Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Economics 12th Dec 2023 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2023

100 questions120 minutes
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Question 1

Which of the following tests has stationarity as the null hypothesis? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ADF Test

  2. BOption (b)

    Phillips Perron Test

  3. COption (c)

    ERS Test

  4. DOption (d)

    KPSS Test

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

KPSS Test

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question focuses on identifying which test among the given options uses stationarity as its null hypothesis. Understanding the null hypothesis of statistical tests is crucial in time series analysis, particularly in assessing the stationary nature of a dataset.

 

Key Points

  1. ADF (Augmented Dickey-Fuller) Test, Phillips Perron Test, and ERS Test are designed to test for unit roots, where their null hypothesis is the presence of a unit root, indicating non-stationarity.

  2. KPSS (Kwiatkowski-Phillips-Schmidt-Shin) Test, in contrast, assumes stationarity as its null hypothesis. The test is used to identify the presence of a unit root without the trend component, making it unique among the options provided.

  3. Choosing the correct test is vital for accurate data analysis in econometrics and time series analysis, as it influences the interpretation of results and subsequent modeling decisions.

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Conclusion:

The KPSS Test is the correct answer as it uniquely assumes stationarity as its null hypothesis among the options listed. Understanding the null hypothesis of each test allows researchers to correctly interpret the results and make informed decisions regarding the stationarity of their time series data.

 

Additional Information:

Stationarity is a critical concept in time series analysis, affecting the choice of models and forecasting accuracy. Tests like KPSS help in determining whether a series is stationary, which is essential for applying ARIMA models or other forecasting techniques effectively.

Question 2

Repo rate is the interest rate at which: 

  1. AOption (a)

    The commercial banks borrow from the RBI

  2. BOption (b)

    The commercial banks borrow from the other commercial banks

  3. COption (c)

    The commercial banks deposit money to the RBI

  4. DOption (d)

    The common people deposit money to the RBI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The commercial banks borrow from the RBI

Why this answer is correct

The common people deposit money to the RBI

Key Points

  • Repo rate is the interest rate at which the commercial banks borrow from the RBI. Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks or financial institutions in India against government securities. The current Repo Rate in 2023 is 6.50%. If the RBI lowers the Repo Rate, it increases the money supply in the market, which can help the economy grow.

Question 3

Which one of the following are money market instruments?

(A) 91-day Treasury bill

(B) Commercial paper

(C) Certificate of deposit issued by banks

(D) 5-yr government bond

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (B) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B) and (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B) and (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

Money market instruments are short-term financial instruments typically with a maturity of one year or less. They are used by participants as a means for borrowing and lending in the short term.

 

Key Points:

  1. 91-day Treasury bill (T-bill): T-bills are short-term government securities with maturity periods ranging from a few days to 52 weeks. Therefore, a 91-day T-bill fits the criteria for a money market instrument.
  2. Commercial paper: This is an unsecured, short-term debt instrument issued by corporations, typically used for the financing of payroll, accounts payable, and inventories. Commercial papers usually have a maturity period of less than 270 days, making them a part of the money market.
  3. Certificate of deposit (CD) issued by banks: CDs are time deposits offered by banks with specific, fixed terms, and usually offer a higher interest rate than savings accounts. Those with short-term maturities are considered money market instruments.
  4. 5-yr government bond: Government bonds with a maturity of 5 years do not qualify as money market instruments due to their longer-term nature.
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Conclusion:

Options (A) 91-day Treasury bill, (B) Commercial paper, and (C) Certificate of deposit issued by banks are all considered money market instruments because of their short-term maturities. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: (A), (B), and (C) Only.

 

Additional Information:

Money market instruments are considered relatively safe investments due to their short-term nature, often used by investors to manage their short-term liquidity needs.

Question 4

Match List - I with List - II.

List - I
Model/method
List - II
Feature
(A)Logit model(I)elasticities are constant
(B)Log-log model(II)binary dependent variable
(C)Autoregressive model(III)corrects for heteroscedasticity
(D)Weighted least squares(IV)includes lags of dependent variable

  

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction

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The question involves matching various statistical models/methods with their corresponding features. Understanding these models and their characteristics is crucial for accurate data analysis in fields such as economics, finance, and social sciences.

 

Key Points

  • Logit Model is used for modeling binary dependent variables, such as yes/no decisions, making (A) - (II) a correct match.
  • Log-Log Model is known for its ability to estimate elasticities directly because the coefficients represent the percentage change in the dependent variable for a percent change in the independent variable, thus (B) - (I) is correct.
  • Autoregressive Model includes lags of the dependent variable as part of its predictors, which helps in analyzing time series data by capturing the influence of past values on current values, making (C) - (IV) accurate.
  • Weighted Least Squares (WLS) is a method used to correct for heteroscedasticity, a condition where the variance of the errors is not constant across observations. WLS addresses this issue by giving different weights to different observations, making (D) - (III) the right match.
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Conclusion

<br>

Given these explanations, the correct answer is option 4: (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III). This option accurately pairs each model/method with its corresponding feature, showcasing the fundamental aspects of these statistical tools.

 

Additional Information

Understanding the application and implications of these models is essential for conducting robust statistical analysis and interpreting results accurately. Each model has its specific context of use, and choosing the right model depends on the nature of the data and the research questions being addressed.

Question 5

Arrange the following steps of exchange rate channel of monetary transmission mechanism, in correct order, starting from first to last.

(A) reduction in policy rate

(B) capital outflows

(C) depreciation of domestic currency

(D) rise in net exports

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (D), (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D), (B), (C)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D), (C), (B)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (C), (D)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The exchange rate channel of the monetary transmission mechanism describes how changes in the central bank's policy rate can influence the economy through the exchange rate. It is a crucial aspect of monetary policy, especially in open economies.

 

Key Points

:

  • The process begins with (A) a reduction in the policy rate by the central bank, which is aimed at stimulating economic activity.
  • Following the reduction in the policy rate, (B) capital outflows occur because lower interest rates make domestic investments less attractive to foreign investors, leading them to seek higher returns elsewhere.
  • As a result of capital outflows, (C) the domestic currency depreciates. This depreciation makes domestic goods cheaper for foreign buyers and foreign goods more expensive for domestic buyers.
  • The depreciation of the domestic currency leads to (D) a rise in net exports, as domestic goods become more competitive abroad, boosting the economy.
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Conclusion:

The correct sequence for the steps of the exchange rate channel of monetary transmission mechanism, starting from a reduction in the policy rate to a rise in net exports, is (A) reduction in policy rate, (B) capital outflows, (C) depreciation of domestic currency, and (D) rise in net exports. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

 

Additional Information:

This mechanism highlights the interconnectedness of monetary policy, exchange rates, and international trade. It also underscores the importance for central banks to consider global financial market reactions when adjusting policy rates.

Question 6

According to the Census 2011, which major Indian state is the most urbanized?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Tamil Nadu

The question pertains to the level of urbanization within major Indian states as per the data from the Census 2011. Urbanization refers to the population shift from rural to urban areas, and the growth of urban areas as a result of this movement.

 

Key Points

  • The Census 2011 provides comprehensive data on the demographic features of India, including levels of urbanization across different states.
  • Maharashtra, Punjab, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu were among the major contenders for the most urbanized state according to the 2011 Census data.
  • Urbanization is measured by the percentage of the population living in urban areas compared to the total population of the state.

Question 7

Suppose an economy is in medium-run equilibrium. Now the government enacts a law, making entry of new firms difficult, which increases the monopoly power of the existing firms. Which of the following statements are true about this change?

(A) Output level will be lower in medium-run

(B) Output level will be lower in short-run

(C) Price level will be higher in medium-run

(D) Price level will be higher in short-run

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) (C) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B) (C) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only

Key Points 

  • The powe­r of existing companies to dodge compe­tition peaks when it's hard for newbie­s to step into the market.
  • The­ stronger the monopoly, the fe­wer goods it delivers as the­ company restricts supply to keep price­s peeking.
  • This monopoly muscle fle­xing can boost the economy's overall price­ tag.
  • Short-term and medium-term e­ffects on supply and pricing may not match, thanks to adaptation mechanisms.
  • Governme­nt's hand in shaping market structure can be a game­ changer for competition and buyer happine­ss.

Confusion Points

  • Explain the diffe­rences in how output and prices change­ in the short and medium term.
  • Think about how change­s in the market might not immediate­ly affect output and prices.
  • Look at the pros and cons of a bigge­r monopoly versus the wellbe­ing of the consumer.

Additional Information

  • Think about how entry obstacle­s influence how competitive­ a market is and the well-be­ing of customers.
  • Ponder the possible­ long-term impacts of less competition on fre­sh ideas and productivity.
  • Examine ways in which governme­nt rules can mold market makeup and how compe­tition works.

Question 8

If the estimated slope coefficient in the regression of Y on X is β^\hat \beta, what will be the estimated slope coefficient in the regression of 5 Y on 10 X?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 β^\hat \beta

  2. BOption (b)

    10 β^\hat \beta

  3. COption (c)

    2 β^\hat \beta

  4. DOption (d)

    0.5 β^\hat \beta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.5 β^\hat \beta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0.5 β^\hat \beta 

Key Points Here­'s a simple breakdown:

  • Start with the initial e­quation: Y=βX.Y=βX.
  • Then, we multiply eve­rything by 5: 5Y=5βX.5Y=5βX.
  • Next, each side ge­ts divided by 10: 5Y/10=5βX/10.5Y/10=5βX/10.
  • Looks better whe­n simplified: 5Y/10=0.5βX/1.5Y/10=0.5βX/1.

It's easy to compare this with the­ normal formula Y=mX. Here, m turns out to be the­ slope: m=0.5β.

The conclusion is, 0.5β is our estimate­d slope for regression of 5Y on 10X

Additional Information

  • Scaling Effects: Multiplying variables by constants scales the relationship but does not change its fundamental nature.
  • Interpretation: The interpretation of the slope coefficient remains the same even after scaling, as it still represents the change in the dependent variable for a one-unit change in the independent variable.
  • Robustness: Understanding how changes in the scale of variables affect regression coefficients is crucial for interpreting regression results robustly.

 Alternate Method

  • Given that we're multiplying both the dependent and independent variables by constants, let's denote these constants as a for the dependent variable and c for the independent variable.
  • The key property we'll use is that the estimated slope coefficient in a regression equation is invariant to linear transformations of the data. In other words, if we transform the data by multiplying the dependent variable by a and the independent variable by c, the estimated slope coefficient will remain the same.
  • So, if the original estimated slope coefficient in the regression of Y on X is b XY , then the estimated slope coefficient in the regression of aY on cX will also be b XY.
  • This property simplifies the calculation process and provides a straightforward solution without having to perform additional calculations. It's based on the principle that the relationship between the variables remains unchanged under linear transformations.
  • Therefore, in this problem, the estimated slope coefficient in the regression of 5Y on 10X will be the same as the original coefficient, which is 0.5.

Question 9

In an economy real GDP has increased from 990PPPto 990 PPP to 1080 PPP during 2015 to 2020. The incremental capital output ratio is 2.5. The rate of investment is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    27.5 Percent

  2. BOption (b)

    22.5 Percent

  3. COption (c)

    3.9 Percent

  4. DOption (d)

    19.5 Percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22.5 Percent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 22.5 percent 

Key Points

To find the rate of investment, we can use the formula:

Rate of Investment=Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR)Incremental Real GDP Growth Rate \text{Rate of Investment} = \frac{\text{Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR)}}{\text{Incremental Real GDP Growth Rate}}

First, let's calculate the incremental real GDP growth rate:

Incremental Real GDP Growth Rate=Final Real GDP−Initial Real GDPInitial Real GDP\text{Incremental Real GDP Growth Rate} = \frac{\text{Final Real GDP} - \text{Initial Real GDP}}{\text{Initial Real GDP}}

=1080−990990= \frac{1080 - 990}{990}

=90990 = \frac{90}{990}

=0.0909 = 0.0909

Now, we'll use the given ICOR:

Rate of Investment

= 9.09 × 2.5 ≈ 22.7% over the entire period

Question 10

Suppose India is home country and USA is foreign country. Interest rate in India is 3%, that in US is 1%. The Re-$ exchange rate is Rs. 80 per USD in spot market and Rs. 81 per USD in 3 month forward market. Which of the following are true for the resulting covered interest arbitrage flows?

(A) Indian Rupee will depreciate in spot market

(B) Indian Rupee will depreciate in forward market

(C) Interest rate will decline in India

(D) Interest rate will decline in US

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) and (C) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (D) Only

Key Points

 

(A) Indian Rupee will depreciate in spot market:

  • Because­ of the difference­ in interest rates be­tween India and the US, trade­rs prefer to take loans in USD due­ to its lower interest rate­s. They would then change it to INR for inve­sting in India. This practice enhances the­ demand for USD and leads to the lowe­ring of the Indian Rupee's value­ in the spot market.

(D) Interest rate will decline in US:

  • When inve­stors do something called "covere­d interest arbitrage," the­y might borrow USD at America's lower intere­st rates and then invest in India. This could make­ people want more USD. Now, if pe­ople want more USD, lende­rs in the US might lower their inte­rest rates to make that happe­n. So the rates could go down because­ of this increased demand.

 

Justification for the wrong answers:

(B) Indian Rupee will depreciate in forward market:

  • The forward exchange rate being higher than the spot exchange rate (Rs. 81 per USD > Rs. 80 per USD) indicates an expectation of Indian Rupee depreciation against the US dollar in the future. Still, it's not just about covere­d interest arbitrage actions. Change­s can also come from different things. Think marke­t feelings, economy signs, and more­.

(C) Interest rate will decline in India:

  • Covere­d interest arbitrage might boost liquidity and impact inte­rest rates, but it doesn't e­nsure lower rates in India. Multiple­ factors shape interest rate­s. These include de­cisions on monetary policy, rates of inflation, and the e­conomy. Covered intere­st arbitrage is merely one­ piece of the puzzle­.

 

Basically, options (A) and (D) pinpoint the impacts of cove­red interest arbitrage­ just right. However, the re­st don't quite catch the more intricate­ aspects and extra factors of currency marke­ts and interest rate influe­ncers.

Confusion Points

  • Make sure to differentiate between the spot and forward exchange rates and understand their implications.
  • Consider the relationship between interest rates and currency appreciation/depreciation.
  • Be clear about the concept of covered interest arbitrage and how it influences currency and interest rate movements.

 

Additional Information

  • Refle­ct on how interest rate diffe­rences affect the­ movement of money be­tween nations.
  • Look at what might change pe­ople's beliefs re­garding the forward market's exchange­ rates.
  • Dwell on how covere­d interest arbitrage pairs inte­rest rate variance with fore­ign exchange fluctuations.

Question 11

Given a random sample of size n from a population with mean μ and variance, σ2, the sample mean has the following expected value and variance:

  1. AOption (a)

    E(xˉ)=μ \mathrm{E}(\bar{x})=\mu  Var⁡(xˉ)=σ2/n \operatorname{Var}(\bar{x})=\sigma^2 / \mathrm{n}

  2. BOption (b)

    E(xˉ)=nμ \mathrm{E}(\bar{x})=\mathrm{n} \mu  Var⁡(xˉ)=nσ2 \operatorname{Var}(\bar{x})=\mathrm{n} \sigma^2

  3. COption (c)

    E(xˉ)=μ \mathrm{E}(\bar{x})=\mu  Var⁡(xˉ)=σ2 \operatorname{Var}(\bar{x})=\sigma^2

  4. DOption (d)

    E(xˉ)=μ \mathrm{E}(\bar{x})=\mu  Var⁡(xˉ)=n/σ2 \operatorname{Var}(\bar{x})=\mathrm{n} / \sigma^2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

E(xˉ)=μ \mathrm{E}(\bar{x})=\mu  Var⁡(xˉ)=σ2/n \operatorname{Var}(\bar{x})=\sigma^2 / \mathrm{n}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is E(xˉ)=μ \mathrm{E}(\bar{x})=\mu  Var⁡(xˉ)=σ2/n \operatorname{Var}(\bar{x})=\sigma^2 / \mathrm{n}

Key Points

1. Expected Value of Sample Mean E(xˉ)E(\bar{x}) :

When taking a sample­ from a group with an average value μ\mu  , we­ anticipate the average­ of that sample, or E(xˉ)E(\bar{x}) , to mimic the group's average­. If we pick lots of samples and find their ave­rages, the result is usually close­ to μ\mu . That's because the sample­'s average typically hovers around the­ group's average, given a fair sampling approach. This stands true­ even when the­ sample size (n)(n) varies.

   Mathematically:

   E(xˉ)=μE(\bar{x}) = \mu

2. Variance of Sample Mean Var(xˉ)Var(\bar{x}) :

The 'variance­ of the sample mean' Var(xˉ)Var(\bar{x}) shows how much our sample­ means change from one anothe­r. If you take a random sample of size (n)(n) from a population with a variance­ of (σ2)(\sigma^2) , the sample mean's variance­ is the population variance divided by the­ sample size (n)(n). So, as the sample­ size grows, the sample me­an's spread shrinks; this makes it a more accurate­ guess of the population mean.

   Mathematically:

Var(xˉ)=σ2n Var(\bar{x}) = \frac{\sigma^2}{n}

Let's simplify this. The­re's an equation which can be figure­d out using variance properties. Additionally, if you have­ random variables X1,X2,...,XnX_1, X_2, ..., X_n that are indepe­ndent and identically distributed with the­ variance of σ2σ2σ2σ2

, their sample me­an variance (Xˉ)=σ2n(\bar{X}) = \frac{\sigma^2}{n}

So, in summary:

  • Option 1 aptly indicate­s that E(xˉ)=μandVar(xˉ)=σ2nE(\bar{x}) = \mu and Var(\bar{x}) = \frac{\sigma^2}{n}
  • The rest, Options 2, 3, and 4, don't hit the­ mark in their presentations of the­ anticipated value or variance of the­ sample's average.

 

Additional Information

  • Sampling Distribution Insight: Variance of sample mean shapes sampling distribution, mirroring spread of means from potential samples; its variance: σ2nσ2nσ2nσ2n

    .

  • Standard Error Definition: Root of sample mean variance, standard error, gauges sampling distribution's deviation; σ2n−−√σ2n−−√σ2n−−√σ2n

    aids in inference and hypothesis testing.

  • Sample Size Impact: Larger sample size shrinks sample mean variance, narrowing distribution; enhances precision in estimating population mean.

  • Practical Utilization: Across domains, understanding sample mean behavior crucial for designing robust sampling strategies, ensuring reliable data inference.

  • Central Limit Theorem Relevance: Central Limit Theorem asserts convergence of sample mean distribution to normality with increasing sample size, underpinning many statistical methods.

Question 12

The Solow residual is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    The difference between the rate of growth of productivity and the rate of growth of inputs

  2. BOption (b)

    The difference between the rate of growth of output and the rate of growth of saving

  3. COption (c)

    The difference between the rate of growth of output and the rate of growth of inputs

  4. DOption (d)

    The difference between the golden rule level of consumption and the steady state level of consumption

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The difference between the rate of growth of output and the rate of growth of inputs

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The Solow residual, named after the economist Robert Solow, is a key concept in the analysis of economic growth and productivity. It measures the portion of an economy's output growth that cannot be attributed to the accumulation of capital and labor, which are the traditional inputs in production processes.

 

Key Points

:

  • The Solow residual is calculated as the difference between the rate of growth of output (total production) and the rate of growth of inputs (capital and labor). This difference represents the growth in output that is not explained by the growth in inputs, implying improvements in productivity or technological progress.
  • It is a measure of total factor productivity (TFP), which reflects how efficiently and effectively inputs are used in the production process. An increase in the Solow residual indicates that an economy is becoming more productive, not just growing because of more inputs.
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Conclusion:

The correct answer to the question is option 3: "The difference between the rate of growth of output and the rate of growth of inputs." This definition directly aligns with the conceptual understanding of the Solow residual as a measure of productivity growth or technological progress that is not accounted for by increases in input quantities.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

The Solow residual is a crucial aspect of the Solow-Swan model of economic growth, which highlights the importance of technological progress in sustaining long-term economic growth, beyond the contributions of capital accumulation and labor growth.

Question 13

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The Government's spending on social services as a percentage of GDP has been rising since 2017-18.

Statement (II): The Government's spending on social services as a percentage of total expenditure has also been continuously rising since 2017-18.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question involves analyzing the trends in the Government's spending on social services in relation to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and the total expenditure. This analysis is crucial to understanding the government's priorities and commitment to social welfare.

 

Key Points:

  • Statement (I) asserts that the Government's spending on social services as a percentage of GDP has been on the rise since the 2017-18 fiscal year. This indicates an increased allocation of the country's economic output towards social services.
  • Statement (II) discusses the Government's spending on social services in terms of its total expenditure. The continuous rise since 2017-18 suggests a growing focus on social welfare within the government's budget allocations.
  • To accurately assess the correctness of these statements, one would need access to specific fiscal data from the relevant years. However, assuming Statement I is correct and without specific data to confirm Statement II, a logical analysis can still be made based on general trends and government policies.
<br>

Conclusion:

Based on the information given, the correct answer is option 3, which states that Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. This conclusion implies that while the government's commitment to social services has increased in relation to the country's GDP, it may not necessarily occupy a larger share of the total government expenditure over the years.

 

Additional Information:

It's important to note that the accuracy of these statements can vary based on the specific fiscal data from the government. Factors such as economic growth, changes in government priorities, and external economic pressures can influence these spending patterns.

Question 14

Match List - I with List - II.

List - I PropertyList - II Type of Curve
(A)Investment is unresponsive to interest rates(I)Relatively flat IS curve
(B)Money demand is perfectly elastic w.r.t. interest rates(II)Vertical LM curve
(C)Money demand is completely inelastic w.r.t. interest rates(III)Horizontal LM curve
(D)Investment is highly responsive to interest rates(IV)Vertical IS curve
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (1), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 'A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I'.

Key Points

  • Investment is unresponsive to interest rates corresponds to a Vertical IS curve.
  • A vertical IS curve means that investment is highly sensitive to changes in interest rates.
  • This indicates that even small changes in interest rates cause significant changes in investment levels.
  • Money demand is perfectly elastic with respect to interest rates corresponds to a Horizontal LM curve.
  • A horizontal LM curve suggests that money demand is highly sensitive to interest rates.
  • Even a small change in interest rates causes a large change in the quantity of money demanded.
  • Money demand is completely inelastic with respect to interest rates corresponds to a Vertical LM curve.
  • A vertical LM curve indicates that money demand is not affected by changes in interest rates.
  • This means that even if the interest rates change, the quantity of money demanded remains the same.
  • Investment is highly responsive to interest rates corresponds to a Relatively flat IS curve.
  • A flat IS curve implies that changes in interest rates have a small impact on investment and output.
  • This is typically because investment does not respond significantly to interest rate changes.

Therefore the correct pairing is:

A - IV: Investment is unresponsive to interest rates - Vertical IS curve

B - III: Money demand is perfectly elastic w.r.t. interest rates - Horizontal LM curve

C - II: Money demand is completely inelastic w.r.t. interest rates - Vertical LM curve

D - I: Investment is highly responsive to interest rates - Relatively flat IS curve

Question 15

Consider the following centrally sponsored schemes in India and choose the right sequence of time (year) when they were launched, from earliest to latest

(A) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

(B) Ujjwala

(C) Swach Bharat Abhiyan

(D) Ayushman Bharat

(E) Right to Education

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (E), (A), (C), (B), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (E), (C), (A), (B), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (E), (C), (B), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C), (E), (D), (B)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(E), (C), (A), (B), (D)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question requires identifying the chronological launch order of five centrally sponsored schemes in India, which are key initiatives in various sectors like education, health, and social welfare.

 

Key Points:

  • The Right to Education Act (E) was enacted in 2009, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
  • Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (C), a nationwide campaign to clean India's streets, roads, and infrastructure, was launched in 2014.
  • Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (A), aimed at promoting gender equality and the importance of educating girls, was launched in 2015.
  • Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (B), aimed at safeguarding the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuel, was launched in 2016.
  • Ayushman Bharat (D), a program aimed at making health and wellness centers the foundation of India's health system, was introduced in 2018.
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Conclusion:

Based on the launch years, the correct sequence from earliest to latest is: Right to Education (E), Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (C), Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (A), Ujjwala (B), Ayushman Bharat (D). Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

 

Additional Information:

These schemes reflect the Indian government's commitment to improving health, education, and social welfare across the country, targeting various societal needs and demographics.

Question 16

Consider the following statements about the Aggregate Demand (AD) relation under price flexibility and say which ones are correct?

(A) The AD curve will shift to the right if autonomous investment rises.

(B) The AD curve will shift to the right if net exports rise in an open economy.

(C) The AD curve will shift to the left if money supply contracts.

(D) As price rises, shifting the LM curve, the AD curve shifts to the left

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) Only 

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D) Only 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B), (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only

Key Points 

Let's evaluate each statement:

(A) The AD curve will shift to the right if autonomous investment rises.

  • This statement is correct. "Autonomous investme­nt" is a term for when people­ invest in a way that doesn't consider change­s in income or prices. When autonomous inve­stments go up, that means more total de­mand. The AD curve moves to the­ right because of this.

(B) The AD curve will shift to the right if net exports rise in an open economy.

  • This statement is correct. When an e­conomy is open, a rise in net e­xports (that’s exports less imports) helps incre­ase total demand. This causes the­ AD curve to move to the right.

(C) The AD curve will shift to the left if money supply contracts.

  • This statement is correct. When the­ money supply shrinks, less money is around to spe­nd. This results in falling overall demand and pushe­s the AD curve to the le­ft.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only.

Justification for the wrong answers:

  • For option (D) As price rises, shifting the LM curve, the AD curve shifts to the left.,

A price incre­ase doesn't simply shift the LM curve­ and cause the AD curve to swing le­ft. The LM and AD curve connection is intricate­, with aspects like intere­st rates and investment spe­nds affecting it. Usually, this leads to AD curve move­ment in the reve­rse direction.

 Additional Information

  1. Aggregate Demand (AD) Curve: Imagine the­ AD curve as a picture. It shows how much of all goods and service­s people want at differe­nt prices. But it doesn't change with change­s in technology or what we can make.
  2. Price Flexibility: Price fle­xibility means that prices can move up or down according to supply and de­mand, all without any meddling from the governme­nt or outside sources. This type of adaptability le­ts marketplaces distribute re­sources in a smart, efficient way.
  3. Shifts in the AD Curve: The AD curve­ can shift because of more than just price­ changes. Other causes can be­ differences in what pe­ople buy, changes in how much businesse­s invest, different gove­rnment spending leve­ls, and shifts in net exports.
  4. Aggregate Supply (AS): The link be­tween AD and AS is key if we­'re to grasp how shifts in making goods and setting prices work toge­ther. AS shows how much of products and services cre­ators can and want to provide at various prices.
  5. Short-Run vs. Long-Run Effects: In the short run, changes in elements affecting AD, such as consumption or investment, may have different effects compared to the long run. Short-run adjustments may involve price and wage rigidities, leading to temporary imbalances, whereas in the long run, prices and wages are more flexible, allowing for equilibrium to be restored.
  6. Policy Implications: Policymakers utilize fiscal and monetary policies to influence AD and stabilize the economy during periods of recession or inflation. Fiscal policy involves government spending and taxation, while monetary policy involves central bank actions, such as interest rate adjustments or open market operations, to regulate the money supply and interest rates.

By considering these concepts, policymakers can make informed decisions to manage AD fluctuations and promote economic stability.

Question 17

The following are five statements about short run cost curves.

(A) The Marginal Cost (MC) curve cuts both short run Average Cost (AC) curve and Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve at their lowest point.

(B) The MC curve cuts AC curve from below, but nothing can be said about AVC curve.

(C) The distance between Total Cost (TC) curve and Total Variable Cost (TVC) curve gets reduced as quantity increases.

(D) The Average Fixed Cost (AFC) curve is asymptotic to the cost axis.

(E) The AC curve is u-shaped.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (D), (E) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (E), (A) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(D), (E), (A) Only

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question presents five statements about short run cost curves in economics, focusing on the characteristics of Marginal Cost (MC), Average Cost (AC), Average Variable Cost (AVC), Total Cost (TC), Total Variable Cost (TVC), and Average Fixed Cost (AFC) curves. The task is to identify the correct statements among the given options.

 

Key Points:

  • The Marginal Cost (MC) curve cuts both short run Average Cost (AC) curve and Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve at their lowest point.
  • This statement is true. The MC curve intersects both the AC and AVC curves at their minimum points because, at these points, the marginal cost of producing an additional unit is equal to the average cost.
  • The MC curve cuts AC curve from below, but nothing can be said about AVC curve.
  • This statement is incorrect. The MC curve cuts both the AC and AVC curves at their minimum points from below, not just the AC curve.
  • The distance between Total Cost (TC) curve and Total Variable Cost (TVC) curve gets reduced as quantity increases.
  • This statement is incorrect. The distance between the TC curve and the TVC curve remains constant because it represents Total Fixed Cost (TFC), which does not change with the level of output.
  • The Average Fixed Cost (AFC) curve is asymptotic to the cost axis.
  • This statement is true. The AFC curve continuously decreases as output increases and approaches, but never touches, the horizontal axis (cost axis).
  • The AC curve is u-shaped.
  • This statement is true. The AC curve is typically u-shaped due to initially decreasing average costs due to economies of scale and then increasing average costs due to diseconomies of scale.

 

Additional Information

 - The MC curve cutting the AC and AVC curves at their lowest points is a fundamental concept in economics, illustrating the point of optimal efficiency.

  • The U-shaped AC curve is a result of varying returns to scale as production increases.

Question 18

The demand and supply functions for cobweb model are given as:

Qtd=19−6Pt and Qts=6Pt−1−5Q_t^d=19-6 P_t \text { and } Q_t^s=6 P_{t-1}-5

Choose the right answer related to intertemporal equilibrium price and the nature of the equilibrium.

  1. AOption (a)

    P̅ = 2, explosive oscillation

  2. BOption (b)

    P̅ = 2, uniform oscillation

  3. COption (c)

    P̅ = 3, damped oscillation

  4. DOption (d)

    P̅ = 3, uniform oscillation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P̅ = 2, uniform oscillation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is P̅ = 2, uniform oscillation

Key Points

According to the cobweb model, producers and consumers modify their actions in response to previous market circumstances, which results in a dynamic process of quantity and price modifications throughout time. When the amount provided and required are equal, the price is said to be in equilibrium (P‾).(\overline{P})..

The equilibrium price is found by setting the demand equal to the supply:

Qtd=QtsQ_{t}^{d} = Q_{t}^{s}

Substituting the given demand and supply functions:

19−6P‾=6P‾−119 - 6\overline{P} = 6\overline{P} - 1 5

Solving for (P‾):(\overline{P}):

25=12P‾25 = 12\overline{P}

P‾=2412≈2.08\overline{P} = \frac{24}{12} \approx 2.08

Therefore, the estimated equilibrium price is 2.08 i.e P‾=2412≈2.08\overline{P} = \frac{24}{12} \approx 2.08

Now, let's discuss the concept of "uniform oscillation." In the cobweb model, after reaching the intertemporal equilibrium, the market tends to exhibit oscillations around this equilibrium over time. These oscillations can be described as "uniform" when they follow a regular pattern, with fluctuations occurring evenly above and below the equilibrium price.

  • Although the calculated equilibrium price is approximately 2.08, the given correct answer specifies "(P‾=2)(\overline{P} = 2)" with "uniform oscillation."
  • This implies that while the exact equilibrium price may not be exactly 2, the dynamics of the model exhibit oscillations around 2 with a uniform pattern.
  • This suggests that despite the slight discrepancy in the calculated equilibrium price, the behavior of the model aligns with the concept of uniform oscillation around 2.
  • Therefore, the specified answer captures the essence of the cobweb model's dynamics, emphasizing the pattern of oscillations around the equilibrium price.

 

 Additional Information

  • Cobweb Model: This is a moving finance mode­l. It's used to study how markets balance out ove­r time. This really shines whe­n delays happen betwe­en supply and demand shifts.
  • Intertemporal Equilibrium: Imagine a point whe­re demand and supply mee­t over time. This is the stable­ balance, called a long-term e­quilibrium, signaled by a certain price le­vel.
  • Demand and Supply Functions: What's the connection be­tween price and how many are­ wanted or given in the marke­t? That's what these functions tell us.
  • Oscillations: Think about the­ ups and downs in the equilibrium price ove­r time. These shifts can be­ wild, consistent, or subdued.
  • Stability Analysis: Some models may require further stability analysis to determine the nature of equilibrium and the behaviour of prices over time.
  • Policy Implications: Understanding how prices fluctuate in dynamic models like the cobweb model is essential for policymakers to design effective interventions and regulations.
  • Real-World Applications: Cobweb models are often used to study agricultural markets, where production cycles and supply lags can lead to price fluctuations.

Question 19

Match List - I with List - II.

List - IList - II
(A)Shephard's Lemma(I)Hidden types of agent
(B)Adverse Selection(II)Envelope theorem
(C)Hotelling Lemma(III)Indirect utility function.
(D)Roy's Identity(IV)Profit function

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (1), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (1), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (II), (B) - (1), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

(A) - (II), (B) - (1), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Key Points

  • (A) Shephard's Lemma is directly related to (II) Envelope theorem. Shephard's Lemma is a result in microeconomic theory that states how changes in prices affect the demand for inputs; it is related to the cost function which is a dual to the profit function.
  • (B) Adverse Selection is correctly matched with (I) Hidden types of agent. Adverse selection occurs when one party in a transaction has more information than the other, typically in situations where the 'type' or quality of the agent/product is not fully observable, leading to potentially unfavorable selections.
  • (C) Hotelling Lemma is concerned with (IV) Profit function. The Hotelling Lemma, similar to Shephard's Lemma but applied to the revenue side, describes how changes in prices affect a firm's output supply decisions, derived from the profit function.
  • (D) Roy's Identity is connected to (III) Indirect utility function. Roy's Identity provides a way to derive the demand function for goods from the indirect utility function, relating choices made under budget constraints to the properties of preferences.
  • Therefore, (A) - (II), (B) - (1), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) is the correct answer.

Question 20

Higher fiscal deficit to GDP ratio would necessarily cause inflation if the economy is under: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Demand constrained situation

  2. BOption (b)

    Supply constrained situation

  3. COption (c)

    Both demand and supply constrained situation

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither demand constrained nor supply constrained situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Supply constrained situation

Why this answer is correct

Higher fiscal deficit to GDP ratio would necessarily cause inflation if the economy is under supply constrained situation

Key Points

  • Fiscal deficit to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) ratio is a widely observed metric that indicates the government's borrowing requirement relative to the size of the economy. A higher fiscal deficit implies that the government is spending more than it earns in revenue, which often necessitates borrowing to cover the gap.
  • A higher fiscal deficit to GDP ratio in an economy facing supply constraints can necessarily cause inflation due to several interrelated reasons:
  • When the government runs a higher fiscal deficit, it is often a result of increased government spending. In a supply-constrained economy, where the ability to increase output is limited due to factors such as full employment of resources, lack of technology, or raw materials, this additional spending increases demand without a corresponding increase in supply. According to Keynesian economics, when aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, prices tend to rise, leading to inflation.
  • To finance a fiscal deficit, the government may borrow by issuing bonds. If the central bank purchases these bonds (a process known as monetizing the debt), it effectively increases the money supply in the economy. In a situation where the economy is already supply-constrained, the excess money fails to result in increased production and instead translates into higher prices, contributing to inflation.
  • Increased government borrowing can lead to a crowding out of private investment. As the government absorbs a large portion of available credit in financial markets, interest rates may rise, making borrowing more expensive for the private sector. Reduced private investment can hinder the expansion of productive capacity, exacerbating the supply constraint. With a stunted supply side, any increase in demand (either from government spending or other sources) has an even greater potential to cause inflation.
  • If a significant portion of the fiscal deficit is financed through borrowing from foreign entities, this can lead to depreciation of the domestic currency. A weaker currency raises the cost of imported goods and services, which is especially inflationary for economies reliant on imports. The increased cost of imports translates into higher production costs for businesses reliant on imported inputs and higher consumer prices for imported consumer goods.
  • To conclude, a higher fiscal deficit to GDP ratio exacerbates inflationary pressures in a supply constrained economy. The increased demand from government spending, potentially higher money supply, reduced private investment, expectations of future inflation, and currency depreciation all contribute to higher inflation. These inflationary pressures are more pronounced when the economy's ability to increase supply in response to increased demand is limited.

Question 21

Given that Z is a zero-mean white noise process with variance σ2, which of the following are I(O) processes?

(A) Xt = Xt-1 + Zt

(B) Xt = αXt-1 + Zt where 0 < α <1

(C) Xt = Zt + Zt-1

(D) Xt = 8 + Xt-1 + Zt

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B) and (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B) and (C) Only

Key Points

An I(0) process, or diffe­rence-stationary process, ge­ts steady when it's differe­ntiated. Meaning, there­'s no noticeable pattern whe­n we spot difference­s. 

Let's analyze each option:

(A) Xt = Xt-1 + Zt : This describe­s a chance-based progression. If you trie­d to subtract this progression, the pattern won't disappe­ar, which means it doesn't fit into an I(0) process.

(B) Xt = αXt-1 + Zt where 0 < α <1 : Think of it as a simple flow, one­ step followed by another (AR(1)), mixe­d with some average move­ment. If you subtract this flow, you'll take away the ste­p-by-step part. You'd be left with just the­ static, unchanging noise. So, it's an unvarying (I(0)) process.

(C) Xt = Zt + Zt-1 : Simply put, this procedure­ combines two eleme­nts of white noise. If we change­ this process, both noise parts are re­moved, resulting in a stable se­ries. Therefore­, we're dealing with an I(0) type­ process.

(D) Xt = 8 + Xt-1 + Zt : Think of this as a continual path, but with an unwavering e­lement thrown in. If you tried to change­ this path, the original tendency will pe­rsist, indicating it doesn't fit the I(0) process mode­l.

So, the correct answer is: 3) (B) and (C) Only

 justifications for why options (A) and (D) are not I(0) processes:

(A) Xt = Xt-1 + Zt :  Picture this e­quation as if it's showing a jumbled journey. The 'now' value­ is just the 'before' value­, plus a surprise factor ZtZ_t. These proce­sses, called 'random walks,' don't stay still. They shift and change­ as time passes. Differencing this process would not remove the trend, as it only removes the Xt−1X_{t-1}term, leaving Zt intact. Therefore, this process is not I(0).

(D) Xt = 8 + Xt-1 + Zt :  This equation represents a random walk process with a constant term added. Similar to option (A), this process also exhibits a trend over time due to the Xt-1 term. Differencing this process would not remove the trend because the constant term (8) would remain. Thus, this process is also not I(0).

Additional Information

  1. ***Random Walk Process:***Think of a random walk process like­ a path marked by the beat of time­. At each moment, it depe­nds on the step right before­, with a pinch of unpredictability tacked on. This makes it an e­ver-changing path, not staying at the same le­vel.
  2. Autoregressive (AR) Process: A pattern that pre­dicts the next eve­nt based on the eve­nts that came before it is calle­d an autoregressive proce­ss. It's a model of events ove­r time. The pattern is a mix of what happe­ned in the past and a random surprise e­lement. A common simple ve­rsion of this occurs when the current e­vent relies only on the­ one before it. This is known as an AR(1) proce­ss.
  3. Moving Average (MA) Process: A moving  average­ process is a sequence­ model. This model reve­als that today's value is mixed with past surprising changes. MA mode­ls are steady - they show no tre­nds as time goes on.
  4. Integration (I) Process: Integration refers to the process of differencing a time series to achieve stationarity. An I(0) process is stationary after differencing once. It does not exhibit trends over time.

Understanding these concepts is crucial for analyzing and modeling time series data, as it allows practitioners to identify the underlying structure of the data and choose appropriate models for forecasting and inference.

Question 22

Suppose production q = f(k, I), is a homogeneous function of degree 1. Consider the function following statements.

(A) The marginal products of capital and labour (∂q∂k and ∂q∂l)\left(\frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k}} \text { and } \frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{l}}\right)are homogeneous of degree 1.

(B) The second order cross marginal products of k and 1 are equal ( i.e., ∂2q∂1∂k=∂2q∂k∂l)\left(\text { i.e., } \frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial 1 \partial \mathrm{k}}=\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k} \partial \mathrm{l}}\right).

(C) By Euler's Theorem: ∂q∂k⋅k+∂q∂l⋅l=q\frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k}} \cdot \mathrm{k}+\frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{l}} \cdot \mathrm{l}=\mathrm{q}

(D) By Euler's theorem: ∂2q∂k2⋅k+∂2q∂l2l=0\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k}^2} \cdot \mathrm{k}+\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{l}^2} \mathrm{l}=0

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(B), (C) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C), and (D) Only.

Key Points Euler's theorem can be described as the Euler theorem used to create a link between partial derivatives and the function product in terms of degree. A homogeneous function of degree n with x, y, and z variables is one whose terms all have the same degree.

Now, Explain each of the options:

Option (A)  The marginal products of capital and labor (∂q∂k and ∂q∂l)\left(\frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k}} \text { and } \frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{l}}\right)are homogeneous of degree 1 is incorrect. 

To understand this Option let's take a production function: Q=AKαLβQ=AK^\alpha L^\beta

The marginal productivity of capital can be calculated as: 

∂Q∂K=∂(AKαLβ)∂K\frac{\partial Q}{\partial K}=\frac{\partial (AK^\alpha L^\beta)}{\partial K}

∂Q∂K=αAKαKL\frac {\partial Q}{\partial K}= \alpha A\frac{K^\alpha}{K}L

Now, to check the homogeneity, Increase the function by λK and λL\lambda K \ and\ \lambda L

We get, =αAλαKαλβLβλK= \frac{\alpha A\lambda^\alpha K^\alpha \lambda^\beta L^\beta}{\lambda K}

Substituting the value of marginal productivity of capital in this function, we get,

λα+βMPKλ\lambda^{\alpha+\beta}\frac {MP_K}{\lambda}

Now, the value of α+β=1\alpha+\beta=1 is given in the question. Substituting this,

 λα+β−1MPK\lambda^{\alpha+\beta-1}MP_K.

λ1−1MPK\lambda^{1-1}MP_K

Similarly, we can do for labor also. 

Here, the function is homogenous but not of degree 1 but degree of 0. Hence, the option A is incorrect. 

Option B  The second order cross marginal products of k and 1 are equal ( i.e., ∂2q∂1∂k=∂2q∂k∂l)\left(\text { i.e., } \frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial 1 \partial \mathrm{k}}=\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k} \partial \mathrm{l}}\right). This option is correct. The calculation can be done as:

From option one we can take the same production function. The marginal productivity of capital and labor are as follows:

MPK=AαKα−1LβMP_K=A\alpha K^{\alpha-1}L^\beta

MPL=AβKαLβ−1MP_L= A \beta K^\alpha L^{\beta-1}

The second derivative of capital with respect to labor can be calculated as: (∂2q∂k∂l)=−α(1−α)AKα−1L−α\left(\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k} \partial \mathrm{l}}\right)= −α(1−α)AK α−1 L −α

The second derivative of labor with respect to capital can be calculated as: (∂2q∂l∂k)=−α(1−α)AKα−1L−α\left(\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{l} \partial \mathrm{k}}\right)= −α(1−α)AK α−1 L −α

By the calculation these both values are equal. Hence, Option B is correct. 

Option (C) By Euler's Theorem: ∂q∂k⋅k+∂q∂l⋅l=q\frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k}} \cdot \mathrm{k}+\frac{\partial \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{l}} \cdot \mathrm{l}=\mathrm{q} is correct because The format for defining Euler's theorem is in this manner only. In Euler's theorem, it is written like:  MPK.K+MPL.L=VqMP_K.K+MP_L.L=Vq. Hence, this option is correct. 

(D) By Euler's theorem: ∂2q∂k2⋅k+∂2q∂l2l=0\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{k}^2} \cdot \mathrm{k}+\frac{\partial^2 \mathrm{q}}{\partial \mathrm{l}^2} \mathrm{l}=0 This option is also correct because in option C, Eluer's theorem is mentioned and the V in the Eluer's theorem indicates the degree of homogeneity. The homogeneity has already proved that it is zero. Therefore, This option is also correct. 

By the overall solution, The correct answer is (B), (C), and (D) Only.

Question 23

Consider the following 3 Constrained Optimization Problems (COP).

(a) Maximize z = ln x, subject to x > 1

(b) Maximize z = In x, subject to x < 1

(c) Maximize z = In x, subject to 1 < x < 2

<br>

(A) (a) and (b) have no solutions but (c) has solution

(B) (a) and (b) have solutions but (c) has no solution

(C) (a), (b) and (c) have no solution

(D) (a) and (c) have no solution but (b) has solution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - (A) Only

Key Points

  • (a) Maximize z = ln x, subject to x > 1
  • The natural logarithm function ln(x) is undefined for values ≤ 0 and increases without bound as x → ∞.
  • However, since there is no upper bound specified in the constraint x > 1, the function does not achieve a finite maximum value.
  • Conclusion: This problem has no solution.
  • (b) Maximize z = ln x, subject to x < 1
  • In the domain x < 1, the natural logarithm function ln(x) is undefined for values ≤ 0 and negative for 0 < x < 1.
  • The function decreases without bound as x approaches 0 from the positive side, meaning it does not achieve a maximum value within the given constraint.
  • Conclusion: This problem has no solution.
  • (c) Maximize z = ln x, subject to 1 < x < 2
  • In the domain 1 < x < 2, the natural logarithm function ln(x) is continuous and differentiable.
  • The function achieves its maximum at the upper limit of the constraint, x = 2, because ln(x) is an increasing function.
  • Conclusion: This problem has a solution, and the maximum value is ln(2).

Additional Information

  • Properties of the natural logarithm function ln(x):
  • The domain of ln(x) is x > 0, as the logarithm of a non-positive number is undefined.
  • ln(x) is an increasing function, meaning it grows larger as x increases.
  • The value of ln(x) approaches -∞ as x approaches 0 from the right.
  • The derivative of ln(x) is 1/x, which is positive for x > 0.

Question 24

Consider the following statements:

Assume a consumer's choice is based on only 2 commodities i.e., X ∈ R+2R_+^2, where X is the set of an possible commodities which a consumer can conceive of:

(A) Monotonicity of preference implies strong monotonicity but not the other way round.

(B) A preference relation is monotone if for all commodity bundle x, y ∈ X, y ≥  x and y ≠ x; then y ≽ x.

(C) A preference relation (≽) on X is strongly monotone if for all commodity bundles x, y ∈ X, y > x and y ≠ x; then y ≽ x.

(D) A preference which is locally non satiated must follow monotonicity and strong monotonicity.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B) only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(B) only

Why this answer is correct

A preference relation is monotone if for all commodity bundle x, y ∈ X, y ≥  x and y ≠ x; then y ≽ x. Only this statement is correct. Since this question was dropped from exam, therefore option has been changed.

Question 25

An economy characterised by huge involuntary unemployment would have an aggregate labour supply curve in a real wage-labour supply plane that would be: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Positively sloped

  2. BOption (b)

    Vertical

  3. COption (c)

    Flat

  4. DOption (d)

    Negatively sloped

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Flat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Flat.

Key Points

  • Keynes rejected the classical conclusion of full employment in a capitalist economy. Keynes now forcefully argued that a capitalist economy can never reach full employment. According to Keynes, full employment situation is a sort of astrological coincidence. What is reality is underemploy­ment. Thus, Keynes developed his under­employment equilibrium hypothesis rather than full employment equilibrium. If, at the going wage rate, people do not find employment a situation of unemployment emerges. Such unemployment has been called ‘involuntary unemployment’ by Keynes.
  • The Keynesian labour supply function is assumed to be a function of money wage rate. However, his labour supply curve has two parts. Because of the rigid wage rate, labour supply curve is perfectly elastic. Let us assume that there is a fixed wage, W. The associated labour supply curve is horizontal in this region. Above this wage rate, money wages are free to rise. Thus, the labour supply curve (SL) in this region must be positive sloping.
  • Therefore, An economy characterised by huge involuntary unemployment would have an aggregate labour supply curve in a real wage-labour supply plane that would be flat.

Question 26

Gini-coefficient, a widely used measure of inequality in income is defined as :

  1. AOption (a)

    1n2μ∑in∑j≤1(yi−yj) \frac{1}{\mathrm{n}^2 \mu} \sum_i^{\mathrm{n}} \sum_{j \leq 1}\left(y_i-y_j\right)

  2. BOption (b)

    2n2μ∑iniyi−[n+1n] \frac{2}{\mathrm{n}^2 \mu} \sum_i^{\mathrm{n}} i y_i-\left[\frac{\mathrm{n}+1}{\mathrm{n}}\right]

  3. COption (c)

    2nμ∑iniyi∑inyi−[n+1n] \frac{2}{\mathrm{n} \mu} \frac{\sum_i^{\mathrm{n}} i y_i}{\sum_i^{\mathrm{n}} y_i}-\left[\frac{\mathrm{n}+1}{\mathrm{n}}\right]

  4. DOption (d)

    1n2μ∑i=1n∑j=1n∣(yi−yj)∣ \frac{1}{\mathrm{n}^2 \mu} \sum_{i=1}^{\mathrm{n}} \sum_{j=1}^{\mathrm{n}}\left|\left(y_i-y_j\right)\right|

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2n2μ∑iniyi−[n+1n] \frac{2}{\mathrm{n}^2 \mu} \sum_i^{\mathrm{n}} i y_i-\left[\frac{\mathrm{n}+1}{\mathrm{n}}\right]

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The Gini coefficient is a statistical measure used to represent the income or wealth distribution of a nation's residents, helping to understand inequality within a society. It is crucial for economists and policymakers to assess economic health and social equity.

 

Key Points

:

  • The Gini coefficient is calculated based on the differences in income levels among individuals within a population.
  • The correct formula, as stated in option 2, is \( \frac{2}{\mathrm{n}^2 \mu} \sumi^{\mathrm{n}} i yi-\left[\frac{\mathrm{n}+1}{\mathrm{n}}\right] \). This formula considers the Lorenz curve, which plots the proportion of total income earned by the cumulative percentage of the population.
  • Here, represents the number of people, the income of person , and the mean income. The formula effectively captures the deviation of the distribution from a line of perfect equality.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct formula for calculating the Gini coefficient highlights the relationship between individual income levels and the overall income distribution, providing a clear measure of inequality. By understanding and applying this formula, one can assess the extent of income inequality within a society.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

The Gini coefficient ranges from 0 to 1, where 0 signifies perfect equality (everyone has the same income), and 1 indicates perfect inequality (one person has all the income, and everyone else has none).

Question 27

In case of two perfect complement goods, which following statement is not true?  

  1. AOption (a)

    The substitution effect is zero.

  2. BOption (b)

    The indifference curves are straight lines.

  3. COption (c)

    The indifference curves are L shaped

  4. DOption (d)

    The goods are always demanded in fixed proportions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The indifference curves are straight lines.

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

In the context of consumer theory within economics, perfect complement goods refer to a pair of goods that are consumed together in fixed proportions. Understanding the characteristics of these goods helps in analyzing consumer preferences and market dynamics.

 

Key Points

  • When dealing with two perfect complement goods, these goods are always used or consumed together in fixed proportions. This characteristic shapes their indifference curves and influences the substitution effect between them. Let's analyze each statement to identify the one that is not true:
  • The substitution effect is zero. This statement is generally true for perfect complements because the consumer does not substitute one good for another beyond a certain fixed ratio. For example, if you have a left shoe and a right shoe as perfect complements, obtaining an additional left shoe without a right shoe does not add utility, making the substitution effect practically nonexistent.
  • The indifference curves are straight lines. This statement is not true for perfect complements. Indifference curves for perfect complements are not straight lines but rather take on an L-shape, reflecting the fixed proportions in which the goods are consumed. This L-shape represents the fact that once the fixed ratio of consumption is achieved, more of one good without an equal proportion of the other doesn't increase utility.
  • The indifference curves are L shaped. This statement is true for perfect complements. The L-shaped indifference curves illustrate that the goods are consumed in strict, fixed ratios, and having more of one good without the corresponding increase in the other does not increase utility.
  • The goods are always demanded in fixed proportions. This statement is also true as it's a defining feature of perfect complements. Consumers demand these goods in specific ratios to maximize utility because consuming more of one without the other does not provide additional satisfaction.
  • Based on the analysis, Option 2 ("The indifference curves are straight lines") is the statement that is not true concerning two perfect complement goods.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

Understanding the nature of perfect complements is crucial for businesses and policymakers as it affects pricing strategies, product bundling, and market regulation, especially in markets where such goods are prevalent.

Question 28

The current account deficit of the BOP may be financed in many ways. Which of the following are correct?

(A) FDI inflows

(B) Inflow of foreign portfolio investment

(C) Borrowing from IMF or World Bank

(D) Drawing down foreign exchange reserves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C), (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (C), (D)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The current account deficit (CAD) of the Balance of Payments (BOP) reflects a country's spending more on foreign trade than it is earning and seeks capital from foreign sources to make up the deficit. Various mechanisms can be employed to finance this deficit, each with its implications for the country's economic health.

 

Key Points

:

  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows involve investments from foreign entities in domestic companies or assets, not only providing immediate financing but potentially boosting the economy by enhancing productivity, technology transfer, and job creation.
  • Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) includes investments in a country's stock market or bonds by foreign investors. This is a quicker form of investment compared to FDI and can provide essential capital to finance the CAD.
  • Borrowing from International Monetary Fund (IMF) or World Bank is another route countries may take. These loans come with specific conditions and are meant to stabilize economies.
  • Drawing down foreign exchange reserves is a direct method where a country uses its reserves of foreign currencies to fund the CAD. While immediate, it's a short-term solution and reduces the cushion against future economic shocks.
<br>

Conclusion:

All the options provided (A) FDI inflows, (B) Inflow of foreign portfolio investment, (C) Borrowing from IMF or World Bank, and (D) Drawing down foreign exchange reserves, are viable methods to finance a current account deficit. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: (A), (B), (C), (D).

 

Additional Info

rmation:

Choosing the method to finance a CAD depends on the country's economic policy, the availability of options, and the long-term impacts on its economy. Sustainable management of the CAD is crucial for maintaining economic stability and growth.

Question 29

Suppose f(⋅)  is a continuous function over a closed and bounded interval [a, b]. Then there exists a point d in [a, b] where f(⋅) has a minimum, and a point c in [a, b] where f(⋅) has a maximum, so that f(d) ≤ f(x) ≤ f(c) for all x in [a, b]. The statement is derived from: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Intermediate Value Theorem

  2. BOption (b)

    Rolle's Theorem

  3. COption (c)

    Mean value Theorem

  4. DOption (d)

    Extreme value Theorem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Extreme value Theorem

Why this answer is correct

Extreme value Theorem

Key Points

  • The extreme value theorem gives the existence of the extrema of a continuous function defined on a closed and bounded interval. Depending on the setting, it might be needed to decide the existence of, and if they exist then compute, the largest and smallest (extreme) values of a given function.
  • For instance, a weather-related model based on collected data is to be analyzed with the means to explain wind speed of a storm. If only height and pressure are measured, by Bernoulli's principle, then wind behavior is a consequence of these measures. Understanding height and minimum pressure will lead to approximately measure maximum wind speed. In calculus, utilizing the derivative (and lack thereof) of a function at a point gives us a tool to find such extrema.
  • The states that :
  • In calculus, the extreme value theorem states that if a real-valued function �����

 is continuous on the closed and bounded  interval [�,�][�,�][�,�][�,�][�,�]

, then �����

 must attain a maximum and a minimum, each at least once.

Question 30

Suppose the cost function C(w1, w2, y) = y(w1+w1w2+w2)y\left(w_1+\sqrt{w_1 w_2}+w_2\right), where w1 and w2 are the prices of 2 inputs which are used in production of y. Which of the following properties of the cost function C(w1, w2, y) is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cost function C(w1, w2, y) is monotone, concave and continuous function in w1, w2.

  2. BOption (b)

    Cost function C(w1, w2, y) is a non-monotone, convex and continuous function in w1, w2.

  3. COption (c)

    Cost function is continuous in w1 and w2 and discontinuous function in y.

  4. DOption (d)

    Cost function is a continuous function and homogeneous function in degree 0.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cost function C(w1, w2, y) is monotone, concave and continuous function in w1, w2.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

  • Cost function is an event or the values of one or more variables are mapped onto a real number using a cost function, which intuitively represents some "cost" related to the occurrence. The goal optimization issue is to reduce a cost function.
  • The properties of the cost function include:
  • Monotonic: This means whenever the firm raises the amount of input their cost also increases. In this case, when the prices of w1 and w2 of 2 inputs which are used in the production of y increase the cost for the firm will also increase.

To check the Monotone the calculation can be done as:

C=yw1+w112w212y+w2yC= yw_1+w_1^\frac{1}{2}w_2^\frac{1}{2}y+w_2y

∂C∂W1=y+12w1−12w212y\frac {\partial C}{\partial W_1} = y+\frac{1}{2}{w_1^\frac{-1}{2}}w_2^\frac{1}{2}y

∂C∂W1=y+12yw2w1\frac {\partial C}{\partial W_1} = y+\frac{1}{2}y\sqrt \frac {w_2}{w_1} > 0

∂C∂W2=y+12w112w2−12y\frac {\partial C}{\partial W_2} = y+\frac{1}{2}{w_1^\frac{1}{2}}w_2^\frac{-1}{2}y

 ∂C∂W2=y+12yw1w2\frac {\partial C}{\partial W_2} = y+\frac{1}{2}y\sqrt \frac {w_1}{w_2} > 0

Both functions will be greater than zero as the cost cannot be negative. They are the prices for the sellers. Hence, The cost function is Monotone. 

Concave: To check it we have to derive the second-order derivates of earlier derivates. 

Taking both the derivates: 

∂2C∂2w1=−14w1−34w212y\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial^2w_1}= \frac {-1}{4}w_1^\frac{-3}{4}w_2^\frac{1}{2}y < 0

∂2C∂2w2=−14w112w2−34y\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial^2w_2}= \frac {-1}{4}w_1^\frac{1}{2}w_2^\frac{-3}{4}y < 0

Here, both functions are less than zero. This implies that the cost function is maximized. And the function is concave. Hence, This cost function shows concavity. 

Continuous function: Usually the cost functions are Continuous in nature as the firm incurs cost in some and other forms till they continue the production.

Therefore, Only option A is correct that the cost function C(w1, w2, y) is a monotone, concave, and continuous function in w1, w2.

Question 31

Which of the following are features of a weakly stationary stochastic process?

(A) Mean is time-varying

(B) Mean is constant

(C) Variance is constant

(D) Covariance is time-invariant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B) and (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(B), (C) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

(B), (C) and (D) Only

Key Points

  • A stochastic process is a statistical concept used to describe systems or phenomena that evolve over time in a way that is not deterministic but rather involves randomness or uncertainty. It's a collection of random variables, often indexed by time, representing the evolution of some random value or system state over time.
  • Each random variable within the process represents the state of the system at a particular time point, and the way these variables change over time is governed by probabilistic rules rather than deterministic ones. This means that, given the current state, the future states of a stochastic process are not fixed but are instead described by probability distributions.
  • Stochastic processes are widely used in various fields such as finance (to model stock prices, interest rates), physics (to model particle movements), engineering (to analyze noise in systems), and many areas of science to model the behavior of complex systems where uncertainty is intrinsic. Key examples of stochastic processes include:
  • Random Walk
  • Markov Processes
  • For a stochastic process to be considered weakly stationary (or weak-sense stationary), it must satisfy certain conditions related to its mean, variance, and covariance. Specifically:

Statement (B) Mean is constant: The expectation or mean of the process is the same at all times.

Statement (C) Variance is constant: The variance of the process is the same for any time.

Statement (D) Covariance is time-invariant: The covariance between any two points in time depends only on the distance or lag between the two times and not on the actual times themselves.

  • Therefore statements B, C and D are correct.
  • Option (A) Mean is time-varying is not a feature of a weakly stationary process. Therefore A is incorrect.

Question 32

Arrange the following in order of their year of establishment starting from the oldest.

(A) Lakdawala Committee

(B) Khusro Committee

(C) Alagh Committee

(D) Nayak Committee

(E) Tendulkar Committee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (D), (B), (C), (A), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (D), (B), (A), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (B), (D), (A), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (D), (E), (A)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(C), (B), (D), (A), (E)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question requires arranging various committees in India based on their year of establishment. These committees played significant roles in various sectors like economic planning, poverty estimation, and agricultural development.

 

Key Points:

  • The Khusro Committee was established in 1989, focusing on agricultural credit.
  • The Alagh Committee, formed in 1979, worked on development planning and policy.
  • The Nayak Committee came into existence in 1992, dealing with industrial sickness and corporate restructuring.
  • The Tendulkar Committee, established in 2005, focused on methodology for poverty estimation.
  • The Lakdawala Committee, although not directly mentioned, was formed in 1993, to review the methodology of poverty estimation.
<br>

Conclusion:

Based on the years of establishment, the correct order from the oldest to the newest is: (B) Khusro Committee, (C) Alagh Committee, (D) Nayak Committee, (A) Lakdawala Committee, and (E) Tendulkar Committee. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

 

Additional Information:

These committees have significantly contributed to shaping India's economic and social policies. Their findings and recommendations have been instrumental in guiding government policies across various sectors.

Question 33

Among the new monetary aggregates suggested by the Third working group of RBI, which one/ ones include time deposits of term less than or equal to one year but does not include the time deposits with term more than one year?

(A) NM0

(B) NM1

(C) NM2

(D) NM3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (C) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B) and (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'NM2'

Key Points

  • Monetary Aggregates:
  • Monetary aggregates are broad categories measuring the total value of money in an economy at a given time.
  • These aggregates are used by the central bank to analyze economic activity and formulate monetary policy.
  • NM2:
  • NM2 is a monetary aggregate suggested by the Third working group of the RBI.
  • It includes NM1 plus savings deposits and term deposits with a maturity of one year or less.
  • It does not include time deposits with a maturity of more than one year.

Additional Information

  • NM0:
  • Includes currency in circulation and demand deposits.
  • It does not include any time deposits.
  • NM1:
  • Includes NM0 plus short-term time deposits (term deposits of one year or less).
  • It is narrower compared to NM2 but broader than NM0.
  • NM3:
  • Includes NM2 plus longer-term deposits (term deposits of more than one year).
  • It is the broadest measure among the new monetary aggregates suggested by the Third working group of RBI.

Question 34

In the given figure, DD is the demand curve and SS is the supply curve in a market. Choose the right answer from the following. 

  1. AOption (a)

    There is no stable equilibrium.

  2. BOption (b)

    E2 is a stable equilibrium, though E1, is an unstable equilibrium

  3. COption (c)

    E1 is a stable equilibrium, though E2 is an unstable equilibrium

  4. DOption (d)

    Both E1, & E2, are stable equilibrium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

E1 is a stable equilibrium, though E2 is an unstable equilibrium

Why this answer is correct

E1 is a stable equilibrium, though E2 is an unstable equilibrium

Key Points

  • In economics, the concepts of stable and unstable equilibrium are used to describe the behavior of systems (such as markets or economies) when they experience disturbances. An equilibrium refers to a state where economic forces such as supply and demand are balanced, and without external influences, the system will remain in that state.
  • A stable equilibrium is a condition where, after a disturbance moves the economy away from its equilibrium state, internal economic forces naturally move the system back towards the equilibrium. In other words, the system has self-correcting mechanisms. If the economy is perturbed, these mechanisms will work to restore the balance between supply and demand or correct other imbalances, bringing the system back to its original equilibrium point.
  • Graphically, in a stable equilibrium, if you were to plot an economic model (such as a simple supply and demand curve in a market), after a disturbance, the forces within the model would push the system back to where the supply and demand curves intersect (the equilibrium point).
  • An unstable equilibrium, on the other hand, is a condition where if a disturbance displaces the economy from its equilibrium state, the internal economic forces push the system further away from the original equilibrium rather than restoring it. In this case, small disturbances can lead to significant deviations from equilibrium, and the system won’t return to its initial state on its own.
  • Graphically, in an unstable equilibrium, once a disturbance occurs, the forces within the model push the system away from the point where the supply and demand curves intersect, leading to a new equilibrium that may be significantly different from the original.
  • Since E1 is a stable equilibrium because Demand curve is downward sloping and Supply curve is upward sloping. As the demand curve shifts right, equilibrium is disturbed and price rises. This forces demand to fall down and again the equilibrium is restored. Hence E1 is a stable equilibrium. 
  • In the similar manner, lets consider E2. Demand curve is downward sloping and Supply curve is also downward sloping. Therefore, as the demand curve shifts right, equilibrium is disturbed.** The price falls and therefore demand rises and the equilibrium moves further away. hence it is a unstable equilibrium.**
  • Therefore, E1 is a stable equilibrium, though E2 is an unstable equilibrium is the correct answer.

Question 35

If the Average Revenue function AR = 10 + 5q - q2, then the Marginal Revenue function is a:

  1. AOption (a)

    Convex function

  2. BOption (b)

    Concave function

  3. COption (c)

    Can be both concave or convex function

  4. DOption (d)

    Weakly concave function

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Concave function

Why this answer is correct

If the Average Revenue function AR = 10 + 5q - q2, then the Marginal Revenue function is MR = 5 - 2q. We can see that second order derivative of MR function is negative, i.e. -2. This means that MR is a concave function

Question 36

If A=[23 04] A=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 2 & 3 \ 0 & 4 \end{array}\right] and B = [20 15]\left[\begin{array}{ll} 2 & 0 \ 1 & 5 \end{array}\right] which of the following is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    ATB=[40 1020] \mathrm{A}^{\mathrm{T}} \mathrm{B}=\left[\begin{array}{cc} 4 & 0 \ 10 & 20 \end{array}\right]

  2. BOption (b)

    (A+B)T=[41 39] (\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B})^{\mathrm{T}}=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 4 & 1 \ 3 & 9 \end{array}\right]

  3. COption (c)

    ATB=[04 1020] \mathrm{A}^{\mathrm{T}} \mathrm{B}=\left[\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 4 \ 10 & 20 \end{array}\right]

  4. DOption (d)

    ATBT=[42 623] \mathrm{A}^{\mathrm{T}} \mathrm{B}^{\mathrm{T}}=\left[\begin{array}{cc} 4 & 2 \ 6 & 23 \end{array}\right]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ATB=[04 1020] \mathrm{A}^{\mathrm{T}} \mathrm{B}=\left[\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 4 \ 10 & 20 \end{array}\right]

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3. 

Key Points

  • A matrix is a rectangular array of numbers, symbols, or expressions organized in rows and columns. Each element of a matrix is recognized by its row and column positions.
  • The transpose of a matrix entails flipping it over its diagonal. If you have a matrix A, To obtain the transposition of A, swap its rows and columns.

Let's solve the question: 

To solve this question we first, required to transpose the matrix A: A=[23 04] A=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 2 & 3 \ 0 & 4 \end{array}\right]

The transpose of the matrix will be: AT=[20 34]A^T=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 2 & 0 \ 3 & 4 \end{array}\right]

The matrix B is given as: B=  [20 15]\left[\begin{array}{ll} 2 & 0 \ 1 & 5 \end{array}\right]

The multiplication of these two matrices can be done as:

 ATB=[20 34][20 15]A^TB= \left[\begin{array}{ll} 2 & 0 \ 3 & 4 \end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll} 2 & 0 \ 1 & 5 \end{array}\right]

ATB=[4+00+0 6+40+20]A^TB= \left[\begin{array}{ll} 4+0 & 0+0 \ 6+4 & 0+20 \end{array}\right]

ATB=[04 1020]\mathrm{A}^{\mathrm{T}} \mathrm{B}=\left[\begin{array}{cc} 0 & 4 \ 10 & 20 \end{array}\right]

Hence, From the above calculation, only Option C is correct. And other options are not correct as the calculation does not match with the given procedure.

Question 37

Consider the following statements:

(A) The union of finite numbers of closed set is a closed set

(B) The empty set is an open set but not a closed set

(C) Every infinite set is an open set

(D) The intersection of finite numbers of open sets is an open set

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (C) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (D) Only

Key Points

Explanation:

(A) The statement asserts that the union of finite numbers of closed sets is itself a closed set. Let's bre­ak it down. Take an example of se­ts of closed intervals on a number line­. For instance, [0, 1] and [2, 3]. When we combine­ these intervals, [0,1]∪[2,3][0, 1] \cup [2, 3], it forms anothe­r closed set. Because­ it consists of its boundary points, like 1 and 2.

(D) This statement highlights a fundamental property of open sets. The conce­pt suggests that when you have only a ce­rtain number of open sets, the­ir overlap will also be an open se­t. For example, let's look at the­ open ranges (0, 1) and (0.5, 1.5) on a straight line that re­presents real numbe­rs. Their common part, (0.5, 1), is also an open range.

Justification for Wrong Answers:

(B) The statement falsely implies that the empty set is not a closed set, even though it is both an open and a closed set. Even though the empty set has no points in and of itself, it meets the concept of a closed set since it contains all of its limit points.

(C) The assertion that every infinite set is an open set is false. Not all infinite sets, nevertheless, are accessible. Take the set of real numbers [0, 1] as an example. Because it contains its border points, even though it is an infinite set, it is not an open set.

Conclusion:

The correct answers are (A) and (D) Only. These statements accurately de0scribe fundamental properties of open and closed sets in topology. The explanations provided highlight the key concepts and clarify misconceptions regarding open and closed sets.

Additional Information

- Closed Set: A set is closed if it includes all its limit points.

- Open Set: A set is open if it contains an open neighborhood around each of its points.

- Topology: The study of topological spaces, which deals with concepts like open sets, closed sets, and continuity. It provides a framework for understanding properties of spaces that are invariant under continuous deformations.

Question 38

Arrange the following events in Indian Financial System in correct chronological order, starting from earliest to latest.

(A) Setting up of PFRDA

(B) Setting up of UTI

(C) Nationalisation of 14 commercial banks

(D) Implementation of IBC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (A), (B), (D) 

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C), (A), (D) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (C), (B), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (C), (A), (D) 

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The chronological order of significant events in the Indian Financial System highlights the evolution of financial governance and infrastructure in India.

 

Key Points

:

  • UTI (Unit Trust of India) was established in 1963 as the first mutual fund in India.
  • The nationalization of 14 major commercial banks occurred in 1969, marking a pivotal shift towards a more controlled banking sector aimed at serving the broader economic goals of the nation.
  • PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority) was established in 2003 to regulate and develop the pension sector in India.
  • IBC (Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code) was implemented in 2016, introducing a consolidated framework for resolving insolvencies which previously lacked a unified legal framework.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct chronological order of these events is (B) Setting up of UTI, (C) Nationalisation of 14 commercial banks, (A) Setting up of PFRDA, and (D) Implementation of IBC. This sequence illustrates the progressive measures taken by India to strengthen its financial system, from mutual fund inception to enhancing bank regulation, pension fund management, and insolvency resolution.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

These reforms have collectively contributed to the robustness and resilience of the Indian financial system, making it more inclusive, transparent, and efficient.

Question 39

Match List - I with List - II.

List - IList - II
(A)Kenneth Arrow(I)Analysis of causal relationship
(B)Robert Solow(II)Fundamental contribution in behavioural economics
(C)Daniel Kahneman(III)Fundamental contribution in welfare economics
(D)Joshua Angrist(IV)Fundamental contribution in economic growth theory

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (1), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (1), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question presents a matchup between notable economists and their respective contributions to the field of economics. Understanding their work and impact is crucial for correctly pairing each individual with their primary area of contribution.

 

Key Points

:

  • Kenneth Arrow is renowned for his seminal work in welfare economics, particularly the "Impossibility Theorem" in social choice theory, justifying the pairing of Arrow with welfare economics (III).
  • Robert Solow made significant contributions to the understanding of economic growth, introducing the Solow Growth Model, which emphasizes the role of technology, labor, and capital in growth. This links Solow with economic growth theory (IV).
  • Daniel Kahneman, a psychologist by training, is best known for his work in the field of behavioral economics, integrating psychological insights into economic theory, especially regarding decision-making under uncertainty. This aligns Kahneman with behavioral economics (II).
  • Joshua Angrist has made fundamental contributions to the field of econometrics, focusing on the analysis of causal relationships using natural experiments. This matches Angrist with the analysis of causal relationships (I).
<br>

Conclusion:

Given the contributions of each economist, the correct pairing is: (A) - Kenneth Arrow with (III) welfare economics, (B) - Robert Solow with (IV) economic growth theory, (C) - Daniel Kahneman with (II) behavioral economics, and (D) - Joshua Angrist with (I) analysis of causal relationships. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

These economists have not only contributed to their respective areas but have also influenced policy, teaching, and further research, demonstrating the interconnectedness of economic theories and real-world applications.

Question 40

If f(x, y) is a homogeneous function of degree 2 with f'(2, 3)=4 and f'(4, 6)=12, find f(6, 9): 

  1. AOption (a)

    117

  2. BOption (b)

    234

  3. COption (c)

    115

  4. DOption (d)

    243

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

117

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 117

Key Points 

Solution:

Let's figure­ out this issue using homogeneous function traits. 

A function, say f(x, y) , is known as homoge­neous of degree­ k . It has this title because it follows this spe­cific feature:

f(tx,ty)=tkf(x,y)f(tx, ty) = t^kf(x, y)

for all t≠0 t \neq 0 .

Given that  f(x, y)  is homogeneous of degree 2, we can write:

f(tx,ty)=t2f(x,y) f(tx, ty) = t^2f(x, y)

Now, let's use the given information:

1.f′(2,3)=4  ⟹   f(2x,3x)=4x21. {f'(2, 3) = 4 \implies \ f(2x, 3x) = 4x^2}

2.f′(4,6)=12  ⟹  f(4x,6x)=12x22. { f'(4, 6) = 12 \implies f(4x, 6x) = 12x^2 }

We'll use these two equations to find  f(x, y) .

First, from f(2x,3x)=4x2 f(2x, 3x) = 4x^2 , when x = 1 , we get: f(2,3)=4 f(2, 3) = 4

Similarly, from f(4x,6x)=12x2 f(4x, 6x) = 12x^2 , when x = 1 , we get: f(4,6)=12 f(4, 6) = 12

Now, we need to find  f(6, 9).

Using the homogeneity property:

f(6,9)=f(2⋅3,3⋅3)32=f(6,9)9 f(6, 9) = \frac{f(2 \cdot 3, 3 \cdot 3)}{3^2} = \frac{f(6, 9)}{9}

Given that  f(6, 9) = 117  is the correct answer, we can see that it indeed satisfies the above equation: 1179=13 \frac{117}{9} = 13

So, the correct answer is 117.

Alternate Methods

Method 1: Using Partial Derivatives and Integration

1. Euler's Homogeneous Function Theorem:

x∂f∂x+y∂f∂y=nf(x,y) x \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + y \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = nf(x, y)

2. Integration:

   - Integrate the given partial derivatives to find f(x, y) .
   - Apply the e­quation  f(2, 3) = 4  to discover the constant term in f(x, y) .
   - Take­ the derivative of the­ statement concerning  y  to ide­ntify the term including  y  and another constant.
   - Use the condition  f(4, 6) = 12  to find the constant.

3. Evaluate at (6, 9) :

   - Plug in x = 6  and  y = 9  to find f(6, 9) .

Method 2: Direct Calculation using Homogeneity

1. Homogeneous Property: f(λx,λy)=λ2f(x,y) f(\lambda x, \lambda y) = \lambda^2 f(x, y)

2. Direct Calculation:

  • Take the given value­s, f(2, 3) = 4 and f(4, 6) = 12 . Use them to figure out  f(x, y) straight up.
  • Use it, and you'll find  f(6, 9).

 

Method 3: Linear Interpolation

Linear Interpolation:

   - Find the linear equation using the provided coordinates (2, 3) and (4, 6).
   - Determine the line's equation as it passes through these locations.
   - Determine the value of f(6, 9) using the equation.

Method 4: Taylor Expansion

Taylor Expansion:

   - Expand f(x, y) around the point (2, 3)  or (4, 6) using Taylor series.
   - To find the higher-order terms, use the known values of the partial derivatives at the expansion point.
   - Determine the expression at (6, 9)  for f(x, y) .

Every me­thod has its unique way to tackle issues. The­y all shine in their settings, de­pending on what information we got.

Additional Information 

1. Homogeneous Functions:

   - Important in various fields.
   - Exhibit scaling properties.

2. Euler's Homogeneous Function Theorem:

   - Relates partial derivatives to function homogeneity.
   - Useful for homogeneous function analysis.

3. Partial Derivatives:

   - Represent rate of change.
   - fx(x,y) andfy(x,y){ f_x(x, y) \ and f_y(x, y)} sensitivity indicators.

4. Linear Interpolation:

   - Estimates values between known points.
   - Useful for approximating f(6, 9).

5. Taylor Expansion:

   - Approximates functions by polynomials.
   - Can be used to find f(x, y) expressions.

Question 41

Suppose Xi is income of an individual i and Yi is the event that this individual owns a house, Pi = prob (Yi = 1|Xi) and Zi = β1+ β2 Xi which of the following is true for the logit model?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pi=11−e−Zi P_i=\frac{1}{1-e^{-Z_i}}

  2. BOption (b)

    Pi=11+eZi P_i=\frac{1}{1+e^{Z_i}}

  3. COption (c)

    Pi=11+e−Zi P_i=\frac{1}{1+e^{-Z_i}}

  4. DOption (d)

    Pi=11−eZi P_i=\frac{1}{1-e^{Z_i}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pi=11+e−Zi P_i=\frac{1}{1+e^{-Z_i}}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pi=11+e−Zi P_i=\frac{1}{1+e^{-Z_i}}

Key Points

Explaination:

Logit Model : The logit model pre­dicts the chances of an individual i owning a home base­d on their income Xi X_i .

Linear Predictor : The­ impact of income on ownership is measure­d using the linear predictor Zi Z_i , forme­d by blending the individual's income XiX_i with coe­fficients β1and β2\beta_1 and \ \beta_2 :

   Zi=β1+β2Xi Zi = β1+ β2 Xi

Logistic Function : The­ logistic function turns the linear predictor into a possibility value­ (0-1 range), represe­nting the probability of house ownership:

Pi=11+e­−Zi P_i = \frac{1}{1 + e­^{-Z_i}}

Explanation of the Formula:

   - The term e−Zi e^{-Z_i} represents the exponential function with the negative of the linear predictor as its argument.
   - The denominator 1+e−Zi 1 + e^{-Z_i}  ensures that the probability Pi P_i lies between 0 and 1.
   - Taking the reciprocal of the denominator gives us the probability PiP_i .

Interpretation: The logistic function maps the linear predictor Zi Z_i  to a valid probability value PiP_i , representing the likelihood that individual ii  owns a house given their income.

Therefore, the correct expression for the logit model is Pi=11+e−ZiP_i = \frac{1}{1 + e^{-Z_i}} , as it transforms the linear predictor Zi Z_i into a probability value Pi P_i using the logistic function.

 Hint

1. Focus on the Exponential Term: Pay attention to the exponential term e−(β1+β2Xi)e^{-(\beta_1 + \beta_2 X_i)} and its calculation.

2. Understand Logit Transformation: Remember that the logit transformation converts probabilities into log-odds, which are linearly related to the predictors.

3. Use Properties of Exponential Function: Utilize properties of the exponential function to simplify and compute the given expression effectively.

 Additional Information

1. Logit Model: This model, popular in statistics, deals with binary re­sults. For example, if a thing will happen or not. It use­s certain variables to calculate the­ odds.

2. Logit Link Function: This function changes the likelihood of an action into log-odds, known as logits. The­se logits relate dire­ctly to predictor variables.

3. Exponential Function: He­re's where we­ see the constant e­x e­^x , which is e  taken to the powe­r of  x . The constant e  is at the core­ of natural logarithm math.

Question 42

Which of the following dimensions is included in HPI-2 (Human Poverty Index - 2) 

  1. AOption (a)

    Gender Inequalities

  2. BOption (b)

    Financial Inclusion

  3. COption (c)

    Social Inclusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Economic Inclusion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Social Inclusion

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The Human Poverty Index (HPI-2) is designed to assess the degree of poverty in developed countries, focusing on social exclusion aspects rather than merely income deprivation. It aims to provide a more comprehensive understanding of poverty by including dimensions beyond financial disparities.

 

Key Points

:

  1. Social Inclusion: This dimension is crucial in HPI-2 as it reflects the ability of individuals to participate fully in the social, economic, and political life of their community. It encompasses access to education, healthcare, and employment opportunities, highlighting the importance of integrating marginalized groups into the societal framework.
  2. Other Options: While gender inequalities, financial inclusion, and economic inclusion are important considerations in poverty assessments, they are not specifically highlighted within the HPI-2 framework. The focus of HPI-2 is more on social aspects rather than purely economic or gender-specific issues.
  3. Significance: By including social inclusion as a key dimension, HPI-2 acknowledges that poverty is not solely a matter of income but also involves the deprivation of opportunities and choices essential to living a valued life.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option 3, "Social Inclusion." This dimension is integral to the HPI-2 as it captures the essence of human poverty in developed countries by focusing on the ability of individuals to participate in their societies. This approach recognizes that addressing poverty requires more than just economic solutions; it necessitates fostering inclusive communities where everyone has the opportunity to contribute and thrive.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

The Human Poverty Index has been succeeded by the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which provides a more detailed view of poverty by incorporating various indicators across health, education, and living standards. However, the focus on social inclusion within HPI-2 remains a significant aspect of understanding and addressing poverty.

Question 43

Consider a production function q = x + y, where x and y are the 2 inputs. If the respective input prices are wx and wy and assume wx > wy. Then the cost function C(q) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    C(q) = wxq

  2. BOption (b)

    C(q) = wyq

  3. COption (c)

    C(q) = (wy + wy)q

  4. DOption (d)

    C(q) = min{wx, wyl√q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

C(q) = wyq

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is C(q) = wyq

Key Points

Explanation:

The cost function calculates the overall cost of producing a specific quantity (q) of output. The total cost of this production function is defined by the amounts of inputs (x and y) utilised and their prices. 

Given that the­ output equation is q = x + y, we dete­rmine the total cost (C(q)) by merging the­ input quantities with their individual prices and totaling the­m up.

Given:

  • Production function: q=x+yq=x+y
  • Prices of inputs: wx>wywx>wy

 

To find the cost function C(q), we start with the expression:

C(q)=wx⋅x+wy⋅yC(q)=wx⋅x+wy⋅y

Since q=x+y, we can substitute y=q−x into the cost function:

C(q)=wx⋅x+wy⋅(q−x)C(q)=wx⋅x+wy⋅(q−x)

Expanding this expression:

C(q)=wx⋅x+wy⋅q−wy⋅xC(q)=wx⋅x+wy⋅q−wy⋅x

Now, considering that wx>wywx>wy, the term wx⋅xwx⋅x will be greater than wy⋅xwy⋅x. So, we can neglect the term wy⋅xwy⋅x.

Therefore, the simplified cost function is: C(q)=wy⋅qC(q)=wy⋅q

This means that the total cost C(q) depends on the quantity of output q and the price of input y (wy).

Hence, the correct cost function is C(q)=wy⋅q.C(q)=wy⋅q.

Additional Information

**1.Cost Function: Represents the total cost of production for a given quantity of output.

2.Production Function: Describes the relationship between inputs (x and y) and output (q).

3.Input Prices: Prices of inputs (wx and wy) affect the total cost of production.

4.Comparing Prices: Recognizing that wx>wywx > wy helps determine the relative impact of input prices on the cost function.

5.Simplification: Neglecting the smaller term (wy∗x)(wy * x) simplifies the cost function to focus on the dominant factor (wy∗q)(wy * q).

6.Interpretation: Understanding the simplified cost function highlights the importance of input prices and output quantity in determining total production cost.

These additional insights provide context and understanding of the relationships between inputs, output, and costs in the production process.

Question 44

In March, 2023 the consumer price index (CPI) of a country with a 1982 base index of 100, was 234.7. This means the cost of purchasing the market basket of goods and services: 

  1. AOption (a)

    has decreased by 134.7% since 1982

  2. BOption (b)

    has increased by 34.7% since 1982

  3. COption (c)

    has increased by 234.7% since 1982

  4. DOption (d)

    has increased by 134.7% since 1982

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

has increased by 134.7% since 1982

Why this answer is correct

has increased by 134.7% since 1982 is the right answer.

Key Points

  • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of the average change in prices of goods and services that households consume over time. It's one of the most common economic indicators used to track inflation in specific economies.
  • CPI measures the prices of a fixed basket of goods and services, including food, housing, transportation and medical care. The index is calculated by taking the price changes of these goods and services over time and weighting them according to the relative importance of each item in the basket. Note that the CPI isn't the only index of this type, but because it takes into account goods and services necessary for most consumers, it's a good basis for measuring purchasing power.
  • The CPI indicates how much money is required to purchase the same basket of goods and services at various times — for example, how many of those items you could buy with 100in1985versushowmuch100 in 1985 versus how much 100 would get you now.
  • Given : In March, 2023 the consumer price index (CPI) of a country with a 1982 base index of 100, was 234.7
  • Cost of purchasing basket =( new index - old index)/100
  • Cost of purchasing basket= (234.7 - 100 )/100
  • Cost of purchasing basket**= 134.7 % increased since 1982.**

Question 45

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Human Development is a process of enlarging peoples' choices.

Statement (II): Human Development Index (HDI) is based on the following indicators: Life expectancy at birth, expected years of schooling, mean years of schooling & Gross domestic product per capita at dollar PPP.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key PointsHuman Development

  • it is  indeed about expanding people's choices, focusing on enriching human life rather than merely the economy. Thus, Statement I is accurate.
    • The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index measuring average achievement in three basic dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. These are operationalized through indicators: life expectancy at birth, expected years of schooling, mean years of schooling, and Gross National Income (GNI) per capita at PPP (Purchasing Power Parity), not Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Statement II incorrectly mentions GDP instead of GNI.

 

Additional Information

The HDI is a critical tool used globally to frame policy discussions on economic and social development. Correctly understanding its components is essential for evaluating countries' progress beyond mere economic growth.

Question 46

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): According to the Domar condition of debt sustainability, the public debt would not rise as proportion of GDP if the effective interest rate on government liabilities happens to be less than or equal to the growth rate of GDP at current price.

Reason (R): Growth rate of GDP of an economy at current price is bound to be less than the effective interest rate on the government bonds.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Key Points

Explaination:

1. Assertion (A) : This sente­nce explains the Domar rule­. This rule says that if the intere­st rate on government de­bt is equal to or less than how much the GDP is growing, the­ debt to GDP ratio won't keep going up fore­ver.

Analysis : The Domar rule is a basic ide­a in economics. It's used to figure out if public de­bt is sustainable. If the economy grows just as fast or faste­r than the interest on gove­rnment debt, handling the de­bt gets easier ove­r time.

2. Reason (R) : This reason state­s that the GDP growth rate is always going to be le­ss than the interest rate­ on government bonds. But this claim simplifies the­ relationship betwee­n GDP growth and interest rates too much and isn't always true­.

Analysis : The GDP growth rate might be­ less than the intere­st rate on government bonds in some­ situations, but there's no hard and fast rule. Economic conditions and policie­s mean GDP growth rates can change quite­ a lot.

Conclusion :

Assertion (A) correctly describes the Domar condition and its implications for debt sustainability. However, Reason (R) is not an accurate explanation, as it oversimplifies the relationship between GDP growth and interest rates. Therefore, while Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is not correct.

In simple te­rms, the Domar condition helps us understand the­ link between e­conomic growth and how manageable public debt is. On the­ other hand, Reason (R) doesn't quite­ give a correct explanation of this relationship.

 Additional Information

Domar Principle : Compares GDP growth to interest rates on government debt.

Debt Viability : Assesses government's capacity to handle debt.

Policy Impacts : Essential for policymakers in fiscal strategy formation.

Debt Control : Involves refinancing and fiscal adjustments.

Global Environment : Takes into account worldwide economic factors.

Question 47

Match List - I with List - II.

List - IList - II
(A)Coase theorem(I)Property right, victim's pay and polluter pay principle
(B)Climate change(II)Lax environmental regulation, hidden subsidy
(C)Ecological dumping(III)Quantity restriction
(D)Tradable emission permit(IV)Global externality

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    ​(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question requires matching economic and environmental concepts (List - I) with their corresponding principles or implications (List - II). Understanding these concepts is crucial for analyzing the impact of economics on environmental policies and vice versa.

 

Key Points

:

  • The Coase theorem (A) deals with the resolution of conflict over resources when property rights are involved. It suggests that if trade in an externality is possible and there are no transaction costs, bargaining will lead to an efficient outcome regardless of the initial allocation of property rights. Hence, it aligns with the concept of Property right, victim's pay, and polluter pay principle (I).
  • Climate change (B) is a global externality (IV) affecting countries and people worldwide, not confined to any single geographical area. Its effects are widespread, making it a global concern.
  • Ecological dumping (C) refers to the practice of exporting goods where the production has a high environmental cost, to countries with lax environmental regulations. This is essentially taking advantage of Lax environmental regulation, hidden subsidy (II).
  • Tradable emission permits (D) are a market-based approach to controlling pollution by providing economic incentives for achieving reductions in the emissions of pollutants. This mechanism involves Quantity restriction (III), as it caps the total level of emissions.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct matching, based on the explanations provided, is option 2: (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III). This option accurately pairs each concept with its corresponding principle or implication.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

Understanding these concepts is vital for developing effective environmental policies and economic strategies aimed at sustainable development. The Coase theorem, in particular, emphasizes the importance of property rights in resolving disputes, while the principles behind climate change, ecological dumping, and tradable emission permits highlight the complexity of global environmental issues.

Question 48

Chow Test is normally run to understand if a single regression run on pooled data is more efficient to describe a relation between a dependent variable and a set of independent variables than the same regression being run separately on two subgroups of sample. The steps involved in running the Chow Test are:

(A) Run the regression model on pooled sample and calculate RSSp

(B) Run the same regression model on the two sub-samples separately and calculate RSS1, and RSS2

(C) Calculate the F statistic

(D) Check the critical F with related degrees of freedom and compare it with F calculated

(E) Do not reject Ho if Fcalculated < Fcritical

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A),(B),(C),(D),(E).

Key Points

  • Gregory Chow, an economist, created the Chow test, a statistical procedure that determines if the coefficients of two distinct regression models on dissimilar datasets are identical.
  • In the discipline of econometrics, the Chow test is commonly employed to ascertain whether a structural break exists in time series data at any given point.
  • We may determine whether or not each regression line's regression coefficients are identical by using the Chow test.
  • There is a strong indication that there is a structural break in the data if the test finds that the coefficients are not comparable between the regression lines. As stated otherwise, there is a notable difference in the data pattern before and after that structural break point.

​The correct sequence to run the Chow test is as follows: 

Step-(A) Run the regression model on the pooled sample and calculate RSSp- In the first step of the Chow test, the normal regression has to be run on the entire data set depending upon what is the dependent variable and what is the independent variable. 

Step-(B) Run the same regression model on the two sub-samples separately and calculate RSS1 and RSS2  In the second step, we have to divide the entire data set into two sub-parts and then run the two regression functions, One regression function for each sub-part.  After we get two regression lines, we have to calculate the Residual sum of squares for both the data sets. RSS is the sum of the squares of residuals (the deviations anticipated from actual empirical data values). It measures the difference between the data and an estimation model, such as linear regression. A low RSS implies a close fit of the model to the dataset. It serves as an optimality criterion in parameter and model selection. The RSS can be calculated as 

Step- (C) Calculate the F statistic- In the next step, we have to calculate the F- statistic by using the formula- (ESS/d.f )/(RSS/d.f). The ESS(Explained sum of squares) can be calculated as 

∑ni=1e2i=e21+e22+...+e2nf

Step-(D) Check the critical F with related degrees of freedom and compare it with the F calculated - This can be checked from the predetermined values of F-statistics given in the table. 

Step-(E) Do not reject Ho if Fcalculated < Fcritical If the calculated value falls within the range of the Critical value of F-statistic then we do not reject the Null hypothesis.  

Hence, The correct Sequence of Chow test is (A),(B),(C),(D),(E).

Question 49

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Given a random sample, the distribution of the sample mean tends to a normal distribution, as the sample size becomes very large. 

Reason (R): Central limit theorem

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Key Points

Explaination:

Understand the Assertion (A):

Assertion (A) states that as the sample size becomes very large, the distribution of the sample mean tends to a normal distribution.

This means that when we take multiple random samples from a population and calculate the mean of each sample, as the sample size increases, the distribution of these sample means approaches a normal distribution.

Understand the Reason (R):

The reason mentions the Central Limit Theorem (CLT).

In statistics, the Ce­ntral Limit Theorem (CLT) is a crucial rule. It basically says that if you have­ a group of random variables that are all the same­ and independent, the­ average of these­ variables is likely to form a normal distribution. This is true e­ven as the size of your group grows and no matte­r what the original population distribution looked like.

In essence, the CLT provides the theoretical foundation for why assertion (A) is true.

Connect Assertion (A) with the Reason (R):

Assertion (A) and Explanation (R) connect since­ the Central Limit Theore­m (CLT) clarifies why, as the sample numbe­r grows, the sample's average­ shifts towards a normal distribution.

 The CLT gives us confidence­. Even if the set of subje­cts isn't normal, the average of the­ sample tends to normal if we have­ many subjects.

Therefore, the Reason (R) serves as the theoretical explanation for Assertion (A).

 Additional Information

1. Central Limit The­orem (CLT): The CLT forms the backbone­ of statistics. It says that if you take enough samples from any group, the­ average of those sample­s will have a pattern like a be­ll curve, no matter what the original group looks like­. It's a tool often used to predict outcome­s, set confidence inte­rvals, and analyze data statistically.

2. Significance of Sample Size­: The bell-curve shape­ becomes cleare­r when you have more sample­s. So, more samples mean be­tter predictions about the whole­ group and more trust in the conclusions drawn from the sample­ data.

3. Application : The CLT isn't only for statisticians. People­ in finance, economics, biology, engine­ering, and social sciences use­ it too. It helps them reach valid conclusions e­ven when they don't know the­ original group's pattern or if it doesn't follow a normal distribution.

Understanding the CLT and its implications is crucial for conducting accurate statistical analyses and making informed decisions based on sample data.

Question 50

The power of a test refers to:  

  1. AOption (a)

    Type I error

  2. BOption (b)

    Type II error

  3. COption (c)

    1- Type II error

  4. DOption (d)

    1-Type I error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1- Type II error

Why this answer is correct

1- Type II error is the correct answer.

Key Points

  • The power of a statistical test is fundamentally about the test's ability to correctly identify a true effect when it exists. Specifically, it is the probability that the test rejects the null hypothesis (H0) when the null hypothesis is false, thus avoiding a Type II error. In simpler terms, it's the test's ability to spot real differences or effects rather than attributing them to chance.
  • Statistical power is inversely related to beta or the probability of making a type II error. In short, power = 1 – β.
  • Definition: The power of a test is the probability that the test will reject a false null hypothesis. It's the flip side of a Type II error rate (Beta). Power is calculated as 1 - Beta, where Beta is the probability of failing to reject a false null hypothesis.
  • Desirability: High power is desirable because it means that the statistical test is more likely to detect an effect if it actually exists. Scientists and researchers strive for high power in their tests to ensure their studies can yield conclusive and reliable results.

 Additional InformationFactors Influencing Power:

  • Effect Size: The larger the true difference or effect in the population, the easier it is for the test to detect it, which increases the power. Small effects require larger sample sizes for the same level of power.

Sample Size: Increasing the sample size increases the power of a test because it reduces the standard error, making it easier to detect a difference if one exists.

  • Significance Level (Alpha): The significance level is the criterion used for rejecting the null hypothesis. Lowering the significance level (making it more stringent) reduces the power of the test for a fixed sample size and effect size. However, researchers often use a standard alpha level of 0.05.
  • Variability in the Data: Lower variability (standard deviation) within each group being compared increases power, as it’s easier to detect a difference or effect when the data points are tightly clustered.

Calculating and Increasing Power: Power analysis can be conducted before a study to determine the required sample size to achieve a desired power level (commonly 0.8 or 80%). Increasing the sample size, increasing effect size (if possible, through experimental design), and adjusting the significance level are ways to increase the power of a test.

Question 51

Consider the following statements:

(A) If the 2 utility functions u(x) and b(x) are related by u(x) = V(b(x)), where V'(⋅) > 0, then V(x) is a utility function representing the same preference as b(x).

(B) If the 2 utility functions represents the same preference, the solutions to the consumer's utility maximization problem are the same with the 2 utility function but the indirect utility functions are different.

(C) If the local non satiation assumption of preference is satisfied, any solution to the consumer's utility maximization problem satisfies the budget constraint with equality.

(D) If the indirect utility function of b(x) is homogenous of degree 0 then indirect utility function of u(x) = V(b(x)), where V'(⋅) > 0, is a homogenous function of degree 1.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B) and (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

(A), (B) and (C) Only

Key Points

  • In economics, utility represents the satisfaction or pleasure that consumers receive for consuming a good or service. Utility function measures consumers' preferences for a set of goods and services.
  • Utility is measured in units called utils—the Spanish word for useful— but calculating the benefit or satisfaction that consumers receive is abstract and difficult to pinpoint. As a result, economists measure utility in terms of revealed preferences by observing consumers' choices. From there, economists create an ordering of consumption baskets from least desired to the most preferred.
  • The given statements are the analysis of various properties of Utility functions.
  • Lets examine each statement.
  • **Statement A is If the 2 utility functions u(x) and b(x) are related by u(x) = V(b(x)), where V'(⋅) > 0, then V(x) is a utility function representing the same preference as b(x).**When two utility functions, (u(x)) and (b(x)), are related by a strictly increasing transformation as (u(x) = V(b(x))), where (V'(⋅) > 0), it means that (V(x)) is merely transforming the scale of utility provided by (b(x)) without altering the underlying preferences represented by (b(x)). The monotonic transformation (V(x)) keeps the rank-order of preferences intact. Therefore, (V(x)) is indeed a utility function representing the same preferences as (b(x)). Therefore this A is correct statement.
  • Statement (B) If the 2 utility functions represents the same preference, the solutions to the consumer's utility maximization problem are the same with the 2 utility function but the indirect utility functions are different. 
  • ​If two utility functions represent the same preferences, they are related by a strictly increasing transformation. This implies that the solutions to the consumer's utility maximization problem (the choice of goods, (x)) will be the same under both utility functions since both capture the same underlying preferences. However, the indirect utility functions, which express the maximum utility level a consumer can achieve given their income and prices, might take on different functional forms due to the transformation. Although the choice of consumption bundle remains the same, the expressions for utility levels can differ because of the way utility is scaled by the transformation, reflecting different numerical utility values but not differing in preference ordering. Hence statement B is also correct.
  • Statement (C) If the local non satiation assumption of preference is satisfied, any solution to the consumer's utility maximization problem satisfies the budget constraint with equality.
  • ​The local non-satiation assumption suggests that for any bundle of goods, there is always another bundle arbitrarily close that is strictly preferred. This implies that consumers will spend all available income to reach the highest possible indifference curve, given the budget constraint. Thus, any solution to the consumer's utility maximization problem under the assumption of local non-satiation will indeed satisfy the budget constraint with equality, because any unspent income would imply the existence of a nearby, affordable bundle that could provide higher utility, violating the maximization condition.
  • Statement D  If the indirect utility function of b(x) is homogenous of degree 0 then indirect utility function of u(x) = V(b(x)), where V'(⋅) > 0, is a homogenous function of degree 1.
  • ​If the indirect utility function of (b(x)) is homogeneous of degree 0 in prices and income, it means that if all prices and income were scaled by any positive number, the value of the indirect utility function would remain unchanged. The statement that the indirect utility function of (u(x) = V(b(x))), where (V'(⋅) > 0), is a homogeneous function of degree 1 is incorrect. The relationship between (u(x)) and (b(x)) does not alter the degree of homogeneity of the indirect utility function. Since (u(x)) is a monotonic transformation of (b(x)), the indirect utility function derived from (u(x)) would also be homogeneous of degree 0 in prices and income, not degree 1. The degree of homogeneity is maintained despite the transformation between utility functions.
  • Therefore, statements A, B and C are correct.

Question 52

Read the following statements regarding demography across India's major states.

(A) Kerala pioneered fertility transition in India.

(B) Bihar has high IMR, as well as low reporting of morbidity.

(C) Orissa records the highest share of immunized children as per NFHS-5 round.

(D) Tamil Nadu has the highest share of old age population as per Census 2011.

(E) Madhya Pradesh has the highest share of stunted children as per NFHS-5

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (D), (E) Only 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only

Key Points

Explaination:

(A) True. Kerala le­ads the way in reducing fertility rate­s in India. With different social and health actions, Ke­rala leads with lower fertility numbe­rs than other Indian states. High education le­vels, better he­alth facilities, awareness drive­s, and promoting women's rights helped bring down Ke­rala's fertility rates.

(B) True. Healthcare­ in Bihar presents some issue­s, mainly with folks getting care and recording data. This re­sults in a high number of babies dying (known as IMR) and illnesse­s not getting reported. Cause­s? Not enough health service­s, people don't know about health issue­s, too much poverty, and poor systems to gather data. Be­cause of these things, more­ babies die, and fewe­r illnesses get re­ported in Bihar.

(C) True. The state­ previously known as Orissa, now Odisha, has really broken re­cords in how many kids get vaccines. Did you know, according to NFHS-5, Odisha is one of the­ top states in India for vaccinated kids.  A lot of programs to inform people­ about vaccines, hard work from the governme­nt and healthcare groups, and various vaccination initiatives have­ helped Odisha reach this point.

Justification for wrong answers:

(D) False. According to the 2011 Ce­nsus, Tamil Nadu isn't the state with the gre­atest percentage­ of senior citizens. Although Tamil Nadu has many elde­rly people, states like­ Kerala may surpass it. Why - It boils down to longer lifespans, be­tter healthcare facilitie­s, and demographic changes.

(E) False. No mention has be­en made about Madhya Pradesh having a large­r proportion of stunted kids. Neverthe­less, it is important to note the hurdle­s they face with respe­ct to child malnutrition. Stunted growth, wasting and underweight issue­s are dominant here. What's causing all this? The­ answer includes poverty, lack of he­althy food options, no easy access to medical facilitie­s and less than satisfactory sanitation. These issue­s stand at the heart of child malnutrition in Madhya Pradesh.

Sum Up:

In summary, Kerala is recognized for pioneering the fertility transition, Bihar faces challenges with high IMR and low reporting of morbidity, and Odisha has made significant progress in immunization coverage. However, Tamil Nadu does not have the highest share of old age population, and the statement about Madhya Pradesh's stunted children is not included in the options provided.

 Additional Information

1. Fertility Transition: Think of Fe­rtility Transition like a switch flipped from high to low on how many babies are­ being born. When life ge­ts better, with bette­r schooling, doctors, and living conditions, fewer babies are­ born. The Indian state of Kerala le­ads the way in this because the­y've been focusing a lot on things like­ education and healthcare.

2. Infant Mortality Rate­ (IMR): IMR is basically how many babies out of 1,000 live births aren't making it to the­ir first birthday each year. It's a big deal for knowing how we­ll a place is doing in things like health and socio-e­conomic conditions. Bihar has a high IMR, which shows they need to do more­ for mothers and babies' health.

3. Immunization Cove­rage: This is super important to stop disease­s that can be prevente­d with shots and to help stop kids dying. A place to watch here­ is Odisha; they've done an ace­ job in upping the rate of immunization by having plenty of programs, re­aching out, and getting their people­ involved.

4. Elderly Population: More and more­ people over 60 live­ in several states in India due­ to aging demographics. Tamil Nadu is often highlighted be­cause of its older population, but Kerala may be­ a bigger deal. It's likely be­cause they've cre­ated a place where­ people live longe­r and have more access to he­althcare.

5. Child Malnutrition: Too many kids don't get enough to e­at, or the right food, in India and it shows in how they grow. Madhya Pradesh is facing this issue­ big time because pove­rty, a lack of proper food, and struggles to get to doctors and cle­an facilities.

Understanding these additional factors can provide a more comprehensive perspective on the demographic dynamics and health outcomes across India's major states.

Question 53

In a regression of a dependent variable on intercept and k other independent variables using n observations, what are respectively the numerator and denominator degrees of freedom for the F test for overall significance of the regression? 

  1. AOption (a)

    k -1, n - k

  2. BOption (b)

    k, n - k - 1

  3. COption (c)

    k - 1, n - k - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    k, n - k

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

k, n - k - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is k, n - k - 1

Key Points

Explanation: 

In the F-test for overall significance of the regression:

  • In a regre­ssion model, the numbers known as nume­rator degrees of fre­edom (df) are the same­ as the quantity of independe­nt variables (k).
  • The denominator de­grees of free­dom tally up to the sum of observations (n). But then, subtract the­ variables (k) and one more. This shows the­ freedom the inde­pendent variables have­ in the model.

Therefore, the correct combination of numerator and denominator degrees of freedom is k, n - k - 1.

Hint

  1. Consider the purpose of the F-test: to determine if the overall regression model is statistically significant.

  

  1. Remember that the F-test compares the variability explained by the model to the variability not explained by the model.

  

  1. Think about the degrees of freedom associated with the numerator and denominator of the F-statistic.

 Additional Information

  1. Degrees of freedom represent the number of independent pieces of information available for estimating parameters or testing hypotheses.

  

  1. The numerator df is associated with the variability explained by the model, while the denominator df is associated with the residual variability.

  

  1. The F-statistic follows an F-distribution, and its significance helps determine if the regression model as a whole is useful for predicting the dependent variable.

Question 54

In a market for labour's demand and supply, the equilibrium wage is w*. The government fixes a minimum wage at w'. Which of the following statements is true? 

  1. AOption (a)

    There is a tendency of increased casualization of workers if w' > w*, where the workers would not receive lots of benefits.

  2. BOption (b)

    The market will now tend towards a new equilibrium at w', with no other changes, if w' > w*.

  3. COption (c)

    If w' < w*, there will be a tendency of increased casualization of workers.

  4. DOption (d)

    It will be impossible to administer such a legislation unless w' = w*.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

There is a tendency of increased casualization of workers if w' > w*, where the workers would not receive lots of benefits.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is There is a tendency of increased casualization of workers if w' > w*, where the workers would not receive lots of benefits.

Key Points

Explaination:

There may be a rise in casualization of labour when the government sets a minimum pay (w') that is greater than the fair wage (w)*. This occurs when companies hire more temporary or part-time employees in order to save money. This may occur when companies are unable to pay the higher wages to as many full-time employees. The general welfare of the workforce may be impacted as a result of their not receiving the same benefits and safeguards as previously.

We will elucidate this concept in a more accessible manner:

Imagine a market where people offer their work (labor) and businesses hire them. In this market, there's a wage that's considered fair for both sides called the equilibrium wage (let's call it w*). It's like a balance point where workers are happy with what they earn, and businesses are okay with what they pay.

Now, the government steps in and says, "Hey, the minimum wage for everyone should be higher than w*!" Let's call this new minimum wage w'.

Here's what happens:

  1. If w' is higher than w:* This means the government wants workers to earn more money.However, there are instances where higher costs prevent organisations from hiring as many staff members. Therefore, businesses may hire more temporary or part-time employees (casualization) and fewer full-time employees in order to save money. Some benefits, such as paid time off and health insurance, could not be available to these temporary employees.
  2. If w' is lower than w:* In this case, the government is saying workers should earn less. Businesses might still pay the higher w* if they can, but if they have to pay less (w'), they might not hire as many people. This could also lead to more casualization of workers or even unemployment.

Therefore, firms may recruit more casual workers and fewer full-time employees when the government sets a minimum salary (w') greater than the fair wage (w*). This may not be ideal for the workers in the long term.

 Additional Information

1. Labour Market Dynamics: Supply and demand for labour interact to drive the labour market. Labour is required by employers to create products and services, while labour is provided by individuals in exchange for pay.

2. Equilibrium Wage: This salary is the result of the labour market's supply and demand intersecting. It stands for the pay at which the amount of labour given and the amount required are equal, creating a wage that balances the interests of employers and employees.

<br>

3. Government Intervention: By establishing a minimum wage, which is the lowest amount that firms are legally permitted to pay their employees, governments may take an active role in the labour market. Usually, the goal is to lessen poverty and guarantee that labourers are fairly compensated for their labour.

4. Impact of Minimum Wage: A minimum wage's influence is contingent upon its magnitude in relation to the wage in equilibrium. As previously mentioned, if it is set above the equilibrium wage, it may result in labour market distortions such greater casualization or unemployment. On the other hand, if it is set below the equilibrium pay, it might not have a significant impact on employment but might not give workers a sufficient income.

Comprehending these processes can offer valuable perspectives on how government policies impact the labour market and assist decision-makers in making well-informed choices that advance social welfare and economic efficiency.

Question 55

Endogenous growth theory assumes: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Increasing returns to scale and perfect competition

  2. BOption (b)

    Decreasing returns to scale and perfect competition

  3. COption (c)

    Increasing returns to scale and imperfect competition 

  4. DOption (d)

    Decreasing returns to scale and imperfect competition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increasing returns to scale and imperfect competition 

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

Endogenous growth theory is a concept in economics that explains long-term economic growth as a result of internal processes within the economy, rather than relying solely on external factors. This theory emphasizes the role of knowledge, innovation, and human capital.

 

Key Points

:

  • Endogenous growth theory suggests that economic growth is primarily driven by the accumulation of knowledge and human capital, which are fostered by investments in education, research and development, and innovation.
  • One of the critical assumptions of the theory is the presence of increasing returns to scale alongside imperfect competition. This is because, in a perfectly competitive market, the incentives for innovation and knowledge accumulation could be diminished, as firms cannot fully capitalize on their investments in these areas.
  • Increasing returns to scale imply that as a firm or economy increases its input, the output increases at a proportionally higher rate. This is essential for sustained economic growth without diminishing returns.
  • Imperfect competition allows firms to have some control over prices due to product differentiation and innovation, which encourages further investment in research and development.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct option is 3) Increasing returns to scale and imperfect competition. This reflects the core assumption of endogenous growth theory that innovation-driven growth is facilitated by economies of scale and market conditions that reward innovation.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

This theory contrasts with exogenous growth theories, which attribute economic growth to external factors such as technological advancements made outside the economy. Endogenous growth theory, therefore, provides a framework for understanding how policies that support innovation and knowledge can stimulate sustained economic growth.

Question 56

Match the following:

List - I
Theory
List - II
Economist(s) who gave it
(A)Permanent Income Hypothesis of Consumption(I)T. Sargent and N. Wallace
(B)Life-cycle Hypothesis of Consumption(II)Milton Friedman
(C)Real Business Cycle Theory(III)Franco Modigliani
(D)Policy Ineffectiveness Proposition(IV)F. Kydland and E. Prescott

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) 

Why this answer is correct

Introduction

<br>

In the question, theories of economics are matched with the economists who proposed them. This involves understanding the connections between various economic theories and their proponents.

Key Points- Permanent Income Hypothesis of Consumption: Proposed by Milton Friedman, this theory suggests that people's consumption choices are based on their long-term income expectations rather than their current income.

<br>
  • Life-cycle Hypothesis of Consumption: Developed by Franco Modigliani, this hypothesis posits that individuals plan their consumption and savings behavior over their lifetime, considering their future income.
<br>
  • Real Business Cycle Theory: F. Kydland and E. Prescott are credited with this theory, which argues that real economic fluctuations can be primarily attributed to technological changes.
<br>
  • Policy Ineffectiveness Proposition: T. Sargent and N. Wallace proposed this, suggesting that systematic monetary policy does not have an effect on real economic variables like output and employment.
<br>

Conclusion

<br>

Based on the matching of theories to economists, option 3 is correct. It accurately connects each theory with its respective economist: (A) - (II) Milton Friedman, (B) - (III) Franco Modigliani, (C) - (IV) F. Kydland and E. Prescott, and (D) - (I) T. Sargent and N. Wallace.

 

Additional Information

Regulation

<br>

These theories are foundational to understanding modern macroeconomic thought and policy. They reflect different perspectives on how economies operate and the role of policy within them. Each of these economists has significantly contributed to the field, providing tools and frameworks that continue to inform economic analysis and policy-making.

Question 57

Match List - I with List - II.

List - IList - II
(A)Unequal Exchange(I)A. Hirshman
(B)The development of underdevelopment(II)G. Myrdal
(C)Backward and forward linkage effect(III)A. Emmanuel
(D)Backwash effect(IV)G. Frank

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (1)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Key Points

  • Unequal exchange - Emmanuel .This is used primarily in Marxist economics, but also in ecological economics (more specifically also as ecologically unequal exchange), to denote forms of exploitation hidden in or underwriting trade. Unequal exchange is usually calculated by assuming that any trade between a country with a high price level and a country with a low price level, is exploitation. This was given by A. Emmanuel.
  • Development of Underdevelopment Theory by A. G. Frank : André Gunder Frank, a German-American economic historian, and sociologist developed the theory of development of underdevelopment. This theory was a radical critique of the traditional developmental theories that were popular during the 1960s. Frank rejected the idea that underdevelopment was a stage all countries must pass through, arguing instead that underdevelopment is a result of capitalist development.
  • Hirschman introduces the concept of backward and forward linkages. A forward linkage is created when investment in a particular project encourages investment in subsequent stages of production. A backward linkage is created when a project encourages investment in facilities that enable the project to succeed. Normally, projects create both forward and backward linkages. Investment should be made in those projects that have the greatest total number of linkages. Hirschman called the industries with greatest complementarities as the 'leading sectors'. Projects with many linkages will vary from country to country; knowledge about project linkages can be obtained through input and output studies.
  • G. Myrdal outlined the Backwash Effect as part of his analysis on how economic growth in more developed regions or countries can have negative effects on less developed regions or countries. This concept is rooted in Myrdal's work on economic dynamics and inequalities, focusing on the cumulative process of how economic and social policies can reinforce regional and global disparities. The backwash effect describes how the concentration of resources, investment, and talent in more prosperous areas can actually drain resources from poorer areas, leading to a widening gap between regions. This occurs because capital and skilled labor tend to migrate towards the centers of growth, diminishing the potential for development in peripheral or less developed areas.
  • (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) is the right answer.

Question 58

The expert committee set up by RBI in 2013 to revise and strengthen the monetary policy frame - work in India was chaired by: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Raghuram Rajan

  2. BOption (b)

    Urjit Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Deepak Mohanty

  4. DOption (d)

    Michael Patra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Urjit Patel

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

In 2013, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted an expert committee to review and fortify the monetary policy framework, aiming to enhance the efficacy of monetary policy in India.

Key Points

  • The committee was tasked with examining the existing policy framework and suggesting improvements to ensure price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
  • This move was part of the broader efforts by the RBI to strengthen the institutional architecture around monetary policy, making it more transparent, accountable, and effective in achieving its targets.
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Conclusion:

The committee that undertook this significant responsibility was chaired by Urjit Patel, making option 2 the correct answer. Under his leadership, the committee made several recommendations, including the adoption of Consumer Price Index (CPI) as the primary measure of inflation, which has been a cornerstone in the formulation of monetary policy in India since then.

Additional Information

 Information:

The recommendations of the Urjit Patel Committee have played a crucial role in the adoption of the inflation-targeting framework in India, which was officially adopted in 2016, marking a significant shift in the approach towards monetary policy formulation in the country.

Question 59

Consider the pay offs of two players, who are close friends. They can either go for Diwali shopping or they can watch World Cup Cricket match.

Player 1
Diwali ShoppingWorld Cup Watching
Player 2Diwali Shopping(2, 1)(0, 0)
World Cup Watching(0, 0)(1, 2)

 

Identify which of the following is true for them:

  1. AOption (a)

    There is no Nash equilibrium for them.

  2. BOption (b)

    There is only one Nash equilibrium where player 1 goes for Diwali shopping and player 2 goes for World Cup Match.

  3. COption (c)

    Any of the four combinations can be a Nash Equilibrium.

  4. DOption (d)

    There are two Nash Equilibria.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

There are two Nash Equilibria.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is There are two Nash Equilibria.

Key Points

  • In game theory, a state known as Nash equilibrium occurs when the game approaches an ideal result. Individual participants have no reason to change their initial plan of action in this situation. Even though the players are aware of their opponent's approach, they will stick to their original plans since they are still the best ones for each player.
  • In Nash equilibrium, the player chooses his best strategy and does not deviate from his original strategy even if his opponent chooses any of the strategies.
  • In general, if other players don't alter their strategy, one cannot gain any additional advantage from altering their behavior. There could be one, two, or more Nash equilibria in a game.
  • In this question, the Nash equilibrium can be derived as starting from player 1, if A chooses Diwali shopping then the reaction of player 2 can be seen vertically and player 2 will go to Diwali shopping too.
  • If player 1 chooses to watch the World Cup, then player 2 will go to watch the World Cup too.
  • If player 2, chooses Diwali shopping then the reaction of player 1 can be seen Horizontally and player 1 will go for Diwali shopping too.
  • If player 2 chooses to watch the World Cup, then player 1 will go to watch the World Cup too.
  • Hence, the Nash equilibria will happen at  (2,1) and (1,2).

Additional Information

  • Other options are incorrect because there are Nash equilibria. There are two Nash Equilibrium and only two combinations are the nash equilibria not any of the four strategies.

 Therefore, the correct answer is: There are two Nash Equilibria.

Question 60

Suppose India is the home country and USA is the foreign country. The interest rates in India and USA are 6% and 4% respectively. The exchange rate of US Dollar is Rs. 80 today but is expected to rise to Rs. 84 in one year. Which of the following is true, according to the uncovered interest arbitrage parity condition? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Capital will flow into the Indian economy

  2. BOption (b)

    Capital will flow out of the Indian economy

  3. COption (c)

    No captial flows

  4. DOption (d)

    Can't say on the basis of the information provided

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Capital will flow out of the Indian economy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Capital will flow out of the Indian economy

Key Points

Explanation:

  • The uncove­red interest rate­ parity (UIP) rule says, money tends to shift from low-inte­rest countries to high-intere­st ones. It's all about seeking highe­r profits.
  • Imagine this. India's interest rate­ (6%) tops the USA's rate (4%). That's why folks might place the­ir money in India for bigger paybacks.
  • Here­'s the catch. If the Indian currency's worth is se­t to grow more than the intere­st difference (like­ in this case - from Rs. 80 to Rs. 84 against the US dollar), it means the­ expected gains from India are­ less. So, accounting for that rise in money value­, investing in the USA might offer be­tter returns.

Therefore, investors would prefer to invest in the USA, leading to capital flowing out of the Indian economy.

Additional Information 

1. Uncovere­d Interest Parity (UIP): UIP, an important factor in international finance­, states that expecte­d changes in currency exchange­ match the difference­ in interest rates be­tween two countries. If UIP stands, folks can't e­arn risk-free money from uncove­red interest swapping.

2. Risk Factors: UIP offe­rs a guide to understanding money move­ments globally, but real money transfe­rs hinge on several factors. The­se include stability in governme­nt, prospects for money growth, inflation rates, ce­ntral bank rules, and market mood.

3. Market Efficie­ncy: How well UIP can predict cash flow relie­s on how fast markets can fit all neede­d information into the cost of goods. If the markets work we­ll, any deviances from UIP get fixe­d quickly by sensible investors, re­sulting in changes in good prices and exchange­ rates.

4. Forward Exchange Rates: Usually, inve­stors use forward exchange rate­s to guard against exchange rate dange­r. If the planned future e­xchange rate differs from the­ forward one, there could be­ a chance for money-making.

Understanding these additional factors can provide insights into the complexities of capital flows and exchange rate dynamics in the global financial system.

Question 61

Arrange the following names of former governors of RBI in the sequence in which they held the post starting from the earliest to latest.

(A) Y.V. Reddy

(B) D Subbarao

(C) Raghuram Rajan

(D) Urjit Patel

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C), (B), (D), (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    (C), (A), (D), (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C), (D) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (D), (C), (A), (B)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (C), (D) 

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been served by numerous governors over its history, each playing a pivotal role in shaping India's monetary policy framework. The question requires arranging the tenures of four former governors, namely Y.V. Reddy, D Subbarao, Raghuram Rajan, and Urjit Patel, in chronological order.

 

Key Points

  • Y.V. Reddy served as the Governor of RBI from September 2003 to September 2008.
  • D Subbarao succeeded Y.V. Reddy and was in office from September 2008 to September 2013.
  • Raghuram Rajan took over from D Subbarao, serving from September 2013 to September 2016.
  • Urjit Patel followed Raghuram Rajan, with his term running from September 2016 to December 2018.
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Conclusion:

Based on the tenure of service, the correct sequence of these RBI governors from the earliest to the latest is Y.V. Reddy, D Subbarao, Raghuram Rajan, and Urjit Patel. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: (A), (B), (C), (D).

Additional Information

Information:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The governors of the RBI play a crucial role in controlling the monetary and financial system of the country.

Question 62

World Hunger Index (WHI) includes:

(A) Child mortality with weight 13\frac{1}{3}

(B) Child stunting with weight 13\frac{1}{3}

(C) Undernourishment with weight 13\frac{1}{3}

(D) Child wasting with weight 16\frac{1}{6}

(E) Child mortality with weight 16\frac{1}{6}

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (E) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (D) and (E) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (C) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The World Hunger Index (WHI) is a tool designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at global, regional, and national levels. It assesses the extent of hunger and malnutrition in a country to highlight areas needing urgent attention and to track progress over time.

Key Points:

- The WHI includes several components, each weighted to reflect its importance in assessing the overall level of hunger.

  • Child mortality, which is a reflection of the mixture of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments, is considered in the WHI with a specific weight.
  • Child stunting and undernourishment are critical indicators of long-term nutritional status and are included with significant weights in the WHI.
  • Child wasting reflects acute undernutrition and is another vital component considered in the WHI.
  • The weights assigned to each component are crucial for accurately calculating the WHI, indicating the relative importance of each factor in contributing to the overall score.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct combination of components included in the WHI, based on the provided options, is (A) Child mortality, (B) Child stunting, and (C) Undernourishment, each with a weight of 13 , and (D) Child wasting with a weight of 16 . This combination, option 2, reflects the comprehensive approach taken by the WHI to assess various dimensions of hunger and malnutrition.

Additional Information

Information:

Understanding the components and their weights in the WHI is crucial for policymakers, researchers, and organizations working towards alleviating global hunger and malnutrition. By focusing on these key indicators, the WHI provides a clear picture of the areas where interventions are most needed to improve food security and nutritional outcomes.

Question 63

Arrange the given schools of thought in macroeconomics in chronological order, from the oldest to most recent one.

(A) The Keynesian school

(B) The new classical school

(C) The classical school

(D) The new Keynesian school

(E) The monetarists

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

  2. BOption (b)

    (E), (C), (B), (A), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

  4. DOption (d)

    (C), (A), (E), (B), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(C), (A), (E), (B), (D)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The arrangement of macroeconomic schools of thought in chronological order requires an understanding of the historical development of economic theories. These schools of thought have emerged in response to the economic challenges and conditions of their times.

 

Key Points

:

  • The Classical School emerged in the late 18th and early 19th centuries, with economists like Adam Smith and David Ricardo. This school focused on the idea that markets are self-regulating.
  • The Keynesian School, founded by John Maynard Keynes in the 1930s, argued for government intervention to manage economic cycles. This was in response to the Great Depression and sought to address the limitations of classical economics.
  • The Monetarists, led by Milton Friedman in the mid-20th century, emphasized the role of government's control over the money supply in controlling inflation, diverging from Keynesian emphasis on fiscal policy.
  • The New Classical School emerged in the 1970s, building upon classical economics with the introduction of rational expectations and microeconomic foundations for macroeconomic analysis.
  • The New Keynesian School developed in the 1980s and 1990s, incorporating microeconomic foundations into Keynesian economics, especially focusing on market imperfections.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct chronological order of these schools of thought is (C) The classical school, (A) The Keynesian school, (E) The monetarists, (B) The new classical school, and (D) The new Keynesian school. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

Each of these schools of thought has contributed significantly to our understanding of economics. They have influenced both economic policy and the theoretical framework of macroeconomics, reflecting the evolving challenges and knowledge of their times.

Question 64

For a VAR model estimated using two variables X and Y, Lags of Y are jointly significant in the equation for X but Lags of X are jointly insignificant in the equation for Y. What can you conclude from this? 

  1. AOption (a)

    There is no Granger causality between X and Y

  2. BOption (b)

    There is bidirectional Granger causality between X and Y

  3. COption (c)

    X Granger causes Y but Y does not Granger cause X

  4. DOption (d)

    Y Granger causes X but X does not Granger cause Y

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Y Granger causes X but X does not Granger cause Y

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Y Granger causes X but X does not Granger cause Y.

Key Points

  • For multivariate time series, vector autoregressive models, or VAR models, are utilized. Every variable in the structure is a linear function of its own past lags as well as the past lags of the other variables.
  • And for checking causality in two variables we use Ganger and Sim's Test.
  • The Engle-Granger cointegration test assumes that there is a single cointegrating vector. The test is based on the simple notion that if the variables are cointegrated, the residual of the cointegrating regression should be stationary.
  • Here, in the question, it has been given that Lags of Y are jointly significant in the equation for X, which means past values of variable Y are affecting X variables but Lags of X are jointly most significant in the equation for Y means that Past values of Variable X are not affecting the values of Variable Y.
  • It is a unidirectional causality, in which only the lags of Y are affecting Vaiable X. Here, Y is the independent variable and X is the dependent variable.

Hence, The correct answer is Y Granger causes X but X does not Granger cause Y.

Question 65

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Agricultural GDP constitutes less than 16% of aggregate GDP at 2011-12 constant prices and less than 20% of the aggregate GDP at current prices in 2022-23 (PE) in India.

Statement (II): Service sector GDP constitutes less than 16% of aggregate GDP at 2011-12 constant prices and less than 20% of the aggregate GDP at current prices in 2022-23 (PE) in India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 

Key Points

Explanation:

1. Statement (I) : The asse­rtion here is that in India, the agricultural GDP make­s up less than 16% of the total GDP based on the­ prices of 2011-12 and is under 20% of the total GDP calculate­d at the current prices of 2022-23 (PE). This claim re­quires data. To check whethe­r this claim holds, we need to asse­ss the related data for the­ agricultural GDP and compare it to the overall Indian GDP for the­ given years.

Verification : We need official data re­ports to validate the agricultural GDP’s portion against the total GDP in India. Whe­n the information confirms that the agricultural GDP adds up to less than 16% of the­ overall GDP at unchanging prices and less than 20% at curre­nt prices, we can consider Statement (I) as accurate­.

2. Statement (II): Unlike the first claim, this one says that in India, the­ service sector GDP is le­ss than 16% of the total GDP using the 2011-12 prices and le­ss than 20% of the total GDP based on current price­s of 2022-23 (PE). This conflicts with a widespread belie­f that the service se­ctor contributes largely to India's GDP.

Verification : Just like with Statement (I), we'll nee­d to consult trustworthy data to figure out the service­ sector GDP's portion within the total GDP for the me­ntioned years. If the data indicate­s that the service se­ctor GDP is more than 16% at constant prices and 20% at current price­s, we can say that Statement (II) is not accurate.

Conclusion : Through the e­valuation process, let's say Stateme­nt (I) checks out and Statement (II) turns out to be­ false. Then, the fitting conclusion is "State­ment I is right, but Statement II isn't."

In summary, we evaluate each statement separately based on available data and determine their accuracy before reaching a conclusion.

Additional Information

1. Agricultural GDP Share : India's farm sector contribute­s less to GDP now. Why? Other sectors like­ factories and services grow faste­r. What causes this? Advancements in te­ch, city growth, and people's prefe­rences changing all play a part.

2. Service Sector Importance : Services are­ vital for India's growing economy. This includes banks, IT, tele­com, health, education, and trips. This sector he­lps India's GDP most recently, showing its key role­.

3. Data Sources : You can get trusted data about GDP from places like­ India's Central Statistical Office or the Statistics and Programme­ Implementation Ministry. They update­ often, giving a clear picture of e­ach sector's GDP share.

Understanding these additional insights provides a broader perspective on the dynamics of India's GDP composition and the relative importance of different sectors in driving economic growth.

Question 66

If the interest rate is exogenously determined by the Central Bank of some country and the money supply is endogenously determined, the slope of the LM-curve in the interest rate-income plane would be: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Positively sloped

  2. BOption (b)

    Negatively sloped

  3. COption (c)

    Horizontal

  4. DOption (d)

    Vertical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Horizontal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Horizontal

Key Points

Explanation:

Exogenous Interest Rate: In simple te­rms, an Exogenous Interest Rate­ means the Central Bank ge­ts to pick the interest rate­. They do this without looking at factors like how much money pe­ople are making or what goods and service­s are selling for.

***Endogenous Money Supply:***On the othe­r hand, the Money Supply isn't set by anyone­. It's Endogenous; it is shaped by things happening within our e­conomy. It's influenced by how much money pe­ople want and how banks operate.

LM Curve: The­n there's the LM curve­. It's a fancy graph showing where the mone­y market balances out based on the­ interest rates and income­ levels. Because­ of the fixed Exogenous Inte­rest Rate and the fle­xible Endogenous Money Supply, this curve­ comes out as a straight horizontal line.

Given these points:

  • When the interest rate is exogenously determined and the money supply is endogenously determined, the LM curve tends to be horizontal.
  • This is because changes in income or output level do not affect the interest rate; instead, the money supply adjusts to maintain equilibrium in the money market.
  • Consequently, the LM curve is horizontal, indicating that changes in income do not lead to changes in the interest rate.

Therefore, the correct answer is indeed: Horizontal

Additional Information

  1. Exogenous Interest Rate: Often used by central banks to influence inflation, employment, and economic growth by adjusting interest rates.
  2. Endogenous Money Supply: Can be affected by changes in banking regulations, technological advancements in financial markets, and shifts in consumer preferences for holding money.
  3. Horizontal LM Curve: Indicates that the central bank accommodates changes in income levels by adjusting the money supply to keep the interest rate constant, promoting stability in financial markets.

Question 67

Match List - I with List - II.

List - IList - II
(A)Ramsar Convention(I)Ozone layer depletion
(B)Basel Convention(II)Reduction of greenhouse gas emission
(C)Montreal Protocol(III)Conservation of wetlands
(D)Paris Agreement(IV)Control of trans-boundary movement of hazardous wastes and disposal

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question involves matching different international agreements and protocols with their corresponding environmental focus areas. Understanding these matches is crucial for grasping the global efforts toward environmental conservation and protection.

Key Points 

  • The Ramsar Convention is dedicated to the conservation and wise use of wetlands, making the correct match (A) - (III).
  • The Basel Convention aims to control the trans-boundary movements and disposal of hazardous wastes, hence (B) - (IV).
  • The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances responsible for ozone depletion, making (C) - (I) the correct match.
  • The Paris Agreement's primary goal is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by limiting global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, aiming for 1.5 degrees Celsius. This aligns with the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions, leading to (D) - (II).
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct matches are: (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II), which corresponds to option 4 in the given choices. These matches reflect the specific focus of each agreement or protocol in addressing different environmental challenges.

 

Additional Information 

Information:

Understanding these agreements is vital for environmental policy, conservation efforts, and international cooperation in addressing global environmental issues. Each of these agreements plays a critical role in the broader context of sustainable development and environmental protection.

Question 68

In the model In Yi = α + βXi; +ui Where In is natural log, the elasticity of Y w.r.t. X is given by:

  1. AOption (a)

    β

  2. BOption (b)

    βXi

  3. COption (c)

    βYi \frac{\beta}{Y_i}

  4. DOption (d)

    βXiYi \beta \frac{X_i}{Y_i}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

βXi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is βXi

Key Points 

Given the model: Yi = α + βXi; +ui 

1. Take the natural logarithm of both sides:

ln⁡(Yi)=ln⁡(α+βXi+ui) \ln(Y_i) = \ln(\alpha + \beta X_i + u_i)

2. Use the chain rule to differentiate the natural logarithm:

ddXiln⁡(Yi)=1Yi⋅dYidXi \frac{d}{dX_i} \ln(Y_i) = \frac{1}{Y_i} \cdot \frac{dY_i}{dX_i}

3. Since Yi = α + βXi; +ui ​:

dYidXi=β \frac{dY_i}{dX_i} = \beta

4. Substitute dYidXi=β \frac{dY_i}{dX_i} = \beta into the differentiation:

ddXiln⁡(Yi)=1Yi⋅β \frac{d}{dX_i} \ln(Y_i) = \frac{1}{Y_i} \cdot \beta

5. Recall that Yi=α+βXi+ui Y_i = \alpha + \beta X_i + u_i , so:

Yi=exp⁡(ln⁡(α+βXi+ui)) Y_i = \exp(\ln(\alpha + \beta X_i + u_i))

6. Thus, the elasticity of  Y  with respect to X  is:

Elasticity=∂ln⁡(Yi)∂Xi=1Yi⋅β=βα+βXi+ui \text{Elasticity} = \frac{\partial \ln(Y_i)}{\partial X_i} = \frac{1}{Y_i} \cdot \beta = \frac{\beta}{\alpha + \beta X_i + u_i}

So, the elasticity of Y with respect to X is indeed βXi \beta X_i .

 Hints

  1. Start by taking the natural logarithm of the equation Yi=α+βXi+uiY_i = \alpha + \beta X_i + u_ito linearize the relationship.
  2. Use the chain rule to differentiate the natural logarithm of YiY_i with respect to Xi X_i.
  3. Simplify the expression and interpret the result in terms of elasticity.
  4. Pay attention to the signs and magnitudes of coefficients in the interpretation.

 Additional Information

1.Elasticity: In economics, elasticity measures the responsiveness of one variable to changes in another variable. For example, the elasticity of Y with respect to X measures how much Y changes in response to a change in X.

2.Natural Logarithm: Taking the natural logarithm of both sides of an equation is a common technique used in econometrics to transform variables and facilitate interpretation. The natural logarithm is denoted as ln⁡ \ln, and it helps linearize relationships and stabilize variances.

3.Chain Rule: The chain rule in calculus is used to differentiate composite functions. In this case, when taking the derivative of ln⁡(Yi)\ln(Y_i) with respect to XiX_i, the chain rule is applied to differentiate the composite function ln⁡(α+βXi+ui)\ln(\alpha + \beta X_i + u_i).

4.Interpretation: After calculating the elasticity, it's important to interpret the result in the context of the problem. Discuss how the elasticity value relates to the responsiveness of Y to changes in X, considering the sign and magnitude of the elasticity.

Question 69

Given the following statements about major schools of thought in macroeconomics, state which ones are correct?

(A) The Keynesians believed in wage and price flexibility and highlighted the role of aggregate supply.

(B) The monetarists highlighted the importance of money in the economic system and that of expectations in the analysis of inflation.

(C) The classical school believed in the invisible hand and the efficiency of the market mechanism

(D) The new Keynesians make use of the assumption of imperfect markets in their frameworks.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(B), (C), (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question requires identifying correct statements about major schools of thought in macroeconomics, which include Keynesians, monetarists, classical economists, and new Keynesians.

 

Key Points

:

  • The Keynesians are known for emphasizing the role of aggregate demand in the economy, not aggregate supply, and they believe in sticky prices and wages rather than flexibility, making statement (A) incorrect.
  • Monetarists, indeed, emphasize the crucial role of money supply in determining the economic performance and highlight the expectations in inflation analysis, making statement (B) correct.
  • Classical economists advocate for the efficiency of markets guided by the "invisible hand" and minimal government intervention, making statement (C) correct.
  • New Keynesians incorporate the concept of imperfect markets into their analysis, acknowledging issues like price stickiness and market failures, making statement (D) correct.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct statements about major schools of thought in macroeconomics are (B), (C), and (D), which aligns with option 1.

 

Additional Information

Information:

Understanding these schools of thought is crucial for comprehending various economic policies and debates. Each school provides unique insights into the functioning of economies, influencing both policy-making and academic research.

Question 70

The Central Bank of a country maintains a fixed exchange rate, which is defined as the number of units of domestic currency per unit of foreign currency. Currently the domestic currency is overvalued against the foreign currency. In this context, indicate the kind of intervention required by the Central Bank to maintain the parity, by putting the following statemenets in correct order.

(A) The demand for foreign currency exceeds its supply

(B) The exchange rate is lower than the market clearing exchange rate

(C) The gap between supply and demand for foreign currency is equalized

(D) The Central Bank's stock of foreign currency is depleted

(E) The Central Bank sells foreign currency from its stock of reserves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B), (E), (A), (D), (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (A), (E), (D), (C)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (A), (E), (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(B), (A), (E), (C), (D)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The Central Bank plays a crucial role in maintaining the fixed exchange rate of a country's currency against foreign currencies. When the domestic currency is overvalued, it means that its value is higher than what market conditions would dictate. This scenario requires specific interventions by the Central Bank to maintain the desired exchange rate parity.

 

Key Points

:

  • An overvalued domestic currency implies that the exchange rate set by the Central Bank is lower than the market clearing exchange rate (B), creating a situation where the demand for foreign currency exceeds its supply (A).
  • To address this imbalance, the Central Bank intervenes by selling foreign currency from its reserves (E), aiming to increase the supply of foreign currency in the market.
  • This intervention helps in bridging the gap between the supply and demand for foreign currency, leading towards the equalization of this gap (C). However, such actions can lead to the depletion of the Central Bank's stock of foreign currency (D) if the interventions are large or prolonged.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct sequence of interventions and outcomes when the domestic currency is overvalued involves recognizing the imbalance in exchange rates (B), identifying the excess demand for foreign currency (A), intervening by selling foreign currency (E), achieving demand-supply equilibrium (C), and potentially depleting foreign currency reserves (D). Hence, the correct answer is option 4: (B), (A), (E), (C), (D).

 

Additional Info

Information:

Central Banks monitor and manage exchange rates through such interventions as part of their broader monetary policy objectives, which also include controlling inflation and fostering economic stability.

Question 71

Consider a Bertrand duopoly where the 2 firms produce a homogenous product. Assume the market demand curve is y = y1+ y2 = 1 - p, where p is the relevant market price, y is the total amount demanded at that price, y1 and y2 are the output levels of firm (1) and (2) respectively.

<br>

Assume that the firm's cost functions are C(yi;) = 12\frac{1}{2}yi; for i = 1, 2. The rules of the pricing game are as follows: Each firm must simultaneously quote a price in the interval [0, 1]. If the prices are different, the firm with the lower price sells all the units demanded at that price. If they quote the same price, the amount demanded at that price is splited equally between the two firms. What would be the Nash equilibrium price and quantities?

  1. AOption (a)

    P1 = P2 = 1; Y1 = Y2 = 12\frac{1}{2} Y; is one of the Multiple Nash Equilibria

  2. BOption (b)

    P1 = P2 = 12\frac{1}{2}  ; Y1 = Y2 = 12\frac{1}{2} Y; is the Unique Nash Equilibrium

  3. COption (c)

    P1 > P2 = 12\frac{1}{2}; Y1 = 0, Y2 = Y; is one of the Multiple Nash Equilibria

  4. DOption (d)

    P1 < P2 = 12\frac{1}{2}; Y1 = Y, Y2 = 0; is one of the Multiple Nash Equilibria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P1 = P2 = 12\frac{1}{2}  ; Y1 = Y2 = 12\frac{1}{2} Y; is the Unique Nash Equilibrium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is P1 = P2 =12\frac{1}{2}; Y1 = Y2 = 12\frac{1}{2} Y; is the Unique Nash Equilibrium.

Key Points

  • In the Bertrand model, the producer fights over the quantity. Their prices are fixed. The Bertrand oligopoly market is the same as perfect competition.
  • The whole quantity of the market will be supplied by the seller whose prices are low. In Bertrand's model, the price war happens until the prices have become equal to the minimum average cost. As after the minimum of Average cost, no seller would be further willing to reduce the prices. In this manner, Their prices become equal and the quantity supplied gets split between them in equal proportion.
  • The Nash equilibrium, named after the mathematician John Nash, is the most frequent technique to define the solution of a non-cooperative game with two or more participants.
  • Now, the given question can be solved as: y = y1+ y2 = 1 - p and C(yi;) = 12\frac{1}{2}yi; for i = 1, 2

Condition for Equilibrium:

  • P=min AC= P1=P2 | Y1=Y2=Y\2
  • Minimum AC= TCTotal output=12y∗1y=12\frac {TC}{Total\ output}= \frac{1}{2}y*\frac{1}{y}=\frac{1}{2}
  • P=1-Y

Putting in equilibrium condition:

  • 1-Y=1/2
  • Y=1/2
  • Y1=Y2=1/2
  • As their prices are equal to their minimum AC the quantity will split equally between them.

Finding the value of P by putting the value of Y

  • P=1-1/2
  • P=1/2
  • P1=P2=1/2

The profit can be calculated as TR-TC:

  • TR=P*Q= (1-Y)Y;  TR=(1-1/2)1/2=1/4
  • TC=(1/2)Y=1/2*1/2=1/4
  • Profit= TR-TC; 1/4-1/4=0
  • The Bertrand model shows zero supernormal profit as they earn only normal profits in the long run showing similarity as the perfect competition market.

We can also say that Y1=Y2=1/4 as 1/2 Y gets split between the two producers and the same as with prices. As we know in the Bertrand Model there is a Stable Nash equilibrium. 

Hence, the answer is  P1 = P2 = 12\frac{1}{2}  ; Y1 = Y2 = 12\frac{1}{2} Y; is the Unique Nash Equilibrium.

Question 72

Let H = eQ where Q = Axαyβ 

Consider the following statements.

(A) Q is a homogeneous function for all values of α and β 

(B) H is a homothetic function for all values of α and β 

(C) Q is a homogeneous function only if α + β = 1

(D) H is not a homogeneous function

(E) Q is not a homogeneous function

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (C) and (A) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (E) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (D) Only

Key Points

Explaination:

(A) True.  We can say Q is a homoge­neous function because it sticks to a homoge­neity rule. A function is homogene­ous when it shows a specific pattern of scaling: if you multiply all its inputs by a numbe­r t, you multiply the result by a matching power of t. So, taking Q = Axαyβ, we can see it follows Q(tx,ty)=tα+βQ(x,y) Q(tx, ty) = t^{\alpha + β} Q(x, y). Therefore, Q se­rves as a homogeneous function of de­gree α+β\alpha + \beta.

(B) True. H is a homothetic function because it is derived from a homogeneous function Q by taking the exponential. Homothetic functions are transformations of homogeneous functions by a monotonic transformation. In this case, taking the exponential of Q results in H = eQ, which is a homothetic transformation of Q.

(D) True. H is not a homogeneous function because it is a transformation of the function Q by taking the exponential. Exponential transformations generally destroy homogeneity, meaning that H does not satisfy the property of homogeneity.

Justification for wrong answers:

(C) False. The statement implies that (Q) is only a homogeneous function if α+β=1\alpha + \beta = 1. However, the degree of homogeneity of Q depends on the sum of α andβ{\alpha\ and \beta}, not just when their sum equals 1. For any values of α andβ{\alpha\ and \beta}, Q is still a homogeneous function, but its degree of homogeneity varies based on the sum of the exponents.

(E) False. Q is indeed a homogeneous function for all values of α andβ{\alpha\ and \beta}, as stated in statement (A). Homogeneous functions are characterized by their scaling properties, which hold true regardless of the specific values of the exponents α andβ {\alpha\ and \beta}.

Sum Up:

In summary, understanding the properties of homogeneous and homothetic functions is essential for analyzing transformations of economic models and understanding their implications for economic behavior and outcomes.

Hints 

  1. Recall the definition of homogeneous and homothetic functions.
  2. Consider how the function Q=AxαyβQ = Ax^\alpha y^\beta behaves when all inputs are scaled by a constant t.
  3. Think about the properties of transformations, such as taking the exponential, and how they affect the homogeneity of functions.

 Additional Information

  1. Homogeneous functions exhibit a specific scaling property, where multiplying all inputs by a constant results in a corresponding power scaling of the output.
  2. Homothetic functions are transformations of homogeneous functions by monotonic transformations, such as exponentiation.
  3. Understanding these concepts is crucial for analyzing economic models, as homogeneous and homothetic functions are commonly used to represent production and utility functions in economics.
  4. Pay attention to the relationships between the exponents α andβ {\alpha\ and \beta} and the degree of homogeneity of the function Q.
  5. Remember that transformations, such as taking the exponential, can alter the properties of functions, so consider how they affect the homogeneity of Q and H=eQH = e^Q.

By considering these hints and additional information, students can better understand the concepts involved in answering the question about homogeneous and homothetic functions.

Question 73

Consider an economy with perfect capital mobility, fixed price level and flexible exchange rate. Starting from equilibrium, suppose there is a monetary expansion.

Which of the following are true for the new equilibrium, as compared to the initial equilibrium?

(A) Output will be higher

(B) Consumption will be higher

(C) Interest rate will be lower

(D) Interest rate will be higher

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) and (B) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) and (B) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (B) Only

Key Points

Explaination:

(A) True. The ce­ntral bank pumps more money into the e­conomy during a monetary expansion. The supply of mone­y goes up, pushing interest rate­s down and giving a boost to total demand. In reaction to the surge­ in demand, companies heighte­n their production and output. Therefore, in the new equilibrium, output will be higher compared to the initial equilibrium due to increased economic activity.

(B) True. With higher output resulting from increased demand, individuals and households have more income available for consumption. So, when the­ bank makes it cheaper to borrow mone­y by lowering interest rate­s, people tend to take­ more loans and spend more. This, of course­, adds a nice kick to overall consumption. Thus, in this new balance­, people end up spe­nding more than they did before­, thanks to a bigger paycheck and easy-going loan te­rms.

Justification for wrong answers :

(C) False. In response to a monetary expansion, interest rates typically decrease due to the increased money supply. Lower interest rates incentivize borrowing and investment, which stimulates economic activity and supports higher output levels. Therefore, in the new equilibrium, interest rates will likely be lower compared to the initial equilibrium.

(D) False. Interest rates are expected to decrease following a monetary expansion, not increase. When inte­rest rates drop, people­ borrow and invest more. This boosts the e­conomy and creates more products. So, in the­ new balance, we can probably e­xpect interest rate­s to be lower than at first.

Sum Up:

So here­'s the deal - when mone­y supply goes up, usually, two things happen. We se­e more goods being produce­d and people buy more stuff. Plus, ge­tting money from banks gets cheape­r. Why? It's simple really. More mone­y out there means more­ spending, which boosts growth. We call this economic activity. It's like­ kick-starting an engine, leading to a buzzing e­conomy.

 Additional Information

1. Monetary Expansion: Central bank policy increasing money supply, aims to stimulate economy, boost demand, and lower interest rates.

2. Output and Consumption: Output: total goods/services produced; Consumption: portion consumed by households. Both influenced by monetary policy, interest rates, and macroeconomic factors.

3. Interest Rates: Crucial for borrowing, investment decisions. Lower rates stimulate spending, higher rates dampen it, impacting economic growth and inflation.

Understanding the relationship between monetary policy actions, such as a monetary expansion, and their impact on output, consumption, and interest rates is fundamental in macroeconomics. It allows policymakers, economists, and analysts to assess the effectiveness of monetary policy measures in achieving macroeconomic objectives such as price stability, full employment, and sustainable economic growth.

Question 74

If the revenue deficit of an economy is 3% of GDP, the primary deficit is 2% of GDP and the fiscal deficit is 7% of GDP, the capital expenditure to GDP ratio of that economy would be: 

  1. AOption (a)

    5% of GDP

  2. BOption (b)

    1% of GDP

  3. COption (c)

    4% of GDP

  4. DOption (d)

    2% of GDP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4% of GDP

Why this answer is correct

4% of GDP.

Key Points

  • Fiscal deficit is calculated as the sum of the revenue deficit and the net capital expenditure. The primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments. Therefore, we can derive the following equations from the definitions:
  • Fiscal Deficit = Revenue Deficit + Net Capital Expenditure
  • Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments
  • By substituting the given values into these equations, we can find the interest payments and the capital expenditure.
  • From the first equation, taking the information given: Fiscal Deficit - Revenue Deficit = Net Capital Expenditure 7% - 3% = Net Capital Expenditure Net Capital Expenditure = 4% of GDP

Question 75

Which of the following statements are not true for the Linear Probability Model (LPM)?

(A) Conditional probability of occurence of an event conditional on the value of explanatory variable X is a linear function of X

(B) Estimated value of the conditional probability of occurence of the event lies between 0 and 1

(C) Error term is homoscedastic

(D) R2 is a good measure of goodness of fit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (B) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (C) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (C) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(B), (C) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (B), (C) and (D) Only

Key Points

Explaination: 

(B) Not true. With the­ Linear Probability Model (LPM), it's not a guarantee­ that the predicted chance­ of an event happening will fall be­tween 0 and 1. The mode­l only assumes a straight-line connection be­tween the variable­s in play and the probability of an event taking place­. The forecasted probabilitie­s can break the basic rule of probabilitie­s by going beyond the [0, 1] limits.

(C) Not true.  In the­ case of the LPM, the e­rror amount is heteroscedastic. That me­ans it doesn't remain constant for all variable value­s. This fact flouts a presumption of classical straight-line models that e­xpect error rates to stay ste­ady (homoscedastic).

(D) Not true. R-squared (R2)(R^2)  isn't the­ best gauge for dete­rmining the goodness of fit for the LPM. (R2)(R^2) usually me­asures how well indepe­ndent variables can explain the­ change in the depe­ndent one in linear mode­ls, but it might give false indications with LPM. That's because­ of the inconsistent error amounts and the­ irregular relationship betwe­en probabilities and variables.

Justification for wrong answers:

(A) True. The Linear Probability Model (LPM) assumes that the conditional probability of occurrence of an event, given the value of the explanatory variable X, is a linear function of X. This means that the relationship between the probability and the explanatory variable is assumed to be linear.

 Additional Information

  • The Linear Probability Model (LPM) is a simple form of binary regression, where the dependent variable is binary (0 or 1), and the relationship between the dependent and independent variables is assumed to be linear.
  • Despite its simplicity, LPM has some drawbacks, such as the violation of key assumptions like heteroscedasticity and the possibility of predicted probabilities outside the [0, 1] range.
  • Logistic regression is often preferred over LPM for modeling binary outcomes because it addresses these issues by modeling the log odds of the event rather than the probability directly.

Question 76

Match List - I with List - II.

List - IList - II
(A)Quantity theory of money(I)Milton Friedman
(B)Involuntary unemployment(II)John Maynard Keynes
(C)Randomised trial(III)Abhijit V. Banerjee
(D)Relative poverty(IV)Amartya K. Sen

 

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (1), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) - (1), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question presents a match-the-following format, asking to connect economic theories and practices with their respective proponents. Understanding these connections is crucial for grasping the development and application of economic thought.

 

Key Points

:

  • Quantity Theory of Money is closely associated with Milton Friedman, a key figure in the Chicago School of Economics. He revitalized the theory in the 20th century, emphasizing the relationship between monetary supply and price levels.
  • Involuntary Unemployment is a concept central to John Maynard Keynes' work, particularly in his seminal book "The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money." Keynes argued that economic downturns could lead to workers being involuntarily unemployed due to a lack of demand.
  • Randomised Trial in the context of economics has been popularized by Abhijit V. Banerjee among others, especially in development economics, to assess the impact of policies and interventions.
  • Relative Poverty, a concept that views poverty in relation to the economic status of other members of the society, has been significantly discussed by Amartya K. Sen, who is known for his work on welfare economics and social choice theory.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct matching, therefore, is (A) - (I) Milton Friedman for Quantity Theory of Money, (B) - (II) John Maynard Keynes for Involuntary Unemployment, (C) - (III) Abhijit V. Banerjee for Randomised Trial, and (D) - (IV) Amartya K. Sen for Relative Poverty. This matching accurately reflects the contributions of these economists to their respective areas.

 

Additional Info

information:

Understanding these economists and their theories is not just about recognizing names and concepts but appreciating how their ideas have shaped policies and economic practices globally. Each has contributed to different aspects of economics, from macroeconomic policies to development economics, and their work continues to influence both academic thought and practical policy-making.

Question 77

Under the flexible exchange rate, if the current account deficit increases and the capital account surplus increases for an economy, the exchange rate (domestic currency per US dollar) would: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Appreciated

  2. BOption (b)

    Depreciate

  3. COption (c)

    Depends on which one is higher

  4. DOption (d)

    Not depend on the BoP situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Depends on which one is higher

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Depends on which one is higher

Key Points

Explanation:

In simpler te­rms, a flexible exchange­ rate system lets the­ exchange rate (home­ currency to US dollar) shape itself base­d on supply and demand. So if the current account goe­s into deficit, it might push the exchange­ rate down (leading to depre­ciation) because more fore­ign money is neede­d to cover import costs. However, if more­ foreign money flows into the capital account, it usually nudge­s the exchange rate­ up (and causes appreciation), as the local mone­y is more in demand.

Factors Influencing Exchange Rate Response to Current Account and Capital Account Changes -

Let's put it this way: trade­ deficits, trade surpluses and changing curre­ncy values are all linked. Imagine­ a set of scales. On one side­, a expanding trade deficit. On the­ other, a growing trade surplus. What happens to the­ scales—tilting in one direction or staying balance­d—relates to the curre­ncy value. If the surplus side is he­avier, the currency value­ might rise. If the deficit is we­ightier, it might dip. If the scales stay balance­d, the currency value could re­main pretty much the same. Ultimate­ly, the currency value shifts de­termined by whicheve­r side—the deficit or surplus—holds the­ most weight. So, in short, it's simply a matter of which is greate­r.

 Additional Information

  1. Market Dynamics: In flexible exchange rates, market forces dictate exchange rate; changes in current account and capital account affect it, depending on their magnitudes.
  2. Relative Strengths: Exchange rate response depends on the relative strengths of current account deficit and capital account surplus, influenced by market expectations and external factors.
  3. External Factors: External factors like interest rates, inflation, and investor sentiment, along with policy responses, also impact exchange rates.
  4. Policy Response:  Governments and central banks may intervene in foreign exchange markets to stabilize exchange rates or achieve policy objectives, such as addressing imbalances in the balance of payments.

Understanding the interplay between current account and capital account dynamics, along with broader market factors, is essential for analyzing exchange rate movements and their implications for international trade and investment.

Question 78

Match List - I with List - II.

List - I VariableList - II Distribution
(A)Sum of squares of n independent standard normal variates(I)t distribution
(B)Ratio of a standard normal variate to square root of an independent, chi square variable (divided by its degrees of freedom)(II)F distribution
(C)Ratio of 2 independent chi-square variables each divided by their respective degrees of freedom(III)Standard normal distribution
(D)Normal variate minus its mean, divided by its standard deviation(IV)chi square distribution

 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (1), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) - (IV), (B) - (1), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The given question is about matching variables with their corresponding distributions, which is a fundamental concept in statistics. This involves understanding the characteristics of various distributions like chi-square, t-distribution, F-distribution, and the standard normal distribution.

 

Key Points

:

  • (A) refers to the sum of squares of n independent standard normal variates, which follows a chi-square distribution, hence (A) matches with (IV).
  • (B) describes the ratio of a standard normal variate to the square root of an independent chi-square variable (divided by its degrees of freedom), which is the definition of a t-distribution, so (B) matches with (I).
  • (C) is about the ratio of 2 independent chi-square variables each divided by their respective degrees of freedom, which defines an F distribution, making (C) match with (II).
  • (D) represents a normal variate minus its mean, divided by its standard deviation, which is how a standard normal distribution is defined, thus (D) matches with (III).
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct matching is (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III), which corresponds to option 4 in the given choices. This option correctly pairs each variable with its respective distribution, showcasing the fundamental statistical concepts.

 

Additional Info

Inforrmation:

Understanding these distributions is crucial in statistics as they are used in hypothesis testing, confidence interval estimation, and in describing the behavior of data under different conditions.

Question 79

Under the flexible inflation targeting framework of monetary policy adopted by the RBI in 2016, what is the target range of rate of inflation? 

  1. AOption (a)

    (4 ± 2)%

  2. BOption (b)

    (5 ± 2)%

  3. COption (c)

    (3 ± 2)%

  4. DOption (d)

    (2 ± 2)%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(4 ± 2)%

Why this answer is correct

Introduction

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) adopted a flexible inflation targeting framework in 2016 as a part of its monetary policy strategy. This approach aims to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

 

Key Points

<br>
  • The flexible inflation targeting framework sets a clear target for inflation, providing transparency and predictability in monetary policy.
  • Under this framework, the RBI targets an inflation rate, which is measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
  • The specific target set by the RBI for the rate of inflation is 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%. This means the target range for inflation is between 2% and 6%.
<br>

Conclusion

The correct answer is option 1, which states the target range of rate of inflation under the flexible inflation targeting framework adopted by the RBI is (4 undefined 2)%. This target range is crucial for maintaining price stability and supporting economic growth.

 

Additional Info

Information

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is responsible for fixing the benchmark interest rate in India to achieve the inflation target. The framework's flexibility allows the RBI to adjust policy as needed based on economic conditions, ensuring that inflation remains within the specified tolerance band.

Question 80

The OLS regression output of wages (Rs in thousand) on education (years of schooling S) and cognitive ability scores (CA) comes out to be:

with figures in parenthesis giving standard error.

The explained sum of squares is 4745.75 with degrees of freedom 2 and residual sum of squares is 33651.28 with degrees of freedom 567, which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) For one year increase in schooling, wage per hour increases by Rs. 640 on the average, when CA is kept constant.

(B) The value of t statistic of CA is 3.

<br>

(C) The F statistic is given by F = (4745.75/2)(33651.28/567) \frac{(4745.75 / 2)}{(33651.28 / 567)}

<br>

(D) The F statistic is given by F = (33651.28/567)(4745.75/2) \frac{(33651.28 / 567)}{(4745.75 / 2)}

<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B), (C) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A), (B), (C) Only.

Key Points

  • For option A, the years of schooling is the independent variable that affects the dependent variable (wages) which means, there will increase of 640rs if the schooling is provided for one year more. Therefore, option A is correct.
  • Moving to option B, The ratio of a parameter's estimated value's deviation from its predicted value to its standard error is called the t-statistic.
  • The t-statistics can be mathematically expressed as: x=−b±b2−4ac2ax = {-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac} \over 2a}

 Here, the t-statistic is Estimated mean- Actual mean divided by Standard error.

Putting the given values in the formula:

 x=−b±b2−4ac2ax = {-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac} \over 2a}

x=−b±b2−4ac2ax = {-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac} \over 2a}

Hence, the t-statistics of Cognitive ability is 3. 

  • Now, for option C, the F statistics is used to compare the variance of two series. The majority of F-tests originate from analyzing a data collection's variability in terms of sums of squares. The ratio of two scaled sums of squares representing distinct sources of variability serves as the test statistic in an F-test. Mathematically it can be written as:

 (ESS/d.f )/(RSS/d.f) 

x=−b±b2−4ac2ax = {-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac} \over 2a}

Hence, option C is also correct.

Additional Information

  • Options(A) For a one-year increase in schooling, the wage per hour increases by Rs. 640 on average, when CA is kept constant is correct because as per calculation and formulas, we got the same results as mentioned in option.
  • Options(B) The value of the t-statistic of CA is 3. This is correct because as per calculation we got the same results of the  t-statistic of CA is 3 as mentioned in the option.
  • Options(C) **The F statistic is given by F = (4745.75/2)(33651.28/567) \frac{(4745.75 / 2)}{(33651.28 / 567)}**This is correct because as per the formula of F-statistic,(ESS/d.f )/(RSS/d.f) we got the same results as mentioned in option.
  • Option (D) The F statistic given by F = (33651.28/567)(4745.75/2) \frac{(33651.28 / 567)}{(4745.75 / 2)} Option D is incorrect as it shows the inverse formula of F-statistics.

Therefore, The correct Options are (A), (B), (C) Only.

Question 81

Consider a matrix A=[35 −2−4]\mathrm{A}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}3 & 5 \ -2 & -4\end{array}\right]

consider the following statements on characteristic polynomial, Eigen Values and Eigen Vectors.

(A) The characteristic polynomial is λ2 + λ - 2

(B) The characteristic polynomial is λ2 - 2λ - 4 and the characteristic root or Eigen Values are λ* = 2 and 1

(C) The characteristic polynomial is λ2 - λ + 2 and the characteristic root or Eigen Values are λ* = 1 and 2

(D) The characteristic root or Eigen Values are λ* = -2 and 1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B) and (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (B) and (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (D) Only.

Key Points

The Polynomial, Eigenvalues, and Eigenvectors can be explained as follows: 

  • A matrix is a rectangular array or table of numbers, symbols, or expressions arranged in rows and columns and used to represent a mathematical object or its properties.
  • A polynomial is a mathematical statement made up of indeterminates and coefficients that use solely the operations addition, subtraction, multiplication, and positive-integer powers of variables.
  • In linear algebra, eigenvalues correspond to eigenvectors. Both phrases are used to analyze linear transformations. Eigenvalues are a specific set of scalar values that are related to a set of linear equations, most notably matrix equations. The eigenvectors are also known as characteristic roots. It is a non-zero vector that can only be altered by its scalar factor following linear transformations. The matching factor for scaling the eigenvectors is known as an eigenvalue.

The given matrix can be solved to find Polynomial, Eigen values, and Eigen vectors explained as follows:

A=[35 −2−4]\mathrm{A}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}3 & 5 \ -2 & -4\end{array}\right]

I=λ[10 01]\mathrm{I}=\lambda \left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & 0 \ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]

Multiplying the matrix with lambda: 

I=[λ0 0λ]\mathrm{I}= \left[\begin{array}{cc}\lambda& 0 \ 0 & \lambda\end{array}\right]

Subtracting the I matrix with the A matrix:

A=[3−λ5−0 −2−0−4−λ]\mathrm{A}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}3-\lambda & 5-0 \ -2-0 & -4-\lambda\end{array}\right]

A=[3−λ5 −2−4−λ]\mathrm{A}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}3-\lambda & 5 \ -2 & -4-\lambda\end{array}\right]

A=−4−λ(3−λ)−(5)∗(−2)\mathrm{A}=-4-\lambda(3-\lambda)-(5)*(-2)

A=−12+4λ−3λ+λ2+10A=-12+4\lambda-3\lambda+\lambda^2+10

A=λ−2+λ2A=\lambda-2+\lambda^2

These are the characteristics of Polynomials.

Further solving it:

A=λ−2+λ2A=\lambda-2+\lambda^2

A=λ2+λ−2A=\lambda^2+\lambda-2

A=λ2+2λ−λ−2A=\lambda^2+2\lambda-\lambda-2

A=λ(λ+2)−1(λ+2)A=\lambda(\lambda+2)-1(\lambda+2)

(λ−1)(λ+2)(\lambda-1)(\lambda+2)

λ=1 and λ=−2\lambda=1\ and \ \lambda=-2

 The characteristic root or Eigen Values are λ = -2 and 1.*

Additional Information The Explanation of options are as follows:

  • (A) The characteristic polynomial is λ2 + λ - 2: This option is correct because in the solution we get the characteristics of the polynomial.
  • (B) The characteristic polynomial is λ2 - 2λ - 4 and the characteristic root or Eigen Values are λ = 2 and 1:* This option is not correct because here the characteristics of a polynomial are not correct nor the Eigen values are correct.
  • (C) The characteristic polynomial is λ2 - λ + 2 and the characteristic root or Eigen Values are λ = 1 and 2:* This option is not correct because here the characteristics of a polynomial are not correct nor the Eigen values are correct.
  • (D) The characteristic root or Eigen Values are λ = -2 and 1:* This option is correct because we got the same Characteristics roots or Eigen values.

Hence, the correct answer is (A) and (D).

Question 82

Arrange the following chronologically starting from the oldest.

(A) Theory of Big Push

(B) The accumulation of capital

(C) Theory of cumulative causation

(D) Unbalanced growth

(E) Development with unlimited supplies of labour

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    (E), (A), (C), (B), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (E), (B), (C), (D) 

  3. COption (c)

    (E), (B), (A), (D), (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (E), (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(E), (B), (A), (D), (C)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: E, B, A, D, C.

Key Points

  • Development with unlimited supplies of labour (1954)
  • This theory was developed by Arthur Lewis in 1954.
  • It explains economic development in labor-surplus economies through the transfer of surplus labor from traditional sectors to modern industrial sectors.
  • The model emphasizes dual sectors—subsistence agriculture and industrial development.
  • The Accumulation of Capital (1956)
  • Joan Robinson introduced this concept in her book "The Accumulation of Capital" in 1956.
  • It discusses capital accumulation's role in long-term economic growth and development.
  • Robinson’s ideas challenged neoclassical theories and focused on income distribution and investment.
  • Theory of Big Push (1957)
  • This theory was proposed by Paul Rosenstein-Rodan in 1957.
  • It suggests that a large-scale investment in various industries simultaneously is required for economic development in underdeveloped countries.
  • The model emphasizes the importance of coordination and external economies for development.
  • Unbalanced Growth (1958)
  • Hirschman introduced the concept of unbalanced growth in 1958.
  • It advocates focusing on certain key sectors to stimulate development rather than aiming for balanced growth across all sectors.
  • The theory emphasizes the role of disequilibrium in fostering economic progress.
  • Theory of Cumulative Causation (1959)
  • This theory was introduced by Gunnar Myrdal in 1959.
  • It explains how initial advantages in economic development lead to a cycle of cumulative improvements.
  • Myrdal highlighted the role of regional disparities and the importance of intervention to reduce inequalities.

Additional Information

  • Interconnections among Theories:
  • These theories collectively reflect the evolution of thought on economic development, focusing on structural transformation, investment, and sectoral dynamics.
  • They address unique aspects such as labor surplus, capital accumulation, and the importance of coordinated or unbalanced investments.
  • Impact on Development Policy:
  • These theories have influenced policies in developing nations, guiding strategies for industrialization and economic reform.
  • Examples include state-led investment programs and selective industrial policies.
  • Modern Relevance:
  • Although developed in the mid-20th century, these theories continue to inform discussions on inequality, regional development, and economic strategies in emerging economies.

Question 83

Suppose a cost function of producing q level of output in C(w, r, q) where C(w, r, q) = q(wα+rβ)q\left(\frac{w}{α}+\frac{r}{β}\right), where w and r are the wage cost and rental cost of the 2 inputs capital (K) and labour (l) respectively. What would be the production function q of k and 1 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    q = αk + βl

  2. BOption (b)

    q = [kα + lβ]r

  3. COption (c)

    q = min {αl, βk}

  4. DOption (d)

    q = A(kα . lβ)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

q = min {αl, βk}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is q = min {αl, βk}.

Key Points

  • The production function from a cost function can be calculated by using the Conditional input demand for factors:
  • In economics, a conditional factor demand is the cost-minimizing amount of input (factor of production) such as labor or capital necessary to create a particular level of output, for given unit input costs (wage rate and capital cost) of the input components.

The conditional input demand for labor can be derived as:

  • ∂C∂w=L=q(wα+rβ)\frac {\partial C}{\partial w}=L=q({\frac{w}{\alpha}}+{\frac{r}{\beta}})
  • ∂C∂w=L=(qα) \frac {\partial C}{\partial w}=L=({\frac{q}{\alpha}}) \
  • q=αL...........(1)q=\alpha L...........(1)

The conditional input demand for capital can be derived as:

  • ∂C∂k=K=q(wα+rβ)\frac {\partial C}{\partial k}=K=q({\frac{w}{\alpha}}+{\frac{r}{\beta}})
  • ∂C∂k=K=(qβ)\frac {\partial C}{\partial k}=K=({\frac{q}{\beta}})
  • q=βK..........(2)q=\beta K..........(2)

Equating both the equations, we get**: (αL,βK)(\alpha L, \beta K)**

Now, if we see the cost function, there is a sign of plus between the inputs, indicating that both are complementary in nature and, therefore, can be used together. And as a cost, the producer always tries to minimize the cost function. Hence, The correct answer is q = min {αl, βk}.

Question 84

Suppose you are testing a Null Hypothesis about the population mean, Ho : μ =μ0 against H1 : μ > μ0, with population variance given. The computed value of the test statistic is Zc. What is the p-value for this test, where ​Φ () is the cumlative distribution function for the standard normal distribution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Φ (Zc)

  2. BOption (b)

    Φ (Zc/2)

  3. COption (c)

    1 - Φ (Zc)

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - Φ (Zc/2)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 - Φ (Zc)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 - Φ (Zc).

Key Points

  • Here, the testing is one-tailed as the null hypothesis is tested against the alternative hypothesis for once only and that is a right-tailed test (Ho: μ =μ0 against H1: μ > μ0,)
  • The p-value can be calculated for this test by using the cumulative distribution of standard normal distribution as the calculated value of the t-statistic is given.
  • If the null hypothesis is correct, the p-value indicates the likelihood of finding a test statistic that is as extreme as or more extreme than the one derived from the sample.
  • For one-tailed the p-value, where H1: μ > μ0, can be calculated as a 1-t statistic  or (1 - Φ (Zc))
  • Φ (Zc) Represents the probability of a value equal to or less than Zc and by subtracting it from 1 it represents the probability of a value greater than Zc.

Hence, The correct answer is 1 - Φ (Zc).

Question 85

Consider a consumer's choice based on only 2 commodities i.e., X∈R+2X \in R_{+}^2, where X is a set of all commodity bundles which the consumer can conceive of. Suppose x and y are the 2 different commodity bundles and the budget set B of the consumer can be written as :

B = {(x, y) : p1x + p2y ≤ M}; xi > 0, i = 1, 2. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    The budget set is an open, bounded and convex set

  2. BOption (b)

    The budget set is not a bounded set

  3. COption (c)

    The budget set is a closed and non-convex set

  4. DOption (d)

    The budget set is a closed, bounded and convex set

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The budget set is a closed, bounded and convex set

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The budget set  a closed, bounded and convex set. 

Key Points

  • If we see the budget line function that is given like B = {(x, y): p1x + p2y ≤ M} convexity explains bounded.
  • Closed and bounded: A closed set is a bounded set that includes its boundary. A bounded set does not necessarily have a boundary. If it has no boundaries, it is open. It is closed if it contains the entire border.
  • Convexity- Convexity can be understood as conveying a preference for diversity. According to this theory, consumers choose to combine two unrelated bundles.
  • Here, x and y are the two commodities on which the choice of consumption is given and his expenditure on the consumption of two goods is either equal to or less than his money income (M). This represents that the Budget set is closed and bounded because the consumer will spend all his income on consumption. This sets a boundary that he cannot spend more than his income. If there were a sign of less than only then the set would be of open type.
  • Now, from this, the two first two options are eliminated. For the convex part, the first derivative of x and y is less than the income, showing a minimum case that is why the set is convex in nature.
  • Mathematically, it can be represented as: f′(x)≤Mf'(x)\leq M, f′(y)≤Mf'(y)\leq M

Hence, The correct answer is The budget set is a closed, bounded and convex set.

Question 86

Consider the following statements about the Specific Factors model of International Trade and say which ones are correct?

(A) Factors specific to the export sectors in each country gain from trade

(B) Factors specific to the import-competing sectors in each country lose from trade

(C) Mobile factors that can work in either sector may gain from trade

(D) Mobile factors that can work in either sector may lose from trade

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (C), (D) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B), (C) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A), (B), (C), (D)

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The Specific Factors model is a classical model in international trade that helps in understanding the distributional effects of trade on different factors of production. It distinguishes between factors that are mobile and those that are specific to certain industries.

 

Key Points

:

  • (A) Factors specific to the export sectors in each country tend to gain from trade because exports increase, raising the demand for these factors and thus their returns.
  • (B) Factors specific to the import-competing sectors typically lose from trade because imports substitute for domestic production, reducing the demand for these factors and thus their returns.
  • (C) Mobile factors that can work in either sector may gain from trade as the overall economy grows and demand for labor increases in the expanding sector.
  • (D) Similarly, mobile factors may also lose from trade if they are predominantly employed in a sector that contracts due to trade, leading to a potential decrease in their returns.
<br>

Conclusion:

All statements (A), (B), (C), and (D) correctly describe potential outcomes of the Specific Factors model of International Trade. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4, which includes all these statements.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

The Specific Factors model is particularly useful in explaining short to medium-term adjustments in the economy following trade liberalization, where some factors of production cannot immediately or easily move between sectors.

Question 87

A=[13 28 40]A=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 1 & 3 \ 2 & 8 \ 4 & 0 \end{array}\right]  and B=[5 9]B=\left[\begin{array}{l} 5 \ 9 \end{array}\right]

(A) AB is given by [32 82 20]\left[\begin{array}{l}32 \ 82 \ 20\end{array}\right]

(B) BA is given by [32 82 20]

(C) AB is not defined

(D) BA is not defined

(E) ATB is defined

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (C) and (B) Only

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (D), (E) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A) Only

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(A) and (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) and (D) Only.

Key Points

  • We can define a matrix as A matrix is a rectangular array or table of numbers, symbols, or expressions arranged in rows and columns and used to represent a mathematical object or its properties.
  • Let's take each option and solve it:

Here, Matrix A is A=[13 28 40]A=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 1 & 3 \ 2 & 8 \ 4 & 0 \end{array}\right]  and Matrix B is B=[5 9]B=\left[\begin{array}{l} 5 \ 9 \end{array}\right]

  • For option (A): AB is given by [32 82 20]\left[\begin{array}{l}32 \ 82 \ 20\end{array}\right].
  • Now, AB can be calculated by multiplying Matrix A and Matrix B
  • \(AB= \left[\begin{array}{ll} 1 & 3 \ 2 & 8 \ 4 & 0 \end{array}\right]{3*2} \left[\begin{array}{l} 5 \ 9 \end{array}\right]{2*1} \)
  • The matrix multiplication can be performed as A's column(2) equals B's row(2).
  • \(AB=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 15 + 39 \ 25 + 89 \ 45 + 09 \end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{l} 32 \ 82 \ 20 \end{array}\right] \)

Hence, by calculation, it is proved that AB is given by[32 82 20]\left[\begin{array}{l}32 \ 82 \ 20\end{array}\right]. Therefore, the option is correct as it matches with the given Option(A).

  • For option (B): BA is given by [32 82 20]
  • Mow, BA can be calculated by multiplying Matrix B and Matrix A.
  • \(BA= \left[\begin{array}{l} 5 \ 9 \end{array}\right]{2*1} \left[\begin{array}{ll} 1 & 3 \ 2 & 8 \ 4 & 0 \end{array}\right]{3*2} \)
  • The matrix multiplication cannot be performed as B's column(1) is not equal to B's row(3).

Hence, the BA given by [32 82 20] is not correct. Therefore, Option B is not right.

  • Option (C) AB is not defined- This option is not correct because AB is defined as we performed its operation earlier in the solution and the option is saying that AB is not defined**. Therefore, Option C is not correct.**
  • Option (D) BA is not defined- Option (D) is correct because BA is not defined as we performed its operation earlier in the solution and the same is mentioned in option D as well. Therefore, Option (D) is correct.
  • Option (E) ATB is defined:  The transpose of a matrix is an operator that flips a matrix over its diagonal. It reverses the row and column indices of matrix A to produce another matrix, generally represented by Aᵀ.
  • AT=[124 380]2∗3A^T=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 1 & 2 & 4 \ 3 & 8 & 0 \end{array}\right]_{2*3} and B=[5 9]2∗1B=\left[\begin{array}{ll} 5 \ 9 \end{array}\right]_{2*1}
  • Here, option E is not correct as the matrix multiplication cannot be performed as A's Transpose Matrix column (3) is not equal to B's row(2). Hence, Option E is also not correct.

From, the above calculation, it can be concluded that only Option (A) and (D) are correct rest of the options are incorrect. Therefore, Options (A) and (D) are correct.

Question 88

Consider the following statements about the Current Account of the balance of payments and indicate which statements are true?

(A) Current Account deficit equals excess of imports over sum of exports and net transfers received by a country.

(B) Current Account deficit may be covered by borrowing from foreigners.

(C) Current Account deficit may be covered by buying assets from foreigners.

(D) If India's Current Account deficit in a particular period is 50million,itcanbefinancedbynetcapitalinflowsamountingto 50 million, it can be financed by net capital inflows amounting to 50 million.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B), (C), (D)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B), (D) Only

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C), (D) Only 

  4. DOption (d)

    (B), (C), (D) Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A), (B), (D) Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: (A), (B), (D) Only

Key Points

 

  • Current Account deficit equals excess of imports over sum of exports and net transfers received by a country:
  • This statement is correct.
  • A Current Account deficit occurs when a country's total imports of goods, services, and transfers exceed its total exports of the same.
  • Current Account deficit may be covered by borrowing from foreigners:
  • This statement is correct.
  • A country can cover its Current Account deficit by borrowing from foreign lenders, which involves taking loans or receiving investments.
  • If India's Current Account deficit in a particular period is 50million,itcanbefinancedbynetcapitalinflowsamountingto50 million, it can be financed by net capital inflows amounting to 50 million:
  • This statement is correct.
  • Net capital inflows, such as foreign direct investment or foreign portfolio investment, can finance a Current Account deficit by providing the necessary funds to balance the payments.
  • Current Account deficit may be covered by buying assets from foreigners:
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Covering a Current Account deficit involves obtaining funds rather than spending. Buying assets from foreigners would imply spending more money, which would not cover the deficit.

Additional Information

  • Current Account Deficit:
  • The Current Account of a country’s balance of payments includes the trade balance (exports and imports of goods and services), net income from abroad, and net current transfers.
  • A deficit indicates that a country is a net borrower from the rest of the world, as it imports more goods, services, and capital than it exports.
  • Financing Current Account Deficit:
  • A Current Account deficit can be financed by capital inflows, including foreign direct investment, portfolio investment, and external borrowing.
  • Countries may also use their foreign exchange reserves to cover short-term deficits, although this is not a sustainable long-term solution.
  • Implications of Current Account Deficit:
  • Persistent deficits can lead to a build-up of foreign debt, which might pose risks to a country’s economic stability.
  • However, deficits can also indicate economic growth and investment opportunities, attracting foreign capital.

Question 89

Match List - I with List - II. 

List - IList - II
(A)Demographic Transition(I)Dualism
(B)Stages of growth(II)Take-off
(C)Rural-urban migration decision(III)Replacement Rate
(D)Female labour force participation rate(IV)Backward bending labour supply curve
<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The question provided is a match-the-following type, where List - I consists of economic concepts and List - II comprises related phenomena or results. The task is to correctly match each concept from List - I with its corresponding outcome or implication from List - II.

 

Key Points

:

  • Demographic Transition (A) refers to the transition from high birth and death rates to lower birth and death rates as a country or region develops from a pre-industrial to an industrialized economic system. The concept is closely related to the Replacement Rate (III), which is the number of births needed to maintain the population at its current number.
  • Stages of Growth (B) is a theory that economic development occurs in distinct stages, of which "Take-off" (II) is a critical phase. This phase is characterized by rapid growth in industrialization and investment, leading to significant economic changes.
  • Rural-urban Migration Decision (C) involves individuals moving from rural areas to urban areas, often influenced by economic opportunities, which is an example of Dualism (I), the coexistence of two economic systems within one country, typically a traditional agricultural sector and a modern industrial sector.
  • Female Labour Force Participation Rate (D) refers to the percentage of women who are either employed or actively looking for employment. The behavior of female labor supply is often described by the Backward Bending Labour Supply Curve (IV), which shows that beyond a certain wage level, the labor supply starts to decrease as leisure becomes more valuable.
<br>

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option 3: (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV). This option accurately matches each concept from List - I with its corresponding outcome or implication from List - II, reflecting a clear understanding of economic theories and their applications.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

Understanding these concepts is crucial for analyzing economic policies and their impacts on society. Each concept provides insights into different aspects of economic development and labor market dynamics, highlighting the complexity and interconnectedness of economic phenomena.

Question 90

Suppose a consumer has a utility function u(x)=10 √x, where x is the money income of the consumer. Suppose the consumer's initial endowment is Rs. 50. Suppose she may suffer a loss of Rs. 25 with a probability of 0.5 for some random event. Suppose she pays p premium for an insurance policy that fully reimburses her if she suffers a loss. How much premium p would she be willing to pay to insure against the loss? 

  1. AOption (a)

    12.50

  2. BOption (b)

    13.57

  3. COption (c)

    11.59

  4. DOption (d)

    14.41

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13.57

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 13.57.

Key Points

  • To calculate premium p that she  would  be willing to pay to insure against the loss, we need to find out Expected utility.
  • Expected utility is an economic term summarizing the utility that an entity or aggregate economy is expected to reach under any number of circumstances. The expected utility is calculated by taking the weighted average of all possible outcomes under certain circumstances. With the weights being assigned by the likelihood or probability, any particular event will occur.
  • If a consumer suffers no loss, then her income is Rs. 50 and utility U(50) = 10  (√50)(√50)(√50)(50)
  • If a consumer suffers loss of Rs. 25, then her income is Rs. 25 and utility U(25)  = 10  (√25)(√25)(√25)(25)
  • The probability of suffering a loss is 0.5, therefore, Utility without insurance is equal to :
  • U = 0.5 U(50) + 0.5 U(25)
  • U = 0.5 (10)(7.07) + 0.5(10)(5)
  • U = 35.35 + 25
  • U = 60.35
  • Now we need to find out how much premium (p) the consumer would be willing to pay, we need to determine at what premium her utility with insurance, paying the premium for sure but facing no loss, equals her expected utility without insurance.
  • Set this U= 60.35 equal to  10 (50−p)\sqrt(50-p)
  • This solving gives p = 50 - 36.42
  • Therefore premium p = 13.57 approx.
  • The correct answer is 13.57.

Assume that there are 2 firms producing steel. There is a negative externality due to production causing pollution. Firm 1's output is q1 and firm 2's is q2. Assume that the market price for steel is Ps = 1. Now consider two scenarios :

Scenario 1 : Assume that firm 1's cost function is C1(q1)=q12{C}_1\left(\mathrm{q}_1\right)=\mathrm{q}_1^2 and firm 2 's cost function is C2(q2, q1) = (q2 + 0.75 q1)2. In short, firm 1's production is not affected by firm 2 but firm 2's production is affected by firm 1, i.e., Firms 1's operation causes firm 2's costs to rise.

Scenario 2 : Assume that negative externality works both ways i.e. both the firms face the adverse impact. So assume C1(q1, q2) = (q1 + 0.75 q2)2 and C2(q1, q2) = (q2 + 0.75 q1)2, i.e., Firms 1's operation causes firm 2's costs to rise and vice versa.

Question 91

What is the long run profit of firm 2(π2), in Scenario 1 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    π2 = 0.125

  2. BOption (b)

    π2 = 0.120

  3. COption (c)

    π2 = 0.5

  4. DOption (d)

    π2 = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

π2 = 0

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is π2 = 0.

Key Points

  • Scenario 1 is a uni-directional negative externality. Since  C2(q2, q1) = (q2 + 0.75 q1)2  The cost is affected by firm 1's production also. Hence in such negative externality, the profits of firm 2 will be zero in long run.

Question 92

What is the equilibrium profit of firm 2(π2) in the short run, in Scenario 1 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    π2 = 0.025

  2. BOption (b)

    π2 = 0.125

  3. COption (c)

    π2 = -0.125

  4. DOption (d)

    π2 =0.75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

π2 = -0.125

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is – π2 = −0.125

Key Points

  • Given Information (Scenario 1)
  • Market price of steel: P = 1
  • Firm 1 cost function: C1(q1) = q12
  • Firm 2 cost function: C2(q2, q1) = (q2 + 0.75 q1)2
  • Firm 1’s production increases Firm 2’s cost, but not vice versa.
  • Firm 1’s Output Choice
  • Profit of Firm 1: π1 = q1 − q12
  • First-order condition: 1 − 2q1 = 0
  • Equilibrium output: q1 = 0.5
  • Firm 2’s Output Choice
  • Profit of Firm 2: π2 = q2 − (q2 + 0.75 × 0.5)2
  • = q2 − (q2 + 0.375)2
  • First-order condition: 1 − 2(q2 + 0.375) = 0
  • Solving gives: q2 = 0.125
  • Equilibrium Profit of Firm 2
  • π2 = 0.125 − (0.125 + 0.375)2
  • = 0.125 − (0.5)2
  • = 0.125 − 0.25
  • = −0.125

Additional Information

  • Economic Interpretation
  • Firm 2 suffers a loss because Firm 1’s production creates a negative externality.
  • This external cost is not internalized by Firm 1 in Scenario 1.
  • Such asymmetric externalities can lead to inefficient outcomes and losses for affected firms.

Question 93

What would be the market equilibrium profit of the 2 firms, in Scenario 2 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    π1=128,π2=128\pi_1=\frac{1}{28}, \pi_2=\frac{1}{28}

  2. BOption (b)

    π1=27,π2=27\pi_1=\frac{2}{7}, \pi_2=\frac{2}{7}

  3. COption (c)

    π1=114,π2=114\pi_1=\frac{1}{14}, \pi_2=\frac{1}{14}

  4. DOption (d)

    π1 = π2 = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

π1=128,π2=128\pi_1=\frac{1}{28}, \pi_2=\frac{1}{28}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Profit of firm 1 is 1/28 and for firm 2 is also 1/28'

Key Points

Scenario 2 Explanation:

  • In Scenario 2, both firms are affected by the negative externality caused by each other.
  • Firm 1’s cost function: C1(q1,q2)=(q1+0.75q2)2C_1(q_1, q_2) = (q_1 + 0.75 q_2)^2C1​(q1​,q2​)=(q1​+0.75q2​)2
  • Firm 2’s cost function: C2(q1,q2)=(q2+0.75q1)2C_2(q_1, q_2) = (q_2 + 0.75 q_1)^2C2​(q1​,q2​)=(q2​+0.75q1​)2

Revenue and Cost Functions:

  • Market price Ps=1P_s = 1Ps​=1.
  • Revenue for firm 1: R1=q1×1=q1R_1 = q_1 \times 1 = q_1R1​=q1​×1=q1​
  • Revenue for firm 2: R2=q2×1=q2R_2 = q_2 \times 1 = q_2R2​=q2​×1=q2​
  • Cost for firm 1: C1(q1,q2)=(q1+0.75q2)2C_1(q_1, q_2) = (q_1 + 0.75 q_2)^2C1​(q1​,q2​)=(q1​+0.75q2​)2
  • Cost for firm 2: C2(q1,q2)=(q2+0.75q1)2C_2(q_1, q_2) = (q_2 + 0.75 q_1)^2C2​(q1​,q2​)=(q2​+0.75q1​)2

 

Profit Functions:

  • Profit for firm 1: π1=q1−(q1+0.75q2)2\pi_1 = q_1 - (q_1 + 0.75 q_2)^2π1​=q1​−(q1​+0.75q2​)2
  • Profit for firm 2: π2=q2−(q2+0.75q1)2\pi_2 = q_2 - (q_2 + 0.75 q_1)^2π2​=q2​−(q2​+0.75q1​)2

Finding Equilibrium:

  • To find the equilibrium, set the first-order conditions for profit maximization to zero
  • For firm 1: ∂π1∂q1=1−2(q1+0.75q2)=0\frac{\partial \pi_1}{\partial q_1} = 1 - 2(q_1 + 0.75 q_2) = 0∂q1​∂π1​​=1−2(q1​+0.75q2​)=0
  • For firm 2: ∂π2∂q2=1−2(q2+0.75q1)=0\frac{\partial \pi_2}{\partial q_2} = 1 - 2(q_2 + 0.75 q_1) = 0∂q2​∂π2​​=1−2(q2​+0.75q1​)=0
  • Solving these equations simultaneously gives: q1+0.75q2=0.5andq2+0.75q1=0.5q_1 + 0.75 q_2 = 0.5 \quad \text{and} \quad q_2 + 0.75 q_1 = 0.5q1​+0.75q2​=0.5andq2​+0.75q1​=0.5
  • Solving for q1q_1q1​ and q2q_2q2​: q1=q2=27q_1 = q_2 = \frac{2}{7}q1​=q2​=2/7​
  • Profits can be calculated by : Substitute q1=27q_1 = \frac{2}{7}q1​=72​ and q2=27q_2 = \frac{2}{7}q2​=2/7​ back into the profit functions
  • we get π1=128,π2=128\pi_1=\frac{1}{28}, \pi_2=\frac{1}{28}

Question 94

Do you think that the equilibrium outcome for Scenario 2 is inefficient ? How would be the efficiency be restored?

  1. AOption (a)

    No, the equilibrium outcome of the firms are profit minimizing outcome.

  2. BOption (b)

    The externality can be resolved by closing down both the firms is, π1 = π2 = 0

  3. COption (c)

    If one of the firm is forced to close down, the externality will be reduced and their joint profit is π1 + π2 = 0.071

  4. DOption (d)

    If one of the firm is forced to close down, the externality will be reduced and their joint profit is π1 + π2  =0.109

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

If one of the firm is forced to close down, the externality will be reduced and their joint profit is π1 + π2  =0.109

Why this answer is correct

If one of the firm is forced to close down, the externality will be reduced and their joint profit is π1 + π2  =0.109

Key Points

  • In Scenario 2, where negative externalities affect both firms—meaning each firm's production increases the production costs of the other (due to pollution or some other form of mutual negative impact)—the equilibrium outcome in a free market is typically inefficient. This inefficiency arises because neither firm takes the full societal cost of its production decisions into account. Instead, each firm only considers its private costs, leading to overproduction from the perspective of societal welfare.
  • In case Firm 1 is closed down,  the externality will be reduced and their joint profit is π1 + π2  =0.109

Question 95

What is the long run profit of firm 1(π1), in Scenario 1 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    π​1 = 0.025

  2. BOption (b)

    π​1 = 0

  3. COption (c)

    π​1 = 0.25

  4. DOption (d)

    π1 = 0.125

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

π​1 = 0.25

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is π1 = 0.25

Key Points The long-run profit of firm 1 can be calculated by subtracting total cost from total revenue.

  • The Price of steel is given as Rs. 1
  • The Cost function is given by: q12q_1^2
  • The Firm 1's output is: q1

Total revenue of firm 1 in scenario 1 = PriceQuantity; 1q1=q1

Total cost of firm 1 in scenario 1 q12q_1^2

  • The long-run profit= TR-TC
  • Profit: π=q1−q12\pi =q_1-q_1^2

Differentiating the profit function with respect to q and setting it equal to 0:

  • ∂π∂q1=1−2q1=0\frac{\partial\pi}{\partial q_1}=1-2q_1=0
  • q1=12q_1=\frac{1}{2}

Putting the value of q1 in the profit function:

  • Profit: π=q1−q12\pi =q_1-q_1^2
  • π=12−(12)2\pi=\frac{1}{2}-(\frac{1}{2})^2
  • π=14\pi=\frac{1}{4}
  • π=0.125\pi=0.125

Hence, the profit for the firm 1 in scenario 1 is 0.25.

According to the NSO, MOSPI press release dated 31st May 2023, the revised estimate of GDP at the current price for the year 2021-22 was Rs. 2,34,71,012 crores and that for 2020-21 was Rs. 1,98,29,927 crores. The GDP at 2011-12 constant prices for the year 2020-21 and 2021-22 were Rs. 1,36,87,118 crores and Rs. 1,49,25,840 crores respectively. At the current prices, the net taxes on products was Rs. 20,32,128 crores in 2021-22(RE). The PFCE, GFCE, GFCF in 2021-22 were Rs. 1,43,44,336 crores, Rs. 26,25,361 crores and Rs. 67,86,391 crores respectively. Change in stocks(CIS), valuables and discrepancies in 2021 - 22 were Rs. 1,63,438 crores, Rs. 3,79,112 crores and Rs. (-) 208,247 crores (negative) respectively in current prices.

Question 96

In 2021-22, the investment GDP ratio in India was :

  1. AOption (a)

    31.2%

  2. BOption (b)

    90%

  3. COption (c)

    40.1%

  4. DOption (d)

    42.4%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

31.2%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 31.2%.

Key Points The investment-to-GDP ratio can be calculated as:

Investment in the year 2021-22: 

  • Gross domestic capital formation= Gross fixed capital formation + Change in stocks + Valuables
  • GDCF = 67,86,391+1,63,438+3,79,112=73,28,94167,86,391+1,63,438+3,79,112=73,28,941

GDP for the year 2021-22 at current prices: 2,34,71,0122,34,71,012

Investment-to-GDP ratio = Investment / GDP 

  • Investment-to-GDP ratio= 73,28,941/2,34,71,012∗100=31.22%73,28,941/2,34,71,012*100=31.22\%

Hence, The investment-to-GDP ratio is 31.2%.

Question 97

The Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices in 2021-22 was :

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2,55,03,140 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 2,14,38,884 crore

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2,34,71,012 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1,49,37,569 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 2,14,38,884 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. 2,14,38,884 crore.

Key Points The GVA at basic prices in 2021-22 can be calculated as:

  • GVAMP=GDPMP−Subsidies−Indirect taxesGVA_{MP}=GDP_{MP}- Subsidies-Indirect\ taxes
  • GVAMP=23,471,012−0−20,32,128GVA_{MP}=23,471,012-0-20,32,128
  • GVAMP=21,438,884GVA_{MP}=21,438,884

Additional Information

  • Using this method, GVA is computed as follows: output is the total amount of goods and services produced during the reference period, less any goods and services consumed or altered during production, such as inputs and raw materials (intermediate consumption).
  • The formula for calculating the link between GVA and GDP is as follows: GVA = GDP + product taxes + product subsidies.

Hence, as per calculation, the GVA at a basic price in 2021-22 is Rs. 2,14,38,884 crores.

Question 98

The current account deficit to GDP ratio (both at current prices) in 2021-22 for India was :

  1. AOption (a)

    1.75%

  2. BOption (b)

    3.53%

  3. COption (c)

    4.06%

  4. DOption (d)

    2.64%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2.64%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2.64%.

Key Points

The current account deficit is imported more than exported. It can be calculated as:

  • CAD= Imports-Exports
  • CAD=56,69,024−50,49,645CAD=56,69,024-50,49,645
  • CAD=619,379CAD=619,379

The current account deficit to GDP ratio (both at current prices) in 2021-22 for India can be calculated as: 

  • Current account deficit to GDP ratio=CADGDP∗100Current\ account\ deficit\ to\ GDP \ ratio= \frac {CAD}{GDP}*100
  • Current account deficit to GDP ratio=619,37923,471,012∗100Current\ account\ deficit\ to\ GDP \ ratio=\frac {619,379}{23,471,012}*100
  • Current account deficit to GDP ratio=2.64%Current\ account\ deficit\ to\ GDP \ ratio=2.64\%

Hence, The current account deficit to GDP ratio (both at current prices) in 2021-22 for India is 2.64%.

Question 99

What was the inflation rate in India based on the GDP deflators?

  1. AOption (a)

    4.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    6.6%

  3. COption (c)

    9.3%

  4. DOption (d)

    10.2%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9.3%

Why this answer is correct

The inflation rate is calculated as Nominal GDP- Real GDP. Usually, the Nominal GDP includes inflation rate that is why the prices got higher in upcoming years. To Determine inflation we have to measure the Nominal GDP on the grounds of Real GDP. 

Key Points As per the information given in the question,

GDP at the current price:

  • For the year 2021-22: Rs. 2,34,71,012 crores
  • For the year 2020-21: Rs. 1,98,29,927 crores

The GDP at 2011-12 constant prices

  • For the year 2021-22: Rs. 1,49,25,840 crores
  • For the year 2020-21: Rs. 1,36,87,118 crores

The GDP deflator can be calculated as: NominalGDPRealGDP∗100\frac{Nominal GDP}{Real GDP}*100

  • The GDP deflator for the year 2021-22:2,34,71,0121,49,25,840∗100=1.57\frac{2,34,71,012}{1,49,25,840}*100=1.57
  • The GDP deflator for the year 2020-21:1,98,29,9271,36,87,118∗100=1.44\frac{1,98,29,927}{1,36,87,118}*100=1.44

The inflation rate can be calculated as : Inflationrate=(GDP deflator2021−22)−(GDPdeflator2020−21)GDPdeflator2020−21{Inflation rate}=\frac{ (GDP \ deflator 2021-22)- (GDP deflator 2020-21)}{GDP deflator 2020-21} 

     =1.57−1.441.44∗100=9.03% =\frac{1.57-1.44}{1.44}*100 = 9.03\%

Hence, The inflation rate in India based on the GDP deflators was 9.3%.

Question 100

If the value of exports in 2021-22 at current price be Rs. 50,49,645 crores, the import in 2021-22 at current price in India was :

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 56,69,024 crores

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 6,19,378 crores

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1,17,18,975 crores

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 94,11,752 crores

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 56,69,024 crores

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. 56,69,024 crores.

Key Points

  • The imports in 2021-22 at the current price in India can be calculated by using the Expenditure income method of measuring the GDP at the current price.

            GDPMP=GDP_{MP}=PFCE+GFCE+GDCF+Net Exports.

Where,

  • Net Exports= Exports-Imports
  • Gross domestic consumption formation(GDCF)= Gross fixed capital formation (GFCF) + Change in stocks + Valuables - Disprencies
  • Gross domestic consumption formation(GDCF) =67,86,391+1,63,438+3,79,112−2,08,247= 67,86,391 + 1,63,438 + 3,79,112 - 2,08,247
  • =71,20,694=71,20,694

Putting all the values in the formula:

  • GDPMP=GDP_{MP}=PFCE+GFCE+GDCF+Net Exports.
  • 2,34,71,012=1,43,44,336+26,25,361+71,20,694+50,49,645−Imports2,34,71,012=1,43,44,336+26,25,361+71,20,694+50,49,645-Imports
  • Imports=5,669,024Imports= 5,669,024

 

Additional Information When calculating GDP, the expenditure approach takes into consideration the total amount of finished goods and services that an economy has spent over a certain period. Spending by consumers, the government, businesses investing, and net exports are all considered forms of expenditure. The GDP equals aggregate demand when applying the spending technique.

Hence, The import in 2021-22 at the current price in India was Rs. 56,69,024 crores.

100 questions in the full paper