Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Political Science 22nd Nov 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

100 questions · 120 minutes · with answers · free

Full Test (100 questions)

1

Who among the following referred to the Constituent Assembly of India as a 'Microcosm in action'?

  1. ((a))

    B. R. Ambedkar

  2. ((b))

    Granville Austin

  3. ((c))

    Rajni Kothari

  4. ((d))

    Rajendra Prasad

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Granville Austin

M. N. Roy presented the concept of a constituent assembly in 1934.

Key Points

  • In 1935, the Congress Party adopted the proposal and made it a formal demand.
  • Elections were held in accordance with the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946 to establish the constituent assembly.
  • It was established at the British government's suggestion and the meeting was held with their consent, the Constituent Assembly was not a sovereign body.
  • Granville Austin referred to the Constituent Assembly of India as a 'Microcosm in action'.
  • He said Microcosm in action because the Constituent Assembly was a one-party assembly in a mostly one-party society.
  • He further argued that Congress represented by the Assembly represented India.

Thus, Granville Austin referred to the Constituent Assembly of India as a 'Microcosm in action'.

2

Which of the following does NOT characterise electoral politics in India today?

  1. ((a))

    Multi-party system

  2. ((b))

    Coalition formation

  3. ((c))

    Stabilization of the Congress dominance system

  4. ((d))

    Increase in the scope of electoral choices of voters

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stabilization of the Congress dominance system

Elections take place once in 5 years to elect 543 members for the Lok Sabha.

Key Points

  • The characterise electoral politics in India today are mentioned below: 
  • The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)-led National Democratic Alliance was the first successful coalition administration in India to fulfill the full five-year tenure.
  • A multi-party system is a type of governance in which there are more than two political parties that can form a coalition to establish a government in the absence of a majority or a single big victor.
  • The multi-party system is practiced in a number of nations, including France, Italy, Israel, India, and France.
  • All of India's adult citizens cast ballots for candidates running in each of their various seats to become members of the Lok Sabha.

Thus, Stabilization of the Congress dominance system does NOT characterise electoral politics in India today.

3

Which one of the following statements does NOT characterise a social action group?

  1. ((a))

    They are partisan groups

  2. ((b))

    They are non-institutional organisations

  3. ((c))

    They are non-autonomous groups dependent on the support of the government

  4. ((d))

    They are non-professional formations

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

They are non-autonomous groups dependent on the support of the government

Social action has played a role in the evolution of human society.

Key Points

  • Social action is an organized effort aimed at bringing about change in social, economic, or political structures and in their manner of functioning.
  • In order to achieve social and economic well-being, particularly for underprivileged groups, and to create just social, economic, and political order.
  • They are non-institutional organisations and are viewed as a strategy for strengthening the oppressed by collective action and mobilization against entrenched interests.
  • They are partisan groups with goals of social action that can be extreme, questioning the fundamental basis of existing systems, striving for their destruction, and frequently offering alternatives even if these have not yet been thoroughly developed.
  • They are the non-professional formation of individuals trying to enforce political reforms, social and economic reforms, the eradication of social injustice and religious intolerance, the restoration of human rights etc. are all included in the very broad field of social action.

Thus, They are non-autonomous groups dependent on the support of the government does NOT characterise a social action group.

4

Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan was launched on

  1. ((a))

    12th May 2020

  2. ((b))

    12th October 2020

  3. ((c))

    12th November 2020

  4. ((d))

    12th December 2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12th May 2020

The movement known as Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan represents the new India's goal. 

Key Points

  • The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan was launched by the Prime Minister on 12th May 2020.
  • The idea is a catch-all for the Modi administration's aspirations for India to participate more actively in the global economy and to improve its efficiency, competitiveness, and resilience.
  • The Mission emphasizes the need of supporting local goods.
  • Self-reliance implies creating a helping hand for the entire planet rather than advocating any isolationist or exclusive tactics.

Thus, Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan was launched on 12th May 2020.

5

Who coined the famous acronym "POSDCORB"?

  1. ((a))

    Henry Fayol

  2. ((b))

    Mary P. Follett

  3. ((c))

    Gulick and Urwick

  4. ((d))

    Frederick Taylor

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Gulick and Urwick

The Classical Theory Approach is also known as the Administrative Management Approach and the Structural Theory Approach.

Key Points

  • Henri Fayol, Luther Gulick, L.F. Urwick, J.D. Mooney, A.C. Reilly, M.P. Follett, and R. Shelton are some of its key proponents.
  • It holds that public administration works with numerous organizational management procedures and methods, such as planning, organizing, coordinating, etc.
  • The abbreviation POSDCORB which represents the classical theory approach given by Gulick and Urwick.
  • The components are: Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Co-Ordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting.

Thus, Gulick and Urwick coined the famous acronym "POSDCORB".

6

Who wrote Reinventing Government (1992)?

  1. ((a))

    Robert Denhardt

  2. ((b))

    Pfiffner and Presthus

  3. ((c))

    Osborne and Gaebler

  4. ((d))

    Gordon Tullock

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Osborne and Gaebler

According to Osborne and Gaebler, the public sector is undergoing a revolutionary transformation known as a American Perestroika.

Key Points

  • Osborne and Gaebler wrote Reinventing Government in 1992.
  • In this book, they combine a largely new idea of how government ought to operate with hundreds of instances of these projects.
  • Osborne and Gaebler make clear, even if most of the material covered in the book might be categorized as market-oriented governance.
  • They argue that markets are impersonal, harsh, and unfair even in the most well-structured situations.

Thus, Osborne and Gaebler wrote Reinventing Government (1992).

7

Who is called the father of 'Comparative Public Administration'?

  1. ((a))

    Edward Wiedner

  2. ((b))

    Fred Riggs

  3. ((c))

    Ferrel Heady

  4. ((d))

    Chester Barnard

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Fred Riggs

The definition of comparative public administration is the revision of administrative systems in other nations.

Key Points

  • Comparative public administration is the search for patterns and regularities in administrative activity and behaviour.
  • The Comparative Administration Group is an ASPA division funded by the Ford Foundation under the leadership of Fred W. Riggs.
  • To reevaluate strategies for enhancing public administration in developing nations.
  • It aims to create a comparative theory of public administration while also testing the effectiveness of the Classical Theorists'
  • The developing countries differ so much in the practice of administration and are unable to sustain the classical theory principles of administration in their systems.

Thus, Fred Riggs is called the father of Comparative Public Administration.

8

In 1989, the World Bank conceptualised "Governance" in the context of which of the following nations?

  1. ((a))

    United Kingdom

  2. ((b))

    Australia

  3. ((c))

    Sub-Saharan Africa

  4. ((d))

    New Zealand

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Sub-Saharan Africa

The word governance signifies state's character and role underwent significant modifications.

Key Points

  • The term governance is originally derived from the Greek verb kubernaein.
  • This definition of governance as the processes of governing came to be accepted as shown in Sidney Low's influential book.
  • It was revived by economists and political scientists and popularized by organizations like the UN, the IMF, and the World Bank that the term governance was used in its current.
  • The World Bank conceptualised Governance in the context of Sub-Saharan Africa.
  • A change away from a hierarchical bureaucracy toward a greater use of markets, quasi-markets, and networks, particularly in the provision of public services.

Thus, In 1989, the World Bank conceptualised "Governance" in the context of Sub-Saharan Africa.

9

"Budget is a document containing a preliminary approval plan of public revenue and expenditure". Whose definition is this?

  1. ((a))

    Leroy Beaulieu

  2. ((b))

    Robert Walpole

  3. ((c))

    Reno Storm

  4. ((d))

    Willoughby

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Reno Storm

The name Budget derives from the French word Bourget which means a tiny leather bag.

Key Points

  • The government's income, or revenue and expenditures, are included in detail in the budget.
  • A budget is a document that includes projections of government income and expenses for a certain fiscal year.
  • The fiscal year in India runs from April 1 to March 31.
  • Reno Storm defines a budget as "Budget is a document containing a preliminary approval plan of public revenue and expenditure".

Thus, Reno Storm defines a budget as  "Budget is a document containing a preliminary approval plan of public revenue and expenditure".

10

Which of the following statements about Hegel are true?

A. State is the march of God on Earth

B. Hegel regarded women as inferior, with less reasoning abilities

C. Hegel rejected the concept of civil society

D. Hegel does not believe in war

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and C only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and B only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and B only

Hegel was a product of German Idealism which relied heavily on Rousseau and Kant. 

Key Points

  • Hegel's theory of state is his greatest contribution to political philosophy.
  • The premise "What is rational is real and what is real is rational" serves as the foundation for his theory of the state.
  • He viewed State as the March of God on Earth.
  • The rational will of the individual was expressed in the entirety of the state's will.
  • Hegel in his book The Philosophy of Right, "Women are capable of education, but they are not made for activities which demand a universal faculty such as the more advanced sciences, philosophy and certain forms of artistic production. ... Women regulate their actions not by the demands of universality, but by arbitrary inclinations and opinions."

Thus, State is the march of God on Earth and Hegel regarded women as inferior, with less reasoning abilities are statements about Hegel are true.

11

Who has been the most prominent among the Chicago school economists?

  1. ((a))

    Adam Smith

  2. ((b))

    Milton Friedman

  3. ((c))

    Carl Menger

  4. ((d))

    Fredrick Hayek

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Milton Friedman

Chicago macroeconomic theory abandoned Keynesianism in favor of monetarism. 

Key Points

  • It embraced new classical macroeconomics which strongly relied on the idea of reasonable expectations.
  • The two most eminent academics from the Chicago school are regarded as being Milton Friedman and George Stigler.
  • The pioneering work of Chicago economists in the domains of public choice theory and law and economics.
  • The University of Chicago Economics Department, regarded as one of the top economics departments in the world has been received 13 Nobel Prizes as of 2018.

Thus, Milton Friedman  has been the most prominent among the Chicago school economists.

12

Who said that "Public Administration is the accomplishment of politically determined objectives"?

  1. ((a))

    Woodrow Wilson

  2. ((b))

    L. D. White

  3. ((c))

    Carson and Harris

  4. ((d))

    Dimock and Dimock

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Woodrow Wilson

Woodrow Wilson Politics-Administration Dichotomy thesis asserted the normative connection between elected officials and administrators.

Key Points

  • Wilson, Woodrow was credited with creating the politics-administration distinction in his 1887 article, Public Administration: The Administration Study.
  • Wilson proposed the idea that politics and administration are fundamentally dissimilar and therefore to be treated differently.
  • Woodrow Wilson defines Public Administration as  "Public Administration is the accomplishment of politically determined objectives".
  • Wilson claimed that while the administration is the most visible aspect of government.
  • He adds that despite being the most visible, operational, and executive branch of government and being as ancient as the government itself.

Thus, Woodrow Wilson said that "Public Administration is the accomplishment of politically determined objectives".

13

What are the central beliefs of conservatism?

A. Tradition

B. Hierarchy and Authority

C. Social Darwinism

D. Social Liberalism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and C only

  2. ((b))

    A and B only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A and B only

Conservatism aims to maintain and support established societal structures and practices.

Key Points

  • Conservatives frequently reject progressivism and call for a return to traditional principles.
  • Conservatives belives that Institutions and behaviours that provide stability have developed gradually.
  • The central belief of conservatism believes in Hierarchy and Authority.
  • For conservatism, authority comes from above rather than the individual.
  • One of the key proponents of conservatism in the 1790s was Edmund Burke.

Thus, Tradition, Hierarchy and Authority are the central beliefs of conservatism.

14

Which of the following aspects have been defended by J. S. Mill?

A. The rights of women

B. Bentham's utilitarianism in toto

C. Married woman's property bill

D. Patriarchy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and C only

  2. ((b))

    B and D only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and C only

John Stuart Mill was the most significant English-speaking philosopher of the nineteenth century. 

Key Points

  • He was a liberal, utilitarian, and naturalist whose writings investigate the effects of an intensely empiricist approach.
  • His most significant publications were An Examination of Sir William Hamilton's Philosophy (1861), Utilitarianism (1861), On Liberty (1859), System of Logic (1843), and Subjection of Women (1869).
  • Mill's father James Mill was closest to utilitarianism's founder, Jerany Bentham.
  • Mill had grown up in the utilitarian shadow was able to write a defense of the philosophy.
  • The idea behind providing equality to women was that it could make them happier.
  • Mill applies his liberal principles to issues of sexual equality primarily in The Subjection of Women.
15

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the "Human Relations Theory"?

  1. ((a))

    Organization is to be viewed as a social system

  2. ((b))

    Workers are human beings with all humanly attributes

  3. ((c))

    Informal elements do not play an important role in the overall organizational output

  4. ((d))

    Organization has social ethics, instead of individual ethics

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Informal elements do not play an important role in the overall organizational output

​This philosophy emerged in opposition to the classical approach placed emphasis on formal structure.

Key Points

  • Between 1924 and 1927, George Elton Mayo oversaw a number of human behavior tests at the General Electric Company's Hawthorne Works in Chicago.
  • In terms of human relations and motivation theory his study discoveries have helped organizations develop.
  • Physical circumstances do not effect morale or productivity; social and psychological factors do.
  • A social system is an organization.
  • There are incentives and reasons that are not financial.
  • Employees are social creatures.
  • Workers build informal organizations and these organizations establish production standards.
  • Members of informal groupings among employees respond to management.

Thus, Informal elements do not play an important role in the overall organizational output is incorrect about the "Human Relations Theory".

16

Who among the following are not supporters of positive liberty?

A. T. H. Green

B. John Locke

C. Harold Laski

D. Jeremy Bentham

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and D only

  3. ((c))

    A and C only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B and D only

Positive and negative liberty are often discussed about political and social philosophy. 

Key Points

  • Two concepts of liberty are discussed by Isaiah Berlin in his influential essay Two Concepts of Liberty.
  • Positive liberty is the capacity to take charge of one's life and fulfil one's core goals.
  • Positive liberty can occasionally be assigned to collectivities or to people who are predominantly seen as members of certain collectivities.
  • John Locke, Jeremy Bentham, Robert Nozick and Hayek are belongs to Negative liberty.
  • T. H. Green,  Harold Laski, and Hobson belong to Positive liberty.

Thus, Locke and Bentham are not supporters of positive liberty

17

Which of the following about Raja Rammohan Roy are true?

A. He was influenced by the Upanishads

B. He was a rationalist and supporter of monotheism

C. He was an atheist

D. He was critical of the principle of trinitarianism advocated by Christianity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C and D

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and D only

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and D only

Ram Mohan Roy was an Indian reformer who was one of the founders of the Brahmo Sabha. 

Key Points

  • He makes contributions be seen in the areas of politics, government, education, and religion.
  • He claimed that Vedanta's core teaching of monotheism is also true.
  • He formally embraced monotheism.
  • His concept of a single, unitarian deity served as a corrective to the tritheism of traditional Christianity.
  • He was influenced by the Upanishads.

Thus, A, B and D only are correct options.

18

Which of the following statements about Balgangadhar Tilak are true?

A. He envisioned the formation of linguistic states

B. He was both a restless nationalist and a realist

C. He prefered political freedom over social reform

D. For Tilak, political liberation and rights can be achieved through direct action and pressure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C and D

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A and B only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B, C and D

On July 23, 1856, Bal Gangadhar Tilak was born into a middle-class family of average means in the Konkan region of Ratnagiri. 

Key Points

  • He developed a love of Sanskrit and respect for traditional Indian religion and culture.
  • He envisioned the formation of linguistic states.
  • He was both a restless nationalist and a realist.
  • He believed that by fostering a sense of shared purpose that can be realized via coordinated political activity, the sense of nationalism might be bolstered.
  • Tilak used Shivaji and Akbar in his lectures in order to instil a sense of national pride among the populace.
  • He prefered political freedom over social reform.
  • For Tilak, political liberation and rights can be achieved through direct action and pressure.

Thus, A, B, C and D are correct statements about Balgangadhar Tilak are true.

19

Sri Aurobindo conceives nationalism as

A. Spiritual nationalism, different from the western concept of nationalism

B. A nation as an organism

C. Nationalism as a religious aspiration and moral attitude

D. Nation as a geographical entity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C and D

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A, B and C only

Aurobindo's conception of the nation was significantly impacted by the renowned Bengali author Bankimchandra.

Key Points

  • Geeta, Upanishads, and Vedanta study also had a significant influence on his political views.
  • He made an effort to combine the idealism legacy of Indian philosophy with the materialist movement in western philosophy.
  • Aurobindo believed that the "nation" is a powerful "shakti" made up of all the shaktis of all the millions of components that comprise the nation.
  • His view was that nationalism was a profound and ardent religious sadhana.
  • Aurobindo's notion of nationalism differed from the patriotic sense of the term in that it contained a spiritual component.
  • He exalted India as a Mother Goddess and counseled the young nationalists to serve their motherland.

Thus, Sri Aurobindo conceives nationalism as spiritual nationalism, different from the western concept of nationalism, nation as an organism and nationalism as a religious aspiration and moral attitude.

20

Which of the following are prerequisites of the comparative method?

A. Conceptual framework as a factor in unit selection

B. Comparable conceptual issues as a focus of inquiry

C. Definition of the focus of inquiry

D. Theory building

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B, C and D

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A, B and C only

Political scientists frequently utilize the approach of comparative analysis to examine political systems, institutions, or processes.

Key Points

  • CA is supported by empirical data compiled through the observation and classification of actual political processes.
  • The comparative study seeks to advance political knowledge using a scientifically limited approach.
  • Comparison study has been used to establish "grounded theories," test hypotheses, infer causation, and create trustworthy generalizations.
  • They feel that the comparative technique gives them the best opportunity to do scientific research.
  • A comparison study has been used to comparable conceptual issues as a focus of inquiry.

Thus, Conceptual framework as a factor in unit selection, comparable conceptual issues as a focus of inquiry and definition of the focus of inquiry are prerequisites of the comparative method.

21

Which of the following are related to Karl W. Deutsch's approach of communication in Comparative Politics?

A. Political system is like a machine working on the basis of information

B. In his theory, homeostasis, instead of equilibrium, is used for dynamism

C. Emphasis is given on structure and functionalism

D. Output functions are given more importance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    ​B and C only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and B only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and B only

Karl Deutsch deserves credit for using communications in social science.

Key Points

  • Communication refers to the process of sending or receiving information.
  • The goal of communication is to provide human interaction and connection throughout the entire political system.
  • To enable the political system as a whole to respond to external pressures in an efficient manner, all agencies and the people.
  • According to Deutsch, feedback operates on all the organizations inside a political system.
  • According to Deutsch's interpretation, the feedback mechanism has given the political system a certain amount of dynamism.

Thus, Political system is like a machine working on the basis of information and In his theory, homeostasis, instead of equilibrium, is used for dynamism are related to Karl W. Deutsch's approach of communication in Comparative Politics.

22

Which amongst the following are reasons for the emergence of Neo-colonialism?

A. Weakened position of European powers

B. Rise of consciousness against imperialism

C. India's foreign policy

D. Japan's foreign policy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B only

Neocolonialism is the indirect rule of less developed nations by more developed nations.

Key Points

  • The phrase "neocolonialism" was first used after World War II to describe former colonies' continued reliance on other nations.
  • It soon came to mean any situation where developed nations' power was used to create exploitation akin to colonialism.
  • The phrase is now commonly used to describe a kind of global domination in which transnational companies and global and multilateral organizations work together to maintain colonial systems of exploitation of poor nations.
  • The reasons for the emergence of Neo-colonialism:
  • Weakened Position of European Powers
  • Rise of Consciousness against Imperialism
  • The Needs of the Developed States
  • The Continued Dependence of the New States on the Developed States
  • Impact of Cold War
  • The Policies of the USA and the (Erstwhile) Soviet Union

Thus, The weakened position of European powers and the rise of consciousness against imperialism are reasons for the emergence of Neo-colonialism.

23

Which of the following features are given in the UN Charter for the preservation of peace?

A. Peace-making procedure is given in Chapter VI for the peaceful settlement of disputes

B. Chapter VIII deals with the peace-keeping activities

C. Peace enforcement is given in Chapter VII for coercive settlement of disputes

D. Chapter IX deals with economic cooperation among states

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    B and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A and C only

In 1945, The United Nations was established as an international organization in New York. 

Key Points

  • It has 193 member states.
  • Its duties include enforcing international law, preserving world peace and security, and defending human rights while providing humanitarian relief and advancing sustainable development.
ChapterProvisions
Chapter IThe purposes of the United Nations, include the important provisions for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Chapter IIThe criteria for membership in the United Nations.
Chapters IIIDescribe the organs and institutions of the UN and their respective powers.
Chapter VIPeaceful Settlement of Disputes
Chapter VIIAction with respect to Threats to the Peace, Breaches of the Peace, and Acts of Aggression.
Chapter VIIIIt is possible for regional arrangements to maintain peace and security within their own region
Chapters IXThe UN's powers for economic and social cooperation
Chapter XEconomic and Social Council that oversees these powers.

Thus, The peace-making procedure is given in Chapter VI for the peaceful settlement of disputes and  Peace enforcement is given in Chapter VII for coercive settlement of disputes are features are given in the UN Charter for the preservation of peace.

24

Match List I with List II

​List IList II
AuthorsBooks
A.Lord BryceI.Comparative politics-A Developmental Approach
B.Graham WallaceII.New Aspects of Politics
C.Gabriel AlmondIII.Modern Democracies
D.Charles E. MerriamIV.Human Nature in Politics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

  3. ((c))

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

These books are based on contemporary political theories

AuthorsImportant information
Lord Bryce- Lord Bryce also known as James Bryce is a British politician, historian, and diplomat. - He was popularly known for attacking British expansionist policy that led to the South African war (1899-1902) - The book Modern Democracies written by Lord Bryce published in 1923 deals with the basic principles, characteristics, and evolution of democratic government. - Other prominent books written by him were Holy roman empire, American commonwealth, etc.
Graham Wallace- He is a British educator, public official, and political scientist known for his contribution to the empirical approach to the study of human behavior. - Wallace had argued in 'human nature in politics' that new political science should favor psychological elements such nonrational behavior and subconscious inferences - Other books include the art of thought, our social heritage, and the great society.
Gabriel Almond- Gabriel Almond was an American political scientist best known for comparative politics, political development, and political development. - His book The comparative political system is a study of specific governments and the grouping of governments. - His other prominent books are The Civic Culture, Strong Religion and etc.
Charles E. Merriam- He is an American political scientist. - In New Aspects of politics,  he argued for the reconstruction of methods in political analysis and urged the greater use of statistics and measurement. - New aspects of politics are an early contribution to the behaviorist movement in politics. - Other prominent books are The History of American Theories, American Political Ideas, etc.

Thus, A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II is a correct matching.

25

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.​SALT-II.1987
B.SALT-IIII.1990
C.START-IIII.1979
D.INF TreatyIV.1972

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

  2. ((b))

    A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

  3. ((c))

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

These were the international negotiations that aimed toward disarmament during the cold war.

International NegotiationsImportant information
SALT-I- Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty I (SALT-I), was first signed between US and USSR in 1972. - It put limitations on the arms race by banning anti-ballistic missile systems - The unrestraint use of strategic arms from both ends leads to the failure of this scheme.
SALT-II- SALT II came into existence in 1979 due to the failure of SALT I - It is a series of talks between the US and the USSR from 1972 - 1979 to curtail the manufacture of strategic nuclear weapons. - It sets limits on various new strategic launchers such as multiple independently targeted missiles, heavy bombers, etc.
START-I- Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START-I) is a bilateral treaty between US and USSR signed in 1990. - It focuses on the reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms - The treaty restricted its signatories from deploying more than 6000 nuclear warheads, 16000 intercontinental ballistic missiles, and bombers.
INF Treaty- The intermediate-range nuclear forces  treaty (INF treaty) of 1987 eliminate nuclear and conventional ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with a range of 500 to 5500 Km - It was the first time that superpowers agreed to reduce nuclear arsenals and eliminate an entire category of nuclear weapons. - It also employs extensive on-site inspection and verification. - US alleged Russia in 2014 for violation of the INF treaty but later both countries officially suspended their treaty obligations.

Thus,  A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I is a correct matching.

26

Match List I with List II

​List IList II
Forms of GovernmentEssential features
A.Cabinet GovernmentI.Separation of powers
B.Presidential GovernmentII.Collective responsibility
C.Federal GovernmentIII.Concentration of powers
D.Unitary GovernmentIV.Division of powers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - III, B - IV , C - I, D - II

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

  3. ((c))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

The correct option is A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III 

Forms of GovernmentEssential Features
Cabinet GovernmentCollective responsibility - Parliamentary government, also known as a cabinet government. - The Principle of Collective Responsibility lies at the center of the Parliamentary form of government. - It refers to the responsible members of the cabinet have to publicly support all government decisions. - Article 75(3) deals with Collective Responsibility at the Centre, while Article 164(3) deals with state governments.
Presidential GovernmentSeparation of powers - The doctrine of separation of powers refers to the division of diverse powers among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches. - It is the basis of the Presidential system of government.
Federal GovernmentDivision of powers - In this form of government, powers are divided between the Centre and the State. - The division is in terms of Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. - In Indian Constitution, its division is provided in Seventh Schedule.
Unitary GovernmentConcentration of powers - There is no division of powers in this form of government. - All powers are vested in the national Government.
27

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.​Basic Exchange and Cooperation AgreementI.2004
B.Indo-US Civil Nuclear DealII.2002
C.High Technology Cooperation GroupsIII.2020
D.Next Steps in Strategic PartnershipIV.2005

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

  3. ((c))

    A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

These are international agreements signed between India and US.

International AgreementsImportant Information
​Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement- BECA was formally signed in the year 2020 during Indo - US  2+2 talks. - It is the last of four foundational defence agreement between two countries that allows a higher level of military cooperation in technology, interoperability and defence manufacturing. - BECA is majorly based on geospatial intelligence and sharing information on maps and satellite images for defence. - It gives access to topographical and aeronautical data that will aid navigation and targeting.
Indo-US Civil Nuclear Deal- The Indo-US agreement was initiated in July 2005 between Dr Manmohan Singh and George Bush. - This deal was between nuclear-possessing countries on nuclear energy cooperation. - It refrains India from the enrichment of nuclear beyond international standards.
High Technology Cooperation Groups- The High Technology Cooperation Group (HTCG) created in 2002 with two broad agendas - To promote strategic trade - To promote and facilitate bilateral high technology commerce. - It involves active participation of the private sector on 4 working groups such as - Nanotechnology - Defence and Strategic trade - Information and Biotechnology - Life sciences. - It eases restrictions on high technology exports to the US from India and imports from the US to India
Next Steps in Strategic Partnership- It was signed in 2004 between US and India - It entails cooperation in strategic areas such as - Nuclear - Missile - Defence - Space - High-tech trade and commerce - Military - It was made to combat the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction, strengthen export-related procedures and increase bilateral and international cooperation. - This agreement is considered an important milestone in the transformation of the relationship between the US and India.

Thus, A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I  is a correct matching.

28

Match List I with List II

​List IList II
​AuthorBooks
A.Rabindra RayI.The Naxalites and their Ideology
B.Ashish Kumar RoyII.The Spring Thunder and After
C.Carole SparyIII.Gender, Development and the State in India
D.Sanjay Kumar (ed)IV.Indian Youth and Educational Politics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

The correct option is 1: A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV 

AuthorsImportant information
Rabindra RayThe Naxalites and their Ideology - The Communist Party of India, the Bengali society, the Naxalite militants' ideas, and the Indian economy are all covered in this book. - According to Rabindra Ray, any accurate analysis of Naxalism must take into account what it meant to be a Naxalite and what engaging in Naxalism meant to the individuals.
Ashish Kumar RoyThe Spring Thunder and After - This is a detailed explanation of the extreme left in Indian Politics. - In it, the author analyses the Maoist movements and Naxalite uprisings.
Carole SparyGender, Development and the State in India - This book investigates the connection between the Indian state, development strategy, and gender (in)equality. - Three important organizing concepts: Institutions, Language, and Agency—are used to examine how state policy on gender and development was developed in India after 1990.
Sanjay Kumar (ed)Indian Youth and Educational Politics - This book studies the relationship between the Indian Youth and Electoral Politics in the country. - There is an increased interest of youth in electoral politics but the participation is relatively low, as has been discussed in the book.
29

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.​​Decision MakingI.Fred Riggs
B.Ecological ApproachII.Edward Wiedner
C.New Public AdministrationIII.Herbert Simon
D.Development AdministrationIV.Minnowbrook Conference 1968

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

  3. ((c))

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Correct option is A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II 

ApproachesInitiated by
Decision MakingHerbert Simon - Herbert Simon’s research endeavor aimed to understand the processes that participate in human decision-making. - He calls decision-making the heart of the organization. - Simon divides the decision-making process into three phases –​​  Intelligence, Design, and Choice activity.
Ecological ApproachFred Riggs - Fred Riggs is the most significant scholar of the Ecological Approach. - He applied this approach in the Public Administration discipline. - He is responsible for creating the typology called Agraria-Transitia-Industria. - Riggs also created the Fused-Prismatic-Diffracted model to understand various aspects of Public Administration.
New Public AdministrationMinnowbrook Conference 1968 - The New Public Administration Movement began to take on new shapes and dimensions in both theories and practice after the 1968 Minnow-brook Conference. - A change in the subject of public administration is necessary, according to the academics and public administration experts who attended the conference due to the development of new technology and its impact on state activities.
Development AdministrationEdward Wiedner - It is the process of executing developmental programs and projects in the direction of nation-building and socio-economic progress through public administration. - Edward Weidner is the first scholar who gave a proper systematic explanation of the development administration.
30

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.​​Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority ActI.1988
B.Reserve Bank of India ActII.2003
C.Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management ActIII.1999
D.Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) ActIV.1934

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

  2. ((b))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  3. ((c))

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Correct option is 1: A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

ActImportant information
​​Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act- This Act may be called the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 - An act to provide for the establishment of an authority to protect the interests of holders of insurance policies to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry.
Reserve Bank of India Act- The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. - It is the act under which the Reserve Bank of India was formed. - The Act contains the definition of the scheduled banks, as they are mentioned in the 2nd Schedule of the Act. - These are banks that were to have paid up capital and reserves above 5 lakh.
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBM Act), 2003, establishes financial discipline to reduce the fiscal deficit. - The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Bill was introduced in the parliament of India in the year 2000 by Atal Bihari Vajpayee Government. - It is for providing legal backing to the fiscal discipline to be institutionalized in the country.
Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act- The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is a law passed by the Indian Parliament to fight corruption in public sector organizations and government-run businesses in India.
31

Arrange ideological focus of the Feminist movement under different stages in chronological order

A. Focus on right to vote for women

B. Focus on social and economic equality

C. Focus on culture and context

D. Focus on Ecofeminism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    D, C, B, A

  3. ((c))

    B, C, D, A

  4. ((d))

    C, B, A, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B, C, D

Correct option is A, B, C, D

The feminist movement is the struggle for equal rights between women and men. The feminist movement is divided into four phases.

Key Points

Focus on the right to vote for women

  • First phase: Emerged in the 1860s and 1870s.
  • In this phase, the focus of feminists was to secure voting rights for women.
  • It demanded basic rights of freedom, and equality with a focus on suffrage (Right to Vote), and other opportunities for women.
  • Mary Wollstonecraft and** Susan B. Anthony were important feminists of this period.**

Focus on social and economic equality

  • Second Phase: Emerged in the 1960s
  • It proclaimed the need for a sexual revolution and demanded equal social and economic rights for women.
  • “The personal is political” was a common slogan during this period.
  • Rights which were demanded are:
  • ​Demands for contraception,
  • Legislation for domestic violence,
  • Abortion rights, etc.

 Focus on culture and context

  • Third phase: Begun in the 1990s
  • It attempts to rectify some of the racism and classism inherent in previous feminist movements and activism,
  • It develops the concepts of intersectionality and identity politics for the inclusion of marginalized sections.
  • It pointed out the flaws in the previous two other movements.
  • It focused on the reproductive rights of women.

Focus on Ecofeminism

  • Fourth Phase: Gained trend in the early 2000s
  • Parallels are drawn between the oppression of the environment and animals and the persecution of women.
  • Ecofeminists believe there is a direct relationship between the serious environmental damage done to the earth and the repression of women.
  • Vandana Shiva is a renowned Eco-feminist.

Additional Information

  • Feminism has historically progressed from being a critical study of gender inequity to a more nuanced analysis of the social and performative constructions of gender and sexuality.
  • It is an interdisciplinary approach to problems of equality and equity based on gender, gender expression, gender identity, sex, and sexuality.
32

Arrange the work of Hannah Arendt in ascending order

A. The origin of totalitarianism

B. The Human Condition

C. On Revolution

D. On Violence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    B, C, A, D

  2. ((b))

    D, B, C, A

  3. ((c))

    A, B, C, D

  4. ((d))

    C, B, A, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B, C, D

Hannah Arendt (1906-1975), a German-born American, is considered one of the twentieth century's most influential political thinkers and philosophers. She was an author of several important works ranging on several topics of her time.

Key PointsSome of the important works authored by Hannah Arendt are:

  • The origin of Totalitarianism written by her in 1951, was her first major published work. This work was based on the rise of antisemitism due to the rise of Nazism in Germany and Stalinism in Russia. According to her, totalitarianism was a "novel form of government" as it was built on terror and ideological fiction to subjugate the masses.
  • The Human Condition was published in 1953, here she proposes a phenomenological reconstruction of human activity to correspond to the ongoing political conditions of her time. She also differentiates between social and political concepts and explores their implications. She also dwells on several human actions in society including their ability to forgive the wrongs done in the past.
  • On Revolution was published in 1963, where she rethinks modern political concepts. She compared the two mass revolutions of the 18th century, i.e. the French Revolution and the American Revolution. She also discusses the reasons for the failure of France and the success of America. However, she calls American success only partial because American citizens were denied political participation due to rigid constitutional provisions.
  • On Violence was published in 1970, under which she analysis the nature, causes and significance of violence in the second half of the twentieth century. She also reexamines the relationship between war, politics, violence, and power. Here, she examines the various acts of student violence in the educational institutions of the United States and around the world in the late1960s.

Thus, option 3 (A, B, C, and D) arranges the works of Hannah Arendt in ascending order.

33

Arrange the following books written by B. R. Ambedkar in an ascending order

A. Gandhi and Gandhism

B. The problem of the Rupee: Its origin and its solution

C. The Buddha and His Dhamma

D. The Rise and Fall of Hindu Woman

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    B, D, C, A

  3. ((c))

    D, A, B, C

  4. ((d))

    C, B, D, A

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B, D, C, A

Correct option is B, D, C, A

B R Ambedkar was a renowned scholar, Indian jurist, economist, and social reformer who headed the drafting committee of the  Constituent Assembly.

BooksImportant information
The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and its solution- It was written/published in 1923. - The book questions the currency question in British India which led to the formation of the Reserve Bank of India.
The Rise and Fall of Hindu Woman- It was written/published in 1951. - He explained the links between caste and violence against women.
The Buddha and His Dhamma- It was written/published in 1957. - It is a treatise on Buddha and his life and philosophy.
Gandhi and Gandhism- It was written/published in 1970, - This book is about Gandhi and his ideology.
34

Arrange chronologically the following books in order of their publication:

A. Contemporary Political Analysis by James C Charlesworth

B. Modern Political Analysis by Robert A. Dahl

C. The Process of Government by A. F. Bentley

D. A System Analysis of Political life by David Easton

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    B, D, C, A

  3. ((c))

    C, B, D, A

  4. ((d))

    D, C, B, A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C, B, D, A

Correct option is 1;  C. B, D and A only.

BooksYears of Publication
Contemporary Political Analysis by James C Charlesworth1967 - The book includes approaches to decision-making, game theories, and communication.
A System Analysis of Political life by David Easton1965 - It discusses the assumptions and commitments needed to utilize the concept of a system
Modern Political Analysis by Robert A. Dahl1963 - The book studies key concepts like States and Political Institutions.
The Process of Government by A. F. Bentley1908 - The book discusses the methodology of behavioral social science research.

Note: The publication years are mentioned in descending order.

35

Arrange the following international treaties in chronological order:

A. Charter of the United Nations

B. Treaty of Westphalia

C. Treaty of Versailles

D. Treaties of Utrecht

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    C, B, D, A

  3. ((c))

    B, D, C, A

  4. ((d))

    C, A, D, B

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B, D, C, A

Correct chronological order: for the treaties is B, D, C, A

International TreatyYear of occurring
Treaty of Westphalia1648 - The Peace of Westphalia was a series of treaties signed between 1645 and 1648 that ended the Thirty Years' War. - It diminished the power of the Holy Roman Emperor.
Treaties of Utrecht1713 - The Treaty of Utrecht ended the Spanish War of Succession, considered the actual First World War, since it was fought both, in Europe and the Americas. - It started in April 1713 and ended in September 1714, also called as Peace of Utrecht.
Treaty of Versailles1919 - The Treaty of Versailles was the most important of the peace treaties of World War I. - It ended the state of war between Germany and the Allied Powers. - It was signed on 28 June 1919 in the Palace of Versailles
Charter of the United Nations1945 - The Charter of the United Nations is the founding document of the United Nations. - It was signed on 26 June 1945, in San Francisco,
36

Arrange the following in a chronological order

A. Communal award

B. Simon Commission

C. First Round Table Conference

D. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    B, C, D, A

  3. ((c))

    C, D, A, B

  4. ((d))

    D, A, B, C

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B, C, D, A

Correct option is B, C, D, A

EventsImportant information
Simon Commission- Simon Commission, a group appointed in November 1927 by the British Conservative government under Stanley Baldwin - Simon Commission was the Indian Statutory Commission which, was a group of seven members of Parliament under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon. - The Government of India Act of 1919 provided for the appointment of a commission to study the progress of the governance and to recommend changes.
First Round Table Conference- The First Round Table Conference took place from 1930 to 1931. - The Round Table Conference (RTC) reforms were agreed upon, but they were never implemented. - As a result, the First Round Table Conference has been deemed a failure.
Gandhi-Irwin Pact- Gandhi-Irwin Pact was an agreement signed on March 5, 1931 - It was signed between Mohandas K. Gandhi, leader of the Indian nationalist movement, and Lord Irwin, British viceroy (1926–31) of India. - It marked the end of a period of civil disobedience (satyagraha) in India against British rule
Communal award- The Communal Award is also known as MacDonald Award. - It was formed by the British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932. - This was a unilateral attempt of the British to address various issues among India's many communal interests.
37

Arrange the signing of the following agreements by India in order of their appearance:

A. Land Boundary Agreement

B. Tashkent Agreement

C. Moscow Test Ban Treaty

D. India-Russia Friendship Treaty

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    C, B, D, A

  2. ((b))

    B, C, A, D

  3. ((c))

    A, C, B, D

  4. ((d))

    C, D, A, B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C, B, D, A

Correct option is 1: C, B, D, A

AgreementsImportant information
Moscow Test Ban Treaty- On August 5, 1963, the United States, the Soviet Union, and the United Kingdom signed the Nuclear Test-Ban Treaty in Moscow, officially known as the Treaty Banning Nuclear Weapons Tests in the Atmosphere, in Outer Space, and Under Water. - This treaty prohibited all nuclear weapon tests, with the exception of those carried out underground.
Tashkent Agreement1966 - The Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 was ended by the Tashkent Declaration, a peace treaty signed on January 10 between India and Pakistan. - The two countries agreed to a cease-fire on September 23 as a result of the intervention of outside powers that feared the crisis might worsen and enlist the involvement of other countries.
India-Russia Friendship Treaty- In August 1971, India and the Soviet Union signed the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and Cooperation, which outlined mutual strategic cooperation. - It is seen as a deviation from the Non-Alignment position of India.
Land Boundary Agreement- The Land Boundary Agreement was signed on 16 May 1974 between Indira Gandhi and Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. - It calls for the exchange of enclaves and the surrender of adverse possessions.
38

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: B. R. Ambedkar was critical of the existing federal structure

Reason R: The local self-governments neither have legislative power nor executive power in the real sense of the term, according to Ambedkar

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    ​Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

​Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B.R. Ambedkar (1891-1956) was an ambitious leader, journalist, Indian jurist, economist, politician and social reformer. He played a vital role in the making of the Indian Constitution, and therefore is also called the "Father of the Indian Constitution". He was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution and the first law minister of independent India.

Key PointsAssertion: B. R. Ambedkar was critical of the existing federal structure. 

  • Ambedkar was in the favour of giving the states a greater amount of independence and had thus created a model of the United States of India, much on the lines of the USA. However, the model was rejected.
  • He called the governor a nominal head and a rubber stamp, with no real powers.

Reason R: The local self-governments neither have legislative power nor executive power in the real sense of the term, according to Ambedkar

  • The center can subsume the legislative power of the states in several instances, for eg. during emergency situations, the Indian administrative system automatically becomes unitary in practice.
  • The parliament can by voting transfer any subject from the state list to the union list. Almost all the important matters have been enumerated in the union list.
  • Even the executive power of the state is curtailed by the fact that the Governor of a state is a delegate of the central government and functions according to it.
  • Even the President has the right to withhold certain Legislative bills passed by the state governments.
  • The states have also not been given the power to initiate any constitutional amendments.

Thus, the Assertion can truly be justified by the given reasoning.

39

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: John Locke was portrayed as possessive individualist

Reason R: John Locke was not in favour of merely maximising interest

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    ​Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is correct but R is not correct

  4. ((d))

    A is not correct but R is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

The Correct option is 2: Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

 

John Locke was an English philosopher and physician who is referred to as the "Father of Liberalism" and is recognized as one of the most important intellectuals of the Enlightenment.

 

Key Points 

Assertion 

  • Possessive Individualism argues for an extreme form of Individualism including the Right to Property.
  • Locke is described as a possessive individualist.
  • He advocates the right to property in natural law which was seen to be an important device for asserting the rights of individuals.
  • He emphasizes three rights:
  1. Right to Life
  2. Right to Liberty
  3. Right to Property

Reason

  • Locke was not in favor of merely maximizing interest as he also imposes some limits on property right.
  • According to him, one's right to property must not jeopardize the interests of others.

Thus, one can say "Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A".

 

Additional Information

His seminal works include:

  • An Essay Concerning Human Understanding
  • Two Treatises of Government
  • Some Thoughts Concerning Education
40

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Issues of peace and security are decided by 2/3 majority, including five permanent members, by the UN Security Council

Statement II: UN Security Council represents all regions of the world in adequate manner

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

United Nations Security Council is one of the organs of the United Nations. It has 15 members of which five are permanent.

Key Points

Statement I 

  • It was agreed by the drafters that if any one of the five permanent members cast a negative vote in the 15-member Security Council, the resolution or decision would not be approved.
  • 2/3 majority is needed in UNSC while passing any resolution on peace and security.

Thus, the statement I is correct.

Statement II

  • The Security Council consists of fifteen members including five permanent members who do not represent all regions.

Thus, Statement II is incorrect.

Hence, Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Additional Information

  • The creators of the United Nations Charter conceived that five countries — China, France, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR)  the United Kingdom, and the United States.
  • Because of their key roles in the establishment of the United Nations, would continue to play important roles in the maintenance of international peace and security.
  • They were granted the special status of Permanent Member States at the Security Council, along with a special voting power known as the "right to veto".             Source: Wikipedia
41

Arrange the following labour unions according to the year of their formation in descending order

A. INTUC

B. Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association

C. Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh

D. Bombay Mill Hands Association

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    C, A, B, D

  2. ((b))

    A, B, D, C

  3. ((c))

    D, A, C, B

  4. ((d))

    B, D, A, C

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

C, A, B, D

Correct option is C, A, B, D

Labour UnionsYear of Formation
Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh- It is a trade union founded on 23 July 1955. - It was founded by Dattopant Thengadi.
INTUC- Indian National Trade Union Congress is a national trade union in India. - It was founded on 3 May 1947. - It is affiliated with the International Trade Union Confederation.
Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association- It was formed in 1917. - It was founded by Motaben Anasuya Sarabhai. - Anasuya was made its lifelong president by Gandhi.
Bombay Mill Hands Association- It was founded in 1884. - Narayan Meghaji Lokhande founded this association. - He is known as the father of the "Trade Union movement in India".
42

Rensis Likert has identified four systems of management on the basis of nature of authority and control of organization. Arrange in ascending order of eficiency

A. Benevolent-Authority

B. Consultative Leadership

C. Participative

D. Exploitative Authoritative

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    D, A, B, C

  3. ((c))

    C, B, A, D

  4. ((d))

    B, A, C, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

D, A, B, C

Correct option is 2: D, A, B, C.

 

To better understand leadership behavior, Rensis Likert and his colleagues at Michigan University in the United States researched to examine the patterns and management styles over three decades and across 200 organisations. 

 

Key Points Four models in ascending order are as follows:

 

Exploitative Authoritative System:

  • In this style of management, those at the top of the organizational chart are in charge.
  • In this case, the decision-making process is not shared with the subordinates.

Benevolent Authoritative System:

  • Here, accountability rests with those at the top of the hierarchy; the key distinction is that in this system, incentives are focused on rewards rather than threats and threats.
  • In a master-servant relationship, the superior must have the kind of trust and confidence in his subordinates that is necessary.

Consultative System: 

  • In this management style, the superior has a good deal of but not total faith and confidence in his subordinates, and he makes good use of their suggestions and opinions.
  • Rewards and the degree of the person's involvement in the decision-making process are the driving forces in this situation

Participative System: 

  • In a participative system, management has complete faith in its employees and actively promotes their involvement in decision-making.
  • Here, the subordinate is completely at liberty to bring up any professional matter with his superior.

 

Additional Information 

With these four management systems, Likert also studied these seven variables given below:

  1. Leadership
  2. Motivation
  3. Decision-Making Process
  4. Communication
  5. Interaction-Influence
  6. Control Process and
  7. Goal Setting.
43

Arrange the following books according to the years of their publication

A. Dror, Yehezkel. Public Policy Making Re-examined

B. Dye, Thomas R. Understanding Public Policy

C. Bhattacharya, Mohit. New Horizons of Public Administration

D. Anderson, James E. Public Policy Making

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, D, C

  2. ((b))

    B, D, C, A

  3. ((c))

    B, A, D, C

  4. ((d))

    D, C, A, B

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B, D, C

Correct option is A,B,D,C

BooksYear of Publication
Dror, Yehezkel. Public Policy Making Re-examined1968 - In the field of public policy studies, Public Policymaking Reexamined is now regarded as a fundamental text. - The book is regarded as a modern classic though that its methodical approach to policy research generated much debate when it was initially published.
Dye, Thomas R. Understanding Public Policy1972 - In addition to providing an introduction to the subject of public policy, Understanding Public Policy also introduces readers to the models that political scientists employ to describe and explain the political activity.
Anderson, James E. Public Policy Making1979 - This best-selling book emphasizes the legislative process to illustrate the principles of public policy. - Students can observe how various elements affect the development of policy by looking at each step in detail, from problem identification to agenda setting to review, change, or termination of a policy.
Bhattacharya, Mohit. New Horizons of Public Administration2018 - Some of the new terms being used to describe the current and changing state of public management are "New Public Management," "Reinventing Government," and "Entrepreneurial Government." - All of these and many more fresh, vital topics are covered in this book.
44

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: India supports global nuclear disarmament, but wishes to retain the option of "credible minimum deterrence"

Reason R: Indian nuclear policy is rooted to meet, both its global and regional concerns

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    ​Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is correct but R is not correct

  4. ((d))

    A is not correct but R is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

​Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation of A  

Nuclear disarmament is the process of reducing in number or completely eliminating a country's nuclear weapons.

With the increasing uncertainty around the world security order, nuclear disarmament has become of utmost importance. The Russia-Ukraine war, the Afghanistan takeover by the Taliban, the increasing number of terrorist organizations, and the continuously increasing build-up of nuclear arsenals have only increased the need for a non-proliferation of nuclear arms for stable world order and equality among the haves and have-nots.

Important Points

Assertion A: India supports global nuclear disarmament, but wishes to retain the option of "credible minimum deterrence"

  • India has not been a party to the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear weapons treaty of 1968 as it considers it to be discriminating in favor of the countries who got nuclear technology prior to 1967 and thus creates a group of haves and a larger pool of have-nots.
  • India has maintained a policy of credible minimum deterrence for its nuclear policy. According to this principle, India maintains the stance of No First Use (NFU) which means India will only retaliate in case of a nuclear strike and not initiate any such attack in the first stance.
  • Also, India maintains strict control on the export of nuclear technology and believes in creating a nuclear-weapon-free world.

Reason R: Indian nuclear policy is rooted to meet, both its global and regional concerns.

  • The Indian policy is that of No First Use as it believes in the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons. Also, it does not export the technology and thus does not aid the spread of nuclear weapons. This policy of India fits the global concerns.
  • However, two immediate neighbors of India, i.e. China and Pakistan are nuclear powers sitting at our borders. India is in continuous skirmishes with these two countries and thus the policy of second attack capability fits the regional concerns.

Thus, though both the statements are correct in their own context, the Reason does hold valid for the stated Assertion.

45

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: India is illustrative of 'holding together' federation due to circumstances in which centre agreed to 'devolve' power for holding the federal units together

Reason R: This asymmetry of power division, along with era of coalitions and weaker governments at centre, let to assertion for demand of autonomy by states

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. ((b))

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. ((c))

    A is true but R is false

  4. ((d))

    A is false but R is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Correct option is 2: Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Key Points 

Assertion

  • India is a federal country.
  • It implies a system in which the powers are divided between States and the Centre.
  • In holding together federations, the central governments tend to be more powerful than the state governments.
  • India is considered to be a country with "Unitary Bias", but in many instances, the Center agreed to devolve power in the interest of States and hold them together.

 

Reason 

  • There is an asymmetry between the States and the Center in terms of power relations.
  • As a result, some states have demanded more political and financial economies.
  • These demands have an impact on the relations between the center and the state.

 

Thus, it can be said from the above following information that Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

 

 

Additional Information 

There are two types of federation.

  1. Holding together federations, for example- India and Spain
  2. Coming together federations., for example -USA and Australia

Read the following passage and answer the questions given below

Like in many other areas, even with regard to the question of women, Marx made Hegel the starting point. Hegel regarded women as inferior, with less reasoning abilities, seeing the natural differences between men and women as immutable. Marx did not say much on the role and position of women. He took it for granted that Socialism would bring about their emancipation. In the German Ideology and the Capital, he spoke of the natural and spontaneous division of labour within the family. The natural relationship paved the way for social one, and the first property relationship was the one when the man regarded his wife and children as his slaves. The man had power over them, and could do with their labour as he chose, though Marx did not explain how this came about. Marx did not focus his attention on the position and role of women.

Engels, in the Origins, provided a materialist account of the origins of patriarchy, and linked women's subordination with the rise of private property. In the Holy Family, Marx and Engels observed that the degree of emancipation of women could be used as a standard by which one could measure general emancipation. Marx reiterated this view in a letter to Dr. L. Kugelmann in 1868 that social progress could be assessed exactly by the social position of women. In 1845, Marx warned against treating the family regardless of its specific historic setting. In his criticism of Max Stirner (1805-1856), he observed that it was a misconception to speak of the family without qualification. Historically, the bourgeoisie endowed the family with the characteristics of the bourgeois family, whose ties were boredom and money.

46

​According to Karl Marx, women emancipation can be judged from which of the following?

  1. ((a))

    Division of Labour

  2. ((b))

    Means of Production

  3. ((c))

    Class Character

  4. ((d))

    General Emancipation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

General Emancipation

Correct option is 4: General Emancipation.

 Solution:

Marx and Engels observed that the degree of emancipation of women could be used as a standard by which one could measure general emancipation

  1. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below

Over the course of the 1990s, the question of the Indian state's relationship to the diaspora-formerly treated as more or less settled-once again came to the forefront of policy debates. Developments within diaspora communities, particularly in the United States served to facilitate this process. Chief among them was the creation of the 'Global Organization of People of Indian Origin' (GOPIO) in 1989, and the establishment of the 'India Caucus' within the US Congress in 1993. While the former served to provide a semblance of coherence to the interests of a variegated community, the latter suggested the potential for at least a section amongst the Indian diaspora to be conscious political actors in their adopted homeland. GOPIO members, for instance, kept alive the question of institutional recognition of the special place of the diaspora by the idea of a 'Person of Indian Origin' card in their meetings with Indian government representatives in the mid-1990s. Within the United States, politically active lobbyists of Indian origin became de facto spokespersons for the then Indian government, particularly in the aftermath of the nuclear tests of 1998 . The support of these groups in mitigating the posttests economic sanctions imposed by the United States, along with their enthusiastic response to the 'Resurgent India' bonds issued by the Indian government in the immediate aftermath of the nuclear tests as a measure to withstand the sanctions, was cited as an important indication of the continued commitment of the diaspora to the homeland. It was a commitment that according to the Indian government needed to be officially recognized in the new millennium.

47

Why debate on Indian diaspora got prominence for India's foreign policy makers?

  1. ((a))

    Due to changed political milieu in the USA

  2. ((b))

    India's economic thrust towards West Asia

  3. ((c))

    Resurgence among the Indian Community

  4. ((d))

    Compulsions of the Globalization process in India

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Compulsions of the Globalization process in India

Correct option is 4; Compulsions of the Globalization process in India.

Solution;

  • The creation of the 'Global Organization of People of Indian Origin' (GOPIO) in 1989, and the establishment of the 'India Caucus' within the US Congress in 1993.
  • Within the United States, politically active lobbyists of Indian origin became de facto spokespersons for the then Indian government, particularly in the aftermath of the nuclear tests of 1998 .

Thus, from the following statements, it can be said option is correct.

48

Prior to Marx, which political thinker had a gender bias in his/her writings?

  1. ((a))

    Hegel

  2. ((b))

    J. S. Mill

  3. ((c))

    Plato

  4. ((d))

    Mary Wollstonecraft

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Hegel

Correct option is 1: Hegel.Solution:

 Hegel regarded women as inferior, with less reasoning abilities, seeing the natural differences between men and women as immutable. 

Additional Information

  • Hegel argues this in the text of "Elements of the Philosophy of Right".
  • Hegel confines women to familial work.
49

Write the full name of Engels' book "Origins"?

  1. ((a))

    The Origins of Family and the State

  2. ((b))

    The Origins of Family and Private Property

  3. ((c))

    The Origins of the Family, Private Property and the State

  4. ((d))

    The Origins of Family and State Property

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The Origins of the Family, Private Property and the State

Correct answer is 3: The Origins of the Family, Private Property and the State.

Solution:

  • Engels, in the Origins, provided a materialist account of the origins of patriarchy, and linked women's subordination with the rise of private property.
  • The full name of the work of Engels is "The Origins of The Family, Private Property and the State".

Thus, we can say option 3 is correct.

50

Social position of women vis-a-vis family can be judged by which nature of the family? 

  1. ((a))

    Educational background

  2. ((b))

    Historical setting

  3. ((c))

    Number of family members

  4. ((d))

    Income of the family

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Historical setting

Correct option is 2: Historical setting.

Solution;

  • In 1845, Marx warned against treating the family regardless of its specific historic setting.
  • Historically, the bourgeoisie endowed the family with the characteristics of the bourgeois family, whose ties were boredom and money.

Thus, we can say option 2 is correct.

51

​What has been the general understanding about women's emancipation under Marxian philosophy? 

  1. ((a))

    Marx understood the women's position very correctly

  2. ((b))

    Marx did not analyse women's condition beyond socialism

  3. ((c))

    Due to class division, women got inferior status

  4. ((d))

    Men and women had equal status

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Marx did not analyse women's condition beyond socialism

Correct option is 2: Marx did not analyse women's condition beyond socialism.

Solution:

  • Marx did not say much on the role and position of women. He took it for granted that Socialism would bring about their emancipation.
  • The man had power over them, and could do with their labour as he chose, though Marx did not explain how this came about.
  • Marx did not focus his attention on the position and role of women.

Thus, we can conclude that option 2 is correct from above points.

52

What has been the task of 'Global Organization of People of Indian Origin' (GOPIO)?

  1. ((a))

    Articulate the demands of NRIs

  2. ((b))

    Representing articulated interests of various people of India origin

  3. ((c))

    Increase in Indian cultural activities

  4. ((d))

    Linkage between Bollywood and Holywood

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Representing articulated interests of various people of India origin

Correct option is 2: Representing articulated interests of various people of India origin.

Solution:

  • It served to provide a semblance of coherence to the interests of a variegated community.
  • GOPIO members, for instance, kept alive the question of institutional recognition of the special place of the diaspora by the idea of a 'Person of Indian Origin' card in their meetings with Indian government representatives in the mid-1990s.

Thus, we can say from the above discussion that option 2 is correct.

53

What is the main task of 'India Caucus'?

  1. ((a))

    To influence US policy making toward India

  2. ((b))

    To form union of PIOs

  3. ((c))

    To act as a linkage between PIOs and Government

  4. ((d))

    To provide feedback to the Indian Government

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

To influence US policy making toward India

Correct answer is: To influence US policy making toward India

Solution:

The latter suggested the potential for at least a section amongst the Indian diaspora to be conscious political actors in their adopted homeland.

Thus, one can say from the above points that option 1 is correct.

54

Which organization gave the idea of issuing 'PIO Card' by Government of India?

  1. ((a))

    GOPIO

  2. ((b))

    ​India Caucus

  3. ((c))

    Indo-US Association

  4. ((d))

    NRIs Association

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GOPIO

Correct option is 1: GOPIO

Solution:

GOPIO kept alive the question of institutional recognition of the special place of the diaspora by the idea of a 'Person of Indian Origin' card in their meetings with Indian government representatives in the mid-1990s.

55

Why PIOs got significant attention during the end of 1990s?

  1. ((a))

    Emerging Indo-US economic cooperation

  2. ((b))

    Indo-US Nuclear civil deal

  3. ((c))

    Pokhran-II and American sanctions

  4. ((d))

    India-America defence deal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Pokhran-II and American sanctions

Correct option is 3: Pokhran-II and American sanction.

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Solution:

Within the United States, politically active lobbyists of Indian origin became de facto spokespersons for the then Indian government, particularly in the aftermath of the nuclear tests of 1998 .

56

Which one of the following statements is true?

  1. ((a))

    No rights can be given to a man against the social interest

  2. ((b))

    Grant of Rights has no concern with social interest

  3. ((c))

    Rights can have anti-social character

  4. ((d))

    Rights are a selfish claim

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

No rights can be given to a man against the social interest

The rights of persons or of human beings have long been a topic of political theory.

Key Points

  • In the early 19th century, the doctrine of natural law introduced the idea of rights.
  • The second definition states that rights may be referred to as legitimate expectations.
  • T. H. Green defined rights in the context of idealism.
  • Grant of Rights has a concern with social interest.
  • Rights can have social character.
  • No rights can be given to a man against the social interest.
  • Right is understood as being synonymous with liberty.
  • A man cannot claim/demand rights if he does not perform duties.

Thus, no rights can be given to a man against the social interest is the statement true.

57

In which aspect does Modern Liberalism NOT believe?

  1. ((a))

    Social liberalism

  2. ((b))

    Positive freedom

  3. ((c))

    Cradle to grave welfare

  4. ((d))

    Minimal state

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Minimal state

​In the late nineteenth century, Modern liberalism is a type of social liberalism. 

Key Points

​Minimal state:

  • A state with the least possible amount of powers.
  • It is a term used in political philosophy where the state's duties are so minimal that they cannot be reduced much further.
  • The minimal state is a notion found within a particular variant of the limited-government variety of libertarianism.
  • In the conception offered here, it was introduced by Robert Nozick, whose Anarchy, State, and Utopia is the most influential work supporting libertarianism by an American philosopher.
  • Although Nozick criticized individualist anarchism, he did hold that the minimal state was the form of government that was morally justifiable.

Additional Information

  • Positive liberalism is another name for modern liberalism.
  • It blends beliefs in equality and civil liberties with a checked-and-validated market economy and advocacy for social justice.
  • Modem Modern liberalism does embrace state interference as a cure-all for all the issues that society faces.
  • Modern Liberalism is different from classical liberalism in terms of state interference in the life of individuals.

Therefore, the Minimal state is an aspect that does Modern Liberalism NOT believe in.

58

"We are witnessing the end of history as such that is, the endpoint of mankind's ideological evolution and the universalisation of western liberal democracy as the final form of human government". Whose thesis is this?

  1. ((a))

    Francis Fukuyama

  2. ((b))

    Daniel Bell

  3. ((c))

    Milton Friedman

  4. ((d))

    A MacIntyre

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Francis Fukuyama

In 1989, at the height of the collapse and in a mood of optimism, he articulate his famous piece The End of History. 

Key Points

  • Socialism is the biggest danger to liberalism and was its principal rival.
  • He simply explains his primary point at the opening of this piece as follows: economic and political liberalism won the day at the end of the 20th century.
  • The failure of organized challenges to Western liberalism is the first indication of the West's and Western ideas' triumph.
  • He claims that the intellectual climates of the two major communist nations in the world have undergone significant shifts during the previous ten years.
  • He proclaimed  "We are witnessing the end of history as such that is, the endpoint of mankind's ideological evolution and the universalization of western liberal democracy as the final form of human government".
  • He makes his claims without providing any solid support or supporting data.

Thus, Francis Fukuyama's thesis is  "We are witnessing the end of history as such that is, the endpoint of mankind's ideological evolution and the universalization of western liberal democracy as the final form of human government".

59

How was early liberalism characterised by C. B. Macpherson?

  1. ((a))

    Possessive liberalism

  2. ((b))

    Welfaristic

  3. ((c))

    Altruistic

  4. ((d))

    Developmental

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Possessive liberalism

Liberalism is a political philosophy that views preserving and advancing individual freedom as politics' primary issue. 

Key Points

  • A political and moral ideology known as liberalism is founded on individual liberties, freedoms, the consent of the governed, and equality before the law.
  • C. B. Macpherson in his work, The Political Theory of Possessive Individualism: From Hobbes to Locke articulated Possessive liberalism.
  • The thesis of "possessive individualism," according to which a person is seen as the only proprietor of their talents and owes nothing to society for them.
  • He examines the function of this specific kind of individualism in Thomas Hobbes, James Harrington, and John Locke.
  • Keith Thomas and David Lay have both presented several arguments that contradict his claim that Hobbes is responsible for the culture of possessive individualism.

Thus, Liberalism is characterised by C. B. Macpherson as possessive liberalism.

60

Which one of the following theories is NOT related to Marx?

  1. ((a))

    Theory of Alienalism

  2. ((b))

    Theory of Surplus Value

  3. ((c))

    Dictatorship of Proletariat

  4. ((d))

    Origin of the Family, Private Property and the State

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Origin of the Family, Private Property and the State

Karl Marx was a political philosopher who created enduring ideologies. 

Key Points

  • Marx divided 19th-century capitalism into scientific socialism or communism along with Friedrich Engels.
  • Marxism is both a critique of capitalism and a realistic or genuine challenge to it.
  • Marxism is a way of thinking, a set of principles, and a working-class movement.
  • Marx and Friedrich Engel are responsible for the development of the communist philosophy.
  • Karl Marx and Engel were interested in the reasons behind how the economy affects human society.
  • Theories is related to Marx are following
  • Theory of Alienalism
  • Theory of Surplus Value
  • Dictatorship of Proletariat
  • Historical materialism
  • Social classes

Thus, Origin of the Family, Private Property and the State is NOT related to Marx.

61

Who amongst the following stated that life is "a perpetual and restless desire for power after power, that ceaseth only in death"?

  1. ((a))

    Aristotle

  2. ((b))

    Machiavelli

  3. ((c))

    Hobbes

  4. ((d))

    Rousseau

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Hobbes

Thomas Hobbes well-known for making a significant contribution to political theory such as obligation, state of nature, and negative view of human nature. 

Key Points

  • He accounts for human nature as self-interested.
  • His understanding of humans as being matter and motion, adhering to the same physical laws as other matter and motion.
  • Hobbes subtly alters the conventional idea of natural law which holds that nature provides moral direction for human behavior.
  • Hobbes said that a perpetual and restless desire for power after power, that ceaseth only in death.
  • Hobbes' natural laws are not necessary for his state of nature.

Thus, Hobbes said that a perpetual and restless desire for power after power, that ceaseth only in death.

62

India is NOT a member of which multilateral export control regime?

  1. ((a))

    Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)

  2. ((b))

    Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)

  3. ((c))

    Wassenaar Arrangement (WA)

  4. ((d))

    Australia Group (AG)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)

The major supplier nations established the MECR as voluntary, non-binding agreements as part of their commitment to work together to prevent and control the transfer of specific military and dual-use technologies. 

Key Points

  • It seeks to stop the spread of weapons of mass destruction (WMD).
  • They are not affiliated with the UN.
  • Under MECR, there are now four such regimes.
  • Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
  • Australia Group (AG)
  • Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
  • Wassenaar Agreement
  • In reaction to India's nuclear testing in 1974, the NSG was created.
  • India is not a member of the NSG since China and a few other nations continuously obstructed its attempts.

Thus, India is NOT a member of which the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) multilateral export control regime.

63

Which one of the following is NOT the core issue related to the neo-realist theory of International relations? 

  1. ((a))

    Actors react in an anarchical environment

  2. ((b))

    Structure is a major determinant of actor's behavior

  3. ((c))

    States are always engaged in the process of monopoly capitalism

  4. ((d))

    Distrust and fear among actors creates problem of security dilemma

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

States are always engaged in the process of monopoly capitalism

Neo-realism used the techniques and vocabulary of contemporary social sciences to try to change classical realism. 

Key Points

  • In the 1950s and 1960s, academics from many backgrounds came to study international relations, and new research techniques like game theory and quantitative research started to infiltrate the field.
  • Waltz addressed the flaws of classical realism in this work, which was significantly inspired by ideas and models of microeconomics.
  • Waltz argued that the market and international relations are similar in that they both function without a clear hierarchy.
  • States are similar to businesses in a domestic market in that their main goal is to survive via competition in a setting where self-help is the norm.
  • The anarchic framework of international relations is to blame for governments' similar behavior.

Thus, States are always engaged in the process of monopoly capitalism is NOT the core issue related to the neo-realist theory of International relations.

64

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of 'Sustainable Development'?

  1. ((a))

    Unrestrained development

  2. ((b))

    Based on principle of generational equity

  3. ((c))

    Development without environmental degradation

  4. ((d))

    Meeting present needs, without compromising needs for future

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Unrestrained development

Sustainable Development Goals agenda was adopted by all UN members in 2012 at the Rio de Janeiro.

Key Points

  • Sustainable development is a approach to a nation's economic growth without sacrificing the environment's quality for present and future generations.
  • Our Common Future by the World Commission on Environment and Development in 1987, the phrase "sustainable development" first time has been used.
  • The ability of future generations to satisfy their own needs is not compromised when current demands are met through sustainable development.
  • The feature of 'Sustainable Development are
  • It raises the standard of living for people.
  • Natural resource depletion is minimized.
  • It teaches us to value and take care of all living things.
  • It gives communities the ability to look after their own environment.
  • It honors and cherishes all species of life.

Thus, Unrestrained development  is NOT a feature of 'Sustainable Development'.

65

Name the boundary line between India and China

  1. ((a))

    Durand Line

  2. ((b))

    Radcliffe Line

  3. ((c))

    McMahon Line

  4. ((d))

    Palk Strait

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

McMahon Line

India has a 7,516.6 km coastline, including island territories, and 15,106.7 km of land borders. 

Key Points

  • Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and a Union Territory called Ladakh (formerly the state of Jammu & Kashmir) all share a border with China.
  • Three sections make up the Sino-Indian boundary known as the Western, Middle, and Eastern sectors.
  • Johnson's Line and McDonald's Line were two proposed frontiers between India and China during the British era of administration in India.
  • Johnson's line places Aksai Chin under Indian administration in what was once Jammu and Kashmir (now Ladakh).
  • The McDonald Line, proposed in 1893 brought it under Chinese control.

Thus, the boundary line between India and China McMahon Line.

66

How long can the Vice-President act as President, when the office of President falls vacant?

  1. ((a))

    Six months

  2. ((b))

    One year

  3. ((c))

    Two years

  4. ((d))

    Five years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Six months

The Vice-President of India position is covered in Part V of the Indian Constitution.

Key Points

  • According to Article 64, the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • His authority and responsibilities in this role are comparable to those of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 66, The members of an electoral college made up of representatives from both Houses of Parliament will choose the vice president.
  • When the President's position becomes vacant owing to his resignation, dismissal, death, or any other reason.
  • He may only serve as President for a maximum of six months until a new President must be chosen.

Thus, for Six months can the Vice-President act as President, when the office of the President falls vacant.

67

The superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission (Article 324 of the Constitution of India) came into force on:

  1. ((a))

    26 January 1950

  2. ((b))

    15 August 1947

  3. ((c))

    26 November 1949

  4. ((d))

    25 January 1950

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

26 November 1949

The Election Commission of India is given the authority under the Constitution to conduct, supervise, and manage elections for the state legislatures, the president of India, and the vice-president of India.

Key Points

  • Article 324 An Election Commission is given responsibility for overseeing, directing, and controlling elections.
  • The Chief Electoral Commissioner (CEC) was the single member of the election commission from the time it was established in 1950 until 15 October 1989.
  • The superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission came into force on 26 November 1949.
  • The voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 on October 16, 1989. In order to handle the election commission's increasing workload, the president nominated two more election commissioners.
  • Article 327 gives the Parliament the authority to adopt rules governing legislative elections.

Thus, The superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission (Article 324 of the Constitution of India) came into force on 26 November 1949.

68

By which Constitutional Amendment the word 'Socialist, Secular' and 'Integrity' were incorporated in our Constitution?

  1. ((a))

    40th  Amendment

  2. ((b))

    42th Amendment

  3. ((c))

    44th Amendment

  4. ((d))

    46th Amendment

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

42th Amendment

Nehru sponsored an Objectives Resolution in 1946. 

Key Points

  • This resolution represented the objectives and guiding concepts that guided the drafting of the Constitution.
  • The Objectives Resolution served as the framework for the Indian Constitution, which codified the fundamental principles of equality, liberty, democracy and sovereignty.
  • Based on this resolution, which was overwhelmingly approved on January 22, 1947, is the Preamble to the Constitution.
  • The objectives set forth in the preamble include the fundamental structure of our constitution.
  • The Preamble was altered for the first and only time by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
  • With the passage of the 42nd Amendment, three new terms—socialist, secular, and integrity—were introduced.

Thus, the 42nd Amendment by which Constitutional Amendment the word 'Socialist, Secular' and 'Integrity' were incorporated into our Constitution

69

Which one of the following functions is NOT the concern of the local government?

  1. ((a))

    Public health

  2. ((b))

    Sanitation

  3. ((c))

    Public utility services

  4. ((d))

    Maintenance of public order

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Maintenance of public order

In India, three-tier of Panchayati Raj in India after the 73rd Constitutional amendment act passed in 1992. 

Key Points

  • The Indian Constitution now includes a new Part-IX as a result of this legislation.
  • The duties outlined in state legislation pertaining to Panchayati Raj are carried out by all institutions within the Panchayati Raj system.
  • The Panchayats is the name of this section, which includes clauses from Articles 243 to 243 O.
  • A new Eleventh Schedule has also been inserted into the Constitution as a result of the measure.
  • There are 29 operational panchayat items included in this schedule. It is related to Article 243-G.
  • Village panchayats are required to provide civic duties like cleanliness, road maintenance, minor irrigation, public restrooms and lavatories, primary healthcare, immunizations, water supply, public good construction, rural electrification, social health, primary and adult education, etc.

Thus, the maintenance of public order is NOT the concern of the local government.

70

Labour movements in India suffers from

A. Low membership

B. Weak finances

C. Multiplicity of union

D. Presence of differentiated organizational structures for different classes of labor

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and D only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C only

S. S. Bengalee, the first labour commission was established in Bombay in 1875. 

Key Points

  • The Bombay Mill Hands Association was the country of India's first to formally organize a union founded by M. N. Lokhande.
  • Labour movements in India suffers from the following issue: 
  • Small Size
  • Poor Finance
  • Politicisation
  • Multiplicity of Unions
  • Lack of Enlightened Labour Force

Thus, Labour movements in India suffer from Low membership and weak finances and a multiplicity of unions.

71

Mc Gregor in his celebrated text, The Human Side of the Enterprise has given his famous "theoretical assumptions". Which of the following are the correct assumptions?

A. The average human being, with relatively little ambition, prefers to be directed and wishes to avoid responsibility. Security is the main concern

B. The average human being learns under proper conditions not only to accept but to seek responsibility

C. The average human being has an innate antipathy to work, which he will avoid, if he can

D. "Best management is a true science"

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A and D only

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A, B and C only

Correct Option is: A, B, and C only  

In his book, "The Human Side of Enterprise" from 1960, American management professor Mr. Douglas Murray McGregor presented two opposing viewpoints. 

Key Points

  • Mr. McGregor described the theories known as Theory 'X' and Theory 'Y'.
  • He explained how managers of an organization inspire their staff to achieve the organization's goals.
  • He has given different assumptions to both theories.
  • Theory X has assumptions stating: Three the average human prefers to be directed, wishes to avoid responsibility, has relatively little ambition, and wants security above all. So, statement A is correct.
  • Theory Y has an assumption that the average human being learns, under proper conditions, not only to accept but to seek responsibility. So, statement B is correct.
  • Another assumption of Theory X is The average human being has an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it if he can. So, statement C is correct.
  • There is no such assumption as "Best management is a true science". So, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • According to Theory X, in order to motivate people to put forth the effort, they must be coerced or otherwise controlled because they detest working and will avoid doing it if they can.
  • According to Theory Y, individuals are driven to work when given the proper incentives, they want to take on responsibility, and they are innovative and creative problem solvers.
72

Performance budget reflects how well a government entity is meeting its goals and objectives. Which of the following are the central point of Performance Budgeting?

A. It requires the establishment of performance levels and the collection of information

B. The amount of work that is done is measured

C. The quality or the results of that work is measured

D. This impacts how much money a department will receive in the future

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B, C and D only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B, C and D only

Performance-based budget is a budget that is allocated by ascertaining the outcomes of the proposals of a budget. This form of a budget is made to spend money by knowing the specific requirement of the underlying scheme, goal, and proposal to be achieved. It links the funding process to the results that are delivered. Therefore, the results are evaluated in an organized way, which in turn leads to increased efficiency.

Thus, a performance budget clearly indicates the actual output to be achieved by spending a designated amount of money on a particular proposal.

Key Points 

The key features of a Performance budget are:

  • The budget presents the purpose for which the funds are being allocated and reflects the input of resources and the output of services of every unit of an organization.
  • This type of budget does not necessarily depend on the previous year's budget allocation for new funding, rather the outcomes are measured, and based on these the new funding limit is proposed.
  • It requires the establishment of performance levels and the collection of information on the working of the proposed activities or projects.
  • The amount of work that is done is measured in a systematic or organized way to provide an output-oriented budget analysis within a long-term perspective.
  • The quality of the results of that work is measured to increase efficiency and effectiveness.
  • This impacts how much money a department will receive in the future for its efficient functioning**.**

Thus, Option 3 i.e. A, B, C, and D is the correct choice for the question.

73

Which of the following are the advanced ideas of Mary Follett?

A. Functional Foremanship

B. Constructive Conflict

C. Zone of Acceptance

D. Integration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    B and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B and D only

The correct option is: B and D only    

Key Points 

 Functional foremanship

  • Frederick Winslow Taylor is widely referred to as the "Father of Scientific Management".
  • He developed the Techniques of Scientific Management through a series of trials. Functional foremanship was one of those methods. So, A is wrong. ​​​​

Constructive Conflict​​​​

  • ​Mary Parker Follett is best recognized for her in-depth analyses of conflict situations in government and corporate settings.
  • She asserts that one of the fundamental ideas at "the heart of personnel relations in industry" is "constructive conflict," which is founded on her conception of innovative integration. So, B is correct.

Zone of Acceptance 

  • The "Zone of Acceptance" model by Herbert Simon proposes a region where followers are ready to accept leaders' decisions without their input, as opposed to circumstances when this would be outside their zone of acceptance. So, C is wrong.

Integration

  • Aссоrding to Follet, thеrе аrе thrее ways to respond tо conflict.
  • One among them is Integration which means сrеаtivеlу incorporating the parties’ fundаmеntаl dеѕirеѕ/intеrеѕtѕ intо thе ѕоlutiоn.
  • Whеn twо dеѕirеѕ аrе intеgrаtеd, thаt means thаt a solution hаѕ bееn found in whiсh bоth dеѕirеѕ hаvе fоund a place that neither ѕidе hаѕ had tо ѕасrifiсе аnуthing. So, D is correct.

Additional Information

  • Mary Parker Follett (1868–1933), is known for innovative ideas in introducing human psychology and human relations into industrial management.
  • She is called as "The mother of modern administration", and was one of the pioneers in creating a participatory and inclusive administration system.
  • In creating her theories, she deviated from the prevailing idea of the time, which was exemplified by Ford's application of work chains and Taylorism's task division.

Her important works include:

  1. Dynamic Administration
  2. Creative Experience
  3. The New State
  4. Freedom and Co-ordination
74

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.Bureaucratic TerrorI.Frantz Fanon
B.Cultural RevolutionII.Plato
C.ApartheidIII.Mao Zedong
D.Allegory of CavesIV.Hannah Arendt

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

  3. ((c))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  4. ((d))

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

1. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

ThinkerIdeology
Hannah ArendtBureaucratic Terror
Mao ZedongCultural Revolution
Frantz FanonApartheid
PlatoAllegory of Caves
75

Match List I with List II

List I ​BooksList II Author
A.Fatawa-i-JahandariI.Charles Bettelheim
B.Thoughts on Linguistic StatesII.M. N. Roy
C.India IndependentIII.Zia Barani
D.The Future of Indian PoliciesIV.B. R. Ambedkar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - III, B - IV , C - I, D - II

  3. ((c))

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - III, B - IV , C - I, D - II

These are famous books based on political history.

BooksImportant concepts.
Fatawa-i-Jahandari- This book is written by  Zia Barani. - Zia Baran is an Indo-Islamic political theorist and historian - This is a work containing the political ideals of Muslim rulers in order to earn religious merit and gratitude for their subjects.
Thoughts on the Linguistic States- It is written by Dr. BR Ambedkar and published in the year 1955. - He was a jurist, economist, social reformer, and political leader. - In this Ambedkar created certain principles for the creation of linguistic states in Independent India such as mixed states should be abandoned, and every state should be based on one language.
India Independent- This book is written by Charles Bettelheim and published in 1968 - He was a French Marxian economist and historian who founded at the centre of the study of modes of industrialization. - It focuses on the problem of economic development in post-independent India - It was first published in French in 1962 and subsequently translated into English.
The Future of Indian Policies- This book is written by MN Roy and published in the 1920s - He was an Indian Marxist revolutionist, radical activist, political theorist, and philosopher of the 20th century. - It is based on Indian politics and governance.

Thus, A - III, B - IV , C - I, D - II is a correct matching

76

Which one of the following is NOT a part of the political philosophy of Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya?

  1. ((a))

    Consideration of man as atoms

  2. ((b))

    Cultural nationalism

  3. ((c))

    Integral humanism

  4. ((d))

    Democratic governance

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Consideration of man as atoms

On September 25, 1916, in the Nagla Chandrabhaan village near Mathura, Uttar Pradesh, Deendayal Upadhyaya was born into a low-income family. 

Key Points

  • Integral humanism is a philosophy that advocates fusing native "Indian culture" with the social, political, and economic fabric of the country.
  • According to Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya, Integral humanism is "a classless, casteless, and conflict-free social system,"
  • It suggests that a mix of materialism, spiritualism and restrained desire may lead to pleasure.
  • It was highlighted by Pandit Deendayal Upadhya that the well-being of people shouldn't be sacrificed for the sake of business.
  • He argued against the rule of a single meta-narrative over the entire world or a single country by promoting diversity in economic and social ideas.
  • Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya was certain that the common people, not the rich, should be in charge of politics.

Thus, Consideration of man as atoms is NOT a part of the political philosophy of Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya.

77

"We will get nothing by appealing to or shouting hoarse in the ears of the British Bureaucracy in India". Who said this?

  1. ((a))

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  2. ((b))

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  3. ((c))

    B. R. Ambedkar

  4. ((d))

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Bal Gangadhar Tilak also known by his pen name Lokamanya.

Key Points

  • Tilak was a leading proponent of Swaraj and a radical figure in Indian culture.
  • The Indian Home Rule League was established by him in 1916, and he served as its president.
  • He and Mohammed Ali Jinnah signed the Lucknow Pact in 1916 which called for Hindu-Muslim cooperation in the nationalist cause.
  • The Marathi remark he is famous for is "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it!".
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak said that "We will get nothing by appealing to or shouting hoarse in the ears of the British Bureaucracy in India".
  • Two weekly journals he owned and edited: Kesari which was published in Marathi, and The Mahratta which was published in English.

Thus, Bal Gangadhar Tilak said that "We will get nothing by appealing to or shouting hoarse in the ears of the British Bureaucracy in India".

78

Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy argued in favour of:

  1. ((a))

    Caste based social system

  2. ((b))

    Human dignity

  3. ((c))

    Varnaashram system

  4. ((d))

    Enhancing the status of Hindi in India

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Human dignity

Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy is often known as Periyar or Thanthai. 

Key Points

  • Ramasamy joined the Indian National Congress in 1919.
  • Left the organization in 1925 because he believed it was solely representing Brahmin interests.
  • He revolted against caste, gender, and Brahminical domination in Tamil Nadu.
  • Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy argued in favour of Human dignity.
  • Brahmins accepted gifts and donations from non-Brahmins yet opposed and discriminated against non-Brahmins in cultural and religious concerns.
  • Ramasamy became the leader of the Justice Party in 1939, and he changed its name to Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

Thus, Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy argued in favour of Human dignity.

79

Who among the following distinguished between interest articulation function and other anomic group functions?

  1. ((a))

    Almond and Powell

  2. ((b))

    Almond and Coleman

  3. ((c))

    Jean Blondel

  4. ((d))

    Hugh Heclo

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Almond and Coleman

Almond and Coleman, the structural-functional method quickly gained traction in the field of political analysis and comparative studies.

Key Points

  • It can range from direct interactions with public authorities to the growth of interest groups that represent larger groups of people, such as trade unions, professional organisations, and religious organizations.
  • Members of a society can communicate their requirements to a system of governance by articulating their interests in that system.
  • Interest articulation can have varying outcomes depending on the form of government, and it can involve both legal and illicit acts (such as lobbying, peaceful protest, phone calls and letters to legislators) (e.g. assassination, riots).
  • Almond and Coleman distinguished between the interest articulation function and other anomic group functions.
  • The four different sorts of interest articulation are as follows:-
  • Institutional interest groups
  • Non- associational interest groups
  • Anomic interest groups
  • Associational interest groups.

Thus, Almond and Coleman distinguished between the interest articulation function and other anomic group functions.

80

Which of the following are true about the world system theory?

A. It is influenced by the Marxian idea of accumulation of wealth

B. On the basis of wealth accumulation, the world is divided between 'core', 'periphery' and 'semi-periphery'

C. It involves important concepts like players, strategies, rules and outcomes

D. It analyses the situation of conflict, competition and cooperation among states

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B only

Immanuel Wallerstein in his article The Rise and Future Decline of the World Capitalist System: Concepts for Comparative Analysis given the world-systems theory. 

Key Points

  • The dependency theory is in reaction to the modernization theory which holds that wealthy nations take advantage of impoverished ones in order to preserve the current level of wealth in the globe.
  • Dependency theory was unable to explain the new emerging developing nation such as Taiwan, India, China, and Japan.
  • Dependency theory ultimately gave rise to and developed world systems theory.
  • Dependency theory a neo-Marxist account of development processes had a big impact on world-systems theory as well.
  • Marxism emphasized social conflict in addition to focusing on the capital accumulation process, competitive class fights, meaningful wholeness, the transient character of social structures, and a dialectical sense of motion via conflict and contradiction.
  • On the basis of wealth accumulation, the world is divided between 'core', 'periphery' and 'semi-periphery'.

Thus,  It is influenced by the Marxian idea of accumulation of wealth and on the basis of wealth accumulation, the world is divided between 'core', 'periphery' and 'semi-periphery' are true of the world system theory.

81

The Supreme Court Of India in its order dated 24th August 2017 in Justice. K.S. Pultaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India

declared that:

A. The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms.

B. The Union government must amend the Constitution and add a provision for the right to privacy.

C. The right to privacy is protected by Article 14(equality before the law), Article 19 (Right to freedom), and Article 21( Protection of life and personal liberty).

D. Right to privacy is derived from Article 25( Right to freedom of religion) and Article 14 (Protection of interests of minorities)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A only

  2. ((b))

    B only

  3. ((c))

    A and D only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A only

The Supreme Court of India's Right to Privacy judgement, also known as Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs. Union of India. 

Key Points

  • In August 2017,  The Supreme Court ruled in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) v. Union of India that Indians have a fundamental right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution.
  • It is a significant ruling that establishes the right to privacy as a basic right guaranteed by Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic component of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.
  • It was determined that the right to privacy is an inherent one that belongs to all-natural individuals.

Thus, The Supreme Court Of India in its order dated 24th August 2017 in Justice. K.S. Pultaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India declared that the right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms.

82

Which among the following statements regarding citizenship in India is NOT correct?

  1. ((a))

    Citizenship provisions came into force on 26 November 1949.

  2. ((b))

    A person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign country ceases to be an Indian citizen.

  3. ((c))

    A citizen of India can simultaneously be the citizen of another country.

  4. ((d))

    The Parliament has the power to make provisions pertaining to acquisition and termination of citizenship.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A citizen of India can simultaneously be the citizen of another country.

The Constitution does not define the term "citizen," although Part 2 lists several categories of persons who are eligible for citizenship (Articles 5 to 11).

Key Points

  • Articles 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution discuss citizenship in India.
  • Article 6 of the Constitution stated that everyone who migrated to India before July 19, 1949.
  • According to Article 9, a person no longer qualifies as an Indian citizen if they willingly acquire citizenship in another country.
  • According to Article 10, anybody who is or is deemed to be an Indian citizen under one of the previous clauses of this Part will remain an Indian citizen.
  • Article 8, gave those people of Indian descent who lived outside of India the ability to become citizens.

Thus, A citizen of India can simultaneously be a citizen of another country, statements regarding citizenship in India are NOT correct.

83

Which one of the following is NOT a function of political parties?

  1. ((a))

    Formation of public opinion

  2. ((b))

    Formation of government and alternate government

  3. ((c))

    Political education to public

  4. ((d))

    To control the judiciary

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

To control the judiciary

A political party is made up of a certain group of people that band together to compete with one another in order to lead a government that can better meet the demands of the nation.

Key Points

  • In essence, political parties are formed to ensure that the nation has a set of individuals to govern it.
  • The function of political parties are mentioned below: 
  • Elections are contested by political parties by fielding candidates.
  • Candidates are chosen by party members and supporters.
  • Every party has a unique set of policies and initiatives.
  • Voters cast their ballots based on the policies and programs they find favourable.
  • Public opinion is shaped by political parties.
  • The parties start movements to address the issues that the populace is facing with the aid of pressure organizations.
  • Even access to government resources and social programs is offered by parties.
  • The local party boss acts as a liaison between the public and the elected official.

Thus, Controlling the judiciary is NOT a function of political parties.

84

Leaders of which organization were invited during Prime Minister Narendra Modi's swearing-in-ceremony in 2014?

  1. ((a))

    ASEAN

  2. ((b))

    SAARC

  3. ((c))

    BIMSTEC

  4. ((d))

    SCO

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

SAARC

The SAARC Charter was ratified and established in Dhaka on December 8, 1985. 

Key Points

  • In November 1980, the concept of regional cooperation in South Asia was initially proposed.
  • It was created in 1985 after being formally ratified by the heads of state of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
  • In 2007, Afghanistan became the eighth member of SAARC.
  • There are eight countries that makeup SAARC:
  • Afghanistan
  • Bangladesh
  • Bhutan
  • India
  • Maldives
  • Nepal
  • Pakistan
  • In 2014, All SAARC leaders were present for the first time at an Indian prime minister's swearing-in event.

Thus, SAARC Leaders of which organization were invited during Prime Minister Narendra Modi's swearing-in-ceremony in 2014.

85

Which of the following is NOT provided to the Indian diaspora under the 'Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme'?

  1. ((a))

    Right for economic activities

  2. ((b))

    Political rights as citizens

  3. ((c))

    Educational rights

  4. ((d))

    To acquire life time visa

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Political rights as citizens

In response to the Indian diaspora's demand for dual citizenship, particularly in industrialized nations. 

Key Points

  • The Citizenship Act, 1955 was amended to create the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme in August 2005.
  • At the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas conference in Hyderabad in 2006, it was revealed.
  • A person who is legally a citizen of another nation yet has Indian origins is known as an overseas Indian citizen (OCI).
  • The following rights (conferred on an Indian citizen) are not applicable to an Indian abroad citizen who holds a card:
  • He shall not be entitled to the right to equal opportunity in public employment.
  • He is not qualified to be elected president.
  • He is not qualified to be chosen as vice president.
  • He is not qualified to serve as a Supreme Court judge.
  • He won't be qualified to be appointed a High Court judge.
  • He is not able to register to vote.
  • He will not be permitted to serve in the People's House or the Council of States.

Thus, Political rights as citizens  is NOT provided to the Indian diaspora under the 'Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme'.

86

Which of the following were/are wage development and infrastructure development programmes?

A. Crash Scheme of Rural Employment

B. National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme

C. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme

D. Changes in Agronomic Practices

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    B and C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C only

The wage development programmes provide paid jobs to an individual in various formal and informal sectors whereas the infrastructure development programmes involve the improvement or creation of robust infrastructure such as roads, power, ICT, sanitation and etc. These are the Government of India's initiatives to promote economic growth and development.

Key Points

  1. ***Crash Scheme of Rural Employment -***​
  • The Government of India initiated this scheme during the 1970s
  • ​​ This scheme aims to creation of wage employment in rural areas
  • It provides alternative avenues of employment through plan and non-plan activities of the government.

​​       2.   National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme-

  • This programme was initiated through National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 later renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act  2009
  • It provides 100 days of wage employment and enhances livelihood security in  rural areas
  • It aims to guarantee the "Right to Work"        3.  Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme-
  • This programme is launched by Indira Gandhi on 15 august 1983 under the sixth five-year plan
  • It was limited to landless labourers with guaranteed employment of 100 days.
  • It provides durable assets for strengthening infrastructure to meet the growing demands of the rural economy.

 Thus, the correct answer is option 3 as all three programmes majorly focus on wage and infrastructure development. 

Additional InformationChanges in Agronomic Practices is not a wage or infrastructure development programme as it is focuses on agriculture-related programmes such as crop rotation, intercropping and agroforestry.

87

Who amongst the following wrote The Art of War?

  1. ((a))

    Machiavelli

  2. ((b))

    Mao

  3. ((c))

    Hobbes

  4. ((d))

    Rousseau

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Machiavelli

Niccolo di Bernardo dei Machiavelli was very well known for creating political thinking.

Key Points

  • He was an author, statesman, diplomat, philosopher, and historian of the Italian Renaissance.
  • He was a high official in the Florentine Republic, with duties that included military and diplomatic matters.
  • The word "Machiavellianism" is frequently used negatively to denote unethical politicians of the kind that Machiavelli criticized in The Prince.
  • Machiavelli characterized immoral behavior, such as lying and the murder of innocent people, as being typical and useful in politics.
  • Works of Machiavelli: 
  • The Prince (1513)
  • Discourses on Livy (1517)
  • The Art of War (1519–1520)

Thus, Machiavelli wrote The Art of War.

88

"Revolutionary violence is not just cathartic but it also allows the colonial subjects to recreate themselves". Whose statement is this?

  1. ((a))

    Hannah Arendt

  2. ((b))

    Frantz Fanon

  3. ((c))

    Machiavelli

  4. ((d))

    Hobbes

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Frantz Fanon

Frantz Fanon was a Martinican psychiatrist, philosopher, and revolutionary. 

Key Points

  • Marxism, critical theory, and post-colonial studies have all benefited from his writings.
  • Fanon was a political radical, Pan-Africanist, and Marxist humanist who was interested in the psychological effects of colonization as well as the social, cultural, and political repercussions of decolonization.
  • In his work The Wretched of the Earth, this significant study focuses on what he saw as the essential function of activist violence in carrying out decolonization campaigns.
  • Frantz Fanon said that Revolutionary violence is not just cathartic but it also allows the colonial subjects to recreate themselves.
  • The most important anti-colonial thinker of his day has been referred to as Fanon.

Thus, Frantz Fanon said that "Revolutionary violence is not just cathartic but it also allows the colonial subjects to recreate themselves".

89

Who considered bureaucracy as the 'State's consciousness'?

  1. ((a))

    Marx

  2. ((b))

    Lenin

  3. ((c))

    Miliband

  4. ((d))

    Poulantzas

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Marx

​The Latin word "bureau" is where the word "bureaucracy" comes from.

Key Points

  • In the middle of the eighteenth century, a Frenchman named De'Cburnay was the one who first used the term "bureaucracy."
  • The bureaucracy is the civil society's version of governmental formality.
  • F.M. Marx observes that the caste bureaucracy takes on another shape when it links the requirements for higher positions with arrangements that essentially reflect class preferences.
  • For Marx, it represents the state's consciousness, volition, and power as a Corporation.
  • The bureaucracy is a specific, closed society within the state since it represents the state's mind, will, and power as a Corporation.

Thus, Marx considered bureaucracy as the 'State's consciousness'.

90

Which agreement of defence cooperation was signed by India with USA in 2020?

  1. ((a))

    Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)

  2. ((b))

    General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)

  3. ((c))

    Logistic Exchange and Memorandum Agreement (LEMOA)

  4. ((d))

    Communication and Information Security Memorandum Agreement (CISMOA)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)

The formal signing of the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geospatial Intelligence.

Key Points

  • BECA will supply high-quality GPS navigation for Indian military systems and real-time information for missiles to accurately target the enemy.
  • The BECA's signing ushers in a new era of expanded security cooperation while putting an end to the protracted phase of mutual trust-building.
  • Access to topographical and aeronautical data and goods will be provided, facilitating targeting and navigation.
  • Additional Foundational Arrangements
  • General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA), 2002.
  • Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA), 2016.
  • Communication Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA), 2018.
  • Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA), 2020.

Thus, Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) agreement of defence cooperation was signed by India with USA in 2020.

91

Which of the following are true about Regime Theory in International Politics?

A. It is an attempt for the existence of rule-governed behavior in the anarchic international system

B. They are to replace collective security system

C. Major powers resolve conflicts through this mechanism

D. They have been defined by principles, norms, rules and decision-making procedures

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A and D only

Regime theory in international relations contends that international institutions or regimes have an impact on the conduct of states or other international players. 

Key Points

  • It is a theory that emerged from the liberalism school of thought in International relations.
  • It presumes that because regimes are by definition examples of global collaboration, cooperation is feasible inside the anarchic system of states.
  • Stephen D. Krasner played a significant role in popularizing the study of regime theory in international relations.
  • Stephen Krasner definition of regimes as "institutions holding norms, decision rules, and processes which promote a convergence of expectations".
  • The "fullest manifestation" of regime theory has been referred to as Robert Keohane's 1984 book After Hegemony.

Thus, It is an attempt at the existence of rule-governed behaviour in the anarchic international system and they have been defined by principles, norms, rules and decision-making procedures are true about Regime Theory in International Politics.

92

Which of the following are the schools of "New Right Ideology"?

A. Austrian school

B. Chicago school

C. Frankfurt school

D. New York school

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and D only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A and C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and B only

The correct option is A and B only.

A new style of conservatism that adopted a nationalist approach to politics was introduced to the ideological spectrum by the New Right, which developed out of political and social developments in the 1960s. It has two different schools Austrian and Chicago. ​

Key Points

Austrian school 

  • It believes that financial decisions should be kept private (issuance and circulation) and banking should be private as well.
  • It believes that certain logical principles require no empirical testing.

Chicago school

  • It believes in central planning of the money supply and has a mixed opinion of the Federal Reserve System's record and effectiveness.
  • It believes in rationality and optimal choices.

Additional Information

  • Both Austrian and Chicago schools support free markets and consumer choices. The concepts of monetary policy and the function of a central bank differ significantly between the two.
  • Frankfurt School is related to Critical Theory,
  • There is no such school of thought called New York.
93

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.Catherine MackinnonI.Feminism is for Everybody
B.Susan Moller OkinII.The Dialectic of Sex
C.S. FirestoneIII.Toward a Feminist Theory of State
D.Bell HookIV.Justice, Gender and the Family

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

  3. ((c))

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Correct option is: A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Key Points

ScholarsImportant Information
Catherine Mackinnon- Catharine MacKinnon's insightful examination of politics, sexuality, and the law from the perspective of women is presented in "Toward a Feminist Theory of the State." - MacKinnon creates a theory of gender centered on sexual subordination and applies it to the state by starting with the conflict between Marxism and feminism.
Susan Moller Okin- In Justice, Gender, and the Family, Susan Okin makes the claim that gender inequality in politics, the workforce, and actual families is a result of the ideal of the gender-structured family.
S. Firestone- "The Dialectic of Sex: The Case for Feminist Revolution" is a 1970 book by the radical feminist activist Shulamith Firestone. - According to Firestone, the "sexual class system" predates and permeates society more than any other type of oppression, and its elimination will necessitate a fundamental restructuring of society.
Bell Hook- "Feminism is for everybody: Passionate Politics", Her vision  appeals to everyone who is dedicated to justice, equality, and respect for one another. - Hooks takes her critical analysis to the most divisive and difficult topics that feminists today must deal with, including as violence, reproductive rights, race, class, and the workplace.
94

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of constitutionalism?

  1. ((a))

    Value based concept

  2. ((b))

    Culture based concept

  3. ((c))

    Party based concept

  4. ((d))

    Dynamic concept

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Party based concept

Constitutionalism is the belief that a country's legal system or constitution determines the power of its government. 

Key Points

  • Constitutionalism is the term used to describe a complex idea that has a rich historical background and holds government officials accountable to a higher law.
  • Constitutionalism more broadly refers to efforts to stop arbitrary governance.
  • The characteristic of constitutionalism are 
  • Collection of beliefs, dispositions, and modes of conduct
  • Value based concept
  • Dynamic concept
  • Culture based concept

Thus, Party based concept  is NOT a characteristic of constitutionalism.

95

Who among the following dependency theorists added the concept of 'Semi-Periphery'?

  1. ((a))

    Raul Prebisch

  2. ((b))

    Andre Gunder Frank

  3. ((c))

    Henrique Fernando Cardoso

  4. ((d))

    Immanuel Wallerstein

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Immanuel Wallerstein

A school of thought in modern social science called dependency theory aims to comprehend underdevelopment. 

Key Points

  • It first appeared in Latin America in the 1960s, gained traction in scholarly communities and at regional organizations and quickly moved to North America, Europe, and Africa.
  • Immanuel Wallerstein improved and built on the theory's Marxist component to create the world-systems theory.
  • The goal of the world-system theory was to demonstrate how some countries are negatively impacted by their place in the global system.
  • A wider network of relationships between the industrialized "core" countries, the underdeveloped "peripheral" countries, and a group of "semiperipheral" countries.
  • The "rich grow wealthier and the poor become poorer" axiom is strongly aligned with World Systems Theory.

Thus, Immanuel Wallerstein's dependency theorists added the concept of 'Semi-Periphery'.

96

Which of the following statements about India's foreign policy are true?

A. India has signed the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) with Bangladesh in 2015

B. India has agreed to build Hambantota port in Sri Lanka in 2017

C. India has signed a Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA) with Afghanistan in 2011

D. The regime of Abdulla Yameen (2013-2018) of Maldives was friendly with India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A and C only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A and C only

In recent decades, India has adopted a more comprehensive foreign policy that includes both the Act East and neighbourhood first policy to establish deeper economic and geopolitical ties. 

Key Points

  • The length of the land border between India and Bangladesh is around 4,100 kilometres.
  • The 1947 Radcliffe Award established this line as the border between India and East Pakistan, although disagreements rapidly developed over specific points.
  • The 1974 India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement came into effect on June 6, 2015, following the exchange of ratification documents.
  • India and Afghanistan enjoy a close bond based on shared history and culture.
  • The Strategic Partnership Agreement, which the two nations signed in October 2011.

Thus, India signed the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) with Bangladesh in 2015 and India signed a Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA) with Afghanistan in 2011 is true of India's foreign policy.

97

In India's Foreign Policy, 'Indira Doctrine' is related to

A. It aims to make India a global power

B. It is a policy to develop cooperation with neighbours

C. It equates India's security with that of South Asia

D. Any interference in the South Asian region will be considered a threat to India's security

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C and D only

Indira Doctrine is a set of political tenets created by Indira Gandhi.

Key Points

  • It primarily focuses on using India's military forces as deterrence.
  • An interventionist foreign-policy weapon to counter the influence of external nations within South Asia with either implicit or explicit anti-Indian objectives.
  • It equates India's security with that of South Asia.
  • Any interference in the South Asian region will be considered a threat to India's security.
  • The theory served as the foundation for India's strategy in South Asia throughout the 1970s and 1980s.

Thus, In India's Foreign Policy, the 'Indira Doctrine' is related to It equates India's security with that of South Asia and Any interference in the South Asian region will be considered a threat to India's security.

98

Which of the following statements are incorrect about the Finance Commission?

A. The provision of the Finance Commission has been mentioned in Article- 280 of the Constitution.

B. Finance Commission shall consist of a Chairman and two members.

C. Finance Commission submits its recommendations to the Parliament.

D. The Parliament is authorized to determine the qualifications for appointment as a member of the commission.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    C and D only

  4. ((d))

    A and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

B and C only

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that establishes the formula and process for dividing tax income between the federal government and the states as well as among them.

Key Points

  • Article 280 of the Indian Constitution requires the President to name a Finance Commission every five years or sooner.
  • The Parliament is authorized to determine the qualifications for appointment as a member of the commission.
  • The Chairman of the Commission is chosen from among those with experience in public affairs.
  • The other four members are chosen from among those who:
  • are qualified to be appointed as High Court Judges
  • have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of the Government
  • have extensive experience in financial matters and in administration
  • have special knowledge of economics.
  • It is the responsibility of the Commission to provide the President with recommendations about the distribution of Funds.

Thus, the Finance Commission shall consist of the Chairman and two members and the Finance Commission submits its recommendations to the Parliament are incorrect about the Finance Commission.

99

Which of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?

A. Introduction of the money bill

B. Ratification of the declaration of emergency

C. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers

D. To impeach the President

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    A and D only

  4. ((d))

    A, B and C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A and C only

Article 81 of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha. 

Key Points

  • The Lok Sabha has extensive budgetary authority.
  • Article 109 deals with the money bills, bills related to money only tabled in the Lok Sabha.
  • The money bill then moves on to the Rajya Sabha after being approved by it.
  • Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution envisions the council of ministers which is collectively responsible for Lok sabha.
  • The Lok Sabha has the power to remove the ministry from office by voting a vote of no-confidence against it.

Thus, the Introduction of the money bill and pass off a motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha.

100

Which of the following are the issues of debate in electoral politics?

A. Electronic voting machine

B. One nation, one election

C. Single-member election commission

D. Introduction of the two-children norm for eligibility to contest local elections

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and D only

  4. ((d))

    B, C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and D only

Albinski and Pettit have termed electoral politics as “a sacramental or commemorative aspect” and has become “a conspicuous symbol of nationhood and social purpose.

Key Points

  • EVMs are electronic voting devices that provide the voter with a button for each candidate they choose to support.
  • Electronic voting machines have recently generated discussion in India.
  • Many occurrences, such as technical problems where EVMs have ceased responding and numerous claims that the system is hackable, have caused the public to question the validity of EVMs.
  • According to the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act of 1994, a person who has more than two children is unable to run for election as a panch or member.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi spoke on the subjects of "One Nation, One Election".
  • It refers to concurrently conducting elections for the Lok Sabha, state legislatures, panchayats, and urban local authorities once every five years.

Thus, Electronic voting machines, One nation, one election and the Introduction of the two-children norm for eligibility to contest local elections are issues of debate in electoral politics.

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