UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 21st Nov 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

There is three level of teaching. 

Key Points

The Level of teaching are mentioned below: 

• Memory level
• Understanding level
• Reflective level

​The reflective level is the highest stage of the teaching-learning process. 

• This level entails applying the scientific approach to comprehend situations that a person is confronted with.
• At this level, the learner identifies the problem and tries to address them further tries to solve the problem.
• The learner's personal participation and intensity of feeling for getting a solution are characteristics of a reflective degree of teaching and learning success.
• The cognitive field theory supports the reflective level of teaching and learning.
• The learner is at the center of this strategy and drives into the whole process.

​Thus, Cognitive field theory supports the reflective level of teaching.

Additional Information

• Need-reduction theory: no learning occurred unless a drive produced tension and impelled the organism into activity to procure a reward that would reduce the drive and satisfy its related physiological need.
• The reinforcement theory of motivation was proposed by BF Skinner and his associates. It states that an individual's behavior is a function of its consequences.
• The conditioning theory of learning describes a form of learning where learning occurs as a result of associating a condition or stimulus with a particular reaction or response.

Learning can be defined as the activity or process of gaining knowledge or skill by studying, practicing, being taught, or experiencing something.

Key Points

The learners can be divided into two categories 

• Dependent Learners
• Independent Learners
• ​Dependent Learners are those who are dependent on some other to guide them throughout the course.
• characteristics of field-dependent learners are the following: 
• Instructors who provide precise direction, assignments, and guidelines.
• Perceives global aspects of concepts and materials.
• The instructor takes all responsibility for the Leaner.
• The learner cannot take decisions, they only seek guidance and demonstration from the teacher.
• ​​​Focuses on only the required facts and principles.
• Learners cooperate with the teacher to gain knowledge.
• Learners do not know their own strengths and weaknesses.
• Perceives global aspects of concepts, materials, facts, and principles.

​Thus,  the characteristics of field-dependent learners are perceiving global aspects of concepts and materials, seeking guidance and demonstration from teachers, and liking to cooperate.

Hence options (A), (D), and (E) only are correct.

Research ethics are moral standards that guide researchers in doing and reporting research.

Key PointsStatement I: Research ethics forms a genuine concern for research to lend credibility to findings.

Research ethics:

• Research ethics is a set of principles that guide the conduct of research. These principles are designed to protect the rights of research participants**, ensure the accuracy of research findings,** and promote the responsible use of research resources.
• Research ethics is important because it helps ensure that research is conducted in an ethical, responsible, and credible way.
• It reports research without dishonesty or the purpose of harming study participants or society.
• It is an integral part of the study, influenced by general trust in scientists, data protection, anonymity, and confidentiality.
• Research ethics can establish and maintain a trust-based relationship with respondents.

​So, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: The use of ICT in research is mandatory as it is economical in terms of time and use of resources.

• Information and Communication Technology (ICT) umbrella term includes a wide range of devices which transmit information.
• ICT aids researchers in the following research-related tasks conducting a literature review, data collection, sharing findings and selecting research methodologies.
• The use of ICT in research is not mandatory as it is economical in terms of time and use of resources.

​Thus, Statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Referencing is also a technique of giving acknowledgment to others whose words and ideas.

Key PointsAssertion (A): Format and styles of referencing in thesis writing are enforced with a view to effect observance of formal protocols.

• A reference style is a set of guidelines for properly acknowledging the opinions, ideas, and works of others.
• Referencing is an important component of academic writing, especially when it comes to avoiding plagiarism and maintaining academic integrity in assignments and research.
• There are different types of reference styles such as MLA, APA, etc.
• Its formal protocols enforced researchers to observe protocols for credibility.

Thus, Assertion (A) is correct. 

Reasons (R): Formal protocols ensure avoidance of deviations from norms and procedures of reporting research.

• The standard procedures for references are accurate, thorough, and beneficial to investigators.
• Formal protocols ensure avoidance of deviations from norms and procedures of reporting research.
• It established that acknowledgment of a specific scholar's work and not violating the intellectual property rights.

​So (R) is correct is and the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Noise in communication disrupts the communication process between a speaker and an audience. 

Key Points

Selective intention:  

• Selective intention refers to the intentional decision of the audience to ignore or filter out certain messages or information while focusing on specific content. It is a psychological process where individuals selectively choose what they want to pay attention to and disregard other stimuli or messages.
• In the context of noise in communication systems, selective intention does not contribute significantly to the noise because it involves a deliberate choice made by the audience. The audience intentionally filters out information they do not consider relevant or important, which may result in a loss of communication effectiveness. However, it is not a significant noise source in the communication system.

 

On the other hand, selective attention (option 1), selective perception (option 2), and selective retention (option 3) can contribute to noise in communication.

• Selective attention refers to focusing on certain stimuli while ignoring others.
• Selective perception refers to the individual's interpretation and understanding of messages based on their biases and preconceived notions.
• Selective retention refers to the tendency to remember or retain certain information while forgetting or disregarding others. These processes can introduce distortion or misinterpretation of the intended message, contributing to noise in the communication system.

 

Hence, the** last contributor to noise in the communication system by the audience is Selective intention.**

Key Points

 

Therefore, (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) is correct machting.

A research design is a framework for the methods and approaches. 

Key Points

• Experimental research is a study that is based on scientific research design.
• The characteristic features of Experimental research are the following: 
• A purpose statement is a declarative statement that highlights the major goal or goals of a research study.
• The goal of a study or research endeavor is to answer research questions on the topic.
• A hypothesis is a statement that expresses expectations for the results of research.
• After developing a hypothesis then collect numeric data.
• In short, developing clear, restricted, measurable, and observable purpose statements, research questions and hypotheses are characteristic features of experimental research.
• Experimental research is a study that uses two sets of variables and is conducted in a scientific manner.

Thus, creating purpose statements, research questions, and hypotheses that are narrow and measurable would mark the characteristic features of Experimental research.

Additional Information

• Grounded theory research: Grounded theory is a systematic approach to qualitative research where theories are generated through the collecting and analysis of data.
• Ethnographic research:   Ethnography is a qualitative data collection method and the researcher work in the field where they collect data through observations and interviews.
• Narrative research:  It was defined as collecting and analyzing the accounts of respondents when they describe experiences and further interpret them.

The posttest-only control group design is a study in which at least two groups are used. 

Key Points

• The posttest-only control group design is a simple experimental design in which individuals are randomly allocated to either receive or not receive an intervention, and the outcome of interest is evaluated only once after the intervention to determine its effect.
• Under this design, one of which does not receive any treatment or intervention, and data on the outcome measure is obtained after the treatment or intervention.
• The control group is the group that does not receive the treatment or intervention of interest.
• There are four threats to external validity: 
• Reactive or interaction effect of testing.
• Interaction effects of selection biases and the experimental variable.
• Reactive effects of experimental arrangements
• Multiple treatment interference.

​Thus, the interaction of selection and the independent variable and reactive experimental procedures are threats to validity in two groups, randomized subjects post-test research design.**

Thus (C) and (D) only are correct options.

The research process is the methodical way in which a researcher tackles their subject of study in order to generate knowledge that the community will value in the field.

Key Points

Thus, (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) is correct matching.

Formative assessment refers to assessing student comprehension, learning needs, and academic progress while the course is in progress. 

Key PointsAssertion (A): Formative assessment is a process linked and directed at raising motivation and engagement levels in learning.

• Formative assessment is a type of assessment that is used to aid learning by providing students with feedback information that is useful during the learning process.
• Motivation rises as a result of formative assessment because it tracks learning goals and tracking progress toward those goals.
• Formative assessment increased student engagement as it happens throughout the course.

​Thus,  Assertion (A) is correct.

Reasons (R): The purpose of formative assessment is to improve the quality of learning outcomes.

• The purpose of formative assessment is to track student progress and provide continuing feedback that instructors and students can utilize to improve their teaching and learning.
• It assists students in identifying their strengths and shortcomings, as well as areas in which they need to improve.
• Formative assessment's overall purpose is to gather precise information that may be used to improve education and student learning while it's happening.

​So, Reasons (R)  is correct is the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Bloom's taxonomy is a taxonomy of educational objectives devised by American educational psychologist Benjamin Bloom in the 1950s. 

Key PointsStatement I: Knowledge, comprehension, and application levels in Bloom's taxonomy belong to the higher level of cognitive learning.

Bloom's taxonomy is a framework for categorizing educational learning objectives. It was originally developed in 1956 by Benjamin Bloom, a psychologist at the University of Chicago, and his colleagues. The taxonomy has three domains: cognitive, affective, and psychomotor.

The cognitive domain is concerned with knowledge and understanding. It has six levels, from lowest to highest:

• Knowledge: The ability to recall facts, terms, and definitions.
• Comprehension: The ability to understand the meaning of information.
• Application: The ability to use information in new situations.
• Analysis: The ability to break down information into parts and understand their relationships.
• Synthesis: The ability to create new products or ideas from existing information.
• Evaluation: The ability to assess the value of information or products.

The affective domain is concerned with feelings, attitudes, and values. It has five levels, from lowest to highest:

• Receiving: The willingness to pay attention to new information or experiences.
• Responding: The ability to react to new information or experiences positively.
• Valuing: The development of a personal commitment to certain values or beliefs.
• Organization: The ability to organize one's values into a coherent system.
• Characterization: The ability to live one's life under one's values.

The psychomotor domain is concerned with physical skills. It has six levels, from lowest to highest:

• Perception: The ability to use one's senses to gather environmental information.
• Set: The ability to prepare oneself to perform a physical skill.
• Guided Response: The ability to perform a physical skill under the guidance of another person.
• Mechanics: The ability to perform a physical skill automatically and with precision.
• Adaptation: The ability to modify a physical skill to meet new or changing conditions.
• Creativity: The ability to create new physical skills or to improve existing ones.

Bloom's taxonomy is a useful tool for teachers and curriculum developers. It can help teachers identify the learning objectives for their lessons and units and select appropriate instructional methods and activities. The taxonomy can also be used to assess student learning. By comparing student performance to the different levels of Bloom's taxonomy, teachers can better understand what students have learned and what they still need to learn.

Bloom's taxonomy has been revised several times since it was first published. The most recent revision was published in 2001. The revised taxonomy retains the basic structure of the original taxonomy, but it has been updated to reflect changes in educational practice. For example, the revised taxonomy includes a new level, "Creating," which reflects the importance of creativity in today's world.

Bloom's taxonomy is a valuable tool for educators. It can help teachers to design effective learning experiences for their students and to assess student learning in a meaningful way.

So, Statement I is incorrect. 

Statement II: Organization and characterization belong to a higher level of affective outcomes.

• Bloom's taxonomy separates educational goals into three domains such as knowledge, emotion, and movement.
• The approach facilitates effective student learning by assisting teachers in determining the best teaching tactics to deploy.
• Receiving, responding, valuing, organizing, and categorising are the five levels of the Affective Domain Taxonomy from lowest to highest.
• ​Organization and characterization belong to a higher level of affective outcomes.

Thus, Statement II is correct.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Key Points

Primary storage:

• Primary storage is often referred to as “memory” and is classified as either volatile or non-volatile.
• It temporarily stores applications and data currently in use.
• Volatile memory such as RAM loses data as soon as the device loses power. 
• RAM is a volatile memory, which means it does not store data or instructions permanently.
• As soon as you shut down the computer, the RAM loses the data. So, the data remains in the RAM as long as the computer is on and is lost when the computer is turned off.
• Primary storage provides fast access to the CPU and allows active programs to deliver optimal performance to the end-user.

Secondary storage devices

• It refers to any non-volatile storage device that is internal or external to the computer.
• It can be any storage device beyond the primary storage that enables permanent data storage.
• A secondary storage device is also known as an auxiliary storage device, backup storage device, tier 2 storage, or external storage.
• The secondary memory is accessed indirectly via input/output operations.
• Secondary storage is named as such because it doesn't have direct access to the CPU. As a result, it is considerably slower than primary storage
• Secondary storage is usually twice as cheap compared to its primary counterpart and can also store significantly more information.
• It can be of Two types 
• Sequential access:
• For example, A tape drive is a device that stores computer data on magnetic tape, especially for backup and archiving purposes. Magnetic tape drive
• Direct access:
• For example Floppy disc

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is (A) and (C) only

CLI stands for Command Line Interface. It is an interface for the user to issue commands in successive lines of text or command lines to execute the tasks. 

GUI stands for Graphical User Interface. A GUI enables users to interact with the operating system or application. GUI facilitates users by offering buttons, windows, scrollbars, iconic images, wizards, and other icons. 

Key Points

The main advantage of a Graphical User Interface (GUI) compared with a Command Line Interface (CLI) is that it is easier to use for non-experts. GUIs use icons, windows, and menus to represent commands and options, which makes them more intuitive and easier to learn than CLIs, which require users to type in commands.

Here is a table comparing the advantages and disadvantages of GUIs and CLIs:

Overall, GUIs are better for non-experts who need to perform basic tasks, while CLIs are better for experts who need to perform complex tasks or who need more control over their computers.

The answer to this question is 2) Easier to use for non-experts.

Key Points

All data is stored in computers using 1s and 0s (bits).A single 1 or a single 0 in a computer is called a 'bit'. 

• 1KB= 10³ Bytes
• Therefore
• 1000000KBytes=100000010³ Bytes=10610³ Bytes=10⁹Bytes
• 1 MB=10⁶ Byte
• Therefore 100000MBytes=100000* 106 Bytes=10⁵*10⁶ Bytes=10¹¹Bytes
• 1GB= 10⁹ Bytes
• Therefore 100 GB= 100* 109 Bytes=1011 Bytes
• 10000000000 Bytes=10¹⁰ Bytes
• 1TB=10¹²Bytes

​Therefore we can conclude that the correct order of the following computer storage capacities ranked from smallest to largest capacity is 1000000 KBytes<10000000000 Bytes<100000 MBytes<100 GBytes<1 TBytes.

Hence the correct sequence is (E), (B), (D), (A), (C)

Key Points

Statement I: A web browser is a piece of software that retrieves and displays web pages.

Web Browser

• A Web browser is a software program that is used to explore, retrieve, and display the information available on the World Wide Web.
• This information may be in the form of pictures, web pages, videos, and other files that all are connected via hyperlinks and categorized with the help of URLs (Uniform Resource Identifiers).
• The web server sends the data back to the browser that displays the results on internet supported devices
• The WorldWideWeb was the first web browser.

Hence Statement I is Correct.

Statement II: A search engine is a special kind of website that helps people in finding web pages from other websites.

Search engine

• The search engine is an online answering machine, which is used to search, understand, and organize content results in its database based on the search query (keywords) inserted by the end-users (internet users).
• A search engine is a special kind of website that helps users find web pages from other websites.
• To display search results, all search engines first find the valuable result from their database, sort them to make an ordered list based on the search algorithm, and display them in front of end users.
• Google, Yahoo!, Bing, YouTube, and DuckDuckGo are some popular examples of search engines.

Hence Statement II is Correct.

Therefore we conclude that both Statement I and Statement II are true.

National Action Plan for Climate Change (NAPCC) is a Government of India program launched on 30^th June 2008 to mitigate and adapt to the adverse impact of climate change.

Key Points The 8 missions under NAPCC are as follows:

1. National Solar Mission
2. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
3. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
4. National Water Mission
5. National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem
6. Green India Mission
7. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
8. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change

Hence there 8 Missions under the Climate Action Plan of Govt. of India.

Additional InformationThe Department of Science & Technology, Ministry of Science & Technology was entrusted with coordinating two out of these eight national missions on climate change. These are:

1. National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) and
2. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (NMSKCC).

Key Points

Assertion (A): Production of electricity from Renewable Energy sources is without adverse environmental impacts.

Renewable energy technologies

• They use resources straight from the environment to generate power.
• These energy sources include sunshine, wind, tides, and biomass,
• Renewable energy generation sources emit little to no greenhouse gases or pollutants into the air.
• But they have some adverse effects on the environment as well
• For example
• for making solar panels Water is one of the raw materials required for silicon cell production.
• The fabrication of silicon solar cells requires large volumes of high purity water for silicon wafer cleaning. Solar photovoltaic (PV) requires water for cleaning panels and thermal generation

Hence assertion A is False.

 

Reason (R): There is no net emission of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere from the exploitation of Renewable sources of energy.

• Renewable energy sources are the least expensive options for boosting electricity access, reducing air pollution, and cutting carbon dioxide emissions worldwide
• Renewable energy generation sources emit little to no greenhouse gases or pollutants into the air. This means a smaller carbon footprint and an overall positive impact on the natural environment.
• During the combustion process, fossil fuels emit high amounts of greenhouse gases, which have been proven to exacerbate the rise of global temperatures and the frequency of extreme weather events.

​Hence Reason R is True.

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is (A) is false but (R) is true.

As per WHO, Air pollution is the contamination of the indoor or outdoor environment by any chemical, physical or biological agent that modifies the natural characteristics of the atmosphere.

Important Points

Sulfur dioxide  

 

• It affects the respiratory system, particularly lung function, and can irritate the eyes. Sulfur dioxide irritates the respiratory tract and increases the risk of tract infections.
• It causes coughing, Wheezing mucus secretion and aggravates conditions such as asthma, wheezing, and chronic bronchitis.

Additional Information

Nitrogen dioxide:

• ​NO₂ primarily gets in the air from the burning of fuel. NO₂ forms from emissions from cars, trucks and buses, power plants, and off-road equipment
• Breathing air with a high concentration of NO₂ can irritate airways in the human respiratory system.

Carbon monoxide

• It is harmful because it binds to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing the ability of blood to carry oxygen.
• This interferes with oxygen delivery to the body's organs.
• The most common effects of CO exposure are fatigue, headaches, confusion, and dizziness due to inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain.

Ozone

• Breathing ground-level ozone can trigger a variety of health problems including chest pain, coughing, throat irritation, and congestion.
• It can worsen bronchitis, emphysema, and asthma.
• Ozone also can reduce lung function and inflame the lining of the lungs. Repeated exposure may permanently scar lung tissue.

Here is a table of the health effects of different air pollutants:

Hence we can say that sulfur dioxide Is the most relevant air pollutant which causes wheezing.

Key Points

IMD Classification of Cyclone:

• Any tropical cyclone that develops within the North Indian Ocean between 100°E and 45°E is monitored by the India Meteorological Department (IMD, RSMC New Delhi)
• Within the region, a tropical cyclone is defined as a non-frontal synoptic-scale cyclone, that originates over tropical or subtropical waters with organized convection and a definite cyclonic surface wind circulation.
• The lowest official classification used in the North Indian Ocean on the basis of 3-minute sustained wind speeds is a Depression,  and the highest is Supercyclone
• Accordingly, the list of Cyclone on the basis of their intensity is classified below

Therefore we can conclude that the average sustained wind speed over 3 minutes of a cyclonic storm, is in the range of 63-88 km/hr.

Key PointsStatement I: Wind farms are generally set up on exposed hilltops or coasts in remote areas.

Wind Farm:

• A wind farm or wind park also called a wind power station or wind power plant is a group of wind turbines in the same location used to produce electricity.
• Typically, they need to be spread over more land than other power stations and need to be built in wild and rural areas,
• Favourable sites include the tops of smooth, rounded hills; open plains and water; and mountain gaps that funnel and intensify wind.

Hence, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Wind velocities are steady in these remote locations.

Wind Turbines at Higher elevations:

• Wind resources are generally more favourable for electricity generation at higher elevations above the earth's surface.
• Wind power has historically been ground-based; we've all seen the sometimes vast arrays of "windmills" across hillsides or in valleys. Unfortunately, these arrays harness a small percentage of the power present in the wind.
• High altitude wind, on the other hand, is much more powerful and consistent than surface winds, and because the generated power grows with the cube of wind speed, this means the available energy is much greater at high altitudes.

Hence, Statement II is false.

**Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.**​

India has central and state universities, unitary, federal and affiliating universities, institutions of national importance, institutions deemed to be universities, and open universities.

Key Points 

• On a functional basis, institutions of higher education consist of multi-faculty general universities that are engaged in teaching and research in nearly all traditional disciplines.
• Autonomy of a university is its freedom to organize and administer its affairs as a corporate body in accordance with the law by which it is established.
• The autonomous character of the university is reflected in its internal management, the freedom with which it can decide its policies and programs, appoint its personnel, determine their relationship with one another and facilitate their smooth functioning with a view to realizing its objectives.
• The broad pattern and structure of governance of most of these universities are similar; the management responsibility vesting with an Executive Council (also known as Syndicate or Board of Management) and the academic responsibility vesting with the Academic Council (senate).
• The Executive Council is the authority that takes all executive decisions and implements them. All administrative and financial powers are exercised by this body.
• The Academic Council is the principal academic authority of the university. All decisions on programs, courses, teaching methods, student assessment systems, academic standards, creation of new departments, etc are within the purview of the Academic Council.

Hence for good governance following autonomies are essential academic autonomy, financial autonomy, and administrative autonomy.

Therefore (A), (C), and (D) only are correct.

Additional Information

• The Executive Council consists of the Vice-Chancellor as its Chairman, a Pro-Vice-Chancellor, two Deans, three or four representatives of teachers, two or three representatives (generally Heads) of colleges or institutions affiliated to the university, three or four nominees of the government, and two or three members of the Senate who are external members.
• The Academic Council is chaired by the Vice-Chancellor and consists of the Pro-vice-chancellor(s), all Deans, all Heads of Departments, representatives of the Heads of affiliated institutions and colleges, and representatives of all categories of teachers both from the Departments as well as affiliated institutions and in several cases, also of representatives of students.

Key Points 

Therefore the correct matching code is (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).

Key Points 

Therefore we conclude that the correct matching code is (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).

Important Points

National Education Day of India is celebrated on 11 November every year

• India celebrates November 11 as National Education Day to commemorate the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, the first Education Minister of the country who served from 15 August 1947 until 2 February 1958.
• India remembers the contributions of Maulana Azad toward nation-building. A freedom fighter, scholar, and educationist, Maulana Azad was a key architect of Independent India.
• He was responsible for setting up top education bodies like the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) and the University Grants Commission (UGC).
• The first Indian Institute of Technology, IIT Kharagpur, was established by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

Additional Information

• National Science Day is celebrated on 28 Feb to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by Nobel laureate, physicist CV Raman on this day in 1928.
• World Environment Day (WED) is celebrated annually on 5 June and is the United Nations' principal vehicle for encouraging awareness and action for the protection of the environment.
• First held in 1974, it has been a platform for raising awareness of environmental issues
• World AIDS Day is observed on 1 December every year to raise awareness and knowledge about HIV and a call to move toward ending the HIV epidemic.
• It was first celebrated in 1988.

Education Commission (1964) was based on the report and recommendations of the Kothari Commission (1964–1966).

Key Points The Kothari Commission (1964-66) has said, “the destiny of India is being shaped in her classrooms.

• In this report, the government of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi announced the first National Policy on Education in 1968, which called for a "radical restructuring" and proposed equal educational opportunities in order to achieve national integration and greater cultural and economic development.
• The policy called for fulfilling compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14, as stipulated by the Constitution of India, and specialized training and qualification of teachers
• The policy called for a focus on the learning of regional languages, outlining the "three-language formula" to be implemented in secondary education - the instruction of the English language, the official language of the state where the school was based, and Hindi.

Hence "Destiny of India is being shaped in her classrooms", this is stated in Education Commission (1964).

Additional Information

• University Education Commission (1948):
• It is the first education commission in independent India, to study the problems of university education in India.
• It is the first education commission in independent India, to study the problems of university education in India
• National Education Policy (1986):
• ​In 1986, the government led by Rajiv Gandhi introduced a new National Policy on Education.
• The new policy called for "special emphasis on the removal of disparities and to equalize educational opportunity,", especially for Indian women, Scheduled Tribes (ST), and the Scheduled Caste (SC) communities.
• National Knowledge Commission
• It is an eight-membered committee established by Dr. Manmohan Singh in 2005. The purpose of this committee is to bring reforms in the education sector by adapting and upgrading to latest technologies.
• The Chairman of this committee was Sam Pitroda

The National Policy on Education was framed in 1986 and modified in 1992. The NEP 2020 is the first education policy of the 21^st century and replaces the thirty-four-year-old National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986.

Key Points

New curricular and pedagogical structure of School Education as proposed by NEP-2020 :

• ​The 10+2 structure of school curricula is to be replaced by a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure corresponding to ages 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years respectively.
• The new system will have 12 years of schooling with three years of Anganwadi or pre-schooling.
• It will be consisting of the Foundational Stage (in two parts, that is
• 3 years of Anganwadi/pre-school + 2 years in primary school in Grades 1-2;
• both together covering ages 3-8),
• Preparatory Stage (Grades 3-5, covering ages 8-11),
• Middle Stage (Grades 6-8, covering ages 11-14), and
• Secondary Stage (Grade)

Therefore the new curricular and pedagogical structure of School Education as proposed by NEP-2020 is 5 + 3 + 3 + 4.

The correct answer is 'incorporates classroom rules, consequences, and routines to keep students actively engaged'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"Through out much of the latter half of 20^th Century, classroom discipline was focussed on the issue of how best to respond to student misbehaviour. The humanist and applied behaviour analysis approaches to classroom management shared the spotlight about equality during this period. Both of these traditions are primarily reactive rather than preventive systems of classroom management"​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about effective classroom management traditions.
• Classroom tradition was focused on the issue of how best to respond to student misbehavior.
• Hence it is evident that an effective teacher manager as per classroom management tradition incorporates classroom rules, consequences, and routines to keep students actively engaged.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'applied Research Tradition.'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"The humanist and applied behavior analysis approaches to classroom management shared the spotlight about equality during this period. Both of these traditions are primarily reactive rather than preventive systems of classroom management. That is they tend to provide solutions to misbehavior after it occurs, not before"​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about humanist and applied behavior analysis.
• Applied behavior analysis approaches to classroom management shared the spotlight on equality.
• Hence it is evident that a teacher who emphasizes the immediate reinforcement of positive behavior and punishment together is said to follow applied research tradition.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Prevents the problem before occurring.'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"This approach is based on classroom research that examined what effective teachers do to prevent misconduct and what less effective teachers do to create it. Some of this research involved observation and analysis of both experienced and inexperienced teachers while they taught."​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about effective classroom management.
• Research involved observation and analysis of both experienced and inexperienced teachers suggested that effective teachers prevented misconduct in the classroom.
• Hence it is evident that according to classroom management theory an effective teacher prevents the problem before occurring.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Prevents the misconduct.'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"effective classroom managers can be distinguished more by what they do to prevent misbehavior than how they respond to misbehavior."​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about effective classroom management.
• Research involved observation and analysis of both experienced and inexperienced teachers suggested that effective teachers prevented misconduct in the classroom.
• Hence it is evident that a teacher is an effective manager if she prevents misconduct.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Humanist Tradition'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​ 

"The humanist and applied behavior analysis approaches to classroom management shared the spotlight about equality during this period. Both of these traditions are primarily reactive rather than preventive systems of classroom management."​

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about effective classroom management.
• The humanist approach is primarily reactive rather than preventive systems of classroom management.
• Hence it is evident that a teacher who focuses on the feelings, psychological needs, and emotions of the individual learners is said to be following humanist tradition.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Calculation:

City K:

Candidates appeared for examination = 850

Candidates passed for examination = 496

⇒ % of passing = \(\frac{496}{850}\times 100\) = 58.35%

City L:

Candidates appeared for examination = 600

Candidates passed for examination = 315

⇒ % of passing = \(\frac{315}{600}\times 100\) = 52.5% 

City M:

Candidates appeared for examination = 740

Candidates passed for examination = 464

⇒ % of passing = \(\frac{464}{740}\times 100\) = 62.7% 

City N:

Candidates appeared for examination = 1165

Candidates passed for examination = 780     

⇒ % of passing = \(\frac{780}{1165}\times 100\)   = 66.95% 

∴ In city L minimum % of appeared students passed in the examination.

The correct option is 2 i.e. L

Calculation:   

Number of students passed in Year 2017 = 360   

Number of students passed in Year 2018 = 504

⇒ Difference = 504 - 360 = 144   

∴ Change in % = \(\frac{144}{360} \times 100\) = 40%

The correct option is 3 i.e. 40%

Calculation:   

Total students appeared = 720 + 728 + 680 + 695 + 712 + 740 = 4275

Total students passed = 410 + 480 + 390 + 396 + 424 + 464 =  2564

⇒ % = \(\frac{2564}{4275} \times 100\) = 59.98%

∴ The total number of candidates who passed from City M in all the six years together is 60% of the total candidates who appeared from City M in all the six years together.   

The correct option is 3 i.e. 60%

Calculation:      

Total students appeared = 782 + 804 + 720 + 750 + 824 + 850 = 4730  

Total students passed = 360 + 472 + 448 + 360 + 504 + 496 =  2640

⇒ Difference = 4730 - 2640 = 2090

∴  2090 is the difference between the total candidates who appeared and total candidates who passed from City K in all the six years together.

The correct option is 4 i.e. 2090

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all values/ Number of values 

Calculation:   

Total number of candidates passed = 472 + 324 + 480 + 840 = 2116

Number of cities =  4

⇒ Average = 2116/4 = 529 

∴ The average number of candidates passed from all the four cities in the year 2015 is 529 

The correct option is 2 i.e. 529

Calculation: 

Let's assume that the cost of milk is Rs. 100

The cost of water is Rs. 0

Profit% = 25% 

The quantity of milk = 100 L

The quantity of water = 25 L

The quantity of water ∶ The quantity of milk  

⇒ 25 ∶ 100

⇒ 1 ∶ 4

∴ The ratio of water and milk, respectively, is 1∶ 4

The correct option is 4 i.e. 1 ∶ 4

Given:

A 12 percent debt instrument yields Rs.200.4 as a 20 percent return in 1.66 years.

Concept used: 

Effective rate = r% × t

r = rate

t = time

Calculation:

Let market price of underlying debt = 100x

Effective rate = r% of t = 12 % × 1.66 = 20 %

Amount = 100 + 20 = 120

According to question,

⇒ 120 x = 200.4 

⇒ x = 1.67

⇒ 100x = 167 

∴ Option 1 is correct.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in Rates = (Difference in SI × 100) ÷ (Principal × Time)

⇒ ΔR = (13.50 × 100) ÷ (1500 × 3)

⇒ ΔR = 1350 ÷ 4500

⇒ ΔR = 0.3%

∴ The correct answer is 0.3%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 1500

Time (T) = 3 years

Difference in Simple Interest (SI₁ − SI₂) = Rs. 13.50

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Difference in SI = [ (P × R₁ × T) ÷ 100 ] − [ (P × R₂ × T) ÷ 100 ]

Calculations:

⇒ SI₁ − SI₂ = (P × T ÷ 100) × (R₁ − R₂)

⇒ 13.50 = (1500 × 3 ÷ 100) × (R₁ − R₂)

⇒ 13.50 = 45 × (R₁ − R₂)

⇒ R₁ − R₂ = 13.50 ÷ 45

⇒ R₁ − R₂ = 135 ÷ 450

⇒ R₁ − R₂ = 3 ÷ 10 = 0.3%

∴ The correct answer is 0.3%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Rule

Simple Interest remains constant for every year if the principal and rate remain the same. Total SI is directly proportional to the Time and Rate.

Difference in Interest

When time and principal are constant, the difference in simple interest from two sources is directly proportional to the difference in their rates: ΔSI = P × T × ΔR ÷ 100.

Rule of 72

To estimate the number of years required to double the invested money at a given annual fixed compound interest rate, divide 72 by the annual rate of interest.

The hour hand will be in the North East Direction.

We will Draw the Diagram of Clock according to the question.

Given: minute hand points East.

So, from the above diagram it is clear that the minute hand is in the direction of East and the hour hand is in the North East direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "North East" .

Nyāya-Sāstra is one of the prominent schools of philosophy established by Gotama. 

Key Points

Statement I: The works in Nyāya-Sāstra discuss the aggregate causal conditions and the process involved in inferential cognition. 

Nyāya is an Arabic word that implies right thinking with appropriate reasons and legitimate reasoning. 

• Nyāya-Sāstra is referred to as tarkashāstra (the science of reasoning), pramānashāstra (the science of logic and epistemology); hetuvidyā (the science of causes); vādavidyā (the science of debate); and anviksiki (the science of critical study).
• The cause theory is an important part of  Nyāya-Sāstra.
• For  Nyāya-Sāstra all four Pramanas, perception, inference, verbal testimony, and comparison are valid forms of knowledge.

So, Statement I is correct. 

Statement II: The works in Nyāya-Sāstra do not however dwell upon analysis of the factors that help to assess and decide the formal validity of a judgment.

A five-membered syllogism with the following construction is also supported by Gautama: 

• This hill is fiery (pratijna: a statement of that which is to be proved).
• Because it is smoky (hetu: statement of reason).
• Whatever is smoky is fiery, as is a kitchen (udaharana: statement of a general rule supported by an example).
• So is this hill (upanaya: application of the rule of this case).
• Therefore, this hill is fiery (nigamana: drawing the conclusion).
• The characteristic feature of the Nyaya syllogism is its insistence on the example which suggests that the Nyaya logician wanted to be assured not only of formal validity but also of material truth.

Thus, Statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Appeal to Authority is a type of fallacy in which an authority's opinion on a subject is used as evidence to support an argument.

Key Points

• The appeal to authority has historically divided opinion:
• it is classified as a non-fallacious argument as well as a fallacious argument in several sources and some believe it can be a powerful or at least valid defensible argument.
• ​On the basis of differences there are different types of the Appeal to Authority are:
• Legitimate Appeal to Authority
• Appeal to Unqualified Authority
• Appeal to Anonymous Authority
• Appeal to Numbers
• Appeal to Tradition
• Appeal to Unqualified Authority: The Unqualified Authority Appeal may appear to be a legitimate Authority Appeal, but it is not.
• In this situation, the authority may be providing advice or testimony that is outside of their fields of knowledge.
• For example, famous Singer Himanshu says that Coffeehill chocolates are groovy.
• ​In the above example, Singer is describing the Coffeehill chocolates as groovy which is advice or testimony that is outside of his field of knowledge.

Thus, "Famous Singer Himanshu says that Coffeehill chocolates are groovy. We can only conclude that Coffeehill chocolates are groovy indeed", the fallacy committed is Appeal to unqualified authority.

Additional Information

• Hasty Generalisation: Hasty generalizations relate to conclusions reached based on insufficient knowledge or when a logical path is reversed in any circumstance.
• Slippery slope:  It acceptance of a series of events without direct evidence that they will occur.
• Missing the point: The informal fallacy of giving an argument that may or may not be logically acceptable and sound, but fails to address the subject in question.

In logic, the intension and extension are correlative words that indicate the reference of a term or concept.

Key Points

• Every phrase refers to a certain object and conveys a specific quality (attributes).
• It's also known as a term's intention because it refers to the general traits that a term intends to convey.
• Intension indicates the internal content of a term or concept that constitutes its formal definition
• The intention is denoted by the attributes or properties of the content or subject matter of the word.
• Connotation is the function of proposing qualities (attributes) that an object possesses.
• It is frequently inferred by the definition of a word.
• It can also refer to the entire set of meanings or attributes conveyed by a notion.

Thus, the set of attributes shared by all and only those objects to which a general term refers is called the intention of that term or connotation of that term.

Hence (A) and (B) only are correct options.

Additional Information

• Denotation: It is stated to be utilized in denotation when a phrase is applied to denote items or display their number.
• The extension of a term is made up of all the things to which it is applied.
• The object is described using terms and denotes specific characteristics.

Impede communication style is anything that inhibits receiving and understanding the messages.

Key Points

Thus, (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) is correct matching.

LOGIC: Add 1 and Subtract 1 to alternate digits

Similarly,

Hence ,the correct answer is "44882".

Communication is a two-way process between the listener and the sender. 

Key Points

Statement I: Communication is the process of transmitting a message from a source to an audience via a channel.

• Communication is the process through which a message moves from the sender to the receiver via a channel.
• The process through which information is conveyed and interpreted between two or more people.
• A channel or medium is used to send the encoded message to the receiver.

​Thus, Statement I is true.

Statement II: To establish 'Commonness' between the source and the audience is effective for the success of communication.

• Effective communication is the process of exchanging ideas, thoughts, knowledge, and information in such a way that the goal or intention is met to the best of one's ability.
• The essence of effective communication is conveying the sender's intended message.
• Communication is a two-way process in which both the listener and the sender must work together to establish shared ground or Commonness.
• Commonness between receiver and sender enhances the success of communication.

​So, Statement II is true.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Effective communication is the process of exchanging ideas, thoughts, and opinions in such a way that the message with clarity and purpose is comprehended by the receiver. 

Key PointsAssertion (A): More effective communication occurs when the source and receiver are homophilous.

• Effective communication is the sender's presentation of his or her points of view in the most understandable manner for the receiver.
• Communication is more effective when source and receiver are homophilous.
• Homophilous means an inclination to develop deep social bonds with others who share one's distinguishing features such as age, gender, ethnicity, socioeconomic status, personal beliefs, etc.
• The transfer of ideas occurs most commonly between individuals who are similar, or homophilous.

Thus, Assertion (A) is correct.

Reasons (R): Source and receiver use the same language and words to stimulate similar meanings.

• Communication between two people is more likely to be productive when they share common meanings, beliefs, and a common language.
• Homophilous features it that the source and receiver use the same language and words.
• Due to this, they are able to understand the similar meaning.

So, Reasons (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Hetvâbhâsa is the name given to a fallacy in Indian logic.

Key Points

• The fallacy occurs because the middle term may be the cause but not the reason.
• The Naiyayikas believe that all valid conclusions have the same logical structures.
• According to the Nyāya philosophy, there are five kind of fallacy occurs due to the middle term: 
• ​Savyabhichâra (fallacy of the irregular middle)
• Viruddha (Contradicting reason)
• **Satpratipaka (**inferentially contradicted middle)
• **Asiddha (**the unproved middle)
• **Bâdhita (**non-inferentially contradicted middle)
• ​Viruddha: Despite being offered to establish the existence of the sâdhya (the character which is inferred), actually establishes the non-existence of the sâdhya
• For example, Sound is eternal because it is produced.
• The middle term Produced doesn't prove the eternality of sound but proves its non-eternality.
• The middle word disproves the initial proposition and demonstrates its inconsistency.

Thus, According to Nyāya the argument - 'Sound is eternal because it is produced' commits Viruddha (Contradicting reason) fallacy. 

Additional Information

• Savyabhicâra occurs when the middle term is not regularly related to the major term.
• The asiddha is one that hasn't been proven yet but needs to be.
• The fallacy of Satpratipaksa occurs when a hetu that is offered to establish a certain sâdhya in inference is validly contradicted by another hetu that establishes the non-existence of the sâdhya of the first inference.

Pramāna means evidence and means of knowledge. 

Key Points

• Pramāna is the basic notion of Indian epistemology.
• It deals with means that can lead to knowledge of Indian philosophies.
• It's a theory of knowledge that deals with one or more trusts and the validity of acquired knowledge.
• Pramana is concerned with how proper information can be learned, how one knows what one does not know, and to what extent one can acquire knowledge relevant to someone or something.
• There are six Pramāna as correct means of true knowledge.
• For Nyāya doctrine, all four Pramanas, perception, inference, verbal testimony, and comparison are valid forms of knowledge.
• Inference (anumāna) is defined as using reason to arrive at a new conclusion and truth from one or more observations and earlier truths.
• There are three central Pramāna that are universally accepted: Perception, inference, and word.
• The number of these six epistemically reliable and legitimate means of knowledge varies throughout Indian philosophical traditions.

Thus, according to pramāna theory both dialogical and philosophical discourse, it furnishes the required grounding for the thesis to be backed up by a certain means of knowledge,  It enables us to succinctly summarise the observations, and that stem out of the analysis, in the form of anumāna or nyāya prayoga.

Hence (A),(B), and (C) only are correct.

Effective communication is the process of exchanging ideas, thoughts, and opinions in such a way that the message with clarity and purpose is comprehended by the receiver. 

Key Points

• Virginia Satir a significant pioneer in family therapy was one of the most influential figures in the field of effective communication.
• Satir saw a lack of open and consistent communication between and among persons as a key to improving knowledge, compassion, and connection in families and society.
• She advocated for more open and consistent communication between and within individuals.
• She gave the idea of five freedoms for effective communication. They are: 
• ​The Freedom to see and hear what is here
• The Freedom to say what one thinks and feels
• The Freedom to feel What one feels
• The Freedom to ask for what you want
• The Freedom  to take risks on your own behalf

​​Thus, the parameters of effective communication are Freedom to see and hear. What is here, Freedom to say. What does one thinks and feels, Freedom to feel What one feels?