Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 12th Dec 2023 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

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Paper 1 (50 questions)

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Even when a solid waste is buried in landfills, it can still provide energy.

Reason (R): Buried waste produces natural gas which can be captured and burned.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
((b))
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
((c))
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
((d))
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

The most appropriate answer is: 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

Assertion (A) is correct. Even when solid waste is buried in landfills, it can still provide energy through the production of landfill gas (LFG). LFG is a mixture of gases, primarily methane and carbon dioxide, produced by the decomposition of organic material in the landfill. This gas can be captured and used to generate electricity, heat buildings, or fuel vehicles.
Reason (R) is also correct. As mentioned above, LFG is the key reason why buried waste can provide energy. By capturing and burning this gas, we can harness its energy potential and avoid releasing it into the atmosphere, where it contributes to climate change.

Therefore, both statements are true, and Reason (R) accurately explains why Assertion (A) holds true.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): According to the Classical Indian school of logic (Nyāya) the argument- 'Sound is eternal because it is audible' is fallacious

Reason (R): In the argument- 'Sound is eternal because it is audible' the middle term is too wide.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
((b))
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
((c))
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
((d))
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

The most appropriate answer is: (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

Key Points

Assertion (A): According to the Classical Indian school of logic, Nyāya, the argument "Sound is eternal because it is audible" is considered fallacious.
This assertion highlights a fundamental principle of logic, namely the fallacy of circular reasoning or petitio principii. Circular reasoning occurs when the conclusion of an argument is assumed in one of the premises.
In this case, the argument presupposes that sound is eternal. It is audible, which essentially means that sound exists forever because it can be heard.
Reason (R): The reason provided states that in the argument "Sound is eternal because it is audible," the middle term is too wide.
The middle term in a syllogism is the term that appears in both premises but not in the conclusion. In this argument, the middle term is "audible." However, the assertion that it is "too wide" is not accurate.
The term "audible" refers to something that can be heard, which is directly relevant to the concept of sound. Therefore, the width of the middle term is not the issue here.

Therefore the correct answer is (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): If Global average warming is limited to one or two additional degrees, some regions will experience enhanced agricultural productivity.

Statement (II): Beyond 2 °C to 3°C of global average warming, essentially all impacts become deleterious.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
((c))
Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
((d))
Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.

The most appropriate answer is: 1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.

Key Points

Statement (I) is accurate. Studies have shown that moderate warming (around 1-2°C) can indeed lead to increased agricultural productivity in some regions, particularly at higher latitudes. This is because warmer temperatures can extend the growing season and make it easier for certain crops to thrive.
Statement (II) is also true. Beyond 2-3°C of warming, the negative impacts of climate change become much more widespread and severe. This includes more extreme weather events, rising sea levels, disrupted ecosystems, and threats to food security. Essentially, the risks outweigh any potential benefits at this point.

Therefore, both statements hold true within their respective contexts. Limiting warming to below 2°C is crucial to avoid the most devastating consequences of climate change, while acknowledging that some regions might see some agricultural benefits at slightly lower levels of warming.

Which of the following is an Indian mobile payment app developed by the National Payments Corporation of India, based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) that facilitates safe, easy and instant digital payments?

((a))
MyGov
((b))
UMANG
((c))
BHIM
((d))
PhonePe

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

BHIM

The correct answer is: 3) BHIM

Key Points

MyGov is a citizen engagement platform by the Government of India, not a payment app.
UMANG is a unified mobile app platform for government services, not specifically for payments.
BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) is indeed an Indian mobile payment app developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) based on UPI. It facilitates safe, easy, and instant digital payments using your bank account linked to the app.
PhonePe is a popular third-party UPI payment app, not developed by NPCI.

Therefore, only BHIM fulfills all the criteria mentioned in the question.

A can do $\frac{1}{3}$ of a work in 4 days and B can do $\frac{3}{4}$ of the work in 15 days. Together, they will complete the work in

((a))
$4\frac{1}{4}$ days
((b))
$5\frac{3}{4}$ days
((c))
$8\frac{1}{4}$ days
((d))
$7\frac{1}{2}$ days

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

$7\frac{1}{2}$ days

Given:

A can do $\frac{1}{3}$ of a work in 4 days

A can do whole work in = 4 × 3 = 12 days

B can do $\frac{3}{4}$ of the work in 15 days.

B can do whole work in = 15 × $\frac{4}{3}$ = 20 days

Formula used:

Work = Time × Efficiency

Calculation:

One day work of A = 1/12

One day work of B = 1/20

Let together they take x days

One day work of A and B = 1/x

According to the question,

⇒ 1/12 + 1/20 = 1/x

⇒ (20 + 12)/ 240 = 1/x

⇒ 32x = 240

⇒ x = 30/4

⇒ x = 15/2 = $7\frac{1}{2}$ days

Hence, the correct answer is " $7\frac{1}{2}$ days".

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Composting is the aerobic degradation of organic materials by microorganisms mainly under controlled conditions

Statement (II): Both macro and micro-organisms play important role in the composting process.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
((c))
Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
((d))
Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.

The most appropriate answer is: 1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.

Key Points

Statement (I) is accurate. Composting is indeed the aerobic degradation of organic materials by microorganisms, typically under controlled conditions like moisture, temperature, and aeration. The microbes breakdown complex organic matter into simpler forms, eventually producing a nutrient-rich and stable substance called compost.
Statement (II) is also true. While bacteria and fungi are the primary players in composting, both macro and micro-organisms contribute to the process in different ways. Macro-organisms like earthworms and millipedes physically shred and mix the compost pile, aiding aeration and providing access for the micro-organisms. Furthermore, they contribute to the final compost structure and composition through their own digestive processes.

Therefore, both statements hold true and complement each other in providing a comprehensive understanding of the composting process.

Which of the following physical environmental factors affect the communicatiors' behaviour during interaction?

(A). Smiling face

(B). Melodious voice

(C). Temperature

(D). Lighting conditions

(E). Loud noise

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(A), (B) and (C) only.
((b))
(B), (C) and (D) only.
((c))
(C), (D) and (E) only.
((d))
(A), (B) and (E) only.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

(C), (D) and (E) only.

The correct answer is: 3) (C), (D) and (E) only.

Key Points While smiling faces and melodious voices are aspects of the communicators themselves, not the physical environment, the other options listed do influence communication behavior:

Temperature: Can impact comfort and focus, affecting communication fluency and engagement.
Lighting conditions: Poor lighting can strain eyes and hinder nonverbal cues, reducing understanding and engagement.
Loud noise: Distracts and makes it difficult to hear, leading to misunderstandings and frustration.

Therefore, only options (C), (D), and (E) represent physical environmental factors affecting communication behavior.

The Simon commission set up a committee on education which was considered as a/an

((a))
University committee
((b))
Provincial committee
((c))
Auxiliary committee
((d))
Federal committee

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Auxiliary committee

The correct answer is: Auxiliary committee

Key Points

The Simon Commission, officially the "Indian Statutory Commission," was a group appointed in 1927 by the British government.
The Simon Commission, also known as the Indian Statutory Commission, was tasked with investigating constitutional reform in British India.
While it didn't directly deal with education, it did set up an Auxiliary Committee specifically to inquire into the growth of education in India.
This committee was not a "university committee" as it wasn't limited to the university system, nor was it a "provincial committee" as its scope covered all of India. Similarly, it wasn't a "federal committee" as India didn't have a federal structure at that time.

Therefore, based on the historical context and function of the Auxiliary Committee, the most accurate description is "auxiliary committee."

How much water (free of cost) should be added to 18 litres of milk worth Rs. 70 per litre so that the value of the mixture is Rs. 60 per litre?

((a))
2 litres
((b))
3 litres
((c))
4 litres
((d))
5 litres

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

3 litres

Given:

Cost of milk is Rs. 70 per litre

The cost of water will be zero.

Calculation:

Let x liters of water be added.

Total cost of Milk = 18 × 70 = Rs. 1260 litre

According top question,

⇒ 18 × 70 = (18 + x) × 60

⇒ 1260 = 1080 + 60x

⇒ 60x = 180

⇒ x = 3 litres

Thus, 3 litres of water, must be added.

Hence, the correct answer is "3 liters".

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): A dependent variable can be dichotomous.

Statement (II): An independent variable can never be dichotomous.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
((c))
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
((d))
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

The most appropriate answer is: 3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

Key Points

Statement (I) is accurate. A dependent variable can indeed be dichotomous, meaning it has only two possible categories or values. This is a common type of variable used in various research areas, such as:
Pass/fail outcomes in a test
Presence or absence of a disease
Survival or death in a medical study
Win or lose in a sports match
Yes or no responses in a survey
Statement (II) is false. An independent variable can also be dichotomous. It's not restricted to having multiple values. Here are examples of dichotomous independent variables:
Gender (male or female)
Treatment group (received treatment or not)
Exposure to a risk factor (exposed or not)
Type of instruction (traditional or experimental)

In conclusion, both dependent and independent variables can be dichotomous, making them versatile tools for research across various fields.

Given are two numbers whose ratio is 7 : 3. If '2' is added to each of them, their ratio becomes 2 : 1. What is the sum of these two numbers?

((a))
10
((b))
15
((c))
20
((d))
18

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Given: two numbers whose ratio is 7 : 3.

Let the first number be 7x and second number be 3x.

According to the question, if '2' is added to each of them, their ratio becomes 2 : 1

⇒ ${7x + 2 \over 3x + 2}$ = ${2\over1}$

⇒ 7x + 2 = 6x + 4

⇒ x = 2

Thus, the first number is 14 and the second number is 6.

Now, the sum of these two numbers is = 14 + 6

= 20

Hence, the correct answer is "20".

Which of the following hardware components will lose data when the power to a computer is switched off?

(A). CPU Registers

(B). Cache Memory

(C). Main Memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(C) only.
((b))
(A) and (C) only.
((c))
(B) and (A) only.
((d))
(A), (B) and (C).

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

(A), (B) and (C).

The correct answer is 4) (A), (B), and (C).

Key Points

1. CPU Registers:
These are the smallest and fastest memory units within the CPU itself.
They temporarily hold data and instructions that the CPU is actively processing.
They are volatile, meaning they lose their contents when the power is turned off.
2. Cache Memory:
This is a small, high-speed memory that sits between the CPU and main memory.
It stores frequently accessed data and instructions to speed up processing.
It is also volatile, losing its contents when the power is lost.
3. Main Memory (RAM):
This is the primary memory where programs and data are stored while a computer is running.
It is volatile as well, losing its contents when the power is turned off or interrupted.
In contrast, non-volatile memory like hard drives, SSDs, and ROM (Read-Only Memory) retains data even without power. This is why computers need both types of memory: volatile for fast access during operation and non-volatile for long-term storage.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In an inductive argument the truth of the premises does not show that the conclusion must be true.

Reason (R): If something has repeatedly happened in the past it makes it highly probable that the same thing will happen again in future in the same circumstances but does not ensure it.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
((b))
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
((c))
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
((d))
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

The most appropriate answer is: 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

Assertion (A) is accurate. Inductive arguments move from specific observations to general conclusions. While observing repeated patterns in the past increases the likelihood of the same thing happening again in the future, it doesn't guarantee it.
Reason (R) perfectly explains this. It highlights the probabilistic nature of inductive reasoning. Past results provide strong evidence but cannot definitively confirm future outcomes.

Therefore, both statements are true, and Reason (R) directly explains why Assertion (A) holds true.

In survey research, the tendency of a respondent to answer in predictable ways, independent of the question content, refers to

((a))
Experimenter Bias
((b))
Measurement Bias
((c))
Response Bias
((d))
Psychosocial Effect

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Response Bias

The most appropriate answer for the tendency of respondents to answer predictably in surveys, independent of the question content, is: 3) Response Bias

Key Points

Experimenter bias refers to the researcher's influence on the study results, not the respondent's behavior.
Measurement bias relates to systematic errors in the way data is collected or measured, not in the way respondents answer.
Psychosocial effect is a broader term encompassing the impact of social and psychological factors on behavior, not specific to survey responses.
Response bias directly encompasses the phenomenon described – a systematic tendency in respondent answers that is independent of the question content. This can include various forms like social desirability bias, acquiescence bias, or fatigue bias, where respondents may answer based on factors like wanting to appear good, agreeing with everything, or rushing through the survey.

Therefore, "Response Bias" best captures the tendency of respondents to answer predictably, regardless of the actual question being asked.

Mr. Jackson wants to create a multimedia lesson on the solar system for his students. In this context, which of the following tools would be most suitable?

((a))
Quizizz
((b))
Nearpod
((c))
Mentimeter
((d))
X Mind

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Nearpod

Key Points

Quizizz: This is primarily a quiz-based platform. While it can incorporate images and videos, it might not be ideal for creating a comprehensive multimedia lesson with interactive elements and explanations.
Nearpod: This platform offers a wider range of features for creating interactive lessons, including embedding videos, images, polls, quizzes, and drawing tools. It allows Mr. Jackson to create different types of slides and activities to engage students visually and actively.
Mentimeter: This is mainly a presentation and audience engagement tool. While it allows interactive elements like polls and word clouds, it might not be as comprehensive as Nearpod for building a full-fledged multimedia lesson with various learning materials and activities.
X Mind: This is a mind mapping software primarily used for visualizing ideas and organizing information. It wouldn't be suitable for creating multimedia presentations with audio, video, or interactive elements.

Therefore, considering the need for a multimedia lesson with visuals, activities, and interactivity, Nearpod seems the most suitable tool for Mr. Jackson. However, depending on his specific emphasis (e.g., more focus on quizzes or polls), other options like Quizizz or Mentimeter might also be considered as supplementary tools.

Identify the formal fallacy committed in the following argument:

"One way humanity could die out is, if the Sun stopped functioning, then we would surely go extinct. If we all go extinct, it must have been because our Sun stopped working."

((a))
Denying the antecedent
((b))
Existential Fallacy
((c))
Exclusive Premises
((d))
Affirming the consequent

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Affirming the consequent

The formal fallacy committed in the argument "One way humanity could die out is, if the Sun stopped functioning, then we would surely go extinct. If we all go extinct, it must have been because our Sun stopped working" is: 4) Affirming the consequent

Key Points

Affirming the consequent occurs when you have an "if, then" statement (a conditional statement) and incorrectly conclude the converse is true. In other words, you assume that because if one thing (P) is true, then another thing (Q) must be true, then if Q is true, P must also be true. This is not logically valid.
In the given argument, the conditional statement is: "If the Sun stopped functioning (P), then humanity would go extinct (Q)."
The second sentence assumes the converse: "If humanity goes extinct (Q), then the Sun must have stopped functioning (P)." This is invalid because even though human extinction could be caused by a non-functioning Sun, it could also be caused by other factors.
Therefore, the argument commits the fallacy of affirming the consequent by incorrectly assuming that because one possible explanation for an event is true, it must be the only explanation.

Additional Information

Denying the antecedent: This occurs when you deny the if-clause (P) of a conditional statement and conclude that the then-clause (Q) is also false. This argument doesn't do that.
Existential fallacy: This fallacy involves mistakenly inferring universal conclusions from particular instances. This argument doesn't make a universal claim.
Exclusive premises: This fallacy occurs when two premises logically exclude each other, making the argument contradictory. This argument doesn't present obviously contradictory premises.

The study of concepts or connections with time, as a part of human communication, is known as

((a))
Proxemics
((b))
Kinesics
((c))
Chronemics
((d))
Haptics

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Chronemics

The answer is 3) Chronemics.

Key Points

Proxemics is the study of how people use space and distance in communication.
Kinesics is the study of body language and nonverbal communication.
Chronemics is the study of how people use time in communication. This includes things like punctuality, the duration of conversations, and the use of pauses.
Haptics is the study of touch in communication.

Chronemics is the only option that deals with the study of concepts or connections with time in communication. So the answer is 3) Chronemics.

Who, among the following, is identified as one of the pioneer authors to set semiotics as part of communication?

((a))
Irene Eber
((b))
Walter Lippman
((c))
Joseph Pulitzer
((d))
John Locke

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

John Locke

John Locke (4) is considered one of the pioneers who laid the groundwork for semiotics as part of communication.

Key Points

Irene Eber: Pioneered feminist media studies and critical cultural analysis.
Walter Lippman: Influenced media theory with concepts like public opinion and manufactured consent.
Joseph Pulitzer: Prominent American newspaper publisher known for yellow journalism.
John Locke, however, delved into the nature of signs and their meaning in his work "An Essay Concerning Human Understanding." He explored concepts like "ideas" and their representation through words and other symbols, paving the way for later semiotic thought.

According to the principle of associationism of mental operation, which law states that, one idea leads to another because in the past they have occurred together in terms of either time or space?

((a))
Law of partial activity
((b))
Law of proximity
((c))
Law of mental set
((d))
Law of contiguity

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Law of contiguity

The correct answer is: Law of contiguity

Key Points

The law of contiguity states that ideas or experiences that have occurred together in either time or space are more likely to be associated and recalled together. According to associationism, repeated pairings of two elements strengthen the connection between them, making it easier for one to trigger the other.

Here's why the other options are not correct:

Law of partial activity: This law concerns the idea that when a complex mental state breaks down, only certain parts of it remain active. It doesn't directly relate to the association of ideas based on their co-occurrence.
Law of proximity: This law is related to the Gestalt principles of perception and states that objects close together in space tend to be perceived as belonging together. While it also deals with the concept of connection, it doesn't specifically address the association of ideas based on past experiences.
Law of mental set: This law refers to the temporary predisposition of the mind to respond to certain stimuli based on recent activities or thoughts. It doesn't necessarily explain the association of ideas due to their past co-occurrence in time or space.

Therefore, the law of contiguity best aligns with the principle of associationism and the process of one idea leading to another due to their past close temporal or spatial connection.

Identify the types of longitudinal studies from the following

(A). Trend Studies

(B). Cross-sectional Studies

(C). Panel Studies

(D). Prospective Studies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(A) and (D) only.
((b))
(A), (B) and (C) only.
((c))
(B), (C) and (D) only.
((d))
(A), (C) and (D) only.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

(A), (C) and (D) only.

The correct answer is: 4) (A), (C) and (D) only.

Key Points

(A) Trend Studies: These are a type of longitudinal study that involves collecting data over time to identify trends or patterns in a specific variable or phenomenon. This aligns with the definition of longitudinal studies.
(B) Cross-sectional Studies: These studies collect data from a sample of the population at a single point in time. They do not track the same individuals over time, making them not classified as longitudinal studies.
(C) Panel Studies: These are also longitudinal studies where data is collected from the same group of individuals at multiple points in time. This allows researchers to observe changes and relationships within the sample over time.
(D) Prospective Studies: These longitudinal studies begin by defining a group of individuals based on a specific shared characteristic or experience, and then track them over time to observe the development of certain outcomes or phenomena.

Therefore, only options (A), (C), and (D) represent types of longitudinal studies.

The UN agency that took initiatives for introduction of environmental education was

((a))
FAO
((b))
UNICEF
((c))
UNDP
((d))
UNESCO

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

UNESCO

Out of the options the UN agency that took initiatives for the introduction of environmental education is: 4. UNESCO

Key Points

UNESCO, which stands for the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, has been a leading force in promoting environmental education since the 1970s. Here's why:
1972 Stockholm Conference: The UN Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm in 1972 recognized the importance of environmental education and called for its integration into educational systems worldwide. UNESCO, along with UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme), played a key role in this conference and the subsequent development of environmental education initiatives.
1977 Tbilisi Declaration: In 1977, UNESCO organized the Intergovernmental Conference on Environmental Education in Tbilisi, Georgia. This conference resulted in the Tbilisi Declaration, which defined the goals and principles of environmental education and established a framework for its implementation at all levels.
International Environmental Education Programme (IEEP): From 1975 to 1995, UNESCO and UNEP jointly led the IEEP, which provided technical assistance and support to countries for developing and implementing environmental education programs.
Current initiatives: UNESCO continues to be actively involved in environmental education through various initiatives, such as the Education for Sustainable Development Goals (ESDGs) program, the World Conference on Education for Sustainable Development (WCED), and the Clearinghouse for Environmental Education Materials.
While other UN agencies like FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization), UNICEF (United Nations Children's Fund), and UNDP (United Nations Development Programme) also contribute to environmental education in their respective areas, UNESCO has been the leading and most prominent agency in taking initiatives for its introduction and development at a global scale.

A relationship in which a less experienced learner acquires knowledge and skills under the guidance of an expert is known as:

((a))
Cognitive apprenticeship
((b))
Observable learning
((c))
Cognitive load
((d))
Cognitive science

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Cognitive apprenticeship

The correct answer is (1) Cognitive apprenticeship.

Key Points

Cognitive apprenticeship:
Cognitive apprenticeship is an educational or learning model that emphasizes the relationship in which a less experienced learner, often called an apprentice, acquires knowledge and skills under the guidance of an experienced expert or mentor.
This model extends the traditional concept of apprenticeship, where novices learn trades or crafts from masters, to include cognitive and intellectual skills in addition to practical skills.
In cognitive apprenticeship, the focus is on the thinking processes that underlie the skill or task being learned. The expert models the task, provides support as the learner practices, slowly decreases assistance as the learner becomes more proficient, and encourages reflection on the learning process.
Techniques such as coaching, scaffolding, articulation of learning processes, and exploration of the underlying principles are common. The aim is to make the expert's thought processes visible to the student, allowing the student to develop strategies for problem-solving, learning, and inquiry.

Additional Information

Observable learning: This broader term encompasses learning by observing others' behavior and its consequences, not necessarily involving an expert-apprentice relationship.
Cognitive load: This refers to the amount of mental effort required to process information. It's not directly related to a specific learning model.
Cognitive science: This is the scientific study of mental processes, encompassing various learning theories and approaches, but it doesn't describe a specific learning relationship.

Arrange the following group of terms in order of increasing extension.

(A). Feline

(B). Mammal

(C). Tiger

(D). Animal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(C), (A), (B), (D).
((b))
(C), (A), (D), (B)
((c))
(D), (B), (A), (C)
((d))
(D), (C), (A), (B).

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

(C), (A), (B), (D).

Key Points The extension of a term refers to the range or number of entities it covers or refers to. In order of increasing extension,

Tiger (C) is the most specific category, referring only to a particular species within the larger groups.
Feline (A) extends to include all cat-like animals, encompassing various species including tigers, lions, domestic cats, etc.
Mammal (B) further broadens the extension to include all mammals, not just feline species, covering a vast range of animals that bear live young and typically have hair or fur.
Animal (D) has the greatest extension, encompassing all animals, not just mammals but also birds, fish, insects, reptiles, and more.

Therefore, the correct order from the least to the greatest extension is: (C), (A), (B), (D).

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Toxins that are rather dilute in the environment, can reach dangerous levels inside cells and tissues through the process of bioaccumulation.

Statement (II): Bioaccumulation occurs when the toxic burden of a large number of organisms at a lower trophic level is accumulated and concentrated by a predator in a high trophic level.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
((c))
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
((d))
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

Key Points Statement (I): Toxins that are rather dilute in the environment, can reach dangerous levels inside cells and tissues through the process of bioaccumulation."

This is indeed true. Bioaccumulation refers to the buildup of substances, such as pesticides or other chemicals, in an organism.
This happens when an organism absorbs a toxic substance at a rate faster than that at which the substance is lost by catabolism and excretion. So, even substances that are dilute in the environment can accumulate to dangerous levels within an organism over time.

Statement (II): Bioaccumulation occurs when the toxic burden of a large number of organisms at a lower trophic level is accumulated and concentrated by a predator in a high trophic level.

The description given in Statement II actually refers to biomagnification (or bioamplification), not bioaccumulation.
Biomagnification is a process in which the concentration of a toxic substance increases in each successive link in the food chain. Bioaccumulation, on the other hand, refers to how pollutants enter a food chain and describes the accumulation of pollutants at individual levels, rather than how they concentrate up the food chain.

Therefore, based on a more precise understanding of the terms bioaccumulation and biomagnification, the correct interpretation would be that Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is inaccurate because it conflates bioaccumulation with the concept of biomagnification.

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

For thousands of Delhites who have gone through the pain of Partition in 1947, it will be a walk down the memory lane when they visit the world's second museum on Partition of India at Delhi's Dara Shikoh Library building. For their descendants, it will be an opportunity to see what their parents and grandparents had suffered and a lesson in history about the world's largest migration.

The purpose of the museum is to connect people with their past. It will also give visitors a sense of heritage. "History is important and the young generation should learn from the past and should not repeat the mistakes." said the chairperson of the Arts and Cultural Heritage Trust, Kishwar Desai. Lakhs of people were killed and displaced during Partition and people need to remember that such violence should never happen, she added.

A wooden sculpture of a horse loaded with skeleton and bones made in paper mâche style by Kashmiri artist Veer Munshi conveys the pain of people during the migration. In a few audio-visual clips, Delhi residents who decided to stay back narrated their experiences- what they saw, what happened to them, the day of Independence.

Rehabilitation was also not easy and this struggle has been depicted through a wooden "fallen house" made by Munshi. Even when a person tries to resettle, his/her house has actually fallen apart, Desai pointed out.

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The museum at Dara Shikoh library tries to capture the pain of partition.

Statement (II): Rehabilitation was not a struggle for the displaced migrants.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
((c))
Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
((d))
Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.

The correct answer is "Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.".

Key Points

Statement (I) is correct.
The passage states, "For thousands of Delhites who have gone through the pain of Partition in 1947, it will be a walk down the memory lane when they visit the world's second museum on Partition of India at Delhi's Dara Shikoh Library building." These lines infer that the museum at Dara Shikoh library indeed attempts to capture the pain and the experiences of Partition.
Statement (II) is incorrect according to the passage.
Towards the end of the passage, it is mentioned that "Rehabilitation was also not easy and this struggle has been depicted through a wooden "fallen house" made by Munshi." which shows that the rehabilitation was indeed a struggle for the displaced migrants. So, this statement contradicts the information provided in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 3".

The Partition Museum is of value to the following:

(A). Visitors

(B). Youngsters

(C). Mathematicians

(D). Progeny of people who have gone through the pain of partition

(E) People who have experienced the partition

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(A), (B), (D) and (E) only.
((b))
(B), (C) and (E) only.
((c))
(A), (D) and (E) only.
((d))
(B), (C), (D) and (E) only.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

(A), (B), (D) and (E) only.

The correct answer is "(A), (B), (D) and (E) only."

Key Points

(A) Visitors: The passage mentions, "The purpose of the museum is to connect people with their past. It will also give visitors a sense of heritage." So the Partition Museum is indeed valuable to visitors.
(B) Youngsters - Kishwar Desai mentions the importance of history and that the young generation should learn from the past and not repeat mistakes, indicating the museum's value to youngsters.
(D) Progeny of people who have gone through the pain of partition: The text states, "For their descendants, it will be an opportunity to see what their parents and grandparents had suffered and a lesson in history about the world's largest migration." Therefore, the museum indeed has value for these individuals, or the progeny of those who experienced the partition.
(E) People who have experienced the partition: The passage starts with, "For thousands of Delhites who have gone through the pain of Partition in 1947, it will be a walk down the memory lane when they visit the world's second museum on Partition of India at Delhi's Dara Shikoh Library building." This suggests the museum is valuable for this group.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Why is history important for the young generation?

(A). to connect people to the past

(B). not to repeat mistakes made in the past

(C). to learn from the past

(D). to remember the past and to take revenge against those who caused the pain

(E). to remember that violence that occurred in the past should never happen again

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(B), (C) and (D) only.
((b))
(C), (D) and (E) only.
((c))
(A), (B), (C) and (E) only.
((d))
(A) and (E) only.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

(A), (B), (C) and (E) only.

The correct answer is "(A), (B), (C), and (E) only."

Key Points

(A) to connect people to the past: The passage mentions that "The purpose of the museum is to connect people with their past." Connection to the past is a significant role of historical learning and understanding, which would be important for the young generation.
(B) not to repeat mistakes made in the past: This is directly stated by Kishwar Desai in the passage: "History is important and the young generation should learn from the past and should not repeat the mistakes."
(C) to learn from the past: As mentioned in (B), Kishwar Desai stated the importance of the young generation learning from history to avoid repeating past mistakes. Learning from the past is thus a key reason why history is important for the young generation.
(E) to remember that violence that occurred in the past should never happen again: This is suggested in Desai's statement: "Lakhs of people were killed and displaced during Partition and people need to remember that such violence should never happen." The remembrance of past violence and the resolve that it should never happen again is stated as a significant reason to learn history.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 3".

The museum on Partition of India at Delhi's Dara Shikoh library building is

((a))
The one and only Partition Museum in the world
((b))
The first Partition Museum in the world
((c))
The second Partition Museum in the world
((d))
One of the many Partition Museums in the world

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The second Partition Museum in the world

The correct answer is "The second Partition Museum in the world."

Key Points

In the first line of the passage, it explicitly states: "For thousands of Delhites who have gone through the pain of Partition in 1947, it will be a walk down the memory lane when they visit the world's second museum on Partition of India at Delhi's Dara Shikoh Library building."
So according to the passage, the Partition museum at Dara Shikoh library building is the second of its kind in the world. The correct reference from the text affirms that this museum is the second dedicated to the Partition of India.

Therefore, the correct answer is "option 3".

Which of the following statements about the sculpture of the wooden horse are correct?

(A). The horse is loaded with goods of people.

(B). It has been made in paper mâche style.

(C). It has been made by a Kashmiri artist.

(D). It shows a fallen horse.

(E). It depicts the pain experienced by the people during the partition migration.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(A), (B) and (D) only.
((b))
(B), (C) and (E) only.
((c))
(B) and (C) only.
((d))
(C), (D) and (E) only.

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

(B), (C) and (E) only.

The correct answer is "(B), (C), and (E) only."

Key Points

(B) It has been made in paper mâche style: This is correct according to the passage. It says, "A wooden sculpture of a horse loaded with skeleton and bones made in paper mâche style by Kashmiri artist Veer Munshi..."
(C) It has been made by a Kashmiri artist: This is also correct as mentioned in the passage: "....made by Kashmiri artist Veer Munshi..."
(E) It depicts the pain experienced by the people during the partition migration: The passage mentions this explicitly: "...conveys the pain of people during the migration". This statement is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer contains statements "option 2".

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The National Education Policy (2020) foresees a wide use of disruptive technologies in the higher education system.

Statement (II): The National Educational Technology Forum is expected to prepare a roadmap for integrating the disruptive technologies into the education system.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
((c))
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
((d))
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true

Key Points Statement (I): The National Education Policy (2020) foresees a wide use of disruptive technologies in the higher education system.

The National Education Policy (2020) indeed envisions the extensive use of disruptive technologies in the higher education system, including the expansion of online education, virtual labs, digital libraries, and other educational technologies.

Statement (II): The National Educational Technology Forum is expected to prepare a roadmap for integrating disruptive technologies into the education system

Moreover, the National Education Policy (2020) proposes the establishment of the National Educational Technology Forum (NETF), which aims to advise and facilitate the integration of these disruptive technologies into educational processes.

Which fallacy is committed in the following statement?

"People who lack humility have no sense of beauty because everyone who has a sense of beauty also has humility”.

((a))
Fallacy of Equivocation
((b))
Begging the Question
((c))
Fallacy of Composition
((d))
Hasty Generalisation

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Begging the Question

The fallacy committed in the statement "People who lack humility have no sense of beauty because everyone who has a sense of beauty also has humility" is the Begging the question

Key Points Begging the question:

This fallacy occurs when an argument's premise assumes the truth of the conclusion without providing evidence.
In this case, the statement assumes that the connection between humility and beauty is already established.
The premise ("everyone who has a sense of beauty also has humility") directly implies the conclusion ("people who lack humility have no sense of beauty") without offering any justification for the connection.

As per UGC Regulations 2018 on plagiarism, a faculty member will invite the penalty of denial of one annual increment, if in the submission of a research publication, he/she commits plagiarism of level

((a))
0
((b))
1
((c))
2
((d))
3

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Key Points

UGC Regulations 2018 on plagiarism define three levels of plagiarism in research publications:

Level 0 (Minor Similarities): Up to 10% similarity is considered minor and does not attract any penalty.
Level 1 (Moderate Similarities): 10% to 40% similarity is considered moderate and the faculty member will be asked to withdraw the manuscript and submit a revised version within a stipulated time period.
Level 2 (Major Similarities): Above 40% similarity is considered major and the faculty member will be penalized with the denial of one annual increment.

Therefore, as per UGC Regulations 2018, a faculty member will be denied one annual increment for committing plagiarism of Level 2 in a research publication.

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Assessment of learning is based on constructive feedback to enhance learning.

Statement (II): The goal of Assessment of Learning is to provide summative grades at the end of the learning process.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
((c))
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
((d))
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Key Points

Statement (I) is false because it inaccurately describes the purpose of Assessment of Learning, which is not primarily based on constructive feedback but rather on summative evaluation.
It is typically used to evaluate student learning at the end of an instructional period.
It is more about measuring and summarizing what students have learned rather than providing ongoing feedback to enhance learning.
It is often used for final judgment, such as end-of-term exams, standardized tests, or final projects. It holds students accountable for their learning and provides a measure of student achievement for reporting purposes.

Therefore, Statement (I) is false.

Statement (II) refers to the concept of "Assessment of Learning," which aligns with summative assessment.
Summative assessments are evaluative in nature and are administered at the end of an instructional unit or a course to measure student learning relative to content standards.
The goal of summative assessment is to assign a grade or score to a student’s performance, providing a summary of what the student has learned or achieved during the course. This can include final exams, end-of-term projects, and standardized tests.
Thus, summative assessments are used to determine whether and to what extent students have learned the material they have been taught.

Therefore, Statement (II) is true.

Hence, Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

In the given number series, determine the next term.

-7, -5, -1, 7, 23, ?, _____

((a))
42
((b))
55
((c))
87
((d))
95

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Given Series: -7, -5, -1, 7, 23, ?, _____

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "55".

The Indian communication concept is based on the centrality of ________ in human interactions

((a))
Illusion
((b))
Language
((c))
One-sidedness
((d))
Catharsis

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Language

The Indian communication concept is based on the centrality of Language in human interactions.

Key Points

The Indian communication concept emphasizes the importance of language in human interactions because it serves as a primary medium for expressing thoughts, emotions, attitudes, and cultural nuances. India is an extremely diverse country with numerous languages and dialects spoken across its vast geography. This linguistic diversity is central to the way interactions and communication take place within the country.
Language in such a multicultural context not only conveys meaning and context but also carries with it aspects of culture, tradition, and social norms. It illustrates the speaker's attitudes, beliefs, and values, which could differ significantly from one region to another. This underlines the integral role that language plays in the Indian communication context.
Therefore, understanding the language, both verbal and non-verbal, is vital for effective communication in India. However, be aware that other facets such as context, social norms, and cultural understanding also significantly contribute to effective communication beyond just linguistic competency.

At which stage of cognitive development, adolescents can think, reason and analyse beyond the realm of concrete experiences?

((a))
Formal operational Stage
((b))
Sensorimotor Stage
((c))
Concrete operational Stage
((d))
Pre-operational Stage

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Formal operational Stage

Formal Operational Stage marks the period when adolescents can think, reason, and analyze beyond concrete experiences.

Key Points

Sensorimotor Stage (birth to 2 years):
Infants learn about the world through their senses and motor actions but cannot engage in abstract thinking.
Pre-operational Stage (2-7 years):
Children begin to use language and symbols but exhibit egocentrism and difficulty understanding different perspectives.
Concrete Operational Stage (7-11 years):
Children can think logically about concrete objects and events but struggle with hypothetical or abstract concepts.
Formal Operational Stage (11-16+ years):
This stage marks the ability to think abstractly, logically, and hypothetically. Adolescents can reason about possibilities, consider multiple perspectives, and analyze complex concepts not rooted in concrete experiences.

Therefore, only the Formal Operational Stage aligns with the ability to think, reason, and analyze beyond concrete experiences.

Match List-I with List-II

List I (Authors)	List II (Treatises)
(A)	Panini	(I)	Mahabhasya
(B)	Bhartrhari	(II)	Vaishishika-Sutras
(C)	Kanada	(III)	Vakyapadiya
(D)	Patanjali	(IV)	Ashtadhyayi

<br>

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
((b))
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
((c))
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
((d))
A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Option 2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I is correct.

Key Points

(A) Panini wrote the Ashtadhyayi (IV), an ancient Indian Sanskrit grammar text.
(B) Bhartrhari is the author of the Vakyapadiya (III), an influential work on Sanskrit grammar and linguistic philosophy.
(C) Kanada (also known as Kashyapa or Kanād) wrote the Vaisheshika Sutras (II), outlining the foundational text for the Vaisheshika school of Hindu philosophy.
(D) Patanjali is associated with the Mahabhasya (I), which is an ancient commentary on selected rules of Sanskrit grammar from Ashtadhyayi.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of teachers in six different subjects - Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Zoology, Education and Hindi, in a University in the year 2022, alongwith the ratio of male to female teachers in each subject. Total number of teachers in the subject of Physics is 448. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow.

Subject-wise Distribution of Teachers

Subject	Percentage (%) Distribution of Teachers	Ratio of Teachers
Males : Females
Physics	14%	9 ∶ 5
Chemistry	13%	1 ∶ 7
Mathematics	21%	3 ∶ 4
Zoology	22%	7 ∶ 9
Education	18%	5 ∶ 3
Hindi	12%	1 ∶ 3

Number of teachers (both male and female) in Hindi is approximately _______ % less than the total number of female teachers in Mathematics and Chemistry together.

((a))
43.59
((b))
51.44
((c))
42.81
((d))
48.66

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

48.66

Given:

Total number of teachers in Physics = 448

Percentage distribution in Hindi = 12%

Percentage distribution in Mathematics = 21%

Percentage distribution in Chemistry = 13%

Ratio of male to female in Mathematics = 3 : 4

Ratio of male to female in Chemistry = 1 : 7

Calculation:

Percentage distribution in Physics is 14%, which is equal to 448 and similarly, 100% = 3200

So, Total number of teachers in all the subjects = 3200

Total number of teachers in Hindi = 12% of 3200 = 384

Total number of teachers in Mathematics = 21% of 3200

Female teachers in Mathematics ⇒ ${21 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${4\over 7}$ = 384

Total number of teachers in Chemistry = 13% of 3200

Female teachers in Chemistry ⇒ ${13 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${7 \over 8}$ = 364

Required percentage = (384 + 364) - 384 = 364

⇒ 364/748 × 100 = 48.66

∴ The required percentage is 48.66%.

What is the difference between the total number of female teachers and male teachers in the University?

((a))
408
((b))
412
((c))
416
((d))
420

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

416

Given:

Total number of teachers in Physics = 448

Calculation:

Percentage distribution in Physics is 14%, which is equal to 448

Similarly, 100% = 3200

So, Total number of teachers in all the subjects = 3200

Male teachers in Physics ⇒ ${14 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${9 \over 14}$ = 288

Female teachers in Physics ⇒ ${14 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${5 \over 14}$ = 160

Male teachers in Chemistry ⇒ ${13 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${1 \over 8}$ = 52

Female teachers in Chemistry ⇒ ${13 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${7 \over 8}$ = 364

Male teachers in Mathematics ⇒ ${21 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${3 \over 7}$ = 288

Female teachers in Mathematics ⇒ ${21 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${4 \over 7}$ = 384

Male teachers in Zoology ⇒ ${22 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${7 \over 16}$ = 308

Female teachers in Zoology ⇒ ${22 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${9 \over 16}$ = 396

Male teachers in Education ⇒ ${18 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${5 \over 8}$ = 360

Female teachers in Education ⇒ ${18 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${3 \over 8}$ = 216

Male teachers in Hindi ⇒ ${12 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${1 \over 4}$ = 96

Female teachers in Hindi ⇒ ${12 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${3 \over 4}$ = 288

So, Total number of Male teachers in all the subjects = 1392

And total number of Female teachers in all the subjects = 1808

Required difference = 1808 - 1392 = 416

∴ The difference between the total number of female teachers and male teachers is 416.

What is the total number of teachers (both male and female) and the total number of male teachers in the university, respectively?

((a))
3000 and 1592
((b))
3200 and 1392
((c))
3200 and 1808
((d))
3000 and 1608

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

3200 and 1392

Given:

Total number of teachers in Physics = 448

Calculation:

Percentage distribution in Physics is 14%, which is equal to 448 and similarly, 100% = 3200

So, Total number of teachers in all the subjects = 3200

Male teachers in Physics ⇒ ${14 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${9 \over 14}$ = 288

Male teachers in Chemistry ⇒ ${13 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${1 \over 8}$ = 52

Male teachers in Mathematics ⇒ ${21 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${3 \over 7}$ = 288

Male teachers in Zoology ⇒ ${22 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${7 \over 16}$ = 308

Male teachers in Education ⇒ ${18 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${5 \over 8}$ = 360

Male teachers in Hindi ⇒ ${12 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${1 \over 4}$ = 96

So, Total number of Male teachers in all the subjects = 1392

∴ The total number of teachers is 3200 and the total number of male teachers is 1392.

What is the ratio between the total number of teachers (both male and female) in Zoology and the total number of male teachers in Chemistry and Education together?

((a))
176 ∶ 103
((b))
51 ∶ 41
((c))
101 ∶ 83
((d))
71 ∶ 59

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

176 ∶ 103

Given:

Total number of teachers in Physics = 44

Percentage distribution in Zoology = 22%

Percentage distribution in Chemistry = 13%

Percentage distribution in Education = 18%

Ratio of male to female in Chemistry = 1 : 7

Ratio of male to female in Education = 5 : 3

Calculation:

Percentage distribution in Physics is 14%, which is equal to 448 and similarly, 100% = 3200

So, Total number of teachers in all the subjects = 3200

Total number of teachers in Zoology = 22% of 3200 = 704

Total number of teachers in Chemistry = 13% of 3200

Male teachers in Chemistry = ${13 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${1 \over 8}$ = 52

Total number of teachers in Education = 18% of 3200

Male teachers in Education = ${18 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${5 \over 8}$ = 360

Total number of male teachers in Chemistry and Education = 412

Required ratio ⇒ 704 : 412 = 176 : 103

∴ The required ratio is 176 : 103.

Number of female teachers is more than 300 in exactly _______ subjects.

((a))
Two
((b))
Three
((c))
Four
((d))
Five

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

Three

Given:

Total number of teachers in Physics = 448

Calculation:

Percentage distribution in Physics is 14%, which is equal to 448 and similarly, 100% = 3200

So, Total number of teachers in all the subjects = 3200

Female teachers in Physics ⇒ ${14 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${5 \over 14}$ = 160

Female teachers in Chemistry ⇒ ${13 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${7 \over 8}$ = 364

Female teachers in Mathematics ⇒ ${21 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${4 \over 7}$ = 384

Female teachers in Zoology ⇒ ${22 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${9 \over 16}$ = 396

Female teachers in Education ⇒ ${18 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${3 \over 8}$ = 216

Female teachers in Hindi ⇒ ${12 \over 100}$ × 3200 × ${3 \over 4}$ = 288

So, number of female teachers in chemistry, mathematics, and zoology is more than 300.

∴ Three subjects have more than 300 female teachers.

Which of the following air pollutants has got very strong affinity towards hemoglobin of the human blood?

((a))
Carbon monoxide
((b))
Carbon dioxide
((c))
Nitric oxide
((d))
Nitrogen dioxide

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Carbon monoxide

The air pollutant with the strongest affinity towards hemoglobin in human blood is: 1) Carbon monoxide (CO)

Key Points

Carbon monoxide (CO) has a very strong affinity towards hemoglobin in human blood—much stronger than oxygen. This affinity is approximately 200-250 times greater than that of oxygen.
Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. When carbon monoxide is inhaled, it binds with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin (COHb).
This process significantly reduces the capacity of hemoglobin to carry oxygen. As a result, organs and tissues in the body do not receive enough oxygen to function properly, leading to various symptoms and potentially fatal outcomes in high enough exposures.
The strong affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is what makes it a particularly dangerous air pollutant, causing problems such as impaired cognitive and motor functions, and at very high levels, death.
The reason is that once CO binds with hemoglobin, it prevents oxygen from binding and being transported to cells, effectively suffocating the body at a cellular level despite sufficient breathing air being available.\

In the following MS-EXCEL spreadsheet, you are given a list of 100 customers. Column 'A' represents their names, 'B' is for customer category; 'C' for payment category (0 means discounted price and 1 means full price); 'D' indicates price that customer pays. The list in the example spreadsheet below is not complete and simply shows different categories.

	A	B	C	D
1.	Customr Name	Customer Category	Payment Category	Price (Rs.)
2.	Raman	Child	0	0
3.	Dinesh	Adult	1	5
4.	Jashan	Adult	0	2
-	-	-	-	-
101	Amt	Child	0	0

<br>

Statement (I): The formula = COUNTIFS (B2:B101,"Adult") counts all customers who are adults.

Statement (II): The formula = COUNTIFS (B2:101,"Adult") counts all customers who are adults.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false
((c))
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
((d))
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

Key Points

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement (I): = COUNTIFS (B2:B101,"Adult") counts all customers who are adults.

COUNTIFS counts cells that meet multiple criteria.
B2:B101 is the range for the customer category.
"Adult" is the specific criterion we're looking for.
This statement is true. The formula will correctly count all rows in the range B2:B101 where the customer category is "Adult".

Statement (II): = COUNTIFS (B2:101,"Adult") counts all customers who are adults.

The difference here is that the range includes the cell B101, which might contain data or be empty.
If B101 contains data and it happens to be "Adult", it will be counted by the formula, potentially inflating the adult count.
If B101 is empty, it will be ignored by COUNTIFS, and the result will be the same as with statement I.
Therefore, statement II is partially true. It could be true or false depending on the content of cell B101.

Conclusion:

Statement I is always true and accurately counts adult customers.
Statement II is partially true and depends on the content of cell B101.

The most appropriate answer is: Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

Match List-I with List-II

List I (Type of Malware)	List II (Description)
(A)	Trojan Horse	(I)	A program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers and uses a computer network to spread itself.
(B)	Worm	(II)	A non-self-replicating program containing malicious code that, when executed, carries out actions, typically causing loss of data.
(C)	Spyware	(III)	A type of malware which restricts access to computer system that it infects, often demands a fee.
(D)	Ransomware	(IV)	A program that aids in gathering information about a person or organisation without their knowledge. For example, it detects key presses of the computer user.

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
((b))
A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
((c))
A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
((d))
A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

Show Answer

Answer: ((b))

A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

The correct option that matches List-I (Type of Malware) with List-II (Description) accurately is: A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

So,

Type of Malware	Description
Trojan Horse	- A non-self-replicating program containing malicious code that, when executed, carries out actions, typically causing loss of data.
Worm	- A program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers and uses a computer network to spread itself.
Spyware	- A program that aids in gathering information about a person or organization without their knowledge. For example, it detects key presses of the computer user.
Ransomware	- A type of malware which restricts access to a computer system that it infects, and often demands a fee.

A student's t-test would be useful in

(A). testing the significance of difference of two sample means

(B). testing the stationarity of a time series

(C). testing the significance of correlation coefficient

(D). testing the significance of a regression coefficient

(E). testing the goodness of fit of a model

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(A), (B) and (C) only.
((b))
(B), (C) and (D) only.
((c))
(A), (C) and (D) only.
((d))
(A), (B). (D) and (E) only.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

(A), (C) and (D) only.

The correct answer is: (A), (C) and (D) only.

(A) testing the significance of difference of two sample means
This is a primary use of the student's t-test.
(C) testing the significance of correlation coefficient -
Although more directly tested via methods specifically designed for correlation coefficients, understanding the relationship between two variables can involve t-tests under certain conditions, especially in the context of Pearson's correlation coefficient in small samples.
(D) testing the significance of a regression coefficient -
T-tests are used in regression analysis to determine if the coefficients in a linear regression model are significantly different from zero, indicating that there is a significant relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Every communication contains elements of both content and relationships.

Statement (Il): Eye behaviour does not provide metacommunicative cues.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false
((c))
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
((d))
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

The most appropriate answer is: 3) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.

Key Points

Statement (I): This is true based on widely accepted communication theory. Communication is not just about transmitting information (content), but also about building and maintaining relationships (relational aspect). Every message carries both verbal and nonverbal cues that express both the message itself and the speaker's feelings and intentions towards the listener.
Statement (II): This is false. Eye behavior is a rich source of metacommunicative cues, meaning nonverbal signals that provide additional information about the message beyond the words themselves. For example, pupil dilation can indicate interest, eye contact can denote attentiveness, and avoiding eye contact can signal discomfort or deception.

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): ISPs provide the user with access to the Internet (for a fee), whereas web browsers allow the user to view web pages.

Statement (II): Each web page/site found matching the search criteria in a web search engine is known as a 'hit'.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

((a))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
((b))
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
((c))
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
((d))
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Show Answer

Answer: ((a))

Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.

Both statements are true.

Key Points Statement (I): ISPs provide users with access to the Internet for a fee, while web browsers allow users to view web pages.

ISPs: Internet service providers (ISPs) are companies that provide individuals and businesses with access to the Internet. They do this by maintaining a network of servers and routers that connect users to websites and other online resources. ISPs typically charge a monthly fee for their services.
Web browsers: Web browsers are software applications that allow users to access and view web pages. Web browsers work by sending requests to web servers, which then return the requested pages. Popular web browsers include Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, and Microsoft Edge.

Statement (II): Each web page/site found matching the search criteria in a web search engine is known as a 'hit.'

Web search engines: Web search engines are websites that allow users to search for information on the Internet. When a user enters a search query, the search engine will return a list of web pages that are relevant to the query. Each web page in the list is referred to as a "hit."

Therefore, both statements are accurate and provide information about different aspects of using the Internet.

In a coding scheme, the word ‘SCHOOL' is coded as '72'. How will the word ‘COLLEGE’ be coded in this scheme?

((a))
96
((b))
64
((c))
59
((d))
52

Show Answer

Answer: ((c))

The logic follows here is:

‘SCHOOL' is coded as '72'

Similarly

COLLEGE’ be coded

Hence, the correct answer is "59".

The University Education Commission (1948-49) laid stress on

(A). Religious education

(B). Changes in curriculum

(C). Women's education

(D). Rural universities

(E). Examination reforms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

((a))
(A), (B) and (C) only.
((b))
(A), (C) and (D) only.
((c))
(A), (D) and (E) only.
((d))
(B), (C), (D) and (E) only.

Show Answer

Answer: ((d))

(B), (C), (D) and (E) only.

Key Points

The University Education Commission (1948-49), also known as the Radhakrishnan Commission, was the first major commission on education set up after India's independence. It played a pivotal role in shaping the post-independence education system. While the commission did not emphasize religious education (A), it laid significant stress on the following aspects:
Changes in curriculum: The commission advocated for a shift from the rigid, specialized curriculum towards a more holistic and general education approach, incorporating subjects like humanities, social sciences, and sciences.
Women's education: The commission recognized the importance of women's education and called for measures to improve access to education for girls and women.
Rural universities: The commission proposed establishing rural universities to cater to the educational needs of the rural population and promote development in rural areas.
Examination reforms: The commission emphasized the need for reforming the examination system to focus on assessing understanding and critical thinking rather than rote memorization.

Therefore, options (B), (C), (D), and (E) accurately reflect the areas the commission emphasized, while (A) does not align with its recommendations.

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