • Tandon Committee:
  • This committee primarily dealt with banking sector reforms, particularly related to credit management.
  • It was not related to public enterprise governance.
  • Committee on Public Undertakings:
  • This is a parliamentary committee in India responsible for examining the reports and accounts of public enterprises.
  • It does not make recommendations on appointments in public enterprises.
  • Importance of Professional Management in Public Enterprises
  • Professional management ensures better decision-making, improved performance, and enhanced accountability.
  • Public enterprises are critical for achieving national development goals, and their governance plays a pivotal role in their success.
  • Appointing subject matter experts as chairpersons ensures alignment with organizational objectives and market demands.

Question 29

What is the recommendation of the 15th Finance Commission regarding the percent tax devolution to the states?

  1. AOption (a)

    39 per cent

  2. BOption (b)

    40 per cent

  3. COption (c)

    41 per cent

  4. DOption (d)

    42 per cent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

41 per cent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 41 per cent

Key Points

  • 15th Finance Commission Recommendation
  • The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% of the divisible tax pool should be devolved to the states.
  • This percentage is slightly lower than the earlier 42% recommended by the 14th Finance Commission.
  • The reduction of 1% accounts for the reorganization of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
  • Objective
  • The recommendation ensures equitable distribution of financial resources between the Union and the states for sustainable development.
  • This devolution enables states to finance their welfare schemes and infrastructure projects effectively.

Additional Information

  • Finance Commission
  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
  • It is tasked with making recommendations regarding the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the states.
  • The Commission ensures a balanced allocation of resources, considering factors like population, income disparity, and fiscal needs.
  • 14th Finance Commission
  • The 14th Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy, recommended 42% of the divisible pool to be devolved to states.
  • This was the highest-ever devolution percentage recommended by any Finance Commission.
  • Factors Considered by the 15th Finance Commission
  • Population (2011 Census data).
  • Area of the state.
  • Forest and ecology.
  • Income distance (difference between the state’s income and the highest-income state).
  • Demographic performance.
  • Significance of Tax Devolution
  • States rely on tax devolution for implementing welfare programs, infrastructure development, and poverty alleviation.
  • It helps reduce regional disparities and ensures cooperative federalism.

Question 30

How many public sector undertaking were recognised as 'Maharatnas' in India till January, 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five

  2. BOption (b)

    Seven

  3. COption (c)

    Nine

  4. DOption (d)

    Ten

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ten

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Ten

Key Points

  • Maharatna Status
  • The Maharatna status is granted to select public sector undertakings (PSUs) that have a strong financial performance and a significant role in the Indian economy.
  • It provides these PSUs with greater autonomy in decision-making and investment, allowing them to compete globally.
  • As of January 2020, a total of 10 PSUs were conferred the Maharatna status.
  • Criteria for Maharatna Status
  • PSUs must meet specific criteria, including:
  • A three-year average annual net profit of over ₹5,000 crore.
  • A three-year average annual turnover of ₹25,000 crore or more.
  • A three-year average annual net worth of ₹15,000 crore or more.
  • Additionally, they should be listed on the stock exchange and have a significant global presence.

Additional Information

  • List of Maharatna PSUs (as of January 2020)
  • Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
  • Coal India Limited (CIL)
  • Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)
  • Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
  • National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
  • Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
  • Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
  • Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
  • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
  • Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCIL)
  • Significance of Maharatna Status
  • PSUs with Maharatna status can:
  • Make investments of up to ₹5,000 crore without government approval.
  • Form joint ventures or acquire companies abroad.
  • Enhance their global competitiveness.
  • This autonomy enables them to make quick and strategic business decisions.
  • Other Categories of PSUs
  • Besides Maharatna, there are:
  • Navratna PSUs - Granted moderate autonomy for investment and expansion.
  • Miniratna PSUs - Given limited financial and operational autonomy.
  • These categories aim to encourage efficient functioning of PSUs based on their financial performance and operational scale.

Question 31

Which one of the following is not a main characteristic of a Government Company?

  1. AOption (a)

    Created by Executive Decision

  2. BOption (b)

    Governed by Memorandum and Articles

  3. COption (c)

    Service Motive

  4. DOption (d)

    Managed by Independent Governing Board

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Service Motive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Service Motive

Key Points

  • Government Company:
  • A Government Company is a company in which the government holds at least 51% of the paid-up capital.
  • It is created to perform commercial activities, and the primary objective is not always service-oriented.
  • Service Motive:
  • Unlike statutory corporations or public welfare organizations, Government Companies operate with a profit motive rather than a service motive.
  • They aim to combine government oversight with the flexibility of a corporate structure to improve efficiency.
  • Other characteristics of a Government Company include:
  • Being created by an executive decision under the Companies Act, 2013.
  • Being governed by Memorandum and Articles of Association, which outline the objectives and rules of the company.
  • Being managed by an independent governing board, which is often partially composed of government-appointed directors.

Additional Information

  • Creation of Government Companies:
  • Government Companies are registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
  • They are formed through an executive decision, not through a legislative process like statutory corporations.
  • Governance:
  • The governance of a Government Company is based on its Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association, which define its scope of operation and internal management.
  • The governing board typically includes government-appointed directors to ensure alignment with public policies.
  • Examples of Government Companies:
  • Examples include Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).
  • These companies operate in competitive markets and aim for profitability while adhering to government priorities.

Question 32

Who defined Public Policy as authoritative allocation of values for the whole society?

  1. AOption (a)

    David Easton

  2. BOption (b)

    Thomas Dye

  3. COption (c)

    Harold Lasswell

  4. DOption (d)

     Yehezkel Dror

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

David Easton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - David Easton

Key Points

  • David Easton
  • David Easton is a renowned political scientist known for his contributions to the study of political systems and public policy.
  • He defined public policy as the authoritative allocation of values for the whole society.
  • This definition emphasizes the role of authority in distributing societal values and resources.
  • Easton's work is foundational in understanding how policies are shaped and implemented within political systems.

Additional Information

  • Public Policy
  • Public policy refers to the actions and decisions made by governments to address societal issues and achieve specific goals.
  • It involves the allocation of resources, formulation of laws, and implementation of programs to serve public interests.
  • Public policy is a multidisciplinary field involving economics, political science, sociology, and more.
  • Other Contributors to Public Policy Studies
  • Thomas Dye: Known for defining public policy as "whatever governments choose to do or not to do."
  • Harold Lasswell: Focused on the "who gets what, when, and how" aspect of policymaking.
  • Yehezkel Dror: Advocated for a comprehensive and interdisciplinary approach to policy sciences.
  • Importance of Easton's Definition
  • Easton's definition highlights the centrality of authority in making policy decisions.
  • It provides a framework to analyze how values are prioritized and distributed within societies.

Question 33

Who proposed the incremental approach to the study of Public Policy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nicholos Henery

  2. BOption (b)

    David Easton

  3. COption (c)

    Lindblom Charles E

  4. DOption (d)

    Gabrial Almond

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lindblom Charles E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Lindblom Charles E

Key Points

  • Incremental approach
  • Proposed by Lindblom Charles E, this approach is also known as the "Science of Muddling Through."
  • It emphasizes small, gradual changes in policy-making rather than radical or comprehensive overhauls.
  • The approach is based on the idea that decision-makers often work within a limited scope of information and focus on feasible, practical solutions.
  • It contrasts with the rational-comprehensive model, which assumes complete information and optimal decision-making.
  • Widely applicable to real-world policy-making, where constraints like time, resources, and political feasibility exist.

Additional Information

  • Related concepts in Public Policy
  • Rational-Comprehensive Model
  • Focuses on systematic analysis and evaluation of all possible alternatives.
  • Assumes decision-makers have access to complete information.
  • Idealistic approach, often impractical in real-world scenarios.
  • Mixed-Scanning Model
  • Developed by Amitai Etzioni, combines elements of both incremental and rational-comprehensive approaches.
  • Suggests scanning the environment broadly while focusing on specific areas for detailed analysis.
  • System Theory
  • Proposed by David Easton, views public policy as part of a larger system that includes inputs, processes, and outputs.
  • Emphasizes the interaction between policy-making and its broader social, political, and economic environment.
  • Practical application of the Incremental approach
  • Commonly used in areas like budgeting, where year-to-year adjustments are made based on previous allocations.
  • Helps reduce uncertainty and risk in dynamic policy environments.

Question 34

Dror's optimal model of public policy making is related to :

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantitative and not Qualitative parameters

  2. BOption (b)

    Rational and Extra Rational factors

  3. COption (c)

    Satisfying model of normal human being

  4. DOption (d)

    Changes in Society

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rational and Extra Rational factors

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Rational and Extra Rational factors

Key Points

  • Dror's Optimal Model:
  • Dror's model emphasizes the integration of rational and extra-rational factors for effective public policy-making.
  • It goes beyond purely logical decision-making by incorporating emotional, cultural, and intuitive aspects into policy formulation.
  • Unlike traditional models, it acknowledges the complexity of human behavior and decision-making in governance.
  • Rational Factors:
  • These involve the application of scientific and logical analysis, such as cost-benefit analysis and systematic evaluation of alternatives.
  • Examples include statistical tools, economic models, and quantitative assessments in decision-making.
  • Extra-Rational Factors:
  • These include values, beliefs, and intuition, which often influence decisions even when data is insufficient or ambiguous.
  • For example, cultural and ethical considerations play a critical role in policymaking in diverse societies.

Additional Information

  • Comparison with Other Models:
  • Rational Comprehensive Model: Focuses solely on logical and scientific analysis, ignoring human emotions and cultural factors.
  • Satisficing Model: Proposed by Herbert Simon, this model suggests that decision-makers settle for a solution that is "good enough" rather than optimal.
  • Incrementalism: Emphasizes small, incremental changes rather than comprehensive or radical shifts in policy.
  • Importance of Dror's Model:
  • Dror's model is particularly relevant in complex and diverse societies, where policies must balance logical analysis with cultural and ethical considerations.
  • It encourages policymakers to embrace flexibility, creativity, and innovation in addressing societal challenges.

Question 35

In the discourse of governance, heterarchic governance refers to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Structuralistic State

  2. BOption (b)

    Expansion of market networks

  3. COption (c)

    Management of self-organising networks

  4. DOption (d)

    Different governance arrangements for different economic settings

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Structuralistic State

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Structuralistic State

 Key Points

  • In governance theory, heterarchic governance refers to a governance structure where multiple centres of authority exist simultaneously and interact with one another without a strict hierarchical order.
  • It is associated with a structuralistic view of the state, where governance is shaped through interconnected institutional structures rather than through a single centralized authority.
  • The concept emphasizes:
  • Multiple layers of authority
  • ⇒ Interdependence among institutions
  • Non-hierarchical coordination
  • Shared decision-making processes

Thus, in this context, heterarchic governance is linked with the idea of a Structuralistic State.

Additional Information

  • Expansion of market networks
  • This mainly relates to market-oriented or neoliberal governance.
  • Heterarchy is broader than market expansion.
  • Management of self-organising networks
  • This is often associated with network governance and is conceptually close to heterarchy.
  • However, in this question’s theoretical framing, heterarchic governance is specifically linked with the structuralistic understanding of the state.
  • Different governance arrangements for different economic settings
  • This statement is too broad and does not specifically define heterarchic governance.

Important Points

  • Heterarchy differs from hierarchy because authority is dispersed rather than centrally controlled.
  • It also differs from pure market governance because coordination occurs through institutional interdependence and structural relationships.

Question 36

The Neo-Liberal concept of governance prefers :

  1. AOption (a)

    More Regulation

  2. BOption (b)

    Less Government

  3. COption (c)

    Public Sector

  4. DOption (d)

    Bureaucratic hierarchies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Less Government

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Less Government

Key Points

  • Neo-Liberal concept of governance
  • Neo-liberalism emphasizes reducing the role of government in economic and social affairs.
  • It advocates for a minimal state where private entities and market forces take the lead in decision-making and resource allocation.
  • The concept promotes deregulation, privatization, and the use of market mechanisms to achieve efficiency and growth.
  • Neo-liberal governance shifts focus from bureaucratic control to market-driven solutions.
  • Key aspects of less government
  • Encourages individual freedom in economic activities.
  • Limits the state's intervention in areas such as production, trade, and pricing.
  • Promotes competition and innovation by reducing governmental oversight.

Additional Information

  • Key components of Neo-Liberalism
  • Privatization
  • Transfer of public sector enterprises and services to private ownership.
  • Aims to increase efficiency and reduce fiscal burden on the government.
  • Market-driven policies
  • Encourages free-market competition as the primary mechanism for resource allocation.
  • Reduces government-imposed restrictions on trade and commerce.
  • Deregulation
  • Minimizes rules and regulations imposed by the government on industries and businesses.
  • Promotes innovation and entrepreneurship by reducing bureaucratic constraints.
  • Criticism of Neo-Liberalism
  • Often leads to income inequality as the focus shifts to profit maximization.
  • May undermine public welfare programs and social services due to reduced government spending.
  • Can increase vulnerability to economic crises due to lack of regulatory oversight.

Question 37

Which one of the following is an essential factor that helps in report writing?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methodology

  2. BOption (b)

    Sampling

  3. COption (c)

    Data Analysis

  4. DOption (d)

    Scaling techniques

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Data Analysis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Data Analysis

Key Points

  • Data Analysis
  • In report writing, Data Analysis is essential as it helps interpret the data collected during research.
  • It enables the writer to derive meaningful insights and conclusions from the data.
  • Analysis involves identifying trends, patterns, or relationships within the data, which are crucial for making evidence-based recommendations.
  • Without proper Data Analysis, the report would lack depth and fail to provide actionable insights.

Additional Information

  • Methodology
  • Refers to the systematic approach used to collect data, but it is not the core factor in report writing.
  • It supports the reliability of the research but does not directly influence the interpretation of results.
  • Sampling
  • Involves selecting a subset of the population for study, which impacts the quality of data collected.
  • However, sampling alone does not contribute to the actual analysis or conclusions drawn in the report.
  • Scaling Techniques
  • Used to measure variables and collect data in research.
  • While important for data collection, it does not play a direct role in interpreting or analyzing data in report writing.

Question 38

The purpose of scaling techniques in Research is to :

  1. AOption (a)

    Study human behaviour

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantify human behaviour

  3. COption (c)

    Identify behavioural variables

  4. DOption (d)

    Qualitative behaviour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Quantify human behaviour

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Quantify human behaviour

Key Points

  • Scaling techniques
  • Scaling techniques are used to assign numerical values to qualitative aspects of human behaviour, making them measurable.
  • The primary objective is to quantify human behaviour to facilitate statistical analysis and comparison.
  • For example, Likert scales or rating scales assign values (e.g., 1 to 5) to subjective responses, making them quantifiable.
  • Research utility
  • By quantifying behaviour, researchers can analyze patterns and draw meaningful conclusions about psychological or social phenomena.
  • It enables the development of objective data for testing hypotheses and building theories in fields like psychology, sociology, and marketing.
  • Exclusion of other options
  • Option 1 (Study human behaviour): While studying behaviour is a part of research, scaling focuses on its measurement, not just observation.
  • Option 3 (Identify behavioural variables): Scaling is applied after variables are identified, not during their identification.
  • Option 4 (Qualitative behaviour): Scaling does not focus on qualitative aspects alone but converts qualitative data into quantitative formats.

Additional Information

  • Types of scaling techniques
  • Nominal scale: Categorizes data without any order or quantitative value (e.g., gender, ethnicity).
  • Ordinal scale: Ranks data in order but does not indicate the magnitude of differences (e.g., customer satisfaction levels).
  • Interval scale: Measures differences between data points with equal intervals but lacks a true zero (e.g., temperature in Celsius).
  • Ratio scale: Similar to the interval scale but includes a true zero, allowing for meaningful ratios (e.g., height, weight).
  • Applications of scaling
  • Market research: Understanding customer preferences and satisfaction.
  • Psychological testing: Measuring traits like intelligence, personality, or attitudes.
  • Social science research: Studying societal trends, cultural attitudes, or behavioural patterns.
  • Importance in research
  • Scaling techniques ensure objectivity and consistency in data collection and analysis.
  • They help in reducing bias and improving the reliability of the study outcomes.

Question 39

Which one of the following is a qualitative research?

  1. AOption (a)

    Correlational research

  2. BOption (b)

    Hypothesis testing

  3. COption (c)

    Experimental method

  4. DOption (d)

    Phenomenological method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Phenomenological method

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Phenomenological method

Key Points

  • Phenomenological method
  • This is a qualitative research method that focuses on understanding individuals' lived experiences and their perspectives.
  • It is used to explore and describe phenomena as perceived by people, emphasizing subjective experiences.
  • Researchers using this method aim to uncover the essence of a phenomenon by analyzing participants' narratives.
  • Commonly applied in fields such as psychology, sociology, and education to investigate human behavior and emotions.

Additional Information

  • Qualitative Research
  • Focuses on exploring and understanding phenomena rather than quantifying them.
  • Uses methods such as interviews, focus groups, and observations to collect data.
  • Analysis typically involves identifying themes and patterns within the data.
  • Other Research Methods
  • Correlational Research
  • This is a quantitative research method used to determine relationships between variables.
  • It does not imply causation but identifies statistical connections.
  • Hypothesis Testing
  • A part of quantitative research that involves testing predictions through statistical analysis.
  • It is often used in experimental studies.
  • Experimental Method
  • A quantitative approach that involves manipulating variables to test cause-and-effect relationships.
  • It relies on control groups and randomization to ensure validity.

Question 40

The objective of Delphi techniques in research is to

  1. AOption (a)

    Ascertains opinion to experts/people

  2. BOption (b)

    Determines whether experts/people agree or disagree on a certain issue

  3. COption (c)

    Verify the reliability of opinion given by experts

  4. DOption (d)

    Verify the validity of opinion given by experts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Determines whether experts/people agree or disagree on a certain issue

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Determines whether experts/people agree or disagree on a certain issue

Key Points

  • Delphi Technique
  • The Delphi technique is a structured communication method used in research, decision-making, and forecasting.
  • Its primary purpose is to determine whether experts or participants agree or disagree on a specific issue.
  • It involves multiple rounds of questionnaires sent to a group of experts, with the aim to achieve consensus.
  • Responses are analyzed after each round, and feedback is provided to refine opinions or reach agreement.
  • Consensus Building
  • Delphi technique is particularly useful in scenarios where there is no clear answer and expert judgment is required.
  • It helps identify areas of agreement and disagreement to guide strategic decisions or research objectives.

Additional Information

  • Other Objectives of the Delphi Technique
  • Gather opinions: It is used to collect opinions from a panel of experts on complex or ambiguous issues.
  • Forecasting: The Delphi technique is commonly used for predicting future trends or outcomes in areas like technology, policy, or market research.
  • Reliability and validity: Although it aims for consensus, the Delphi method does not directly verify the reliability or validity of expert opinions. These aspects are ensured through careful design and execution of the method.
  • Steps Involved in the Delphi Technique
  • Selection of experts: Experts are chosen based on their knowledge and experience in the relevant field.
  • Questionnaire rounds: Multiple rounds of questionnaires are conducted to refine opinions and achieve consensus.
  • Feedback mechanism: Participants are provided with summary feedback after each round to encourage thoughtful revisions of their responses.
  • Final consensus: The process concludes when a satisfactory level of agreement is achieved among participants.
  • Advantages of the Delphi Technique
  • Encourages independent thought without social pressure or influence from dominant voices.
  • Allows for anonymous participation, ensuring unbiased opinions.
  • Effective in tackling complex problems where expert judgment is required.

Question 41

Which of the following statements explains about Public Administration?

(A) It is a Cooperative group effort in public setting

(B) It is concerned with all the three branches of the Government and their interrelationships

(C) It is a detailed and systematic execution of public laws

(D) It is an enforcement agency of public organisation for profiting the private sector

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (D) only are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D) only are correct

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (C) only are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C) and (D) only are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B) and (C) only are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (C) only are correct

Key Points

  • Public Administration is a discipline concerned with the organization and implementation of governmental policies and programs. The correct options (A), (B), and (C) are explained below:
  • (A) Cooperative group effort in public setting
  • Public Administration involves collective efforts to achieve goals and solve societal problems.
  • It emphasizes teamwork and collaboration within governmental institutions.
  • (B) Concerned with all three branches of the Government and their interrelationships
  • Public Administration operates across the executive, legislative, and judicial branches.
  • It ensures coordination and interdependency among these branches for effective governance.
  • (C) Detailed and systematic execution of public laws
  • Public Administration is responsible for implementing laws and policies enacted by the government.
  • It involves a structured approach to ensure compliance and effectiveness of public laws.

Additional Information

  • Scope of Public Administration
  • Public Administration encompasses various aspects, including policy-making, resource management, and service delivery.
  • It serves as a bridge between the government and citizens.
  • Key Characteristics of Public Administration
  • It operates under legal frameworks to ensure accountability and transparency.
  • It is dynamic and adapts to societal changes and evolving governance needs.
  • Public Administration focuses on providing equitable and efficient public services.
  • Incorrect Option Explanation
  • (D) Enforcement agency of public organization for profiting the private sector is incorrect because Public Administration prioritizes public welfare rather than private sector profits.
  • Its core objective is to serve the interests of society as a whole.

Question 42

According to Gerald Caiden, the role of Public Administration is

A) Preservation of Polity

(B)  Institutionalization of socio-economic change

(C) Promotion of spoils system

(D) Protection of weaker-sections of the society

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (D) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A). (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (D) only

Key Points

  • Preservation of Polity
  • Gerald Caiden emphasizes that public administration plays a critical role in maintaining the stability and functionality of the political system.
  • This includes ensuring the government operates efficiently, safeguarding democratic values, and maintaining public trust in institutions.
  • Institutionalization of Socio-Economic Change
  • Public administration serves as an instrument for bringing about planned socio-economic transformation in society.
  • It facilitates the implementation of policies aimed at reducing inequality, enhancing development, and promoting welfare.
  • Protection of Weaker Sections of the Society
  • One of the key functions of public administration is to ensure the rights and welfare of marginalized and vulnerable groups.
  • This is achieved through targeted programs, affirmative actions, and social security measures.

Additional Information

  • Promotion of Spoils System
  • The spoils system refers to appointing individuals to government positions based on political loyalty rather than merit.
  • Gerald Caiden does not advocate this approach, as it undermines the efficiency and integrity of public administration.
  • Role of Public Administration in Governance
  • Public administration is a key mechanism for executing government policies and achieving national goals.
  • It ensures accountability, transparency, and responsiveness to the needs of citizens.
  • Modern Public Administration
  • Modern approaches focus on participatory governance, emphasizing collaboration between the government and stakeholders.
  • Gerald Caiden’s views align with this perspective, highlighting the importance of public administration in addressing emerging challenges such as globalization and climate change.

Question 43

Which of the following principles brings out the difference between public administration and private administration?

(A) Principle of Uniformity

(B) Principle of Hierarchy

(C) Principle of Responsibility

(D) Principle of Legal Authority

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (D) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (C) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (C), and (D) only

Key Points

  • Principle of Uniformity:
  • This principle emphasizes maintaining consistency and standardization across administrative processes.
  • It is applicable to both public administration and private administration, as uniformity is often desired in both sectors.
  • Hence, it does not specifically differentiate between the two.
  • Principle of Responsibility:
  • This principle highlights the obligation to be accountable for actions and decisions.
  • In public administration, responsibility is towards the public and government institutions.
  • In private administration, responsibility is primarily towards owners, shareholders, and customers.
  • This principle serves as a distinguishing factor between public and private administration.
  • Principle of Legal Authority:
  • Public administration operates based on legal frameworks, laws, and regulations established by the government.
  • Private administration, while subject to laws, often has more flexibility and operates under company-specific policies.
  • This principle strongly differentiates public administration from private administration.

Additional Information

  • Key Differences Between Public and Private Administration:
  • Public Administration:
  • Focuses on public welfare and societal goals.
  • Funded by tax revenues and operates under legal authority.
  • Operates in a political environment, often influenced by elected officials.
  • Private Administration:
  • Focuses on profit generation and organizational goals.
  • Funded by private capital and operates under company-specific policies.
  • Operates in a competitive business environment, driven by market forces.
  • Hierarchy in Public and Private Administration:
  • Both sectors implement hierarchical structures for clarity in roles and responsibilities.
  • However, the extent and rigidity of hierarchy often differ, with public administration being more formalized.

Question 44

Which of the following are functions of Organizational Culture?

(A) To control organizational behaviour

(B) To encourage stability

(C) To promote diveristy

(D) To promote cross oganizational cooperation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (D) only

Key Points

  • Organizational Culture serves as a framework that defines the behavior, practices, and norms within an organization.
  • (A) To control organizational behavior: Organizational culture provides a set of shared norms and values that guide employee behavior, ensuring alignment with organizational goals.
  • (D) To promote cross-organizational cooperation: A strong culture fosters collaboration and teamwork across departments, ensuring cohesive efforts toward achieving organizational objectives.
  • Incorrect Options:
  • (B) To encourage stability: While organizational culture may indirectly contribute to stability, its primary purpose is to adapt and align with changing business needs, not just encourage stability.
  • (C) To promote diversity: Promoting diversity is more aligned with organizational policies and practices rather than being a direct function of culture.

Additional Information

  • Key Components of Organizational Culture:
  • Shared Values: Core beliefs and principles that guide behavior within the organization.
  • Norms: Accepted standards of behavior that influence how employees interact and perform tasks.
  • Symbols and Language: Visual and verbal elements that communicate the organization’s identity.
  • Benefits of a Strong Organizational Culture:
  • Enhances employee engagement and motivation.
  • Promotes a clear organizational identity and brand.
  • Encourages alignment of employee goals with organizational objectives.
  • How Culture Influences Cooperation:
  • Shared values foster trust and mutual understanding among employees.
  • Encourages collaboration by creating a sense of belonging.

Question 45

Which of the following influenced the evolution of Development Administration?

(A) The Great Depression

(B) Scientific Management Movement

(C) New Deal Philosophy

(D) Post World-War II reconstruction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (C), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

Code

**The correct answer is - (A), (C), (D) only**

 Key Points

- **The Great Depression**
- The economic crisis of the 1930s highlighted the need for government intervention and planning to address economic and social issues.
- It led to the development of new administrative approaches to manage large-scale programs, influencing the evolution of **Development Administration**.
- **New Deal Philosophy**
- Introduced during President Franklin D. Roosevelt's administration, the New Deal emphasized government-led initiatives for economic recovery and social welfare.
- This philosophy shaped the concepts of planning, resource allocation, and public administration, directly influencing **Development Administration**.
- **Post World-War II Reconstruction**
- After World War II, global reconstruction efforts required efficient administrative systems to rebuild war-torn nations.
- Development Administration emerged as a critical concept during this period, focusing on modernization, infrastructure development, and social progress.

 Additional Information

- **Scientific Management Movement**
- While the Scientific Management Movement, pioneered by Frederick Taylor, contributed to administrative efficiency, its influence was more prominent in industrial management than in **Development Administration**.
- Its principles of efficiency and systematic planning indirectly influenced administrative practices but were not a primary driver of Development Administration evolution.
- **Evolution of Development Administration**
- Development Administration refers to the branch of public administration focused on economic development, social progress, and modernization.
- It evolved as nations began addressing issues of poverty, industrialization, and infrastructure development, particularly post-World War II.
- It emphasizes participatory planning, resource mobilization, and capacity building to achieve development goals.

Question 46

Which of the following components are present in Weber's bureaucratic model?

(A) Hierarchical arrangement of offices

(B) Division of work

( Written rules for carrying out the assigned tasks

(D) Social status determining public employment

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A). (B) and (C) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A). (B) and (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B), and (C) only

Key Points

  • Weber's bureaucratic model
  • The model emphasizes a hierarchical arrangement of offices, ensuring clear authority and control structures.
  • Division of work is a key principle, promoting specialization and efficiency by assigning specific tasks to individuals or departments.
  • It relies on written rules and procedures to ensure consistency, accountability, and predictability in task execution.
  • Weber's model does not endorse the idea of using social status as a criterion for public employment, as his approach is rooted in meritocracy.
  • Hence, only (A), (B), and (C) are components of Weber's bureaucratic model.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of Weber's Bureaucracy
  • Merit-based recruitment: Positions in the bureaucracy are filled based on qualifications and skills, not social status or connections.
  • Impersonality: Decisions are made based on rational rules rather than personal preferences or biases.
  • Fixed salaries: Employees are paid a fixed salary based on their position, ensuring fairness and stability.
  • Importance of Written Rules
  • Written rules ensure uniformity and allow tasks to be performed consistently across different levels of the hierarchy.
  • They provide a framework for evaluating performance and maintaining accountability.
  • Criticism of Bureaucratic Model
  • While Weber's model is highly structured, it may lead to rigidity and lack of flexibility.
  • Excessive reliance on rules can result in red tape, slowing down decision-making processes.

Question 47

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

(A) The theory of Rationality: Maximising solutions

(B) The Science of Mudling Through: Non-incremental solutions

(C) The theory of Comprehensive Rationality: Satisfying solution

(D) Concept of Zone of Indifference: Optimising the results

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (B) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) and (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (C) only

Key Points

  • (A) The theory of Rationality: Maximising solutions
  • The theory of rationality is based on the idea of achieving optimal results through careful analysis and maximisation of outcomes.
  • Rational decision-making typically involves evaluating all possible alternatives and choosing the one that provides the maximum benefit.
  • This approach assumes decision-makers have access to complete information and can process it logically.
  • (C) The theory of Comprehensive Rationality: Satisfying solution
  • The theory of comprehensive rationality contrasts with "bounded rationality" and involves selecting solutions that are satisfactory rather than maximising.
  • It assumes that decision-makers aim for a solution that fulfills their objectives adequately, even if it's not the absolute best.
  • This concept is often applied in real-world scenarios where constraints such as limited time or resources exist.

Additional Information

  • (B) The Science of Mudling Through: Non-incremental solutions
  • This is an incorrect match because "The Science of Mudling Through" (developed by Charles E. Lindblom) emphasizes incremental decision-making, not non-incremental solutions.
  • It suggests that policymakers often make small, incremental changes rather than comprehensive overhauls.
  • This approach is practical when decisions need to be made under uncertainty or limited resources.
  • (D) Concept of Zone of Indifference: Optimising the results
  • This is an incorrect match because the "Zone of Indifference" refers to areas where individuals accept authority without questioning, rather than focusing on optimising results.
  • The term is often used in organisational behavior to describe employees' compliance with managerial directives.

Question 48

Which among the following are correct about the Civil Service of France?

(A) Not all employees of the State and Public institutions or Corporations are Civil servants

(B) Most employment positions in the French Civil Service are open to citizens of the European Union

(C) Some rare positions, e.g. University Professors and Researchers are open only to French nationals

(D) Corps are grouped in Five Categories

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) and (B) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (B) only

Key Points

  • Not all employees of the State and Public institutions or Corporations are Civil Servants
  • In France, the term "civil servant" (fonctionnaire) applies only to certain categories of public employees.
  • Employees of state-owned corporations or certain public institutions might not qualify as civil servants under this definition.
  • Most employment positions in the French Civil Service are open to citizens of the European Union
  • The French Civil Service follows the principles of the European Union, allowing EU citizens to apply for most civil service positions.
  • This policy aligns with EU regulations promoting free movement and equal opportunities for employment within member states.

Additional Information

  • Positions restricted to French nationals
  • Although most positions are accessible to EU citizens, certain roles, such as university professors and researchers, are restricted to French nationals.
  • This restriction is based on national interest and specific legal provisions.
  • Corps grouping and categories
  • French civil servants are organized into "corps" based on their field of work, such as education, health, or administration.
  • These corps are classified into three categories (A, B, and C), not five, based on the hierarchy and required qualifications.
  • Category A is for higher-level posts requiring advanced qualifications; Categories B and C are for intermediate and lower-level positions, respectively.

Question 49

According to Fred Riggs the 'Ideographic' approaches concentrate on:

(A) Unique case

(B) Case Study

(C) Generalization

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (B) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B) and (C) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (B) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (B) only

Key Points

  • Fred Riggs and the 'Ideographic' Approach
  • The term 'Ideographic' refers to approaches that focus on studying unique cases or phenomena in-depth, rather than seeking to generalize findings across multiple cases.
  • This approach is primarily concerned with individual instances and their specific characteristics, rather than forming broad theories or laws.
  • In the context of Fred Riggs' work, it emphasizes the uniqueness of each case and highlights the importance of detailed, context-specific analysis.
  • Relation to Case Studies
  • The 'Ideographic' approach is closely associated with case studies, which involve the detailed investigation of a single instance or a small number of instances.
  • Case studies allow for a comprehensive understanding of the context, variables, and processes unique to the subject under study.
  • By employing this approach, researchers can uncover insights that may not be evident in generalized studies.
  • Exclusion of Generalization
  • The 'Ideographic' approach does not focus on generalization, which is the hallmark of the 'Nomothetic' approach. Instead, it prioritizes understanding the specific and unique aspects of each case.
  • This distinction is crucial when comparing the two approaches in research methodologies.

Additional Information

  • Fred Riggs' Contribution to Administrative Theory
  • Fred Riggs is known for his work on the comparative study of public administration.
  • He introduced the Prismatic-Sala-Model, which examined the transitional characteristics of societies.
  • His work emphasized the need to understand the unique and contextual aspects of administrative systems, particularly in developing countries.
  • Comparison with Nomothetic Approach
  • The Nomothetic approach contrasts with the 'Ideographic' approach by emphasizing generalization and the development of universal laws or theories.
  • It relies on quantitative methods, whereas the 'Ideographic' approach often employs qualitative methods like case studies.
  • Understanding the distinction between these two approaches is critical for students of research methodology and administrative theory.
  • Importance of Context-Specific Analysis
  • The 'Ideographic' approach highlights the importance of context in understanding phenomena, which is particularly relevant in fields like public administration, sociology, and anthropology.
  • This approach is often used to study complex social systems where unique variables must be considered.

Question 50

Which of the following is correct with related to Indian Council Act of 1861?

(A) It restored the legislative powers of Bombay and Madras Presidencies

(B) The Governor General in Council had 8 (eight) ordinary members

(C) It transformed the Governor General in Council to function as a Cabinet based on portfolio system

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A). (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A). (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A). (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (C) only

Key Points

  • Restoration of legislative powers to Bombay and Madras Presidencies:
  • The Indian Council Act of 1861 restored the legislative powers of the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, which had been taken away in 1833.
  • This allowed these presidencies to make laws for themselves, marking a significant step toward decentralization in India.
  • Introduction of the portfolio system:
  • The Act introduced the portfolio system, which divided the work of the Governor-General's Council into separate departments.
  • Each member of the council was assigned responsibility for a specific department, making the council function like a cabinet.
  • Governor-General in Council composition:
  • The statement that the Governor-General in Council had 8 ordinary members is incorrect.
  • The council had 5 members, including the Governor-General, and later expanded, but not to 8 members during the 1861 Act.

Additional Information

  • Key features of the Indian Council Act of 1861:
  • It marked the beginning of legislative decentralization in India by restoring law-making powers to the presidencies.
  • It allowed for the inclusion of Indians in the legislative council.
  • The Act introduced the concept of ordinances, allowing the Governor-General to promulgate laws during emergencies.
  • Background of decentralization:
  • Prior to 1861, the British administration in India was highly centralized.
  • The Act was part of reforms aimed at improving governance and making the administration more inclusive and responsive to local needs.
  • Portfolio system:
  • The introduction of the portfolio system ensured greater efficiency in administration.
  • It was modeled on the British parliamentary cabinet system and laid the groundwork for modern governance in India.

Question 51

The jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal is over which of the following services?

(A) Central Civil Services

(B) Staff of the Supreme Court of India

(C) Civilian employees of Diffence Services

(D) All India Service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (C), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (C), (D) only

Key Points

  • Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
  • The jurisdiction of CAT is limited to disputes and complaints regarding recruitment and service matters of Civil Services under the Central Government.
  • CAT covers employees under Central Civil Services, All India Services, and Civilian employees of Defence Services.
  • It does not include the staff of the Supreme Court of India, as they are governed by separate rules.
  • Exclusions
  • The jurisdiction of CAT does not extend to:
  • Members of the Armed Forces.
  • Officers and employees of the Supreme Court.
  • Any person appointed to the Secretariat staff of either House of Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
  • Established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
  • Created by the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.
  • Its principal bench is located in New Delhi, with several regional benches across the country.
  • Functions and Objectives of CAT
  • To adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment, service conditions, and disciplinary matters of central government employees.
  • To reduce the burden on traditional courts by providing a specialized mechanism for resolving service-related issues.
  • All India Services
  • Includes services such as the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFS).
  • Members of these services fall under the jurisdiction of CAT for service-related disputes.

Question 52

Consider the following statements:

(A) The National Commission for Scheduled Caste has the same powers as a civil court

(B) The National Commission for Scheduled Caste has the same powers as a criminal court

(C) The National Commission for Scheduled Caste has the same powers as a civil court and criminal court

(D) The National Commission for Scheduled Caste has no power to act as a civil court

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C). (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) only

Key Points

  • National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
  • The NCSC is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
  • It is tasked with safeguarding the rights and interests of the Scheduled Castes (SC).
  • Powers of NCSC
  • The NCSC has powers equivalent to a civil court for specific purposes during its investigations.
  • These powers include:
  • Summoning and enforcing the attendance of witnesses.
  • Requiring the discovery and production of documents.
  • Receiving evidence on affidavits.
  • Requisitioning public records or copies from any court or office.
  • However, the NCSC does not have the powers of a criminal court.
  • Answer Explanation
  • Statement (A) is correct because the NCSC has powers similar to a civil court.
  • Statements (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because the NCSC does not have powers of a criminal court, nor does it lack civil court powers.

Additional Information

  • Constitutional Provisions Related to NCSC
  • Article 338 establishes the NCSC and outlines its composition, duties, and powers.
  • The NCSC monitors the implementation of laws and schemes meant for the welfare of Scheduled Castes.
  • It submits annual reports to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament.
  • Functions of NCSC
  • Investigate and monitor issues related to the safeguards for Scheduled Castes under the Constitution and other laws.
  • Inquire into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of rights and safeguards of Scheduled Castes.
  • Advise the government on planning and policy matters related to the socio-economic development of Scheduled Castes.
  • Limitations of NCSC
  • The NCSC does not have the power to enforce its recommendations directly.
  • Its role is largely advisory and investigatory in nature.

Question 53

Which of the following activities are related to disaster preparedness?

(A) Relief

(B) Training and drills for emergency staff

(C) Reconstruction

(D) Development of evacuation plans

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B). (C), (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B). (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(B). (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (B). Training and drills for emergency staff and (D). Development of evacuation plans

Key Points

  • Disaster preparedness
  • Refers to proactive measures taken before a disaster occurs to mitigate its impact.
  • Training and drills for emergency staff ensure that responders are equipped with the knowledge and skills to act effectively during a disaster.
  • Development of evacuation plans provides structured guidance to safely relocate individuals during emergencies, reducing casualties and confusion.
  • These activities are part of the preparedness phase, aimed at ensuring readiness for disaster response.
  • Relief and Reconstruction
  • These activities are part of the response and recovery phases, respectively, and not directly related to preparedness.
  • Relief involves immediate assistance post-disaster, such as providing food, water, and medical aid.
  • Reconstruction focuses on rebuilding infrastructure and restoring normalcy after a disaster.

Additional Information

  • Phases of disaster management
  • Preparedness: Activities aimed at ensuring readiness before a disaster strikes, such as training, drills, and evacuation plans.
  • Response: Immediate actions taken during a disaster to save lives and reduce impact, such as providing relief and emergency services.
  • Recovery: Focuses on restoring normalcy after a disaster through reconstruction and rehabilitation efforts.
  • Mitigation: Measures to reduce the severity or likelihood of future disasters, such as building flood-resistant infrastructure.
  • Importance of preparedness:
  • Minimizes loss of life and property.
  • Reduces response time during emergencies.
  • Builds resilience in communities by enhancing awareness and readiness.

Question 54

Which one of the following is not the objective of the multi-unit company?

(A) Pooling of resources

(B) Decentralisation

(C) Uniformity in Policies

(D) Better coordination among the constituent units

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A). (C) (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (D) only

Key Points

  • Multi-unit companies are organizations that operate multiple business units or locations under a single corporate structure.
  • The objective of a multi-unit company is to achieve efficiency, maintain coordination, and ensure standardization across its units. Key objectives include:
  • Pooling of resources - Sharing resources like capital, technology, and expertise among units for optimal use.
  • Decentralization - Delegating authority to individual units to enhance decision-making and operational flexibility.
  • Uniformity in policies - Ensuring consistency in operations, quality, and compliance across all units.
  • Better coordination - Facilitating communication and alignment between constituent units for overall organizational goals.
  • From the options, (A) Pooling of resources, (B) Decentralization, and (D) Better coordination are valid objectives of a multi-unit company.
  • (C) Uniformity in policies may not always be the objective, as certain units might need flexibility to cater to local needs or markets.

Additional Information

  • Pooling of resources
  • Allows for economies of scale, reducing costs and increasing profitability.
  • Enables sharing of technology, expertise, and infrastructure among units.
  • Decentralization
  • Improves decision-making by empowering individual units.
  • Enhances responsiveness to local market conditions and customer needs.
  • Uniformity in policies
  • Ensures that all units adhere to the same standards for quality, safety, and compliance.
  • However, excessive standardization may hinder flexibility and innovation in certain units.
  • Better coordination
  • Promotes synergy between units, aligning them with the overall corporate strategy.
  • Improves resource allocation and reduces duplication of efforts.

Question 55

Which one of the following was not the objectives of the disinvestment?

(A) Revenue Collection

(B) Resource Mobilisation

(C) Direct Participation by Public

(D) Wide Coverage of Activities

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A). (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C), (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: (A), (B), (C), (D) only

Key Points

  • Revenue Collection:
  • This statement is not considered an objective of disinvestment.
  • Disinvestment primarily focuses on reducing the financial burden on the government and improving efficiency in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs).
  • Although the government may earn revenue through the sale of shares, revenue collection itself is generally treated as a temporary outcome rather than the core objective.
  • The broader purpose of disinvestment is structural reform, better management, and enhancement of economic efficiency rather than only earning government income.
  • Resource Mobilisation:
  • This statement is also treated as not an objective.
  • Resource mobilisation means raising financial resources for government expenditure or developmental activities.
  • While disinvestment may generate funds for the government, the policy mainly aims at improving productivity, reducing unnecessary state control, and encouraging private participation.
  • Therefore, resource mobilisation is considered more of a by-product than the principal objective in this context.
  • Direct Participation by Public:
  • This statement is considered not an objective.
  • Direct participation by the public refers to citizens purchasing shares of public enterprises.
  • Although public shareholding can occur during disinvestment, the central focus of the policy is not merely increasing public ownership.
  • The major concern of disinvestment is to improve efficiency, competitiveness, accountability, and reduce excessive governmental involvement in commercial activities.
  • Wide Coverage of Activities:
  • This statement is also considered not an objective of disinvestment.
  • Wide coverage of activities implies expansion of government operations into many sectors of the economy.
  • Disinvestment actually works in the opposite direction by reducing the direct role of the government in commercial and industrial activities.
  • The policy encourages transfer of ownership or management from the public sector to private entities in order to increase operational efficiency and competitiveness.

Additional Information

  • Meaning of Disinvestment:
  • Disinvestment refers to the process through which the government sells or liquidates its ownership stake in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs).
  • It can involve partial or complete transfer of ownership to private entities, institutional investors, or the general public.
  • Main Objectives of Disinvestment:
  • To improve the efficiency and performance of public enterprises.
  • To reduce the financial burden on the government.
  • To encourage private sector participation in the economy.
  • To promote competition and better management practices.
  • Types of Disinvestment:
  • Minority Disinvestment: Government retains majority ownership while selling a part of its shares.
  • Strategic Disinvestment: Government transfers management control and a substantial stake to private players.
  • Examples in India:
  • The Government of India has undertaken disinvestment in companies such as BALCO, Air India, and VSNL to improve efficiency and reduce fiscal pressure.

Question 56

Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73ra Constitution Amendment Act, 1992?

(A) Provision for reservation of 1/3 seats for women in Panchayatraj institutions

(B) Provision for reservation of 1/3 seats for seats for backward classes in Panchayatraj institutions

(C) Minimum age for contesting elections to Panchayats is 21 years

(D) To perform some or all the 29 functional items list in 11th schedule of the constitution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A). (C) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) and (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (C) only

Key Points

  • Provision for reservation of 1/3 seats for women in Panchayati Raj institutions (A)
  • The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act mandates the reservation of one-third of the total seats for women in all Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • This provision includes seats for women from Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
  • It aims to ensure women's active participation in grassroots governance.
  • Minimum age for contesting elections to Panchayats is 21 years (C)
  • The 73rd Amendment specifies that a person must be at least 21 years old to contest elections for any Panchayat position.
  • This provision ensures that candidates have attained a certain level of maturity and responsibility.

Additional Information

  • Provisions of the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act
  • The 73rd Amendment, enacted in 1992, provides a constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • It added Part IX to the Constitution, titled "The Panchayats," and the 11th Schedule, which contains 29 functional items assigned to Panchayats.
  • Reservation of seats (B)
  • Although the Act provides for reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, it does not make reservation for backward classes a compulsory provision.
  • 11th Schedule and functional items (D)
  • While the Act empowers Panchayats to perform functions related to the 29 items in the 11th Schedule, their implementation depends on the state governments' discretion.
  • This provision is not mandatory under the Act.

Question 57

Identify the agencies which are exempted from Right to Information Act (RTI):

(A) Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

(B) Prime Minister Office (PMO)

(C) Medical and Professional Institutions

(D) Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (B) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A). (B) and (C) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (D) only

Key Points

  • Exemption under the Right to Information Act (RTI)
  • The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is listed under the second schedule of the RTI Act, 2005, and is exempted from its provisions.
  • The Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), being an intelligence agency, is also exempted under the RTI Act to safeguard national security interests.
  • Why are these agencies exempt?
  • Such exemptions are primarily aimed at ensuring that sensitive information related to national security, intelligence operations, and confidential investigations is not disclosed.
  • Providing unrestricted access to information from these agencies could undermine their operational effectiveness and compromise national interests.

Additional Information

  • Other agencies exempted under RTI
  • Several other agencies like Intelligence Bureau (IB), Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB), and Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) are also exempted under the RTI Act.
  • These exemptions are listed under the Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005.
  • Exceptions to exemptions
  • While these agencies are exempted, information related to allegations of corruption and human rights violations can still be accessed under certain conditions.
  • Such disclosures must be approved by the Central Information Commission or the concerned public authority.
  • Prime Minister Office (PMO) and Medical/Professional Institutions
  • The Prime Minister Office (PMO) is not exempted under the RTI Act; citizens can request information subject to the Act's provisions.
  • Medical and Professional Institutions are generally not exempted unless they fall under specific categories defined in the Act.

Question 58

Which of the following are not a barrier to delivery of public services

(A) Absenteeism of public service delivery staff

(B) In effective supervision of higher officials

(C) Absence of technical and professional knowledge and skills

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (C) only

Key Points

  • (C) Absence of technical and professional knowledge and skills
  • This factor is not considered a barrier to the delivery of public services.
  • Public services are typically designed to function regardless of the technical or professional knowledge of individual staff members, as standardized processes and support systems are in place.
  • While technical knowledge can enhance service quality, its absence does not directly impede the delivery of services if the system is robust.
  • Other options
  • (A) Absenteeism of public service delivery staff is a significant barrier as it results in delays, lack of service delivery, and inefficiency.
  • (B) Ineffective supervision of higher officials is another barrier as it leads to a lack of accountability and poor implementation of services.

Additional Information

  • Barriers to public service delivery
  • Absenteeism: When staff members are frequently absent, it creates gaps in service delivery, leading to delays or unavailability of services.
  • Inefficient supervision: A lack of proper oversight by higher officials can result in poor monitoring, reduced accountability, and substandard service delivery.
  • Systemic inefficiencies: Includes issues such as bureaucratic delays, corruption, and lack of coordination among departments.
  • Improving public service delivery
  • Implementing e-governance solutions to streamline processes and reduce manual errors.
  • Ensuring regular training programs for public service staff to enhance their skills and efficiency.
  • Promoting transparency and accountability through performance monitoring and citizen feedback mechanisms.

Question 59

Which of the following are the key components of New Education Policy. 2020?

(A) Schooling from the age of 3 years

(B) Education Structure of 5 + 3+ 3 + 4

(C) No multiple entry/exit in programmes in higher education

(D) Gross enrolment ratio is higher education to achieve 50% by 2035

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A). (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B), and (D) only

Key Points

  • Schooling from the age of 3 years
  • The New Education Policy (NEP) 2020 introduces early childhood care and education starting at the age of 3 years as part of formal schooling.
  • This is included in the foundational stage of the new structure, aimed at ensuring a strong base for future learning.
  • Education Structure of 5+3+3+4
  • NEP 2020 proposes a new pedagogical structure: 5+3+3+4, which replaces the old 10+2 system.
  • This structure includes:
  • 5 years of foundational stage (3 years of pre-primary + Grades 1 and 2).
  • 3 years of preparatory stage (Grades 3 to 5).
  • 3 years of middle stage (Grades 6 to 8).
  • 4 years of secondary stage (Grades 9 to 12).
  • Gross enrolment ratio (GER) in higher education to achieve 50% by 2035
  • NEP 2020 aims to increase the GER in higher education to 50% by 2035 from the current levels.
  • This goal is focused on increasing access to higher education for all sections of society.

Additional Information

  • Multiple entry and exit in higher education
  • NEP 2020 promotes multiple entry and exit options in higher education programs.
  • Students can earn certificates, diplomas, or degrees based on the duration of their study:
  • 1 year: Certificate.
  • 2 years: Diploma.
  • 3-4 years: Degree.
  • This system is aimed at providing flexibility and reducing dropouts.
  • Key focus on vocational education
  • NEP 2020 integrates vocational education into mainstream education from Grade 6 onwards.
  • It aims to make students more skilled and employable, with a target to expose at least 50% of students to vocational education by 2025.
  • Increased focus on technology
  • The policy emphasizes the use of technology-based learning and digital education tools.
  • An autonomous body, the National Educational Technology Forum (NETF), is proposed to coordinate efforts in this area.

Question 60

In democracies, public policies are a result of compromises arrived at among different groups? Which of the following are involved?

(A) Political Actors

(B) Pressure groups

(C) Non-State actors

(D) Administrators

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B). (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

Key Points

  • Democratic policymaking
  • In democracies, public policies are shaped by compromises between different groups to ensure inclusivity and representation.
  • It involves contributions from political actors, pressure groups, non-state actors, and administrators.
  • Role of political actors
  • Political actors such as elected representatives and political parties play a key role in voicing public concerns and legislating policies.
  • They act as a bridge between citizens and the government.
  • Role of pressure groups
  • Pressure groups are organized entities that seek to influence policymaking to favor specific interests.
  • Examples include labor unions, environmental organizations, and trade associations.
  • Role of non-state actors
  • Non-state actors such as NGOs, activists, and independent institutions contribute to policymaking by advocating for marginalized groups or specialized causes.
  • They often provide expertise and grassroots-level insights.
  • Role of administrators
  • Administrators implement policies and provide feedback on their effectiveness.
  • They ensure the smooth functioning of governance systems and maintain checks and balances.

Additional Information

  • Compromise in policymaking
  • Democratic policies are rarely unilateral and often require negotiation and compromise among various stakeholders.
  • The process ensures that diverse voices and interests are considered.
  • Checks and balances
  • In democratic systems, checks and balances are in place to prevent the concentration of power and ensure accountability.
  • All groups involved in policymaking, including administrators and non-state actors, play a role in this mechanism.
  • Examples of policymaking processes
  • Environmental policies often involve collaboration between government bodies, environmental pressure groups, and NGOs.
  • Economic policies may require input from trade associations, political actors, and administrators.

Question 61

Which one of the following is the core concerns of Harold Lasswell in the policy analysis?

(A) Social Process Model

(B) Professional Identity

(C) Contextual Orientation

(D) Inter disciplinary approach

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A). (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B), (C) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Option 2: (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

Key Points

  • Harold Lasswell's core concerns in policy analysis focus on creating an interdisciplinary framework for understanding public policies and their impact.
  • Social Process Model (A): Lasswell emphasized understanding the social process to study how policies evolve and affect society.
  • Professional Identity (B): Lasswell highlighted the need for analysts to develop a professional identity focused on ethical and effective policy-making.
  • Contextual Orientation (C): Lasswell advocated for a thorough understanding of the context within which policies are formulated and implemented.
  • Interdisciplinary Approach (D): Lasswell's work emphasizes using multiple disciplines (e.g., economics, sociology, political science) to study and analyze policies comprehensively.

Additional Information

  • Harold Lasswell's contribution to policy analysis:
  • Lasswell is regarded as one of the founders of modern policy sciences, emphasizing the practical application of knowledge to solve societal issues.
  • His interdisciplinary approach integrates insights from various fields to address complex policy problems.
  • The Seven Functional Stages of Lasswell's Policy Orientation:
  • Intelligence: Gathering relevant information.
  • Recommendation: Developing actionable recommendations.
  • Prescription: Formulating clear policy goals.
  • Invocation: Implementing policies.
  • Application: Executing policies in practice.
  • Appraisal: Evaluating the effectiveness of policies.
  • Termination: Deciding when to discontinue or modify policies.
  • Interdisciplinary nature of Lasswell's work:
  • Incorporates methods and theories from political science, psychology, sociology, and economics.
  • Aims to create policy tools that are effective, ethical, and socially beneficial.

Question 62

Public Policy :

(A) is the consciously acknowledged rules of conduct that guide public authorities in a political system

(B) is result oriented action

(C) is not a legal sanction/authority

(D) is related to decisional pattern of pulic administrator

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) and (B) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (B) only

Key Points

  • Public Policy
  • A: It refers to the consciously acknowledged rules of conduct that guide public authorities in a political system. This emphasizes the deliberate and structured approach to decision-making in governance.
  • B: Public policy is result-oriented action, aiming to achieve specific objectives such as economic growth, social welfare, or environmental sustainability.
  • Options C and D are incorrect because:
  • C: While public policy may not always require legal sanctions or authority, it often operates within a legal framework to ensure compliance and effectiveness.
  • D: Public policy extends beyond the decisional patterns of public administrators; it encompasses broader actions taken by legislative bodies, judiciary, and other stakeholders.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of Public Policy
  • It is a deliberate system of principles designed to guide decisions and achieve rational outcomes.
  • It includes measures implemented by the government to address public issues, ensuring the welfare and development of society.
  • Public policy is shaped by various stakeholders, including government agencies, interest groups, and citizens.
  • Stages of Public Policy Making
  • Agenda Setting: Identifying and prioritizing issues requiring government intervention.
  • Policy Formulation: Developing strategies and solutions to address identified issues.
  • Implementation: Executing the formulated policies through programs, regulations, and initiatives.
  • Evaluation: Assessing the effectiveness of policies and making necessary adjustments.

Question 63

Which of the following are probability sampling?

(A) Stratified Random

(B) Snowfall sampling

(C) Multistage sampling

(D) Cluster sampling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A). (C) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A). (B) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A). (C) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (C), and (D) only

Key Points

  • Probability Sampling
  • Probability sampling ensures that every member of the population has a known and non-zero chance of being selected.
  • It is essential for creating samples that are representative of the population.
  • Stratified Random Sampling (A)
  • In this method, the population is divided into strata or subgroups based on specific characteristics (e.g., age, income).
  • A random sample is then taken from each stratum, ensuring that all subgroups are represented.
  • Multistage Sampling (C)
  • This involves selecting the sample in multiple stages, typically using a combination of different sampling methods.
  • For example, clusters may be selected first, followed by random sampling within each cluster.
  • Cluster Sampling (D)
  • Instead of sampling individuals, groups or clusters are randomly selected.
  • This method is often used when the population is geographically dispersed.

Additional Information

  • Snowball Sampling (B)
  • This is a non-probability sampling method, often used when the population is hard to reach (e.g., hidden populations like drug users).
  • Participants recruit others from their network, which introduces selection bias and makes the sample non-representative.
  • Importance of Probability Sampling
  • Ensures that the sample accurately reflects the population, making the results generalizable.
  • Reduces bias and increases the validity of statistical inferences.
  • Comparison with Non-Probability Sampling
  • Non-probability sampling (e.g., snowball sampling) does not provide every individual with an equal chance of selection, leading to potential bias.
  • It is often used when random sampling is not feasible due to time, cost, or access constraints.
Code

Question 64

In Ex-Post Facto Research the position of the variable is :

(A) Independent and happens before research

(B) Begins with single dependent and independent variables

(C) The researcher studies the possible relations in a regressed form

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (C) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (C) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (B) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B) and (C) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (C) only

Key Points

  • Ex-Post Facto Research
  • In Ex-Post Facto Research, the researcher investigates relationships between variables after the events have already occurred.
  • The variable is independent and the events happen before the research begins (Option A).
  • It begins with the study of a single dependent and independent variable to understand the cause-effect relationship (Option B).
  • The researcher examines the possible relationships between variables in a regressed form (Option C).

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Ex-Post Facto Research
  • It is a non-experimental research method where the researcher does not manipulate variables but observes them as they exist.
  • It is often used in situations where experimental manipulation is not possible due to ethical or practical constraints.
  • Examples of Ex-Post Facto Research
  • Studying the effect of a natural disaster on mental health.
  • Analyzing academic performance based on past teaching methods.
  • Importance of Ex-Post Facto Research
  • Helps identify cause-effect relationships in situations where experimental control is not feasible.
  • Provides insights into the impact of past events on current outcomes.

Question 65

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Objectives should be specific

(B) Objectives can be written in a statement or question form

(C) Another word for problem is variable

(D) Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the thesis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (D) only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C) and (D) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (D) only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (D) only

Key Points

  • Objectives should be specific:
  • Clearly defined objectives ensure clarity and focus in research.
  • Specific objectives help in measuring the success of the research process.
  • Ambiguous or generic objectives can lead to confusion in methodology and outcomes.
  • Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the thesis:
  • Chapter I typically includes the introduction, background, and objectives of the research.
  • Stating objectives in Chapter I provides a clear roadmap for the study.
  • It helps readers understand the scope and purpose of the research from the beginning.

Additional Information

  • Objectives can be written in a statement or question form:
  • Objectives are often written as statements to clearly convey the focus of the research.
  • However, in some cases, objectives can be framed as research questions, especially in exploratory studies.
  • Writing objectives in question form is less common in formal academic writing.
  • Another word for problem is not variable:
  • A problem refers to the issue or challenge being addressed in the research.
  • A variable is a measurable factor or characteristic that can vary within the study.
  • While problems and variables are related, they are distinct concepts in research methodology.
  • Importance of well-defined objectives:
  • Objectives guide the researcher in designing the study and selecting methods.
  • They ensure the research remains focused and aligned with its intended goals.
  • Clear objectives help in evaluating the success of the research upon completion.

Question 66

Match List I with List II

List – I ConceptList - II Author
A.Free and responsible societyI.Elinor Ostrom
B.Governing CommonsII.Mary Parker Follett
C.Integration and law of the situationIII.Karl Weick
D.Organization as sense making activityIV.Jurgen Habermas
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Key Points

  • Free and Responsible Society - Jurgen Habermas
  • Jurgen Habermas is recognized for his work on social theory, particularly concepts of democracy and rational communication.
  • The idea of a "Free and Responsible Society" aligns with his emphasis on public discourse and collective responsibility.
  • Governing Commons - Elinor Ostrom
  • Elinor Ostrom's renowned work focuses on common-pool resource management and sustainable governance.
  • "Governing Commons" is a foundational text emphasizing the importance of community-driven solutions for managing shared resources.
  • Integration and Law of the Situation - Mary Parker Follett
  • Mary Parker Follett developed concepts like integration and the "Law of the Situation," promoting collaborative decision-making in organizations.
  • This approach highlights the importance of understanding specific contexts to resolve conflicts effectively.
  • Organization as Sense-Making Activity - Karl Weick
  • Karl Weick introduced the concept of organizations as sense-making systems, focusing on how individuals construct reality within organizational settings.
  • This theory emphasizes adaptive learning and the importance of interpreting events dynamically within organizations.

Additional Information

  • Jurgen Habermas
  • Habermas's theory of communicative action highlights the need for rational, inclusive dialogue in building societies.
  • His work influences political theory, sociology, and philosophy.
  • Elinor Ostrom
  • First woman to win the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences for her work on economic governance.
  • Her research challenges traditional notions of resource management by emphasizing local communities as effective stewards of shared resources.
  • Mary Parker Follett
  • Known as the "Mother of Modern Management," Follett's ideas on integration and management remain influential in organizational theory.
  • Her approach emphasizes human relationships and collaborative working environments.
  • Karl Weick
  • Weick's concept of sense-making focuses on how organizations adapt to uncertainty and change.
  • His contributions are widely used in studies of organizational behavior and crisis management.

Question 67

Match List I with List II

List – IList - II
A.Culture Centric FrameworkI.Classical Approach
B.Structure Centric FrameworkII.Human Relations Approach
C.Inside of organisationIII.Behavioural Approach
D.Inside of man/personIV.Ecological Approach
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Key Points

  • Culture Centric Framework - Ecological Approach (A - IV)
  • This framework emphasizes the interaction between culture and the environment.
  • It studies how external factors like societal norms and ecological conditions impact organizational behavior.
  • Structure Centric Framework - Classical Approach (B - I)
  • This approach focuses on the organizational structure, hierarchy, and formal processes.
  • It prioritizes efficiency and productivity through structured workflows and defined roles.
  • Inside of organization - Human Relations Approach (C - II)
  • This approach emphasizes the social dynamics within the organization.
  • It studies how interpersonal relationships and employee satisfaction impact organizational performance.
  • Inside of man/person - Behavioral Approach (D - III)
  • This framework focuses on individual behavior within the organization.
  • It examines psychological and emotional factors influencing decision-making and productivity.

Additional Information

  • Ecological Approach
  • Focuses on the external environment and its influence on organizational practices.
  • Key factors include cultural norms, societal trends, and environmental challenges.
  • Classical Approach
  • Founded by pioneers like Henri Fayol and Frederick Taylor.
  • Highlights the importance of specialization, formal processes, and hierarchy for efficiency.
  • Human Relations Approach
  • Developed by Elton Mayo during the Hawthorne Studies.
  • Emphasizes the role of employee satisfaction, teamwork, and leadership in improving productivity.
  • Behavioral Approach
  • Focuses on individual psychology and behavior within the organizational context.
  • Studies motivational factors like needs, rewards, and personal growth.

Question 68

Match List I with List II

List – IList - II
A.Participation of workers in managementI.Fundamental Duty
B.Respect the ideals and institutionsII.Directive Principals of State Policy
C.ProhibitionIII.Fundamental rights
D.EmergencyIV.Constitutional Remedy
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Key Points

  • Participation of workers in management (A)
  • Falls under Directive Principles of State Policy (II).
  • Aimed at ensuring social justice and equity in labor-management relations.
  • These are non-enforceable guidelines for the government to implement welfare measures.
  • Respect the ideals and institutions (B)
  • Falls under Fundamental Duty (I).
  • Added to the Constitution of India under Article 51A by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
  • Obligates citizens to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India and respect its heritage.
  • Prohibition (C)
  • Relates to Constitutional Remedy (IV).
  • Fundamental Rights allow individuals to seek protection and enforcement of their rights in case of violation.
  • Article 32 provides remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through judicial intervention.
  • Emergency (D)
  • Relates to Fundamental Rights (III).
  • During emergencies, certain Fundamental Rights may be suspended under Article 359.
  • This provision ensures national security while restricting individual rights temporarily.

Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
  • Enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36-51).
  • Non-justiciable but essential for governance to ensure socio-economic welfare.
  • Examples include provisions for worker participation, equitable distribution of wealth, and promotion of education.
  • Fundamental Duties
  • Inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.
  • Article 51A lists 11 duties that every Indian citizen must follow.
  • Examples include respecting national symbols, safeguarding public property, and promoting harmony.
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12-35).
  • Includes rights such as equality, freedom, protection against exploitation, and constitutional remedies.
  • Acts as a safeguard against arbitrary state actions.
  • Emergency Provisions
  • Contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution (Articles 352-360).
  • Three types of emergencies: National, State, and Financial Emergency.
  • May suspend certain Fundamental Rights temporarily for the security and stability of the nation.

Question 69

Match List I with List II

List – I InstitutionList - II Place
A.National Institute for the empowerment of persons with multiple disabilitiesI.Dehradun
B.National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and ResearchII.Secunderabad
C.National Institute of Mentally HandicappedIII.Cuttack
D.National Institute of Visually HandicappedIV.Chennai
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Key Points

  • National Institute for the Empowerment of Persons with Multiple Disabilities (NIEPMD)
  • Located in Chennai, this institute focuses on providing comprehensive services to individuals with multiple disabilities.
  • National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research (NIRTAR)
  • Situated in Cuttack, it specializes in training professionals and conducting research in the field of rehabilitation for persons with disabilities.
  • National Institute of Mentally Handicapped (NIMH)
  • Based in Secunderabad, this institute focuses on the development and welfare of individuals with intellectual disabilities.
  • National Institute of Visually Handicapped (NIVH)
  • Located in Dehradun, it is dedicated to the empowerment and rehabilitation of visually impaired individuals.

Additional Information

  • National Institutes under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD)
  • The DEPwD operates several national institutes across India to provide education, training, and rehabilitation services for persons with disabilities.
  • Each institute specializes in a specific type of disability, ensuring focused and comprehensive care.
  • Objectives of the Institutes
  • To conduct research and development in the field of disability rehabilitation.
  • To provide training programs for professionals working with persons with disabilities.
  • To develop and distribute assistive devices and technologies for individuals with disabilities.
  • Significance of Proper Location Mapping
  • Identifying the correct location of these institutes helps in accessing their services more efficiently.
  • It also facilitates better understanding of their contributions to the welfare of persons with disabilities.

Question 70

Match List I with List II

List – I ProgrammeList - II Vision/Objectives
A.Digital IndiaI.Electronic Delivery of services
B.AKSHAYAII.Eliminate bogus LPG connections
C.e-krantiIII.Empowered society and  knowledge  economy
D.PAHAL (DBTL)IV.Digital Literacy
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Key Points

  • Digital India - Empowered society and knowledge economy
  • The primary vision of Digital India is to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
  • It aims to ensure the availability of digital infrastructure and electronic services for all citizens.
  • AKSHAYA - Digital Literacy
  • AKSHAYA is a digital literacy program launched in Kerala to empower people with basic computer skills.
  • The initiative focuses on bridging the digital divide and making technology accessible to all.
  • e-kranti - Electronic Delivery of Services
  • e-kranti is a sub-program under Digital India aimed at reforming government services through technology-enabled delivery.
  • It focuses on providing electronic services in areas such as health, education, agriculture, and financial inclusion.
  • PAHAL (DBTL) - Eliminate bogus LPG connections
  • PAHAL stands for Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh, a Direct Benefit Transfer for LPG scheme.
  • The program aims to eliminate fake LPG connections and ensure targeted subsidies directly reach the beneficiaries.

Additional Information

  • Digital India Initiative
  • Launched in 2015 by the Government of India to ensure that government services are made available to citizens electronically.
  • Focuses on increasing digital infrastructure, improving internet connectivity, and promoting digital literacy.
  • AKSHAYA Program
  • Started in 2002 in Kerala, it is one of India’s first large-scale digital literacy initiatives.
  • It empowers rural citizens with computer and internet skills, enabling them to access e-governance services.
  • e-kranti (Electronic Revolution)
  • Aims to provide integrated and interoperable government services electronically.
  • Part of the Digital India Mission, focusing on improving service delivery and reducing service delivery time.
  • PAHAL (DBTL)
  • Introduced to streamline the subsidy transfer for LPG customers.
  • Ensures transparency and prevents misuse of the subsidy system.

Question 71

Match List I with List II

List – I DisastersList - II Related to
A.EarthquakeI.Climate
B.DroughtsII.Accidents
C.Oil SpillIII.Biological
D.Pest attackIV.Geological
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Key Points

  • Earthquake - Geological (IV)
  • Earthquakes are caused by sudden movements of tectonic plates beneath the Earth's crust, which is a geological phenomenon.
  • They result in ground shaking, surface rupture, and related hazards like landslides or tsunamis.
  • Droughts - Climate (I)
  • Droughts occur due to prolonged periods of insufficient rainfall or water scarcity, making them a climate-related disaster.
  • They significantly impact agriculture, water availability, and ecosystems.
  • Oil Spill - Accidents (II)
  • Oil spills are accidental events where petroleum or its products are released into the environment, mainly in water bodies.
  • They cause severe environmental damage to marine life and ecosystems.
  • Pest Attack - Biological (III)
  • Pest attacks are biological events caused by the uncontrolled spread of harmful organisms that damage crops, forests, or stored food supplies.
  • They often lead to economic losses and food insecurity.

Additional Information

  • Types of Disasters
  • Geological disasters: Include earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, landslides, and tsunamis.
  • Climatic disasters: Include droughts, floods, cyclones, and heatwaves.
  • Accidental disasters: Include industrial accidents, oil spills, chemical leaks, and nuclear accidents.
  • Biological disasters: Include pest attacks, epidemics, pandemics, and invasive species.
  • Impact of Disasters
  • Environmental: Loss of biodiversity, ecosystem disruption, and pollution.
  • Economic: Damage to infrastructure, loss of livelihoods, and increased recovery costs.
  • Social: Displacement of people, loss of lives, and long-term psychological effects.
  • Preparedness for Disasters
  • Developing early warning systems and ensuring community awareness.
  • Implementing disaster-resilient infrastructure and response strategies.
  • Providing training and resources to local authorities for effective disaster management.

Question 72

Match List I with List II

List – I Types of GrantsList - II Purpose
A.Vote on AccountsI.Approval for expenditure to be spent over and above what has already been approved in the Budget
B.Supplementary grantsII.Approval for expenditure already spent over and above the budgetary limit
C.Excess grantsIII.Proposal for expenditure by Ministry/Departments as estimate
D.Demand for grantsIV.Approval for grants in advance pending the approval of the Budget
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Key Points

  • Vote on Accounts (A - IV)
  • Vote on Account refers to the approval for grants in advance, enabling the government to meet its immediate expenses pending the approval of the full Budget.
  • It is typically passed for a short period (e.g., two months) to ensure continuity of government operations.
  • Supplementary Grants (B - I)
  • These are requested when there is a need for additional expenditure beyond what was initially approved in the Budget.
  • This ensures that any extra financial requirements are legally sanctioned by the legislature.
  • Excess Grants (C - II)
  • Excess Grants are sought for expenditure already incurred over and above the budgetary limits, which needs legislative approval.
  • This is typically done after an audit reveals overspending in certain areas.
  • Demand for Grants (D - III)
  • A Demand for Grant is a proposal by a Ministry/Department for funds based on their estimated expenditure for the year.
  • It is part of the Budget process and is subject to approval by the legislature.

Additional Information

  • Role of Parliamentary Approval
  • Parliamentary approval is mandatory for all government expenditures to maintain financial accountability and transparency.
  • Different types of grants (Vote on Account, Supplementary Grants, Excess Grants, etc.) ensure that the government adheres to this principle while managing unexpected financial needs.
  • Budgetary Process
  • The Budget is presented annually by the government and includes detailed estimates of revenue and expenditure for the upcoming financial year.
  • Demand for Grants forms a key component of the Budget, as it represents the financial requirements of various Ministries and Departments.
  • Supplementary and Excess Grants are part of the post-Budget process to address unforeseen expenditures.
  • Legal and Constitutional Provisions
  • The Constitution of India mandates legislative approval for all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • Articles such as 112 (Annual Financial Statement) and 113 (Demand for Grants) govern the Budget process.

Question 73

Match List I with List II

List – I Constitutional ProvisionsList - II Purpose
A.243 II.Reservation for schedule castes and Tribes in urban bodies
B.243 CII.Gram Sabha
C.243 TIII.State Finance Commission
D.243 AIV.Composition of Panchayats
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Key Points

  • Match the Constitutional Provisions with their Purpose:
  • 243 I: Pertains to the State Finance Commission, which is responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources between the state and local bodies.
  • 243 C: Relates to the Composition of Panchayats, which includes provisions for their formation and structure.
  • 243 T: Focuses on Reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in urban local bodies to ensure representation of marginalized communities.
  • 243 A: Refers to the Gram Sabha, which is the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system and consists of all registered voters in a village or group of villages.
  • The correct matching ensures a clear understanding of how constitutional provisions guide governance at the grassroots level.

Additional Information

  • State Finance Commission (243 I):
  • Constituted every five years by the state government.
  • Recommends principles for sharing financial resources between state and Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • Vital for ensuring financial autonomy of local bodies.
  • Gram Sabha (243 A):
  • The Gram Sabha acts as the cornerstone of democratic decentralization.
  • Empowered to approve development plans, budgets, and schemes at the village level.
  • Provides a platform for direct participation of citizens in governance.
  • Reservation in Urban Local Bodies (243 T):
  • Ensures proportional representation of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women.
  • Critical for inclusion and equity in decision-making processes.
  • Composition of Panchayats (243 C):
  • Defines the structure and composition of Panchayats at various levels (village, intermediate, district).
  • Includes provisions for election and representation to ensure effective governance.

Question 74

Match List I with List II

List – I Types of ResarchList - II Main Focus
A.Discriptive ResearchI.Discovering underlying motives of human behaviour
B.Applied ResearchII.Discription of the state of affairs as it exists at present
C.Qualitative ResearchIII.Finds a solution for an immediate problem facing a society
D.Fundamental ResearchIV.Concerned with generalizations and formulation of a theory
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Key Points

  • Descriptive Research
  • It focuses on the description of the state of affairs as it exists at present.
  • This type of research does not involve changing or modifying the environment.
  • Example: A study describing the demographics of a population.
  • Applied Research
  • This is aimed at finding a solution for an immediate problem facing a society or organization.
  • It is practical and problem-solving in nature.
  • Example: Research to improve educational practices in schools.
  • Qualitative Research
  • This type of research focuses on discovering the underlying motives of human behavior.
  • It often involves subjective data collection through interviews, focus groups, or observations.
  • Example: Understanding why consumers prefer one brand over another.
  • Fundamental Research
  • It is concerned with generalizations and the formulation of theories.
  • This type of research is carried out to enhance general knowledge without any immediate practical application.
  • Example: Research on quantum physics or the origin of the universe.

Additional Information

  • Types of Research
  • Descriptive Research: Describes phenomena as they are, without manipulation.
  • Applied Research: Solves specific, practical problems.
  • Qualitative Research: Explores underlying reasons, motivations, and opinions.
  • Fundamental Research: Focuses on theory-building and general understanding.
  • Practical Implications
  • Descriptive research is often used in market studies and policy analysis.
  • Applied research directly impacts areas such as education, technology, and healthcare.
  • Qualitative research is widely used in social sciences to understand human behavior.
  • Fundamental research provides the foundation for future applied innovations.

Question 75

Match List I with List II

List – I Sealing TechniquesList - II Features or Measures
A.Rating scalesI.measure an individual's predisposition towards another person, object or a phenomenon
B.Attitudinal scalesII.To identify variables without quantitative value of label them
C.Nominal scalesIII.To measure a person, object or phenomenon along a continuum or in a category
D.Ordinal scalesIV.To measure non-numeric, qualitative concepts like satisfaction, happiness etc.
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

Key Points

  • Rating Scales (A - III)
  • These scales are used to measure an individual’s perception or evaluation of an object, person, or phenomenon.
  • They allow the respondent to rate something along a continuum, such as satisfaction or importance.
  • Common examples include Likert scales and semantic differential scales.
  • Attitudinal Scales (B - I)
  • Attitudinal scales are designed to measure an individual’s predisposition or attitude toward another person, object, or phenomenon.
  • They are frequently used in psychological and social research to understand opinions or beliefs.
  • Examples include Thurstone scales and Guttman scales.
  • Nominal Scales (C - II)
  • These scales are used to label or categorize variables without assigning any quantitative value.
  • They measure qualitative data, such as gender, nationality, or marital status.
  • Nominal scales are the simplest form of measurement scales.
  • Ordinal Scales (D - IV)
  • Ordinal scales measure data that is ranked or ordered but do not indicate the magnitude of difference between the ranks.
  • They are commonly used to measure non-numeric, qualitative concepts such as satisfaction, happiness, or performance levels.
  • For example, a survey may ask respondents to rank their satisfaction on a scale from "Very Dissatisfied" to "Very Satisfied."

Additional Information

  • Types of Scales in Measurement
  • Nominal scales: These are used for labeling variables without quantitative significance. Example: Gender (Male, Female).
  • Ordinal scales: These involve ordered categories where the distance between categories is not defined. Example: Rankings in a competition (1st, 2nd, 3rd).
  • Interval scales: These measure variables with equal intervals but no true zero point. Example: Temperature (Celsius or Fahrenheit).
  • Ratio scales: These include equal intervals and a true zero point. Example: Weight, height, or distance.
  • Application of Measurement Scales
  • Measurement scales are widely used in research, surveys, and assessments to collect data.
  • They help in quantifying subjective concepts like attitudes, opinions, and satisfaction.
  • Choosing the appropriate scale is crucial for ensuring the validity and reliability of the data collected.

Question 76

Identify the sequence of the basis of Departmentalization as stated by Luther Gulick

(A) Purpose

B) Process

(C) Person

(D) Place

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D). (A), (C) and (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C). (A). (B) and (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B). (C) and (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (A) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B). (C) and (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (C), and (D)

Key Points

  • Luther Gulick's Departmentalization
  • Gulick identified four bases for departmentalization, which are often abbreviated as P.O.P.P.
  • The sequence of departmentalization is based on the following factors:
  • Purpose: The primary objectives or functions of the organization.
  • Process: The specific methods or technologies used to achieve the purpose.
  • Person: The grouping of personnel based on skills or expertise.
  • Place: The geographical location or area of operation.
  • The correct sequence is (A) Purpose, (B) Process, (C) Person, and (D) Place.

Additional Information

  • Purpose-Based Departmentalization
  • Focuses on grouping activities based on the specific goals or objectives of the organization.
  • Common in organizations with diverse missions or goals, such as government agencies.
  • Process-Based Departmentalization
  • Involves grouping activities based on the processes or technologies used.
  • For example, in manufacturing industries, different departments may focus on production, assembly, or quality control.
  • Person-Based Departmentalization
  • Activities are grouped based on the specialization, expertise, or skills of employees.
  • For example, a hospital may have departments like cardiology, neurology, and orthopedics based on the expertise of doctors.
  • Place-Based Departmentalization
  • Grouping of activities based on the geographical area of operation.
  • Common in multinational companies or organizations with branch offices in different regions.

Question 77

In establishing conceptual foundations to his theory of 'Democratic Administration' Vincent Ostrom criticised the principal contributors of administrative theory. Identify the sequence of Ostroms criticism.

(A) Herbert Simon and Internal Structure

(B) Max Weber and Hierarchy

(C) Luther Gulick and Organizational Principles

(D) Woodrow Wilson and Unitary Power.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (D), (B), (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D). (B), (C). (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (D). (B), (A), (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (D), (A), (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(D). (B), (C). (A)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Option 2: (D), (B), (C), (A)

Key Points

  • Vincent Ostrom's criticism highlights the flaws in traditional administrative theories:
  • He critiqued Woodrow Wilson for emphasizing unitary power, which restricts the pluralistic nature of democratic governance.
  • He challenged Max Weber for relying heavily on hierarchy as the basis of administration, which he argued is incompatible with democratic pluralism.
  • He critiqued Luther Gulick and his organizational principles, such as unity of command and scalar chain, which limit flexibility in democratic administration.
  • He questioned Herbert Simon for focusing on the internal structure of organizations, which neglects the broader democratic context.
  • Sequence of criticism: Ostrom systematically criticized contributors in the order of their foundational ideas, starting with unitary power and moving toward flaws in structure and principles.

Additional Information

  • Democratic Administration:
  • Vincent Ostrom's theory emphasizes the importance of pluralism in administrative systems.
  • His ideas are rooted in the belief that public choice and decentralized decision-making are integral to democracy.
  • He argued that traditional administrative theories often ignore the complexity of interactions in democratic governance.
  • Key contributors critiqued:
  • Woodrow Wilson: Known as the father of Public Administration, he emphasized the separation of politics and administration but advocated for centralized power.
  • Max Weber: His bureaucratic model focused on hierarchy and rules, which Ostrom argued were rigid and undemocratic.
  • Luther Gulick: His principles of administration, such as the POSDCORB model, were criticized for being overly mechanical.
  • Herbert Simon: His focus on decision-making within organizations neglected the broader implications for democratic governance.
  • Relevance in exams:
  • This question tests knowledge of foundational theories in Public Administration.
  • Understanding Ostrom’s critiques helps in analyzing the evolution of administrative thought.
  • It is essential to grasp the connection between administrative theories and democratic principles.

Question 78

The Pendleton Act of 1883 in USA :

(A) Governs the personnel policies of the national government

(B) Abolished the 'Spoil System' completely

(C) Created the civil service commission

(D) Introduced the 'merit system' throughout the federal government

(E) Was an outcome of the assassination of President Garfield

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A). (C) and (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B). (C) and (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) (D) and (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A). (C) and (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - 1) (A), (C), and (E)

Key Points

  • The Pendleton Act (1883):
  • It was a landmark legislation in the United States that aimed to reform the federal civil service system.
  • The Act introduced the merit-based system for hiring and promotion in the federal government.
  • Creation of the Civil Service Commission:
  • The Pendleton Act established the United States Civil Service Commission to oversee the implementation of the merit system.
  • This was a significant move to ensure transparency and fairness in federal appointments.
  • Assassination of President James Garfield:
  • The Pendleton Act was partly a response to the assassination of President Garfield in 1881 by a disgruntled office seeker.
  • This tragic event highlighted the flaws of the spoils system and led to demands for reform.

Additional Information

  • Merit System vs. Spoils System:
  • The merit system ensures that government positions are filled based on qualifications and competitive exams.
  • The spoils system allowed government jobs to be awarded as political rewards, often leading to inefficiency and corruption.
  • Limitations of the Pendleton Act:
  • While the Act abolished the spoils system for certain federal jobs, it did not completely eliminate it across all government positions.
  • Initially, it only applied to about 10% of federal jobs, but its scope expanded over time.
  • Long-term Impact:
  • The Pendleton Act laid the foundation for modern civil service reforms in the United States.
  • It increased public trust in government institutions by reducing patronage and promoting professional administration.

Question 79

The traditional literature on 'Comparative Government' focused on

(A) Election machinery

(B) Central Administrative Machinery

(C) Pressure Groups

(D) Public Finance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

     (A) and (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (C)

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(B) and (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (B) and (C)

Key Points

  • Comparative Government
  • Traditionally focused on studying various aspects of governmental systems.
  • Analyzed central administrative machinery to understand how governments function and organize their structures.
  • Included the study of pressure groups as they play a critical role in influencing policy-making and decision-making within governments.
  • Central Administrative Machinery
  • Refers to the executive arm of the government responsible for implementation of laws and policies.
  • Focuses on understanding the roles, structures, and functions of key administrative bodies.
  • Pressure Groups
  • Defined as organized groups that influence governmental decisions without seeking formal political power.
  • Key to understanding the interaction between public opinion and policy formulation.

Additional Information

  • Election Machinery
  • Concerns the organization and management of electoral processes within a country.
  • While important, it is not the primary focus of traditional comparative government studies.
  • Public Finance
  • Deals with the revenue collection and expenditure activities of the government.
  • Not traditionally included as a core focus in comparative government studies but may be relevant in specific contexts.

Question 80

Identify the ascending order of the following officers in Secretariat:

(A) Director

(B) Joint Secretary

(C) Addl. Secretary

(D) Deputy Secretary

(E) Secretary

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D), (A), (B), (C), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (D). (B). (C). (A). (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (D). (E). (A)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(D), (A), (B), (C), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Option 2: (D), (A), (B), (C), (E)

Key Points

  • The hierarchy mentioned in the Secretariat is based on the standard administrative framework in government organizations.
  • Deputy Secretary (D) holds the lowest rank among the listed positions. This officer assists in overseeing administrative tasks and reports to higher authorities.
  • Director (A) comes next in the hierarchy, responsible for heading specific departments and overseeing their functioning.
  • Joint Secretary (B) ranks above the Director and typically handles more significant administrative responsibilities and policy decisions.
  • Additional Secretary (C) is a senior position, often assisting the Secretary in managing the Secretariat's operations.
  • Secretary (E) is the highest-ranking officer in the Secretariat, responsible for overall decision-making and reporting directly to the Minister or Cabinet.

Additional Information

  • Roles and Responsibilities of Secretariat Officers:
  • Deputy Secretary (D):
  • Supports the Director in managing specific sections of the department.
  • Handles routine administrative functions and provides assistance in policy implementation.
  • Director (A):
  • Leads specific divisions or departments within the Secretariat.
  • Monitors the work of subordinate officers like Deputy Secretaries and ensures departmental goals are met.
  • Joint Secretary (B):
  • Acts as a bridge between the Additional Secretary and Directors.
  • Responsible for policy formulation, inter-departmental coordination, and representing the department in meetings.
  • Additional Secretary (C):
  • Assists the Secretary in high-level decision-making and policy execution.
  • Holds significant administrative powers and oversees multiple departments or sections.
  • Secretary (E):
  • The head of the department or ministry, responsible for all administrative and policy decisions.
  • Reports directly to the Minister or Cabinet and ensures the implementation of government programs and policies.
  • Importance of Hierarchical Structure:
  • Ensures a clear chain of command and accountability within the Secretariat.
  • Facilitates efficient administration and smooth functioning of government departments.
  • Defines the roles and responsibilities of each officer, enabling better coordination and decision-making.

Question 81

Identify the connect sequence of training for the IAS cadre after recruitment

(A) Professional

(B) Foundational

(C) Institutional

(D) Field

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (A), (D). (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B). (D). (C). (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (A), (C), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B). (C). (D). (A)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(B), (A), (D). (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (B), (A), (D), (C)

Key Points

  • Training sequence for IAS officers
  • The training process for IAS officers is conducted in a phased manner to ensure comprehensive learning and application.
  • The correct sequence is as follows:
  • Foundational Training (B): Conducted at the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA), this is the initial phase of training for all IAS recruits to build a strong foundation of administrative knowledge and values.
  • Professional Training (A): Focuses on specialized knowledge and skills required for administrative duties, including law, policy-making, and governance.
  • Field Training (D): Provides practical exposure to administrative work by placing officers in district training assignments.
  • Institutional Training (C): Conducted after field training, this phase focuses on advanced learning and prepares officers for higher responsibilities.
  • This structured approach ensures that IAS officers are well-prepared to handle diverse administrative challenges effectively.

Additional Information

  • Details of IAS Training Phases
  • Foundational Training
  • This is common for officers of all services at LBSNAA in Mussoorie.
  • Subjects include ethics, governance, public administration, and leadership skills.
  • Professional Training
  • Focuses on advanced administrative knowledge such as public finance, policy formulation, and e-governance.
  • Includes simulation exercises and case studies to enhance problem-solving abilities.
  • Field Training
  • Involves on-ground training in districts under the supervision of senior officers.
  • Focuses on practical implementation of policies, public service delivery, and crisis management.
  • Institutional Training
  • Conducted at LBSNAA or other institutes, it prepares officers for higher administrative roles.
  • Includes sessions on inter-departmental coordination, international relations, and advanced management techniques.
  • Purpose of IAS Training
  • To prepare officers for efficient functioning in their roles as civil servants.
  • To instill a sense of responsibility, ethics, and public service in administrators.
  • To equip officers with the skills and knowledge needed to address real-world governance challenges.

Question 82

The President of India has the power to address both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of :

(A) The first session after general elections

(B) Each session of Parliament

(C) The budget session of each year

(D) The monsoon session of each year

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B) and (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) and (C)

Key Points

  • The President’s Address to Parliament
  • The President of India has the constitutional duty to address both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of the first session after a general election.
  • The President also addresses both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of the first session of each year, which is typically the Budget Session.
  • This address is significant as it outlines the government’s policies and legislative agenda for the year.
  • Relevance of Options (A) and (C)
  • (A) The first session after general elections refers to the newly formed Parliament's inaugural session.
  • (C) The budget session of each year is the first session of the calendar year, during which the President addresses Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Constitutional Provisions
  • Article 87 of the Indian Constitution mandates the President’s address to a joint sitting of both Houses:
  • At the commencement of the first session after each general election.
  • At the commencement of the first session of each year (Budget Session).
  • This address is a constitutional requirement and symbolizes the start of legislative work.
  • Importance of the President’s Address
  • The President’s address acts as a policy document, outlining the government’s focus areas for governance and development.
  • It provides a review of the government’s performance and upcoming initiatives.
  • Other Sessions of Parliament
  • Monsoon Session and Winter Session do not require a Presidential address unless they are the first session of the year or after general elections.

Question 83

The stages in performance budgeting is given below. Identify their correct order.

(A) Classification of activities for resource allocation

(B) Identification of implementing alternatives in relation to cost and benefits

(C) Evaluation of physical and financial achievement in relation to established standards

(D) Objectives of each activity to be stated and the fixation of norms/standards for the same

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (C), (B), (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    (D). (B), (C), (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (D), (A), (B), (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (A), (C), (B)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(D), (A), (B), (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (D), (A), (B), (C)

Key Points

  • Stages in Performance Budgeting:
  • (D) Objectives of each activity to be stated: The first stage involves clearly defining the objectives of each activity and establishing norms/standards for evaluating performance.
  • (A) Classification of activities for resource allocation: Activities are categorized to ensure appropriate allocation of resources based on objectives.
  • (B) Identification of implementing alternatives: This stage examines cost-benefit analyses to identify the most feasible alternatives for implementation.
  • (C) Evaluation of physical and financial achievement: The final stage assesses achievements in terms of physical output and financial expenditure against the established standards.
  • Importance of Correct Order:
  • The sequence ensures systematic planning, resource allocation, implementation, and evaluation.
  • Skipping or misordering these stages can lead to inefficiencies in budgeting and performance management.

Additional Information

  • Concept of Performance Budgeting:
  • Performance budgeting focuses on linking expenditure with measurable outcomes.
  • It evaluates the efficiency and effectiveness of resource utilization.
  • Governments and organizations use performance budgeting to improve accountability and transparency.
  • Key Elements of Performance Budgeting:
  • Objectives: Clear and measurable goals for each activity.
  • Resource Allocation: Ensuring optimal use of resources based on priorities.
  • Evaluation: Regular monitoring and assessment against established norms.
  • Advantages:
  • Helps in identifying inefficiencies and improving operational processes.
  • Encourages focus on outcomes rather than inputs.
  • Promotes transparency and accountability in budget execution.

Question 84

Arrange the following in a sequence

(A) Invocation - Legislation for policy rules or laws

(B) Prescription- Adoption of policy alternatives

(C) Intelligence - How information is processed to formulate policy objectives

(D) Application - Enforcement or implementation of policy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (A), (D), (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (B), (D), (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (B), (A), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C). (D). (A). (B)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C), (B), (A), (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (C), (B), (A), (D)

Key Points

  • Intelligence
  • In policy formulation, intelligence refers to collecting and processing relevant information to identify and define policy objectives.
  • This stage ensures that decision-makers have sufficient data for informed choices.
  • It is the first step in the sequence, as it lays the groundwork for subsequent stages.
  • Prescription
  • Prescription involves the adoption of appropriate policy alternatives or solutions to address the identified objectives.
  • At this stage, the focus is on evaluating and selecting the most effective option.
  • This is the second step, as it follows the intelligence gathering phase.
  • Invocation
  • Invocation refers to creating legislation or rules that formalize the chosen policy alternatives.
  • This stage ensures that policies are legally binding and actionable.
  • It is the third step in the sequence, as it operationalizes the decisions made in the prescription stage.
  • Application
  • Application is the implementation or enforcement of the policies created.
  • At this stage, policies are put into practice to achieve the intended objectives.
  • This is the final step in the sequence.

Additional Information

  • Policy Formulation Process
  • The policy formulation process is typically divided into distinct stages to ensure systematic development and implementation of policies.
  • These stages include intelligence, prescription, invocation, and application, as outlined in this question.
  • Importance of Sequencing
  • Proper sequencing ensures that policies are developed and implemented effectively.
  • A failure to follow the sequence can lead to inefficiencies, miscommunication, or poor enforcement of policies.
  • Key Concepts in Policy Development
  • Legislation: Provides the legal framework for policies to be actionable.
  • Implementation: Refers to the practical application of policies to achieve desired outcomes.
  • Monitoring and Evaluation: Although not part of the sequence described, these are critical for assessing the effectiveness of policies post-implementation.

Question 85

Arrange the following in a sequence in which they are to be performed in Data Processing in social research:

(A) Tabulation

(B) Editing

(C) Classification

(D) Coding

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B). (D), (C), (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B). (C), (A), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (B). (A), (D), (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B). (A), (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(B). (D), (C), (A)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (B), (D), (C), (A)

Key Points

  • Data processing in social research
  • Data processing involves several steps to organize and analyze raw data effectively.
  • The correct sequence of steps ensures the data is accurate, usable, and meaningful.
  • Correct Sequence: (B), (D), (C), (A)
  • Editing (Step 1): The first step involves reviewing the collected data to detect and correct errors, ensuring consistency and completeness.
  • Coding (Step 2): After editing, data is assigned codes to convert responses into numerical or categorical forms for easy analysis.
  • Classification (Step 3): Coded data is grouped into meaningful categories to simplify analysis.
  • Tabulation (Step 4): Finally, data is organized into tables for systematic presentation and analysis.

Additional Information

  • Details of Each Step
  • Editing: Ensures data accuracy by checking for missing responses, inconsistencies, and errors.
  • Coding: Transforms qualitative data into numerical forms (e.g., assigning "1" for "Yes" and "0" for "No").
  • Classification: Groups data based on common attributes (e.g., age groups, income levels).
  • Tabulation: Summarizes data in tables to highlight patterns and trends, facilitating interpretation.
  • Importance in Research
  • Each step plays a critical role in ensuring the reliability and validity of research findings.
  • Proper execution of these steps enhances the quality of data analysis, leading to actionable insights.
Code

Question 86

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion (A) : State Governments need not be consulted by the centre, when law made on the subject of concurrent list.

Reason (R) : Center should make law only on those subject in the concurrent list where uniform policy is essential.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and R is NOT correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are true and R is NOT correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both (A) and (R) are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Key Points

  • Concurrent List
  • The Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which both the Centre and States can make laws.
  • However, in case of any conflict, the law made by the Central Government prevails over the State law.
  • Assertion (A) is correct.
  • The Central Government is not mandated to consult State Governments before making laws on subjects in the Concurrent List.
  • This is because the Constitution grants the Centre the overriding power in case of disputes.
  • Reason (R) is also correct.
  • The Centre is expected to legislate on Concurrent List subjects only when uniformity of policy is crucial across the nation.
  • For instance, matters like criminal law, marriage, and bankruptcy require uniformity for effective governance.
  • Although both (A) and (R) are true, R does NOT explain A because the Centre's authority to legislate does not rely on the necessity of uniformity alone.

Additional Information

  • Division of Powers in the Indian Constitution:
  • The Seventh Schedule divides powers between the Union and State Governments into three lists:
  • Union List: Subjects exclusively under the Central Government's jurisdiction (e.g., defense, foreign affairs).
  • State List: Subjects exclusively under State Governments' jurisdiction (e.g., police, public health).
  • Concurrent List: Subjects where both the Centre and States can make laws (e.g., education, marriage).
  • Article 254:
  • In case of a conflict between a Central law and a State law on a Concurrent List subject, the Central law prevails.
  • However, a State law can override a Central law if it receives the President's assent.
  • Importance of Uniform Policy:
  • Subjects like criminal law, marriage, and bankruptcy require uniformity to ensure consistency across different states.
  • Uniform policies help avoid legal discrepancies and ensure smooth governance across the country.

Question 87

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A) : The scheme, Integrated Programme for older persons, was revised in 2008.

Reason (R) : It was revised to include new projects such as maintenance of respite care homes and continuous carehomes etc.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Key Points

  • Integrated Programme for Older Persons
  • The Integrated Programme for Older Persons was revised in 2008 to address the changing needs of senior citizens in India.
  • It includes provisions for various new projects such as respite care homes and continuous care homes.
  • This revision aimed to ensure better care and support for elderly individuals through structured programs and facilities.
  • Assertion and Reason Analysis
  • The assertion that the scheme was revised in 2008 is true.
  • The reason provided, which includes the addition of projects like respite care homes and continuous care homes, is also true.
  • Both statements are consistent, making option 1 the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Key Objectives of the Integrated Programme for Older Persons
  • To improve the quality of life of older persons by providing basic amenities, healthcare, and shelter.
  • To promote active and productive aging by encouraging their participation in societal and community activities.
  • To provide institutional and non-institutional care services for senior citizens who are destitute or neglected.
  • Components of the Revised Scheme
  • Maintenance of daycare centers for elderly individuals.
  • Establishment of old-age homes for senior citizens without family support.
  • Provision for healthcare services, including mental health support.
  • Specialized services like continuous care homes for older persons who require long-term care.
  • Other Related Government Initiatives for Senior Citizens
  • National Policy on Older Persons (1999): Focuses on financial security, healthcare, and shelter for elderly individuals.
  • Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act (2007): Mandates legal obligation for children to provide for their aging parents.
  • Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana: Provides assistive devices to senior citizens belonging to the BPL category.

Question 88

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion (A): Governability of policy decisions depends on the support it elicts from different stakeholders.

Reason (R) : Policy decisions need effective political communication to all stakeholders for support and cooperation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options

given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Key Points

  • Assertion (A)
  • The statement "Governability of policy decisions depends on the support it elicits from different stakeholders" is correct because policy decisions often require stakeholder cooperation for effective implementation.
  • The involvement and backing of stakeholders ensure that policies are both practical and sustainable.
  • Governability is enhanced when stakeholders align with the goals and objectives of the policy.
  • Reason (R)
  • The statement "Policy decisions need effective political communication to all stakeholders for support and cooperation" is also correct because effective communication fosters transparency and trust.
  • Political communication helps stakeholders understand the rationale behind decisions and encourages their participation and cooperation.
  • Relationship between A and R
  • While both statements are individually correct, Reason (R) is NOT the explanation of Assertion (A).
  • Governability depends more broadly on stakeholder engagement, which includes but is not limited to political communication.
  • Political communication is one aspect of stakeholder engagement, but it does not solely determine governability.

Additional Information

  • Stakeholder Engagement
  • Stakeholders include individuals, groups, or organizations that have an interest in or are affected by policy decisions.
  • Effective stakeholder engagement involves consultation, collaboration, and communication.
  • Tools such as surveys, focus groups, and public forums are often used to gather stakeholder input.
  • Political Communication
  • Political communication is the dissemination of policy-related information to stakeholders, often through speeches, debates, media, and official statements.
  • It plays a critical role in shaping public perception and gaining support for policies.
  • Examples include government campaigns to inform citizens about new laws or initiatives.
  • Governability
  • Governability refers to the ability of a government or institution to implement policies effectively.
  • Key factors influencing governability include stakeholder support, institutional capacity, and the political environment.
  • Governability ensures that policies achieve their intended outcomes without excessive resistance or conflict.

Question 89

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion (A) : Public Policy is oxygen for growth and development of a country

Reason (R) : No goals of a country is achieved without Public Policy

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and R is NOT correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Key Points

  • Public Policy as oxygen for growth and development
  • Public Policy acts as the guiding framework for implementing strategies that foster social, economic, and political development.
  • It ensures efficient allocation of resources to achieve national priorities like education, healthcare, infrastructure, and economic stability.
  • Without Public Policy, there would be no structured direction to achieve growth and development goals.
  • Reason as the correct explanation of Assertion
  • Public Policy is essential for achieving a country's goals, as it provides strategic planning and sets the foundation for addressing issues such as poverty, inequality, and unemployment.
  • Without Public Policy, national objectives like sustainable development, social welfare, and economic growth cannot be systematically achieved.

Additional Information

  • Components of Public Policy
  • Policy formulation: Involves identifying problems, setting goals, and devising strategies to address national issues.
  • Policy implementation: Ensures the execution of strategies through government agencies and institutions.
  • Policy evaluation: Involves assessing the effectiveness of policies and making necessary adjustments.
  • Types of Public Policy
  • Economic Policy: Focuses on economic growth, fiscal management, and trade regulations.
  • Social Policy: Addresses issues like healthcare, education, and social security.
  • Environmental Policy: Deals with sustainability and the protection of natural resources.
  • Foreign Policy: Guides international relations and diplomatic strategies.
  • Importance of Public Policy
  • Promotes national development by addressing critical issues such as poverty, inequality, and unemployment.
  • Ensures efficient governance and proper utilization of resources.
  • Provides a roadmap for achieving long-term goals like sustainable development and societal well-being.

Question 90

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion (A): The horizontal networks of public, private and non-profit organizations are the new structures of governance.

Reason (R) : The collaborative nature of modern efforts to meet human needs rather than hierarchy and control is the basis of governance.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are true and R is NOT correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is false but (R) is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Key Points

  • Horizontal networks
  • Horizontal networks represent a shift from traditional hierarchical governance structures to more collaborative models.
  • These networks often involve public, private, and non-profit organizations working together to achieve shared goals.
  • Such collaboration facilitates better solutions for complex societal challenges, including poverty, healthcare, and environmental sustainability.
  • Collaborative governance
  • Modern governance focuses on collaboration rather than rigid hierarchies and command-and-control systems.
  • It emphasizes partnerships and shared responsibilities to meet human needs effectively.
  • Reason (R) accurately explains this transition, highlighting that governance structures are evolving to address dynamic challenges.

Additional Information

  • Governance structures
  • Governance involves rules, processes, and networks that guide collective decision-making.
  • Traditional governance relied heavily on hierarchical models with centralized control.
  • However, modern governance increasingly values decentralized and collaborative approaches.
  • Public-private partnerships (PPPs)
  • PPPs are a practical example of horizontal networks, where government entities collaborate with private organizations to address societal needs.
  • Such partnerships often focus on areas like infrastructure development, healthcare, and education.
  • Non-profit involvement
  • Non-profit organizations play a crucial role in governance by bringing expertise and resources to address specific social challenges.
  • They often act as intermediaries between public and private sectors, fostering effective collaboration.

Read the following passage and answer:

Perhaps the most important determinant of the integrity of a society or the prevalence of corruption is the quality of politics. If politics attracts and rewards men and women of integrity, competence and passion for public good, then the society is safe and integrity is maintained. But if honesty is in compatible with survival in politics, and if public life attracts undesirable and corrupt elements seeking private gain, then abuse of authority and corruption become norm. In such a political culture and climate, desirable initiatives will not yield adequate dividends. Competition and dececentralization certainly reduce corruption in certain sectors. But if the demand for corruption is fuelled by inexhaustible appetite for illegal funds in politics, then other avenues of corruption will be forcibly opened up. As a result, even as corruption declines in certain areas, it shifts to other, sometimes more dangerous in which competition cannot be introduced and the state exercises a natural monopoly. What is needed with liberalisation is corresponding political and governance reform to alter the incentives in politics and public office and to promote integrity and ethical conduct.

All forms of corruption are reprehensible and we need to promote a culture of zero tolerance of corruption. But some forms of corruption are much more pernicious than others and deserve closer attention. In a vast majority of cases of bribery, the citizen is a victim of extortion and is compelled to pay a bribe in order to get a service to which he is entitled. Experience has taught most citizens that there is a vicious cycle of corruption operating and they often end up losing much more by resisting corruption.

Delays, harrasment, lost opportunity, loss of precious time and wages, uncertainty and, at times, potential danger of loss of life or limb could result from resistance to corruption and non-compliance with demands. In such cases, the citizen is an unwilling victim of coercive corruption. But there are several cases of collusion between the bribe giver and corrupt public servant. In such cases of collusive corruption, both parties benefit at immense cost of society. Awarding of contracts for public works and procurement of goods and services, recruitment of employees, evasion of taxes, substandard projects, collusive violation of regulations, adulteration of foods and drugs, obstruction of justice and concealing or doctoring evidence in investigation are all examples of such dangerous forms of corruption. As the economy is freed from state controls, extortion corruption declines and collusive corruption tends to increases. We need to fashion strong and effective instruments to deal with this growing menace of collusive corruption, which is undermining the very foundations of one democracy and endangering society.

Question 91

Which of the following are the determinants in the context of "quality of politics"?

(A) Prevalence of corruption

(B) Integrity of society

(C) Initiatives and dividends

(D) Reward for men and women of integrity in politics.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B). (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A). (C). (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B). (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B). (D)

Key Points  The determinants in the context of "quality of politics" are -

(A) Prevalence of corruption

(B) Integrity of society

(D) Reward for men and women of integrity in politics.

Question 92

The inexhaustable appetite for illegal funds in politics leads to

  1. AOption (a)

    competition and decentralisation

  2. BOption (b)

    competence and passion for public good

  3. COption (c)

    state monopoly of all sectors

  4. DOption (d)

    opening of new avenues for corruption

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

opening of new avenues for corruption

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is opening of new avenues for corruption.

Key Points If the demand for corruption is fuelled by inexhaustible appetite for illegal funds in politics, then other avenues of corruption will be forcibly opened up.

Question 93

Which of the following are the consequences of resisting corruption and/or non-compliance of demand?

(A) Delays

(B) Missed opportunity

(C) Rewards

(D) Loss of life or limb

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A). (B). (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A). (B). (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (B). (C), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A). (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A). (B). (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A). (B). (D)

Key PointsFrom the passage, the consequences of resisting corruption and/or non-compliance with corrupt demands are explicitly listed:

  • Delays, harrasment, lost opportunity, loss of precious time and wages, uncertainty and, at times, potential danger of loss of life or limb could result from resistance to corruption and non-compliance with demands

Question 94

In Coercive corruption, the citizen is

  1. AOption (a)

    A willing partner

  2. BOption (b)

    A willing collaborator in corrupt activities

  3. COption (c)

    An unwilling victim

  4. DOption (d)

    A corrupt public servant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

An unwilling victim

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is An unwilling victim

Key Points

 From the above passage it is listed-

  • In a vast majority of cases of bribery, the citizen is a victim of extortion and is compelled to pay a bribe in order to get a service to which he is entitled. Experience has taught most citizens that there is a vicious cycle of corruption operating and they often end up losing much more by resisting corruption.

Question 95

Liberalisation and an economy free from state control tends to increase

  1. AOption (a)

    Collusive corruption

  2. BOption (b)

    Coercive corruption

  3. COption (c)

    Extortion corruption

  4. DOption (d)

    Corrupt public servant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Collusive corruption

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Collusive Corruption.

Key Points The passage clearly states that as the economy is freed from state controls, extortion (coercive) corruption declines and collusive corruption tends to increase. Therefore, liberalisation and an economy free from state control lead to a rise in collusive corruption, where both the bribe giver and taker benefit at the cost of society.

Read the following passage and answer:

Urbanization is a global phenomenon. Over half of the global population now live in urban areas and as per United Nations projection by 2050 about 64% of developing would and 86% of developed would be urban. This growth will be much in Asia and Africa and these continents have more towns and cities. The UN projection on India states that India would reach 40% urban by 2030 and over 51% by 2050. As per McKinsey projections by 2030 five states viz., Tamilnadu, Gujarat, Maharastra, Karnataka and Punjab will be more than 50% urban. Even as per 2011 census a quarter of the districts have urbanization higher than the national average. Village culture in characterized by common blood lines, intimate relationships and communal behaviour where as urban culture is characterized by different blood lines, unfamiliar relations and competitive behaviour. In present times, urbanization and migration of people from rural to urban area began with industrial revolution and is taking place on global scale. This results unthinkable size of cities. Growth of industries in urban areas, inability of rural areas to absorb growing population, better and increased employment opportunities, desire to have better standard of life, social mobility and fortune. increase in educational and health facilities, better civic services are to be considered as the basic causes of urbanization. These facts are cause of migration and the roots of natural increase of urban growth. Migration should not be considered only from rural to urban and it can be urban to urban too.

In India urban area characters are defined by the census. The Census definition formulated in 1971 continue to be adopted in successive census. As per the definition of urban is :

(A) Minimum of 5000 population

(B) Atleast 75% working population should be non-agricultural and

(C) Population density of at least 400 in a square km. Population land use, density, employment etc are broadly the components of urban definition with variations between countries. Most of the countries the population of 5000 to be called urban, but 200 in Denmark, Japan and China with very higher thresholds of 50,000 and 1,00,000 population respectively. Some countries use infrastructure and service provisions also criteria for defining urban area. Hence it is a problems of meaningful comparison at international level.

Increased pace of urbanization required better Governance of cities and towns. For better Governance various reforms required viz., property tax, E-Governance, public private partnerships, corporate social responsibility, citizen character, service level bench marks, local body ombudsman, strengthening finance commissions etc. These reforms would provide Good urban Governance. Green plan and budget, pollution control, air quality improvement and also necessary. 15th Finance commission in its report mentioned that specific tied grants to urban local bodies be given, particularly to million plus cities, to control air pollution.

Question 96

Which of the factors characterize urban culture?

(A) Intimate relationship

(B) Distant blood lines

(C) Competetive behaviour

(D) Communal behaviour

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(B), (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is (B), (C).

Key Points From the passage:

  • Village culture → common blood lines, intimate relationships, communal behaviour
  • Urban culture → different/distant blood lines, unfamiliar relations, competitive behaviour

Question 97

According to United Nations projections:

(A) Majority of Global population lives in urban areas.

(B) African continent will have more towns and cities

(C) Developed world stagnate in urban growth

(D) Asian population migrates in reverse

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B). (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A and B.

Key Points According to the passage and United Nations projections only these two statements are correct-

  • (A) Majority of global population lives in urban areas
  • (B) African continent will have more towns and cities

Question 98

In India urban area characters were defined by

  1. AOption (a)

    Government of India Act

  2. BOption (b)

    Census of India

  3. COption (c)

    Characters will change in time

  4. DOption (d)

    As per the provisions of local bodies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Census of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Census of India.

Key Points

  • According to the given passage, urban area characteristics in India are defined by the Census of India, making Option (2) the correct choice.
  • The passage clearly states that “In India urban area characters are defined by the census. The Census definition formulated in 1971 continues to be adopted in successive census.” This sentence directly attributes the authority for defining urban areas to the Census of India, leaving no ambiguity.

Question 99

Which finance commission linked the grants to local bodies with an objective of control air pollution?

  1. AOption (a)

    14th Finance Commission

  2. BOption (b)

    10th Finance Commission

  3. COption (c)

    15th Finance Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    13th Finance Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

15th Finance Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 15th Finance Commission.

 Key PointsAccording to the passage, the 15th Finance Commission recommended providing specific tied grants to urban local bodies, especially million-plus cities, to control air pollution.

Question 100

For good urban governance the following reforms are necessary: Choose the correct answer among the following

(A) corporate social responsibility and green budget

(B) vibrant social media and civil society

(C) strengthening local finances and housing for needy

(D) service level bench marks and local body Ombudsman

  1. AOption (a)

    (A). (B). (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B). (C), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A). (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B). (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A). (D)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A). (D)

In the above passage it is mentioned-

(A) corporate social responsibility and green budget

(D) service level bench marks and local body Ombudsman

100 questions in the full paper