Official Paper

UGC NET Official Paper 1: Held On - 13th Dec 2023 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Attempt as Timed Mock Test

Paper 1 (50 questions)

1

Identify the measures of dispersion:

(A) Range

(B) Quartile deviation

(C) Sum of the deviations about mean

(D) Standard deviation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B) and (D) Only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(A), (B) and (D) Only

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (D) Only.

Key Points 

  • Range:
  • The difference between the highest and lowest values in a distribution.
  • It gives a rough idea of the spread but is sensitive to outliers.
  • Quartile Deviation (or Interquartile Range):
  • Measures the spread of the middle 50% of a distribution.
  • It is the difference between the third quartile (Q3) and the first quartile (Q1).
  • This measure is less sensitive to outliers compared to the range.
  • Standard Deviation:
  • Provides a measure of the average distance of each data point from the mean.
  • It is the square root of the variance and gives a comprehensive idea of the spread of the data around the mean.
  • It's widely used because it is in the same units as the original data and considers all data points.

Additional InformationVariance:

  • The average of the squared differences from the Mean.
  • It's a precursor to the standard deviation and provides a measure of the spread of data points.
2

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Due to technological developments, communication has become mass communication.

Statement II: With the arrival of satellites and computers, communication has become more efficient and complex than ever before.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

The correct response is - Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key PointsTechnological Developments and Mass Communication

  • Widespread Information Distribution: Use of internet, TV, and radio for global reach.
  • Lowered Content Creation Barriers: Technology enables broader participation in media.
  • Social Media Growth: Platforms for instant global sharing and interaction.

Efficiency and Complexity with Satellites and Computers

  • Real-Time Global Connectivity: Satellites facilitate instant worldwide communication.
  • Advanced Data Handling: Computers improve data processing and storage efficiency.
  • Enhanced Network Capabilities: Satellite and computer technologies drive complex applications like video conferencing.
  • Improved Security Measures: Advances in encryption and cybersecurity for data protection

Additional Information

Mass media:

  • Mass media refers to the various technologies and platforms used to communicate with a wide, diverse audience simultaneously.
  • It encompasses several types of content distribution channels.
  • Each serving different purposes but collectively shaping public opinion, culture, and even policies through the dissemination of information, entertainment, and advertising.
  • Historically, mass media has evolved significantly, from print publications like newspapers and magazines to electronic media .
3

Which of the following statements regarding guided and unguided media in computer Networking are correct?

(A) Guided media transmission supports higher data speeds than unguided media transmission

(B) Guided media is subjected to less interference than unguided media

(C) Unguided media transmission is more secure than guided media transmission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. ((b))

    (A) and (C) Only

  3. ((c))

    (B) and (C) Only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B) and (C)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) and (B) Only

The correct response is - (A) and (B) Only.

Key Points

Guided media transmission supports higher data speeds than unguided media transmission:

  • This statement is correct.
  • Guided media, such as fiber-optic cables, can support very high data speeds compared to most unguided media (wireless transmission methods).
  • The physical constraints of guided media, like fiber-optic cables, allow for higher bandwidth and thus higher data speeds.

 

Guided media is subjected to less interference than unguided media:

  • This statement is also correct.
  • Guided media, such as twisted-pair cables, coaxial cables, and fiber-optic cables, are less prone to environmental interference compared to unguided media.
  • Unguided media transmissions, which occur through air or vacuum, are more susceptible to interference from various sources like other wireless signals, weather conditions, and physical obstructions.

Unguided media transmission is more secure than guided media transmission:

  • This statement is generally incorrect.
  • Unguided media, or wireless communication, can be more easily intercepted by unauthorized parties due to its nature of broadcast through open space.

Important PointsGuided Media

  • Higher Data Speeds (A):
  • Higher Bandwidth
  • Reliable Connections
  • Advanced Technologies
  • Less Interference (B):
  • Physical Protection
  • Controlled Path
  • Predictable Performance
4

Businesses use ICT to build positive customer relations by:

  1. ((a))

    Calling customers at home

  2. ((b))

    Creating targeted marketing campaigns

  3. ((c))

    Placing pop-up advertisements on web sites

  4. ((d))

    Sending unsolicited e-mails

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Creating targeted marketing campaigns

The correct answer is - Creating targeted marketing campaigns.

Key PointsUsing ICT in Customer Relations involves:

  • Personalization and Relevance:
  • Utilizing customer data for targeted marketing campaigns.
  • Enhancing message relevance to individual customers or segments.
  • Increasing customer engagement and satisfaction.
  • Efficient Communication:
  • Employing ICT tools for multi-channel communication (email, social media, messaging apps).
  • Achieving timely and responsive interactions with customers.
  • Strengthening customer service and relationship building.
  • Data Analysis for Insights:
  • Analyzing customer data for understanding preferences, behavior, and trends.
  • Informing marketing strategies and improving customer experiences based on insights.
  • Customer Feedback and Engagement:
  • Facilitating easy collection of customer feedback through ICT (surveys, social media, online forums).
  • Demonstrating commitment to customer satisfaction by actively engaging and responding.
  • Fostering positive relationships through attentive and responsive actions.

While options like 1) calling customers at home, 3) placing pop-up advertisements on websites, and 4) sending unsolicited emails can reach customers,

  • These methods are often viewed as intrusive or annoying, likely detracting from positive customer relations rather than building them.
5

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: The ancient university of Sridhanya katak was situated on the banks of river Yamuna.

Statement II: Sridhanya katak attained celebrity as the seat of both Brahmanical and Buddhist learning during the time of Siddha Nagarjuna.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

The correct response is - ​Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Key PointsStatement I:

  • There is evidence suggesting Sridhanya Katak University existed, but its location was on the banks of the Krishna River, not the Yamuna.
  • Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II:

  • Sridhanya Katak University was a renowned center of learning during the time of Siddha Nagarjuna, a prominent Buddhist scholar.
  • It was known for fostering both Brahmanical (Hindu) and Buddhist traditions, making it a unique and significant institution in ancient India.

Additional InformationThe ancient university of Sridhanya katak​ :

  • It is said to have flourished during the time of Siddha Nagarjuna, a renowned Buddhist scholar who lived around the 2nd century CE.
  • It is claimed to have been a prominent seat of learning, fostering both Brahmanical (Hindu) and Buddhist traditions
6

A researcher gives the following options to a respondent while asking a question during a survey. Identify the options which suffer from ambiguity :

(A) Very often

(B) Quite often

(C) Not very often

(D) Not at all

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (C) and (D) Only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A), (B) and (C) Only

The correct response is - (A), (B) and (C) Only.

Key PointsOptions (A), (B), and (C) all include terms that can be considered ambiguous due to their reliance on personal or subjective benchmarks of frequency:

  • (A) Very often and (B) Quite often both use qualitative assessments of frequency ("very" and "quite"),
  • Which lack a standardized measure across different respondents.
  • What qualifies as "very often" or "quite often" can vary significantly from one person to another, depending on their perceptions and experiences.
  • (C) Not very often suffers from similar issues of subjectivity and lack of a clear, universal benchmark for what constitutes "not very often."

Additional InformationSurvey methods :

  • Survey methods in research are crucial for collecting data from a predefined group of respondents to gain information and insights on various subjects.
  • These methods are widely used across disciplines, including social sciences, marketing, public health, and more.
  • Surveys can be administered in several formats, such as online questionnaires, phone interviews, face-to-face interviews, or paper forms.

Types of Surveys:

  • Descriptive Surveys: Aimed at describing characteristics of a population or phenomenon.
  • Analytical Surveys: Designed to understand relationships between variables.
  • Cross-sectional Surveys: Conducted at a single point in time to provide a snapshot of a population.
  • Longitudinal Surveys: Conducted over an extended period to track changes in the target population or phenomena.

Survey Design:

  • Questionnaire Development: The success of a survey largely depends on the crafting of the questionnaire
  • Sampling:  Researchers decide on a sampling strategy (random, stratified, convenience) to ensure that the survey responses will be representative of the larger population.
  • Administration: Choice of how the survey will be deployed (e.g., online, face-to-face, telephone).
7

"When a pin pricks our finger we withdraw the pin". Such kind of behaviour is termed as:

  1. ((a))

    Emotional Instincts

  2. ((b))

    Reflex Actions

  3. ((c))

    Biological Instincts

  4. ((d))

    Intellectual Instincts

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Reflex Actions

The correct answer is - Reflex Actions.

Key Points

Reflex actions:

  • Reflex actions are automatic, involuntary responses to specific stimuli that occur without conscious thought.
  • These responses are mediated by the nervous system and are crucial for an organism's survival as they often protect the body from harm.
  • The example given, where withdrawing a finger in response to being pricked by a pin, perfectly illustrates a reflex action.
  • This specific reflex helps prevent further injury or infection by quickly moving the body part away from the source of pain or harm.

Additional Information

  • Emotional Instincts: These are complex reactions involving feelings that are triggered by certain stimuli.
  • Although innate, they involve more complex cognitive processes compared to reflex actions.
  • Biological Instincts: This is a broader category that can encompass reflex actions,
  • It also includes more complex, often species-specific behaviors that contribute to survival and reproduction.
  • Biological instincts include behaviors such as mating, caregiving, and hunting, which, unlike reflex actions, are not immediate responses to stimuli.
  • Intellectual Instincts: This term isn't widely used in a rigorous biological sense and seems to suggest behaviors stemming from cognitive processes or learned experiences.
  • Intellectual responses involve decision-making processes and conscious thought, which are not characteristics of reflex actions.
8

Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement- "No professors are materialists"?

  1. ((a))

    Some non-materialists are not non-professors

  2. ((b))

    Some professors are non-materialists

  3. ((c))

    All professors are non-materialists

  4. ((d))

    All non-materialists are non-professors

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

All professors are non-materialists

The correct answer is - All professors are non-materialists.

Key Points

  • The statement "No professors are materialists" can be interpreted to mean that there are no individuals who are both professors and materialists at the same time.
  • This statement sets up a clear division where all professors fall outside the category of materialists
  • Therefore, the logically equivalent statement to "No professors are materialists" is: All professors are non-materialists.

Additional InformationLogical equivalence:

  • In formal logic, logical equivalence refers to two statements or propositions that have the same truth value in every model.
  • This can be tested through truth tables, where all possible truth values of the components are listed, and the overall truth value of the propositions is compared.
  • Logical equivalences are often used to simplify logical expressions in propositional logic and predicate logic.
  • Some common logical equivalences include De Morgan's Laws, the double negation law (¬¬P ≡ P), and the law of excluded middle (P ∨ ¬P).
9

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Teacher centred methods of teaching are more effective than learner centred methods in promoting deep learning.

Statement II: Lecture method involves the use of open-ended problems to encourage critical thinking and problem solving.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

The correct response is - Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Key PointsStatement I:

  • Teacher centered methods of teaching are more effective than learner centered methods in promoting deep learning.
  • This statement is generally considered incorrect.
  • Learner-centered methods are often more effective for promoting deep learning because they:
  • Encourage students to take an active role in their learning,
  • Develop critical thinking skills, and '
  • Draw connections between what they are learning and their own experiences.

Statement II:

  • Lecture method involves the use of open-ended problems to encourage critical thinking and problem solving.
  • This statement is also incorrect.
  • The lecture method is typically a teacher-centered method where information is primarily delivered by the teacher to the students.
  • It does not typically involve the use of open-ended problems to encourage critical thinking and problem solving.
10

The western communication concept is characterised by :

(A) Polydirectionality

(B) Unidirectionality

(C) Transfer of meaning

(D) Message centredness

(E) Flexible sequencing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C) and (E) Only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B) and (E) Only

  4. ((d))

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(B), (C) and (D) Only

The correct response is (B), (C), and (D) Only.

Key Points 

(B) Unidirectionality - This suggests communication that flows in only one direction, which is not generally true for Western communication. Western communication often involves feedback and interaction between the sender and receiver.

(C) Transfer of meaning - This accurately describes the focus of Western communication, emphasizing the clear and effective transmission of meaning from the sender to the receiver.

(D) Message-centredness - This option suggests that Western communication is centered around the message being conveyed. While this is partially true as Western communication does focus on the message, it does not fully capture the interactive nature of communication in Western contexts.

Additional Information

  • Western communication is often characterized by its emphasis on clarity, directness, and explicitness. It tends to prioritize the explicit transfer of information and meaning.
  • This contrasts with some other cultural communication styles that may prioritize implicitness, indirectness, and contextual cues. Understanding these differences is crucial for effective cross-cultural communication.

Confusion Points

As per the official answer key, the answer is given (A), (B) and (E) Only, however, the most accurate alignment is with options that characterize Western communication as often unidirectional, focused on clear meanings, and message-oriented. Therefore, the correct choice appears to be: (B), (C) and (D) Only

11

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: RSPM are those suspended particulate matters (SPM) whose aerodynamic diameter is more than 10 micron.

Statement II: Fine particles are those SPM whose aerodynamic diameter is less than 2.5 micron.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

The correct response is Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Key Points

  • Statement I: This statement is incorrect. Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) refers to particles with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to 10 micrometers (µm), not more than 10 µm. These particles are small enough to be inhaled and reach the deeper parts of the lungs, posing significant health risks.
  • Statement II: This statement is correct. Fine particles are indeed those suspended particulate matters (SPM) with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to 2.5 micrometers (µm). These are the most concerning particles for human health as they can penetrate deep into the lungs and even enter the bloodstream, causing various respiratory and cardiovascular issues.

Additional Information

  • Understanding the different size categories of particulate matter is important for assessing air quality and its impacts on human health. Particles with diameters of 10 microns or less (PM10) can penetrate into the respiratory system.
  • Fine particles (PM2.5) are even smaller and can penetrate deeper into the lungs, causing more severe health effects. Governments and environmental agencies monitor these particulate matter sizes to assess air quality and develop policies to protect public health.
12

The first Indian Universities Commission (1902) was headed by:

  1. ((a))

    Gurudas Bannerjee

  2. ((b))

    Syed Hasan Bilgrami

  3. ((c))

    William Adam

  4. ((d))

    Thomas Raleigh

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Thomas Raleigh

The correct response is Thomas Raleigh.

Key Points

  • Thomas Raleigh, a member of the Council of the Governor-General of India, served as the President of the first Indian Universities Commission in 1902.
  • This commission was established by Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India, to examine and recommend reforms in university education across the country.

Important Points 

The recommendations of the 1902 commission led to the Indian Universities Act of 1904, which introduced significant changes to the university system in India.

These changes included:

  • Greater control for the government over universities through bodies like senates and syndicates.
  • Standardizing university administration, courses, and examinations.
  • Strengthening affiliation of colleges with universities.
  • Emphasizing research alongside teaching.

 

It's important to note that the 1902 commission's reforms, while aiming to improve university education, were critiqued by some for:

  • Curtailing academic freedom and autonomy.
  • Focusing primarily on uniformity and control, potentially hindering creativity and innovation.
  • Failing to adequately address issues like access to higher education for diverse groups.

Additional Information

  • Gurudas Banerjee: While Gurudas Banerjee was a member of the commission, he did not hold the position of president.
  • Syed Hasan Bilgrami: Similar to Banerjee, Syed Hasan Bilgrami was another member of the commission, not the president.
  • William Adam: William Adam was not associated with the first Indian Universities Commission in any capacity.
13

Match List - I with List - II.

List - I (Committee/Commission)List - II (Chairman)
(A)Scientific Manpower Committee (1947)(I)K.L. Shrimali
(B)Committee on Higher Education in rural areas(II)S.S. Bhatnagar
(C)Committee on Model Act for universities, 1961(III)Sunith kumar chatterji
(D)Sanskrit Commission(IV)D.S Kothari

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

  3. ((c))

    (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

  4. ((d))

    (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

The correct response is (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).

Key Points

(A) Scientific Manpower Committee (1947) - S.S. Bhatnagar

  • S.S. Bhatnagar was an eminent Indian scientist and the first chairman of the Scientific Manpower Committee established in 1947.
  • This committee was tasked with assessing the state of scientific manpower in India post-independence and formulating strategies for its development.
  • Bhatnagar played a pivotal role in shaping India's scientific policies and fostering scientific research and education in the country.
<br>

(B) Committee on Higher Education in rural areas - K.L. Shrimali

  • K.L. Shrimali chaired the Committee on Higher Education in rural areas. This committee was likely formed to address the disparities in higher education accessibility between urban and rural areas in India.
  • Its objective would have been to identify challenges and propose recommendations to improve access to quality higher education in rural regions, thereby contributing to overall educational development and empowerment.
<br>

(C) Committee on Model Act for universities, 1961 - D.S. Kothari

  • D.S. Kothari led the Committee on Model Act for universities in 1961. This committee was likely tasked with drafting a standardized model act or legislation framework for universities across India.
  • The aim would have been to ensure consistency and efficiency in the governance, administration, and functioning of universities, thereby facilitating better coordination and development of higher education institutions in the country.
<br>

(D) Sanskrit Commission - Suniti Kumar Chatterji

  • Suniti Kumar Chatterji chaired the Sanskrit Commission. This commission was likely established to promote and preserve the Sanskrit language, literature, and cultural heritage in India.
  • Chatterji, being a renowned linguist and scholar of Sanskrit, would have played a key role in guiding the commission's efforts to research, document, and propagate Sanskrit studies, contributing to the preservation and revitalization of this ancient language and its associated traditions.
14

Which DTH channel deals with social science -1, social and behavioural sciences?

  1. ((a))

    Channel - 02 - Sanskriti

  2. ((b))

    Chhanel - 06 - Vidhik

  3. ((c))

    Channel - 03 - Prabodh

  4. ((d))

    Channel - 05 - Prabandhan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Channel - 03 - Prabodh

The correct response is Channel - 03 - Prabodh.

Key Points

"Channel - 03 - Prabodh" appears to be the most suitable choice for dealing with social science, including social and behavioral sciences. Here's why:

  • Channel Name Relevance: The name "Prabodh" suggests an inclination towards education or enlightenment, which aligns with the field of social science, as it involves the study of human behavior, societies, and cultures.
  • Channel Number: The fact that it's assigned the number 03 suggests it may be one of the primary channels focused on educational content, including social sciences.
  • Contextual Clues: While the names of other channels ("Sanskriti," "Vidhik," "Prabandhan") don't directly imply a focus on social science, "Prabodh" stands out as it suggests enlightenment or education, which often encompasses the study of social and behavioral sciences.
15

Identify the advantages of content analysis:

(A) It is a very transparent research method.

(B) It is often referred to favourably as an unobtrusive method.

(C) It is a highly flexible method.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B) and (C) Only

  3. ((c))

    (A) and (C) Only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B) and (C)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A), (B) and (C)

The correct response is (A), (B) and (C).

Key Points

(A)

  • It is a very transparent research method: Content analysis involves systematically analyzing the content of various forms of communication, such as text, audio, video, etc.
  • The process is typically transparent, meaning that researchers clearly define their coding schemes and procedures, allowing for replication and verification of findings by others. This transparency enhances the credibility and reliability of the research.

(B)

  • It is often referred to favorably as an unobtrusive method: Content analysis is considered an unobtrusive method because it doesn't involve direct interaction with participants or subjects.
  • Researchers analyze existing materials or data, which eliminates the risk of influencing participants' behavior or responses. This lack of intrusion enhances the validity of the findings.

(C)

  • It is a highly flexible method: Content analysis can be applied to various types of data, including written documents, audio recordings, visual content, social media posts, etc.
  • This versatility allows researchers to adapt the method to different research questions and contexts.
  • Additionally, content analysis can be used across different disciplines, such as sociology, psychology, communication studies, etc., making it highly flexible.

Additional Information 

  • Content analysis is widely used in social sciences and humanities research to analyze patterns, themes, and trends within texts or other forms of communication.
  • Researchers use various techniques, such as thematic coding, quantitative content analysis, and qualitative content analysis, to extract meaningful information from the data.
  • Content analysis can provide insights into public opinion, media representations, organizational communication, and many other areas of interest.
  • Its systematic approach and ability to analyze large volumes of data make it a valuable tool for researchers seeking to understand and interpret textual or visual content.
16

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Environmental communication includes human representation of nature.

Statement II: For the purpose of promoting environmental communication, only mainstream conventional media should be employed.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

The correct response is Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Key Points

Statement I:

  • Environmental communication indeed includes human representation of nature.
  • This statement is correct because environmental communication encompasses various forms of human expression, including art, literature, media, and discourse, that represent nature, its beauty, significance, and environmental issues.
  • Through these representations, environmental communication aims to foster understanding, awareness, and action towards environmental conservation.

Statement II:

  • This statement is incorrect. Environmental communication utilizes a variety of channels and platforms, not limited to mainstream conventional media, to effectively reach diverse audiences and promote environmental awareness and action.
  • While mainstream media can be one avenue for environmental communication, employing a range of communication strategies, including social media, community-based initiatives, educational programs, and grassroots movements, is essential for engaging different audiences and maximizing the impact of environmental communication efforts.
17

In a certain code :

(a) '3245' means 'you must study hard'

(b) ' 567 ' means 'hard work pays'

(c) '614' means 'work and study'

Which of the following are the codes for 'pays' and 'work' respectively?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    1 & 5

  2. ((b))

    5 & 6

  3. ((c))

    7 & 6

  4. ((d))

    4 & 5

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

7 & 6

According to given information:

The codes in tabular form :

WordsCodes
you3/2
must2/3
study4
hard5
work6
pays7
and1

Thus, the code for 'pays' is '7' and 'work' is '6' respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "7 & 6".

18

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) BIOS is an example of Application Software

(B) A utility software is an example of firmware

(C) Spyware is an example of malware

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B) Only

  3. ((c))

    (C) Only

  4. ((d))

    (B) and (C) Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

(C) Only

The correct response is (C) Only Spyware is an example of malware

Key Points

  • Spyware is a type of malware that is designed to gather information from a computer system without the user's knowledge or consent.
  • Malware refers to any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network.
  • Therefore, spyware is indeed an example of malware.

Additional Information 

  • BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System. It is firmware that initializes hardware during the boot process before loading the operating system. Therefore, it is not an example of application software.
  • Utility software is a type of software used to analyze, configure, optimize, or maintain a computer system. It is distinct from firmware, which is low-level software stored on a hardware device's non-volatile memory. Firmware controls the device's basic functions and is not typically considered utility software.

Important Points

  • Application Software: This is a type of software designed to perform a specific task or set of tasks for the end-user. Examples include word processors, web browsers, and spreadsheet applications.
  • Firmware: Firmware is a type of software that is embedded into hardware devices to control their operation. It is stored in non-volatile memory chips and is responsible for initializing and controlling the hardware.
  • Malware: Malware is a broad term that encompasses various types of malicious software, including viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, adware, and more. Its primary purpose is to disrupt, damage, or gain unauthorized access to computer systems or networks.
19

According to the Classical Indian School of logic (Nyãya) which fallacy is committed in the following statement?

"The sky rose is fragrant, because it is a rose like the rose on the earth".

  1. ((a))

    Asādhārana

  2. ((b))

    Bādhita

  3. ((c))

    Viruddha

  4. ((d))

    Āśrayā siddha

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Āśrayā siddha

The fallacy committed in the given statement according to the Classical Indian School of logic (Nyāya) is the fallacy of Āśrayā siddha.

Key PointsĀśrayā siddha:

  • The statement "The sky rose is fragrant, because it is a rose like the rose on the earth" commits the fallacy of Āśrayāsiddha.
  • Āśrayāsiddha, one of the Nava Dhvani (Nine Fallacies) identified in the Classical Indian School of logic (Nyāya), refers to the fallacy of an unproved assumption or the fallacy of presupposition.
  • It occurs when the argument relies on an assumption that itself has not been proven or is untenable.
  • In this case, the statement presupposes the existence of "the sky rose" without evidence that such a thing exists, making it an instance of Āśrayāsiddha.

Additional Information

  • Viruddha: This fallacy, also known as the fallacy of contradiction, happens when the two components of a statement contradict each other. In the given statement, the sky cannot be a rose, and thus the assertion of it being fragrant because it is a rose is contradictory.
  • Bādhita: This fallacy occurs when the proposed argument contradicts an established fact or is inconsistent with previous statements. Again, in the given statement, there is no contradiction with established facts.
  • Āśrayā siddha: This fallacy arises when the probandum (the proposition to be proved) is already evident. There's no instance of this fallacy in the given statement.
20

Which one of the following is responsible for the negative radiative forcing or cooling of the atmosphere?

  1. ((a))

    Water vapour

  2. ((b))

    Tropospheric Ozone

  3. ((c))

    Stratospheric Ozone

  4. ((d))

    Black carbon

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stratospheric Ozone

The correct response is Stratospheric Ozone.

Key Points

  • Stratospheric ozone is found in the stratosphere, the layer of the Earth's atmosphere situated above the troposphere.
  • Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun, which prevents it from reaching the Earth's surface.
  • This absorption of UV radiation results in a cooling effect on the atmosphere, making stratospheric ozone responsible for negative radiative forcing or cooling.
  • Stratospheric ozone plays a crucial role in protecting life on Earth by absorbing most of the sun's harmful UV radiation.
  • However, human activities, particularly the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances, have led to the depletion of stratospheric ozone, primarily in the polar regions, resulting in the formation of the ozone hole.
  • Efforts to reduce the production and use of ozone-depleting substances have been made through international agreements such as the Montreal Protocol, which has been successful in phasing out many ozone-depleting chemicals.

Additional Information 

  • Water vapor is a greenhouse gas, meaning it contributes to trapping heat in the atmosphere, leading to warming. It is not responsible for negative radiative forcing or cooling of the atmosphere.

  • Tropospheric ozone is also a greenhouse gas and contributes to warming of the atmosphere. It is formed through complex chemical reactions involving pollutants emitted by vehicles, power plants, and other sources. Tropospheric ozone is not responsible for negative radiative forcing.

  • Black carbon, also known as soot, is a type of particulate matter emitted from incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. Black carbon absorbs sunlight, leading to warming of the atmosphere and contributing to the greenhouse effect. Therefore, it is not responsible for negative radiative forcing.

21

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Problem based learning is a learner centred approach.

Statement II: In guided discovery learning students are encouraged to construct their understanding without the assistance of teacher guided questions and directions

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

The correct response was Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

 

Key Points 

Statement I: "Problem-based learning is a learner-centered approach."

  • This statement is generally accepted in educational theory. Problem-based learning (PBL) is indeed centered around the learner, focusing on students actively engaging in solving real-world problems, collaborating with peers, and directing their own learning process.

Statement II: "In guided discovery learning, students are encouraged to construct their understanding without the assistance of teacher-guided questions and directions."

  • This statement is incorrect. Guided discovery learning involves the teacher providing guidance, prompts, and questions to help students explore and discover concepts or solutions on their own.
  • The teacher's role is to facilitate and scaffold the learning process, providing support as needed. Therefore, the statement is inaccurate as it suggests a lack of teacher guidance, which is not the case in guided discovery learning.

 

Additional Information 

  • Problem-based learning (PBL) is a student-centered pedagogy in which students learn about a subject through the experience of solving an open-ended problem found in trigger material.
  • The emphasis is on active problem-solving and collaboration among students.
  • Guided discovery learning is a constructivist instructional design model that combines elements of experiential learning and discovery learning.
  • It involves providing learners with opportunities to explore and discover concepts on their own, guided by the teacher's prompts, questions, and scaffolding support.
  • The goal is for students to construct their understanding through active engagement with the material.
22

"To solve our transportation problems, we have to put more money into production of bicycles. The CEO of ABCD Company limited says so. "Which of the following fallacy is committed in the above argument?

  1. ((a))

    Slippery Slope

  2. ((b))

    Appeal to Inappropriate Authority

  3. ((c))

    Ad Hominem

  4. ((d))

    Hasty Generalisation

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Appeal to Inappropriate Authority

The correct response Appeal to Inappropriate Authority.

Key Points

  • The argument relies on the authority of the CEO of ABCD Company Limited to support the claim that putting more money into the production of bicycles will solve transportation problems.
  • However, being a CEO of a company does not necessarily make someone an expert on transportation or urban planning.
  • Therefore, the argument is flawed as it appeals to an inappropriate authority.
  • An appeal to inappropriate authority occurs when someone relies on the opinion of someone who lacks the expertise or credibility to support a particular claim.
  • In this case, the CEO's expertise lies in running a company, not in transportation planning or urban development.
  • To strengthen the argument, the CEO could provide evidence or data from transportation experts or studies supporting the idea that investing in bicycle production would alleviate transportation problems.

Additional Information 

Slippery Slope:

  • Slippery slope is a fallacy where it is assumed that a relatively small first step will inevitably lead to a chain of related events culminating in some significant impact, usually negative.
  • In the given argument, there's no indication that the CEO is suggesting a series of events leading to negative consequences.
  • Rather, they're proposing a single action (putting more money into bicycle production) as a solution to transportation problems.

Ad Hominem:

  • Ad Hominem is a fallacy where someone attacks the person making the argument rather than the argument itself.
  • In the given argument, there's no personal attack against any individual or authority. Therefore, this fallacy does not apply here.

Hasty Generalization:

  • Hasty Generalization is a fallacy where a conclusion is drawn based on insufficient evidence. In the given argument, there's no indication that the CEO is making a generalization based on insufficient evidence.
  • Instead, they are proposing a solution based on their own authority, which falls under the "Appeal to Inappropriate Authority" fallacy.
23

If the statement - "No professors are materialists" is given as true, then which of the following statements could be inferred to be true?

  1. ((a))

    All professors are materialists.

  2. ((b))

    Some professors are materialists.

  3. ((c))

    Some professors are not materialists.

  4. ((d))

    Some materialists are professors.

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Some professors are not materialists.

The correct response is Some professors are not materialists.

Key Points 

  • The original statement says "No professors are materialists," meaning there are no professors who are materialists. This implies that at least some professors are not materialists.
  • Option 1 ("All professors are materialists") directly contradicts the given statement, so it cannot be inferred to be true.
  • Option 2 ("Some professors are materialists") contradicts the given statement as well, so it cannot be inferred to be true.
  • Option 4 ("Some materialists are professors") does not follow from the given statement. Just because there are no professors who are materialists doesn't necessarily mean that some materialists are professors.
24

Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Montreal protocol is a multi-lateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man made chemicals.

Statement II: Montreal protocal is an international treaty designed to protect the environment.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

The correct response is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key Points

  • Statement I: The Montreal Protocol is indeed a multilateral environmental agreement, meaning it involves collaboration between many countries.
  • It specifically targets the regulation of nearly 100 human-made chemicals known as ozone-depleting substances (ODS). These chemicals were widely used in various products like refrigerants, aerosol propellants, and fire extinguishers.
  • Statement II: The primary goal of the Montreal Protocol is to protect the environment.
  • By regulating and phasing out the production and consumption of ODS, the protocol aims to address the depletion of the ozone layer, a crucial part of the Earth's atmosphere that shields us from harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

Additional Information 

  1. The Montreal Protocol is an international environmental treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
  2. It was agreed upon on September 16, 1987, and entered into force on January 1, 1989. The protocol was negotiated under the auspices of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  3. Ozone-depleting substances, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform, were commonly used in various industrial applications, including refrigeration, air conditioning, foam blowing, and aerosol propellants.
  4. However, it was discovered that these substances, when released into the atmosphere, could degrade the ozone layer, which shields the Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
  5. The Montreal Protocol set out specific targets and timetables for the phase-out of ODS, with developed countries taking the lead in reducing their production and consumption, followed by developing countries at a later stage.
  6. Over time, several amendments to the protocol have been made to accelerate the phase-out schedule and address newly identified ozone-depleting substances.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Project Tiger turned 50 years recently. An often repeated headline was how the numbers have increased from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022. This hides the bitter truth : Indians aren't going to compromise Western lifestyles for the survival of the Tiger. Most middle class Indians would loathe to give up their second, investment home or driving to the hills on a multilaned highway for the national animal.

You also can't change the needs of a tiger - it is a large, solitary animal. A female tiger needs about 15 square kilometres with a good prey base. If she reproduces, those cubs will require additional space. Data shows 30% of the tigers live outside protected areas, i.e in our midst. The more we fragment their habitat with urbanization, highways and industrial parks, the more they will be forced into unprotected areas.

Let's modify our approach. I advocate of three results by the 75th anniversary of project Tiger. First, instead of endlessly increasing tiger population, India can identify and achieve a metric, not much higher than the current numbers. Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages, more will be a disaster. Second, let's better protect what we have. Keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed is key. Investment in keeping unprotected ecosystems intact should be financially viable and part of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and more. Third, reducing confrontation with humans is essential. Monitoring and communications technology are key to this. Compensation for live stock killed must be rapidly assessed and pegged to market rates. For the next quarter century, let's think quality.

25

Over the last few years, the population of the tiger has:

  1. ((a))

    Decreased

  2. ((b))

    Remained static

  3. ((c))

    Increased

  4. ((d))

    Declined substantially

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Increased

The correct answer is 'Increased'.

Key Points

  • The passage highlights a significant increase in the tiger population, from 2,967 individuals in 2018 to 3,167 in 2022.
  • Despite the population growth, the passage points out that Indians may not be willing to compromise their Western lifestyles for the survival of tigers, emphasizing the challenges of conservation in the face of human development.
  • It emphasizes the impact of urbanization, highways, and industrial parks on fragmenting tiger habitats, leading to a higher concentration of tigers in unprotected areas.
  • The passage advocates for a modified approach to tiger conservation, focusing on achieving a sustainable metric for tiger population, better protection of existing habitats, and reducing confrontations with humans through technology and compensation measures.

Therefore, Option 3 is the correct answer.

26

According to the writer, the 75th Anniversary of project Tiger should not aim at the following:

(A) Keep the protected habitats intact

(B) Keep the tiger population about the same as at present

(C) Live stock killed by tigers should be adequately compensated for

(D) Focus on quantity instead of quality

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  3. ((c))

    (C) and (D) Only

  4. ((d))

    (D) Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(D) Only

The correct answer is '(D) Only'.

Key Points

  • The passage suggests setting a sustainable metric for the tiger population, avoiding an endless increase, and being mindful that a higher number could be detrimental, considering the existing presence of around 1000 tigers in farms and villages.
  • Emphasis is placed on the importance of keeping protected tiger habitat undisturbed, underscoring its key role in conservation efforts.
  • Financial viability and integration into Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) are proposed as strategies for investing in and maintaining unprotected ecosystems, recognizing the need to extend conservation efforts beyond protected areas.
  • The above passage also advocates for the use of monitoring and communications technology to reduce human-tiger conflicts, highlighting the significance of rapid assessment and compensation linked to market rates for livestock killed.

Therefore, Option 4 is the correct answer.

27

An increase in tiger population will result in:

  1. ((a))

    Tigers killing each other

  2. ((b))

    Tigers dying

  3. ((c))

    Tigers posing a threat to the farms and villages nearly

  4. ((d))

    Tigers eating their own cubs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Tigers posing a threat to the farms and villages nearly

The correct answer is 'Tigers posing a threat to the farms and villages nearly'.

Key Points

  • "Remember, 1000 tigers already roam around in farms and villages, more will be a disaster.", it implies that there could be negative consequences, possibly related to tigers posing a threat to farms and villages.
  • An increase in the tiger population, beyond the current numbers, could lead to a disaster.
  • The passage advocates for identifying and achieving a metric not much higher than the current numbers, suggesting a cautious approach to prevent potential negative impacts associated with an increase in tiger population.

Therefore, Option 3 is the correct answer.

28

"The bitter truth" refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Tigers living outside protected areas

  2. ((b))

    Human killing tigers

  3. ((c))

    The conflicting needs of human beings and tigers

  4. ((d))

    Tigers killing human beings

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The conflicting needs of human beings and tigers

The correct answer is 'The conflicting needs of human beings and tigers'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "the bitter truth" points to the conflict between the conservation needs of tigers and the unwillingness of many Indians to compromise their Western lifestyles for tiger survival.
  • The passage implies that the bitter truth lies in the fact that most middle-class Indians are unwilling to give up certain aspects of their lifestyle, such as second homes and driving on multilaned highways, for the sake of tiger conservation.
  • The conflicting needs are due to the challenges faced by tigers due to habitat fragmentation caused by urbanization, highways, and industrial parks, forcing them into unprotected areas.

Therefore, Option 3 is the correct answer.

29

According to the writer, one of the aims of project Tiger in the next quarter century should be:

  1. ((a))

    Increasing tiger population

  2. ((b))

    Training the tigers to live in a contained area

  3. ((c))

    Protecting the existing tiger population

  4. ((d))

    Ensuring that the government stops building highways

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Protecting the existing tiger population

The correct answer is 'Protecting the existing tiger population'.

Key Points

  • The passage advocates for a modified approach that suggests not endlessly increasing the tiger population. Instead, the aim is to identify and achieve a metric not much higher than the current numbers.
  • T he passage emphasizes the importance of better protecting the existing tiger population. This involves keeping protected tiger habitats undisturbed and investing in the conservation of unprotected ecosystems, considering financial viability and Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR).
  • It highlights the need to reduce confrontation between tigers and humans, emphasizing the role of monitoring and communications technology. Additionally, rapid assessment and fair compensation for livestock killed by tigers are deemed essential measures.

Therefore, Option 3 is the correct answer.

30

Find the number that can replace question mark (?) in the series given below.

1, 3, 2, 5, 3, 7, 4, 9, 5, 11, 6, 13 ?

  1. ((a))

    15

  2. ((b))

    7

  3. ((c))

    19

  4. ((d))

    8

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

7

Given: 1, 3, 2, 5, 3, 7, 4, 9, 5, 11, 6, 13 ?

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "7".

31

Which of the following were established during the rule of East India Company in India?

(A) St. Stephen's College, Delhi

(B) Hislop College, Nagpur

(C) Fort William College, Calcutta

(D) Serampore College, Serampore

(E) Poona Sanskrit College, Pune

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B) and (C) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B), (C) and (D) Only

  3. ((c))

    (A), (B) and (E) Only

  4. ((d))

    (C), (D) and (E) Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(C), (D) and (E) Only

The correct response is (C), (D) and (E) Only.

Key Points

  1. Fort William College, Calcutta:
  • Established: 1800
  • Fort William College was established by the East India Company to train its civil servants.
  1. Serampore College, Serampore:
  • Established: 1818
  • Serampore College was established by missionaries during the East India Company's rule.
  1. Poona Sanskrit College, Pune:
  • Established: 1821
  • Poona Sanskrit College was also established during the rule of the East India Company.

Additional Information

  1. St. Stephen's College, Delhi:
  • Established: 1881
  • St. Stephen's College was founded after the rule of the East India Company, which ended in 1858 following the Revolt of 1857.
  1. Hislop College, Nagpur:
  • Established: 1883
  • Hislop College was also founded after the rule of the East India Company.
32

Identify the advantages of close-ended questions in survey research:

(A) They allow unusual responses to be derived.

(B) It is easy to process their answers.

(C) They reduce the possibility of variability in the recording of answers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) and (B) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B) and (C) Only

  3. ((c))

    (A) and (C) Only

  4. ((d))

    (A), (B) and (C)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(B) and (C) Only

The correct answer is - (B) and (C) Only.

Key Points

  • Easy to Process Answers
  • Close-ended questions provide predefined options for responses, which makes it simpler to process and analyze the data.
  • Answers can easily be quantified and statistically analyzed.
  • Reduces Possibility of Variability in the Recording of Answers
  • Close-ended questions reduce the chance of variability in recording answers because respondents choose from a set list of options.
  • This standardization ensures consistency in how responses are recorded and interpreted.

Additional Information

  • Unusual Responses
  • Close-ended questions do not generally permit unusual or unexpected responses as they limit answers to the provided options.
  • Open-ended questions are more suitable for capturing unique or detailed answers.
33

In 1948, under whose chaipersonship a University Commission was appointed with the purpose of reconstruction of university education to meet the demand for scientific, technical and other manpower needed for the socio-economic development of the country?

  1. ((a))

    Dr. Zakir Husain

  2. ((b))

    Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

  3. ((c))

    Dr. A.L Mudaliar

  4. ((d))

    Dr. D.S. Kothari

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

The correct answer is - Dr. S. Radhakrishnan.

Key Points

  • The University Education Commission, often referred to as the Radhakrishnan Commission after its chairman Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
  • It was established in 1948 by the Government of India.
  • Its purpose was to report on Indian university education and suggest improvements and extensions that might be desirable to suit present and future requirements of the country.
  • Some of the pivotal suggestions made by the commission:
  • Establishment of the University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • Expansion of Educational Access and Equity
  • Emphasis on Liberal Education
  • Development of Research and Specialization
  • Faculty Development
  • Adult Education and Extension Services
  • Introduction of Agricultural and Veterinary Sciences
  • Medium of Instruction
  • Financial Support and Scholarships

Additional InformationDr. Zakir Husain:

  • Dr. Zakir Husain was a prominent educationalist and statesman in India.
  • He served as the third President of India from 1967 until his death in 1969.
  • Before becoming President, he had an extensive background in education, including serving as the Vice Chancellor of the Aligarh Muslim University.

Dr. A.L Mudaliar:

  • Dr. Arcot Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar was an eminent Indian educationist and medical practitioner.
  • He served as the Vice-Chancellor of the University of Madras for an extensive period.
  • He played a significant role in the development of the educational framework in India.
  • Dr. Mudaliar was later appointed as the chairman of the Secondary Education Commission, also known as the Mudaliar Commission, in 1952. .

Dr. D.S. Kothari:

  • Dr. Daulat Singh Kothari was an outstanding educationist and physicist who made considerable contributions to Indian science and education policy.
  • Dr. Kothari is well remembered for his role as the chairman of the Education Commission (1964-1966), often referred to as the Kothari Commission.
  • The Kothari Commission was tasked with formulating the policies and guiding principles for the development of education in India, from the primary level up to the tertiary level.
  • Among its notable recommendations was the establishment of the '10+2+3' pattern of education, which has become the foundation of the current educational structure in India.
34

Certain books are bought at prices ranging from ₹400 to ₹500 per book and are sold at prices ranging from ₹500 to ₹700 per book. Find the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 10 books.

  1. ((a))

    ₹4000

  2. ((b))

    ₹3000

  3. ((c))

    ₹3800

  4. ((d))

    ₹7000

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

₹3000

Shortcut Trick

To maximize Profit, minimize Cost Price (CP) and maximize Selling Price (SP).

Minimum CP per book = ₹400 | Maximum SP per book = ₹700.

Maximum Profit per book = 700 − 400 = ₹300.

Maximum Profit for 10 books = 10 × 300 = ₹3000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹3000.

Alternate Method

Given: CP range = ₹400 to ₹500 | SP range = ₹500 to ₹700 | Quantity = 10 books.

Formula: Profit = SP − CP | Total Profit = (Profit per unit) × (Number of units).

⇒ Greatest Profit occurs when we buy at the lowest possible price and sell at the highest possible price.

⇒ Lowest CP for 10 books = 10 × 400 = ₹4000.

⇒ Highest SP for 10 books = 10 × 700 = ₹7000.

⇒ Maximum possible profit = 7000 − 4000 = ₹3000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹3000.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Extremes

To calculate the maximum profit, always use the minimum CP and maximum SP. Conversely, for maximum loss, use maximum CP and minimum SP.

Net Profit Calculation

Total Profit = (SP per book − CP per book) × Total number of books sold.

The following table shows the percentage (%) distribution of 12th class students scoring (i) 95% and above marks, and (ii) between 90 - 95% marks, along with ratio of Girls to Boys among them from six schools A-F of Delhi. Total number of students scoring 95% and above marks and between 90-95% marks are 6000 and 10000, respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow.

School-wise Distribution of Students Based on Marks

SchoolScoring 95% and above marks (6000)Scoring between 90 - 95% marks (10000)
Percentage of studentsGirls ∶ BoysPercentage of studentsGirls ∶ Boys
A13%11 ∶ 516%3 ∶ 2
B18%5 ∶ 76%1 ∶ 4
C17%3 ∶ 510%5 ∶ 3
D8%7 ∶ 128%2 ∶ 3
E24%5 ∶ 421%9 ∶ 5
F20%5 ∶ 319%3 ∶ 4
35

The number of boys of schools E and F together who scored 95% and above marks is approximately _________% less than the number of girls of schools B and E together who scored between 90 - 95% marks.

  1. ((a))

    24

  2. ((b))

    26

  3. ((c))

    20

  4. ((d))

    22

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

26

Given:

Total number of students who scored above 95% = 6000

Total number of students who scored between 90 - 95% = 10000

Calculation:

Boys of school E who scored 95% and above = 24/100 × 6000 × 4/9

⇒ 640

Boys of school F who scored 95% and above = 20/100 × 6000 × 3/8

⇒ 450 

Girls of school B who scored between 90 - 95% = 6/100 × 10000 × 1/5

⇒ 120 

Girls of school E who scored between 90 - 95% = 21/100 × 10000 × 9/14

⇒ 1350

Required percentage = (1470 - 1090) / 1470 × 100

⇒ 380/1470 × 100

⇒ 26% (approx.)

∴ The correct answer is 26%.

36

What is the ratio of the number of boys of school C who scored between 90-95% marks to the number of boys who scored 95% and above marks in the same school?

  1. ((a))

    5 ∶ 9

  2. ((b))

    10 ∶ 17

  3. ((c))

    10 ∶ 13

  4. ((d))

    12 ∶ 17

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

10 ∶ 17

Given:

Total number of students who scored above 95% = 6000

Total number of students who scored between 90 - 95% = 10000

Calculation:

Boys in school C who scored between 90 - 95% = 10/100 × 10000 × 3/8

⇒ 375

Boys of school C who scored 90% and above = 17/100 × 6000 × 5/8

⇒ 1275/2

Required ratio = 375 : 1275/2

⇒ 750 : 1275

∴ The correct answer is 10:17

37

Average numbers of boys who scored between 90-95% marks from the schools A - E together is:

  1. ((a))

    746

  2. ((b))

    718

  3. ((c))

    725

  4. ((d))

    785

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

785

Given: 

Total number of students who scored between 90 - 95% = 10000

Calculation: 

Number of boys in school A = 16/100 × 10000 × 2/5

⇒ 640

Number of boys in school B = 6/100 × 10000 × 4/5

⇒ 480

Number of boys in school C = 10/100 × 10000 × 3/8

⇒ 375

Number of boys in school D = 28/100 × 10000 × 3/5

⇒ 1680

Number of boys in school E = 21/100 × 10000 × 5/14

⇒ 750

Average = (640 + 480 + 375 + 1680 + 750) / 5

⇒ 3925 / 5

⇒ 785

∴ The correct answer is 785.

38

For school E, the difference between the numbers of boys who scored 95% and above marks and boys who scored between 90 - 95% marks is:

  1. ((a))

    115

  2. ((b))

    120

  3. ((c))

    110

  4. ((d))

    105

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

110

Given:

Total number of students who scored above 95% = 6000

Total number of students who scored between 90 - 95% = 10000

Calculation:

Boys of school E who scored 95% and above = 24/100 × 6000 × 4/9

⇒ 640

Boys of school E who scored between 90 - 95% = 21/100 × 10000 × 5/14

⇒ 750

Required difference = 110

∴ The correct answer is 110.

39

The number of girls of school B who scored between 90 - 95% marks is approximately _______% of the number of girls of school D Who scored 95% and above marks.

  1. ((a))

    28.57

  2. ((b))

    22.46

  3. ((c))

    29.95

  4. ((d))

    32.46

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

28.57

Given:

Total number of students who scored above 95% = 6000

Total number of students who scored between 90 - 95% = 10000

Calculation:

Girls of school B who scored between 90 - 95% = 6/100 × 10000 × 1/5

⇒ 120

Girls of school D who scored 95% and above = 8/100 × 6000 × 7/8

⇒ 420

Required percentage = 120/420 × 100

⇒ 2/7 × 100

⇒ 28.57 (approx.)

∴ The correct answer is 28.57%.

40

A policeman goes 20 meters towards the South and then turns to his right and walks 40 meters. He again turns to his left and walks 10 meters. How far is he now from his starting point?

  1. ((a))

    37.5 meters

  2. ((b))

    50 meters

  3. ((c))

    30√2 meters

  4. ((d))

    40 meters 

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

50 meters

As per the given information:

  • A policeman goes 20 meters towards South and then turns to his right and walks 40 meters.
  • He again turns to his left and walks 10 meters.

 

Now, the distance between the starting point and the end point i.e. AD is given by

Using Pythagoras theorem we get,

→ (AD)2 = (AO)2 + (OD)2

→ (AD)2 = (30)2 + (40)2

→ (AD)2 = 900 + 1600

→ (AD)2 = 2500

→ (AD) = 50 meters

Thus, the policeman is 50 meters far from his starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "50 meters".

41

Mr. Johnson wants to create a mind map for his students to help them understand the concept of photosynthesis. Which of the following tools would be most suitable?

  1. ((a))

    MindMeister

  2. ((b))

    Edpuzzle

  3. ((c))

    Nearpod

  4. ((d))

    Hot potato

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

MindMeister

The correct response is MindMeister.

Key Points

  • MindMeister is a mind-mapping tool that allows users to visually organize information and concepts. It offers features such as branching, color coding, and multimedia integration, making it an ideal choice for creating interactive and visually engaging mind maps.
  • With MindMeister, Mr. Johnson can create a structured representation of the process of photosynthesis, including its stages, components, and related concepts. He can also include images, videos, and links to further resources to enhance students' understanding.
  • The interactive nature of Mindmeister allows students to explore the topic at their own pace, navigate between different elements of the mind map, and interact with the content, fostering active learning and comprehension.

Additional Information 

Edpuzzle:

  • Edpuzzle is a tool primarily used for creating interactive video lessons by embedding questions, quizzes, and audio notes into videos.
  • While it can be useful for delivering instructional content related to photosynthesis, it may not be the most suitable tool for creating a mind map, which requires a visual representation of interconnected concepts.
<br>

Nearpod:

  • Nearpod is a platform that enables teachers to create interactive multimedia presentations and assessments.
  • While it offers features for engaging students in various learning activities, including virtual reality experiences and collaborative discussions, it may not provide the specific functionality required for creating a detailed mind map of photosynthesis.
<br>

Hot potato:

  • A hot potato is a tool for creating interactive quizzes and learning games.
  • While it can be engaging for students, it is not designed for creating mind maps, which require a visual representation of interconnected concepts and relationships.

Important Points 

  • Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy, usually from the sun, into chemical energy stored in glucose.
  • It involves several stages, including light-dependent reactions and light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle), and requires the presence of chlorophyll and other pigments in chloroplasts.
  • Understanding photosynthesis is crucial for students studying biology, as it is the basis of energy flow in ecosystems and the primary source of oxygen in the atmosphere.
  • A well-designed mind map can help students grasp the complex processes and relationships involved in photosynthesis more effectively.
42

Given below are two statements :

Statement I ∶ (25)16 =(00100101)2

Statement II ∶ (00011011)2 =(1B)16

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

The correct response is Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Key Points

  • Statement I:

(25)16 = (00100101)2

  • This statement is correct. To convert the hexadecimal number 25 to binary, we convert each hexadecimal digit to its binary equivalent.
  • Hexadecimal 2 corresponds to binary 0010 and hexadecimal 5 corresponds to binary 0101. So, (25)16 in binary is (0010 0101)2.
  • Statement II:

(00011011)2 = (1B)16

  • This statement is also correct. To convert the binary number 00011011 to hexadecimal, we group the binary digits into groups of four (starting from the right) and convert each group to its hexadecimal equivalent.
  • 0001 corresponds to hexadecimal 1 and 1011 corresponds to hexadecimal B. So, (00011011)2 in hexadecimal is (1B)16.

 

Additional Information 

Hexadecimal, often abbreviated as "hex," is a base-16 numeral system used in mathematics and computer science. In hexadecimal notation, there are 16 symbols used to represent numbers, ranging from 0 to 9 and then A to F.

Each hexadecimal digit represents four binary digits (bits), making it convenient for representing binary numbers in a more compact and readable format.

Here's the breakdown of the hexadecimal system:

  • The symbols 0-9 represent values from 0 to 9, just like in the decimal system.
  • The symbols A, B, C, D, E, and F represent values from 10 to 15, respectively.
  • So, the sequence goes: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, A, B, C, D, E, F.

 

For example:

  • Hexadecimal 0 is equivalent to decimal 0.
  • Hexadecimal 9 is equivalent to decimal 9.
  • Hexadecimal A is equivalent to decimal 10.
  • Hexadecimal F is equivalent to decimal 15.
  1. Hexadecimal numbers are commonly used in computer science and digital electronics because of their direct relationship with binary numbers.
  2. Each hexadecimal digit corresponds to four binary digits (bits), which makes it easier to represent and manipulate binary data in a more concise form.
  3. For example, the binary number 1010 1101 can be represented as AD in hexadecimal notation.
43

The process by which a message is transmitted via some form of medium is identified as _________ communication:

  1. ((a))

    Formative

  2. ((b))

    Inter-connective

  3. ((c))

    Mediated

  4. ((d))

    Formal

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Mediated

The correct response is Mediated communication.

Key Points

  • Mediated communication involves the transmission of messages through some form of medium, such as writing, speaking, or broadcasting.
  • This can include various forms of communication channels like emails, letters, phone calls, or social media platforms.
  • The term "mediated" signifies that there is an intermediary medium through which the communication occurs.
  • Mediated communication has become increasingly important in the modern era due to advancements in technology.
  • It has enabled people to communicate over long distances and across various platforms, transforming how individuals and organizations interact.
  • Examples of mediated communication channels include emails, text messages, video conferencing, and social media platforms like Facebook and Twitter.
  • Understanding mediated communication is essential for effective interpersonal and organizational communication in today's interconnected world.

Additional Information 

  • Formative communication refers to the process of shaping or developing something, such as ideas or concepts. It's not directly related to the transmission of messages via a medium.
  • Inter-connective communication could refer to communication between interconnected systems or networks, but it doesn't specifically address the process of transmitting messages via a medium
  • Formal communication refers to communication that follows established protocols, rules, or conventions, often used in professional settings. While formal communication can be mediated, it's not the term specifically used to describe the process of transmission via a medium.
44

When two variables are related in such a way that when one increases, so does the other, you can conclude that:

  1. ((a))

    There is no problem with directionality.

  2. ((b))

    The two variables are positively associated.

  3. ((c))

    There are no latent variables affecting the relationship.

  4. ((d))

    There is a third variable responsible for the causation between them.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The two variables are positively associated.

The correct response is The two variables are positively associated.

Key Points

  • When two variables are related in such a way that when one increases, the other also increases, it indicates a positive association between the variables.
  • This means that as the value of one variable increases, the value of the other variable tends to increase as well.

Additional Information 

There is no problem with directionality.

  • This statement does not directly address the nature of the relationship between the variables.
  • Directionality refers to the direction of the relationship (e.g., does variable A cause changes in variable B or vice versa), which may or may not be an issue depending on the context of the analysis.
<br>

There are no latent variables affecting the relationship.

  • This statement assumes that there are no hidden or unobserved variables influencing the relationship between the two variables.
  • However, the presence of latent variables is not explicitly determined based on the given information.
<br>

There is a third variable responsible for the causation between them.

  • While it is possible for a third variable to influence the relationship between the two variables (causal relationship), the statement in the question does not provide enough information to conclude that a third variable is responsible for causation.
  • It only describes a positive association between the variables, not necessarily causation.
45

Which of the following pair of acronym and its expansion are incorrectly matched?

  1. ((a))

    LED - Light Emitting Diode

  2. ((b))

    CRT - Cathode Ray Tube

  3. ((c))

    LCD - Liquid Control Display

  4. ((d))

    VDU - Video Display Unit

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

LCD - Liquid Control Display

The correct response is - LCD - Liquid Control Display.

Key Points

  • LCD - Liquid Crystal Display (incorrectly matched as Liquid Control Display)
  • Utilizes liquid crystals that modify light to produce images.
  • Consumes less power compared to CRTs, making them suitable for laptops and portable devices.
  • Offers sharp images and is available in a range of sizes for TVs, monitors, and mobile devices.

Additional Information 

  • LED - Light Emitting Diode
  • Semiconductors that emit light when electrically energized.
  • Highly efficient, with a long lifespan compared to traditional light sources.
  • Used in a wide range of applications, including indicator lights, displays, and general lighting.

CRT - Cathode Ray Tube

  • A vacuum tube containing one or more electron guns (cathodes) and a phosphorescent screen.
  • Electrons are accelerated and deflected under vacuum to create images on the phosphorescent screen.
  • Historically used in televisions and computer monitors, now largely replaced by newer technologies.

VDU - Video Display Unit

  • A general term that refers to any display device capable of showing output from a computer or video signal.
  • Includes monitors, TVs, and display panels in embedded systems.
  • Can use various technologies like CRT, LCD, LED, OLED etc., for displaying images.
46

What is the full form of CBOD?

  1. ((a))

    Comparative Biochemical Oxygen Demand

  2. ((b))

    Common Biochemical Oxygen Demand

  3. ((c))

    Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand

  4. ((d))

    Classified Biochemical Oxygen Demand

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand

The correct response is Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand.

Key Points

  • CBOD stands for Carbonaceous Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
  • It is a measure of the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose the organic material in water.

Additional Information

  • CBOD is an important parameter in assessing the organic pollution level in water bodies.
  • High levels of CBOD indicate a high amount of organic matter present in the water, which can lead to oxygen depletion and negatively impact aquatic life.
  • Monitoring CBOD levels is essential for ensuring water quality and environmental health, especially in bodies of water used for drinking, recreation, and aquatic habitat maintenance.
47

In analog media, contents are:

  1. ((a))

    Non-linear

  2. ((b))

    Linear

  3. ((c))

    Interactive

  4. ((d))

    Customised

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Linear

The correct response is Linear.

Key Points

  • Analog media refers to traditional forms of media such as printed materials, radio broadcasts, and television broadcasts.
  • In analog media, content is typically transmitted in a linear fashion, meaning that it is presented sequentially without the ability for the viewer or listener to interact or customize the content.
  • For example, in a radio broadcast, listeners tune in to a specific station and hear the content being broadcasted in a linear manner, without the ability to skip forward or backward. Similarly, in printed materials like newspapers or magazines, readers consume the content in the order it is presented on the page.

Additional Information 

Non-linear: Non-linear content refers to content that can be accessed or consumed in a non-sequential manner, allowing for interactivity or customization. Analog media typically does not provide non-linear experiences.

Interactive: Analog media generally does not offer interactive experiences where the audience can actively engage with or manipulate the content. Interactivity is more commonly associated with digital media platforms.

Customized: Analog media content is typically mass-produced and distributed in a standardized format, without the ability for individual customization by the audience. Customization is more feasible in digital media where content can be tailored to individual preferences or demographics.

48

Which of the following propositions are so related that they cannot both be true, although they can both be false?

(A) No professors are materialists

(B) Some professors are materialists

(C) All professors are materialists

(D) Some professors are not materialists

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) and (C) Only

  2. ((b))

    (B) and (D) Only

  3. ((c))

    (B) and (C) Only

  4. ((d))

    (A) and (D) Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) and (C) Only

The correct response is - (A) and (C) Only.

<br>

Key PointsContradictory Statements:

  • Proposition (A) states that there are no professors who are materialists, implying a complete separation of professors from the group of materialists.
  • Proposition (C) makes the universal claim that all professors are materialists, implying no professor exists outside the group of materialists.
  • These two statements are direct contradictions of each other.
  • If one is true, the other must necessarily be false, as their truth values are mutually exclusive.

Possibility of Both Being False:

  • Both statements can be false if there exists a situation where some professors are materialists and some are not.
  • This scenario would invalidate both the universal negatives of (A) and the universal positives of (C), showcasing the possibility of both propositions being false at the same time.

The relationship between (A) and (C) reflects a logical structure where the two propositions cannot co-exist in truth due to their inherently contradictory nature.

49

Which of the following statements are true about hardness in water?

(A) It is caused by ions of calcium and magnesium

(B) It is of two types-temporary and permanent

C) Permanent hardness can easily be removed by heating the water

(D) Hardness causes scales in hot water pipe systems

(E) Hardness decreases the soap consumption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only

  2. ((b))

    (A), (B) and (D) Only

  3. ((c))

    (B), (C), (D) and (E) Only

  4. ((d))

    (C), (D) and (E) Only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A), (B) and (D) Only

The correct answer is - (A), (B) and (D) Only.

Key Points Hardness in Water :

  • It is caused by ions of calcium and magnesium
  • Hardness in water primarily results from the presence of calcium (Ca2+) and magnesium (Mg2+) ions.
  • These minerals can enter water as it flows over or through soil and rock.
  • It is of two types - temporary and permanent
  • Temporary hardness is primarily caused by the presence of dissolved bicarbonate minerals (calcium bicarbonate and magnesium bicarbonate) and can be removed by boiling the water.
  • Permanent hardness is caused by the presence of sulfate or chloride forms of calcium and magnesium and is not removed by boiling.
  • Hardness causes scales in hot water pipe systems
  • Hardness in water leads to the formation of scale, or mineral deposits, inside pipes, water heaters, and boilers.
  • These scales can reduce the efficiency of heating and increase energy costs.

Additional Information

  • Permanent hardness cannot easily be removed by heating the water, making statement (C) false.
  • Instead, it requires chemical treatment, such as the use of water softeners that utilize ion-exchange resins.
  • Hardness does not decrease soap consumption; rather, it increases it, making statement (E) false.
50

A woman, while introducing a man, says "His wife is the only daughter of my father". How is that man related to the woman?

  1. ((a))

    Father in law

  2. ((b))

    Brother in law

  3. ((c))

    Husband

  4. ((d))

    Brother

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Husband

By using the following symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Given statement: A woman, while introducing a man, says "His wife is the only daughter of my father".

Clearly, the 'man' is the husband of the woman'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Husband".

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