SSC Stenographer · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

2650 Total Questions53 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 1001–1020 of 2650Page 51 of 100
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1001

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Mameluke style of architecture belongs to which dynasty ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Lodi dynasty 

  2. BOption (b)

    Slave dynasty 

  3. COption (c)

    Khilji dynasty

  4. DOption (d)

    Tughlaq dynasty 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Slave dynasty 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Slave dynasty.

 Key Points

  • Mameluke Architecture:-
  • Mameluke architecture is characterized by its use of stone, brick, and wood, as well as its rich ornamentation.
  • The Mameluke style of architecture belongs to the Slave Sultanate.
  • Common features of Mamluk architecture include:
  • Pointed arches: These arches are often decorated with intricate geometric patterns.
  • Muqarnas: These are honeycomb-like decorative forms that are often used to create transitions between different architectural elements.
  • Ablaq: This is a technique of alternating between different colors of stone, such as white and red, to create a striped effect.
  • Mashrabiyas: These are wooden latticework windows that are often used to filter light and provide privacy.
  • Slave dynasty:-
  • The Slave dynasty, also known as the Mamluk dynasty, was a dynasty of Indian sultans of Turkish origin that ruled over Delhi Sultanate from 1206 to 1290 CE.
  • The dynasty was founded by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave of Muhammad of Ghor, who became the first sultan of Delhi after Muhammad's death in 1206.

 Additional Information

  • Lodi dynasty:-
  • It is also known as the Afghan dynasty, was a Pashtun dynasty that ruled over the Delhi Sultanate in India from 1451 to 1526.
  • The dynasty was founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi, a Pashtun chief from Multan, who replaced the Sayyid dynasty.
  • Khalji dynasty:-
  • It was the second dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, ruling over large parts of the Indian subcontinent for nearly three decades between 1290 and 1320.
  • It was founded by Jalal ud din Firuz Khalji, a Pashtun general from the region of Ghazni in present-day Afghanistan.
  • The Khalji dynasty is noted for its military expansion, administrative reforms, and cultural patronage.
  • Tughlaq dynasty:-
  • It was the third dynasty to rule over the Delhi Sultanate in medieval India.
  • It lasted from 1320 to 1413 and was known for its ambitious reforms and its eventual decline.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1002

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following varieties of rice is known as the miracle rice for India and was first harvested in 1967 with exceptional yield? 

  1. AOption (a)

    IR9 

  2. BOption (b)

    IR8 

  3. COption (c)

    PETA 

  4. DOption (d)

    DGWG 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

IR8 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IR8.

Key Points

  • IR8:-
  • It is also known as "miracle rice," is a high-yielding semi-dwarf rice variety developed by the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) in the early 1960s.
  • It was developed by an IRRI team consisting of Jennings, Hank Beachell, Akira Tanaka, T.T. Chang, S.K. De Datta, and Robert Chandler.
  • The variety of rice known as the "miracle rice" for India is IR8.
  • It was capable of producing up to 5 tons of rice per hectare, a significant increase over the traditional tall rice varieties that yielded around 1-2 tons per hectare.
  • This breakthrough in rice production marked the beginning of the Green Revolution in Asia, a period of agricultural advancements that transformed rice farming and alleviated food scarcity in the region.

Additional Information

  • PETA:-
  • People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) is an American animal rights organization based in Norfolk, Virginia, founded in 1980 by Ingrid Newkirk and Alex Pacheco.
  • PETA says that its entities have more than 9 million members globally.
  • The organization claims to be "the largest animal rights organization in the world."
  • DGWG:-
  • DGWG stands for Dee-geo-woo-gen, a recessive dwarfing gene in rice.
  • It is a single-gene mutation that causes a reduction in plant height by about 25%.
  • DGWG has been used in rice breeding to create semi-dwarf varieties that are less prone to lodging, which is the bending or falling over of plants due to wind or heavy grain loads.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1003

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

On which of the following rivers does the National Waterway-  2 lie that covers the Sadiya - Dhubri stretch?

  1. AOption (a)

    Godavari 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Ganges 

  3. COption (c)

    Krishna 

  4. DOption (d)

    Brahmaputra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Brahmaputra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

  • National Waterway-2:-
  • NW-2 is a designated inland waterway in India that runs along the Brahmaputra River in the state of Assam.
  • It stretches for 891 kilometers (554 miles) from Dhubri on the Bangladesh border to Sadiya in the easternmost part of the state.
  • NW-2 is one of the most important national waterways in India, providing a crucial transportation link for the northeastern region of the country.
  • Brahmaputra River:-
  • The Brahmaputra, one of the largest rivers of the world, has its origin in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near the Mansarovar lake.
  • It emerges as a turbulent and dynamic river after carving out a deep gorge in the Central Himalayas near Namcha Barwa (7,755 m).
  • The river emerges from the foothills under the name of Siang or Dihang. It enters India west of Sadiya town in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Flowing southwest, it receives its main left bank tributaries, viz., Dibang or Sikang and Lohit; thereafter, it is known as the Brahmaputra.
  • The Brahmaputra River is a major source of water for irrigation and hydroelectric power, and it also supports a rich biodiversity of plants and animals.

Additional Information

  • Ganges River:-
  • It is a sacred river to Hindus and is considered one of the holiest rivers in the world.
  • It originates in the Himalayas and flows through India and Bangladesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The Ganges River is a major source of water for irrigation and drinking water, and it also supports a rich biodiversity of plants and animals.
  • Krishna River:-
  • It is the fourth longest river in India. It originates in the Western Ghats and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The Krishna River is a major source of water for irrigation and hydroelectric power, and it also supports a rich agricultural economy.
  • Godavari River:-
  • It is the second longest river in India. It originates in the Western Ghats and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Odisha before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The Godavari River is a major source of water for irrigation and drinking water, and it also supports a rich agricultural economy.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1004

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports is situated in______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Patiala 

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengaluru 

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata 

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Patiala 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Patiala.

Key Points

  • Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports:-
  • NSNIS is a premier sports institute in Asia, located in the city of Patiala, Punjab, India.
  • It was established in 1961 by the Government of India with the objective of developing sports in the country using scientific methods and to train coaches in various sports disciplines.
  • The institute is named after Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, an Indian nationalist and freedom fighter.
  • NSNIS is spread over 268 acres of land and has state-of-the-art infrastructure, including a multi-purpose stadium, a swimming pool, a gymnasium, and various sports fields.
  • The institute also has a well-equipped library and a sports museum.
  • In 1973, the institute was renamed as Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports.
  • The institute is housed in the erstwhile Palace of Maharaja (King) of Patiala (Punjab), which was purchased by Government of India after Indian Independence.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1005

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

S Ballesh Bhajantri, who was awarded the Padma Shri Award in 2022, is famous for playing the: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Shehnai 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ghatam 

  3. COption (c)

    Flute 

  4. DOption (d)

    Mridangam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shehnai 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shehnai.

Key Points

  • Pandit S. Ballesh Bhajantri:-
  • He is an esteemed Indian classical Hindustani shehnai player.
  • He is regarded as a prominent figure in the Benares gharana style of shehnai playing and is also a Patiala gharana Hindustani vocalist, ghazal singer, Indian playback singer, and musician.
  • Ballesh is widely recognized for popularizing the shehnai, a reeded woodwind instrument.
  • He is also an accredited artist with Prasar Bharati's All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan.
  • Shehani:-
  • The shehnai is a double-reed woodwind instrument originating from the Indian subcontinent, traditionally associated with North Indian classical music.
  • It is a versatile instrument, also used in folk music, devotional music, and Sufi music.
  • The shehnai is known for its rich, vibrant sound, often described as "haunting" or "soulful."

Additional Information

  • Ghatam:-
  • The ghatam is a percussion instrument originating from South India, traditionally associated with Carnatic classical music.
  • It is a clay pot that is struck with the hands or fingers to produce a variety of sounds, resembling the tabla, a two-headed drum.
  • The ghatam is known for its rich, resonant timbre and its ability to produce a wide range of pitches.
  • It is often used to accompany other instruments, such as the flute and the mridangam.
  • Flute:-
  • The flute is a wind instrument found in various cultures worldwide, including India.
  • In Indian classical music, the flute is known as the bansuri, a side-blown wooden flute.
  • It is a versatile instrument, used in both Carnatic and Hindustani classical music, as well as in folk and devotional music.
  • The bansuri is known for its sweet, mellow sound and its ability to produce intricate melodies.
  • Mridangam:-
  • The mridangam is a two-headed drum originating from South India, traditionally associated with Carnatic classical music.
  • It is considered the primary percussion instrument in Carnatic music, providing rhythmic accompaniment to the melody and improvisation.
  • The mridangam is played with the hands and fingers, producing a wide range of sounds, from crisp slaps to deep resonant tones.
  • It is known for its complex rhythmic patterns and its ability to follow and complement the intricacies of the melody.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1006

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Panjnad is the name given to the five rivers of Punjab, namely the Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum. It finally discharges into which sea? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Arabian Sea

  2. BOption (b)

    Caspian Sea

  3. COption (c)

    Andaman Sea

  4. DOption (d)

    Red Sea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Arabian Sea

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arabian Sea.

Key Points

  • Arabian Sea:-
  • The Arabian Sea, a vast body of water covering approximately 3,862,000 square kilometers (1,491,000 square miles).
  • It is a significant region of the northern Indian Ocean.
  • It is bounded by the Arabian Peninsula on the west, the Horn of Africa and the Gulf of Aden on the southwest, Iran and Pakistan on the north, India on the east, and the Laccadive Sea and the Maldives on the southeast.
  • The Arabian Sea plays a crucial role in the region's climate, economy, and biodiversity.
  • The Panjnad River, formed by the confluence of the five rivers of Punjab, ultimately discharges into the Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

  • Caspian Sea:-
  • The Caspian Sea is an endorheic lake, or a lake with no natural outlet to the ocean, located between Europe and Asia.
  • It is the largest inland body of water in the world, with a surface area of 371,000 square kilometers (143,000 square miles).
  • The Caspian Sea is bordered by Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran, Turkmenistan, and Kazakhstan.
  • Andaman Sea:-
  • The Andaman Sea is a marginal sea of the northeastern Indian Ocean, bounded by the coastlines of Myanmar and Thailand along the Gulf of Martaban and the western side of the Malay Peninsula, and separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Great Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • It has an area of 797,000 square kilometers (308,000 square miles), with an average depth of 4,700 meters (15,400 feet).
  • Red Sea:-
  • The Red Sea is a narrow elongated basin of the Indian Ocean, extending northeastward from the Gulf of Aden at the southern tip of the Arabian Peninsula to the Suez Canal at the head of the Gulf of Suez.
  • It has an area of 458,000 square kilometers (177,000 square miles), with an average depth of 200 meters (660 feet) and a maximum depth of 2,520 meters (8,268 feet).
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1007

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Out of the following metals, choose the odd one out on the basis of their place in the periodic table.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lithium 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium 

  3. COption (c)

    Potassium 

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Magnesium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magnesium.

Key Points

  • The odd one out is Magnesium. Lithium, sodium, and potassium are all alkali metals, which are characterized by having a single valence electron in their outermost shell. This gives them similar chemical properties, such as high reactivity and low electronegativity.
  • Magnesium, on the other hand, is an alkaline earth metal, which means it has two valence electrons in its outermost shell. This makes it less reactive and more electronegative than the alkali metals.
  • | Metal | Group | Valance electrons | Reactivity | Electronegativity | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Lithium | 1 | 1 | High | Low | | Sodium | 1 | 1 | High | Low | | Potassium | 1 | 1 | High | Low | | Magnesium | 2 | 2 | Low | High |
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1008

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

How many components of bacterial flagella have?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

Bacterial flagella:-

  • Bacterial flagella are complex organelles that play a crucial role in bacterial motility.
  • They are composed of three main components:
  • Basal body:
  • The basal body is a complex molecular machine that serves as the rotary motor responsible for flagellar rotation.
  • It is embedded in the bacterial cell envelope and consists of four ring structures (MS, S, C, and P rings) and the rod, which extends into the cell cytoplasm.
  • Hook:
  • The hook is a flexible, curved structure that connects the basal body to the filament.
  • It allows for changes in the flagellum's direction of rotation, enabling the bacterium to maneuver effectively.
  • Filament:
  • The filament is a long, helical structure that extends from the hook and serves as the propeller that propels the bacterium through its liquid environment.
  • It is composed of thousands of copies of a single protein subunit called flagellin.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1009

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Brihat Samhita was the treatise of which of the following subjects? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Botany 

  2. BOption (b)

    Astronomy 

  3. COption (c)

    Geography 

  4. DOption (d)

    Natural History

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Astronomy 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Astronomy.

Key Points

  • Brihat Samhita:-
  • The Brihat Samhita is a Sanskrit text that provides a comprehensive treatment of Indian astronomy, astrology, architecture, omens, Ayurveda, alchemy, and other subjects.
  • It was written in the 5th century CE by Varahamihira.
  • The Brihat Samhita is considered one of the most important astronomical texts of ancient India.
  • It provides detailed information about the Sun, Moon, planets, constellations, and zodiac signs.
  • The text also discusses the principles of astrology and architecture.
  • Astronomy:-
  • The Brihat Samhita provides a comprehensive overview of astronomical knowledge in ancient India.
  • It discusses the positions and movements of the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars. It also includes information about eclipses, comets, and meteors.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1010

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Arjuna Award was introduced in _______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    1955 

  2. BOption (b)

    1965 

  3. COption (c)

    1961 

  4. DOption (d)

    1951 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1961 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1961.

Key Points

  • Arjuna Award:-
  • The Arjuna Award is considered the second-highest sporting honor presented by the Government of India.
  • It is given in recognition of outstanding achievement in Sports.
  • The award is named after Arjuna, one of the characters of the Sanskrit epic Mahabharata of ancient India.
  • The Arjuna Awards were instituted in 1961 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • They are awarded annually and include a statue of Arjuna, a certificate, and a cash prize.
  • Numerous esteemed sportspersons have been recipients of these awards, such as Sachin Tendulkar (Cricket), Viswanathan Anand (Chess), P.V. Sindhu (Badminton), and M.C. Mary Kom (Boxing), among others
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1011

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following tests is used to confirm the presence of typhoid fever? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Smear Examination 

  2. BOption (b)

    C Reactive Protein (CRP) Test

  3. COption (c)

    Widal Test 

  4. DOption (d)

    Vivax Test

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Widal Test 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Widal Test.

Key Points

  • Widal Test:-
  • The Widal test is a blood test used to diagnose typhoid fever.
  • It was developed by Carl Widal in 1896.
  • In the Widal test, the patient's blood is tested for antibodies that are produced against Salmonella typhi, the bacteria that causes typhoid fever. If antibodies are found in the patient's blood, this may be a sign of typhoid fever.
  • The Widal test can be used to diagnose typhoid fever, but it is not always accurate. A negative result does not mean that the patient does not have typhoid fever. In addition, a positive result does not mean that the patient currently has typhoid fever. A positive result may also indicate that the patient has recently recovered from typhoid fever.

Additional Information

  • C-reactive protein (CRP):-
  • The C-reactive protein (CRP) test is a blood test that measures the level of C-reactive protein in your blood.
  • CRP is a protein produced by your liver. The level of CRP in your blood increases when there is inflammation in your body. Inflammation is a natural response to injury or infection.
  • It helps your body heal and protect itself from further damage. However, chronic inflammation can be harmful and lead to health problems such as heart disease, stroke, and cancer.
  • Vivax test:-
  • The Vivax test is a rapid diagnostic test (RDT) used to detect Plasmodium vivax, the most common species of malaria outside of Africa.
  • The test works by detecting antigens, which are proteins produced by the malaria parasite, in the patient's blood.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1012

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following is known as the ‘Father of the Green Revolution’ in the world? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ralph Bunche

  2. BOption (b)

    MS Swaminathan

  3. COption (c)

    Norman Borlaug 

  4. DOption (d)

    Linus Pauling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Norman Borlaug 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Norman Borlaug.

Key Points

  • Norman Borlaug:-
  • The "Father of the Green Revolution" is typically attributed to an American agronomist named Norman Borlaug.
  • Borlaug was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 in recognition of his contributions to world peace through increasing food supply.
  • His pioneering work introducing high-yielding and disease-resistant wheat varieties combined with modern agricultural production techniques to Mexico, Pakistan, and India led these countries to greatly increase their food production and to serve as examples for the global Green Revolution.
  • His work is estimated to have saved a billion people from starvation worldwide.
  • Green Revolution:-
  • The Green Revolution refers to a series of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives, occurring between the 1950s and the late 1960s, that increased agricultural production worldwide, particularly in the developing world.
  • The term "Green Revolution" was first used in 1968 by former United States Agency for International Development (USAID) director William Gaud, who noted the spread of the new technologies and said, "These and other developments in the field of agriculture contain the makings of a new revolution.
  • It is not a violent Red Revolution like that of the Soviets, nor is it a White Revolution like that of the Shah of Iran. I call it the Green Revolution."

Additional Information

  • Ralph Bunche:-
  • He was an American political scientist, diplomat, and leading U.S. civil rights activist.
  • He received the 1950 Nobel Peace Prize for his late 1940s mediation in Palestine.
  • He was the first African American and person of color to be so honored in the history of the prize.
  • Linus Carl Pauling:-
  • He was an American chemist, biochemist, peace activist, author, and educator.
  • He was one of the most influential chemists in history and is considered one of the greatest scientists of the 20th century.
  • His work contributed significantly to the understanding of the nature of the chemical bond and the structure of molecules and crystals.
  • Dr. M.S. Swaminathan:-
  • He is an Indian geneticist and international administrator, renowned for his leading role in India's "Green Revolution," a program under which high-yield varieties of wheat and rice seedlings were planted in the fields of poor farmers.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1013

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Directive Principles of State Policy are an adaptation from which of the following Constitutions? 

  1. AOption (a)

    UK Constitution 

  2. BOption (b)

    Irish Constitution 

  3. COption (c)

    USSR Constitution

  4. DOption (d)

    Polish Constitution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Irish Constitution 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Irish Constitution 

Key Points 

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • Articles 36-51 of Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
  • DPSPs are non-justiciable i.e non-enforceable in the court of law.
  • They act as directives to the government to create any law.
  • They act as the ‘instrument of instructions’.

Additional Information 

  • Article 36: Definition
  • Article 37: Application of the principles contained in this Part
  • Article 38: State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people
  • Article 39: Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State
  • Article 39A: Equal justice and free legal aid
  • Article 40: Organisation of village panchayats
  • Article 41: Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases
  • Article 42: Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
  • Article 43: Living wage, etc., for workers
  • Article 43A: Participation of workers in management of industries
  • Article 44: Uniform civil code for the citizen
  • Article 45: Provision for free and compulsory education for children
  • Article 46: Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections
  • Article 47: Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health
  • Article 48: Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry
  • Article 48A: Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife
  • Article 49: Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance
  • Article 50: Separation of judiciary from the executive
  • Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1014

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

According to the data of the Sectoral Composition of workforce in India (2011), how much percentage of total workers are engaged in the primary sector? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    41.6%

  3. COption (c)

    58.4% 

  4. DOption (d)

    54.6%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

54.6%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 54.6%.

Key Points

  • Sectoral Composition of workforce in India (2011):-
  • According to the data of the Sectoral Composition of workforce in India (2011), 54.6% of total workers are engaged in the primary sector.
  • This includes agriculture, forestry, and fishing. The primary sector is the largest employer in India, but its share of the workforce has been declining in recent years.
  • This is due in part to the growth of the secondary and tertiary sectors, which are more productive and offer higher wages.
  • Primary Sector:-
  • The primary sector of the economy is the one that involves the extraction of raw materials from the Earth.
  • This includes activities such as agriculture, fishing, forestry, and mining.
  • The primary sector is essential for providing the raw materials that are used by the other sectors of the economy, such as manufacturing and construction.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1015

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the maximum age for a member of a joint public service commission to hold his / her office as per the Constitution of India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    62 years

  2. BOption (b)

    66 years

  3. COption (c)

    65 years

  4. DOption (d)

    60 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

62 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 62 Years.

Key Points

  • Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC):
  • The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states.
  • While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament at the request of the state legislatures concerned.
  • Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body.
  • The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
  • The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president.
  • They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
  • They can be suspended or removed by the president.
  • They can also resign from their offices at any time by submitting their resignation letters to the president.
  • The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service is determined by the president.
  • A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to each of the concerned state governors.
  • Each governor places the report before the state legislature.
  • The UPSC can also serve the needs of a state at the request of the state governor and with the approval of the president.
  • As provided by the Government of India Act of 1919, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 and entrusted with the task of recruiting civil servants.
  • The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission for two or more provinces.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1016

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who was the first president of IOA? 

  1. AOption (a)

    HC Buck 

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. Henry Grey

  3. COption (c)

    Sir Dorabji Tata

  4. DOption (d)

    Prof. GD Sondhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sir Dorabji Tata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer Sir Dorabji Tata

Key Points

  • Indian Olympic Association:-
  • IOA is the National Olympic Committee (NOC) for India.
  • It is responsible for selecting athletes to represent India at the Olympic Games, Asian Games, and other international sports competitions.
  • The IOA also manages Indian teams at these events.
  • The IOA was founded in 1927 and is headquartered in New Delhi, India. The current president of the IOA is P. T. Usha.
  • The IOA is a member of the International Olympic Committee (IOC), the Asian Olympic Council (OCA), and the Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF).
  • Sir Dorabji Tata:-
  • He was the first president of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
  • He was a prominent Indian businessman and philanthropist who played a pivotal role in the development of sports in India.
  • Sir Dorabji Tata's contributions to Indian sports include:
  • Founding the Tata Group, one of India's largest and most respected conglomerates, which has consistently supported Indian sports and athletes.
  • Establishing the Tata Sports Club, which has provided training and facilities to numerous Indian athletes.
  • Serving as the first president of the IOA, where he played a crucial role in organizing India's participation in the Olympic Games and other international sporting events.

Additional Information

  • Harry Crowe Buck:-
  • He was an American college sports coach and physical education instructor.
  • He founded the YMCA College of Physical Education at Madras in 1920, which played a key role in promoting sports and in establishing the Olympic movement in India. He has been called "The Father of Physical Education in India".
  • Henry Grey:-
  • He was the National Secretary of the Young Men's Christian Association (YMCA) in India, Burma, and Ceylon from 1920 to 1936.
  • He was a key figure in the development of physical education and sports in India, and he played a leading role in the establishment of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
  • Guru Dutt Sondhi:-
  • He was an Indian sports administrator who played a key role in the development of sports in India.
  • He was the manager of the Indian Olympic hockey team at three Olympic Games, founder of the Western Asiatic Games and the founder of the Asian Games Federation, which held the first Asiad.
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1017

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who was the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh, as of January 2023? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhupendra Patel 

  2. BOption (b)

    Raman Singh 

  3. COption (c)

    Ashok Gehlot

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhupesh Baghel 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bhupesh Baghel 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhupesh Baghel.

Key Points

  • Bhupesh Baghel:-
  • He is the third Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh, India.
  • As of January 2023, Bhupesh Baghel is the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh. He has been serving in this position since December 2018.
  • He is a member of the Indian National Congress (INC).
  • He was born on August 23, 1961, in Durg, Chhattisgarh.
  • He has a Bachelor of Arts degree from Durg College and a Master of Arts degree in Political Science from Ravishankar Shukla University in Raipur.
  • Baghel began his political career in the 1980s with the Indian Youth Congress.
  • He was elected to the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly for the first time in 1993.
  • He served as Minister of Transport in the Madhya Pradesh government from 1999 to 2003.

Additional Information

  • Bhupendra Patel:-
  • He is a politician from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) who has served as the 17th and current Chief Minister of Gujarat since 2021.
  • He is a member of the Gujarat Legislative Assembly and has represented the Ghatlodia constituency since 2017.
  • Raman Singh:-
  • He is a politician from the Indian National Congress (INC) who served as the 13th Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh from 2003 to 2018.
  • He is a member of the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly and has represented the Jabalpur East constituency since 1984.
  • Ashok Gehlot:-
  • He is a politician from the INC who has served as the 15th and current Chief Minister of Rajasthan since 2018.
  • He is a member of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly and has represented the Sardarpura constituency since 1998.

Important PointsVishnu Deo Sai is the current CM of Chhattisgarh. (June 2024)

SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1018

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following options are all transition metals?

  1. AOption (a)

    He, Ne, Ar, Au 

  2. BOption (b)

    F, Cl, Br, I 

  3. COption (c)

    Cu, Fe, Ni, Ti

  4. DOption (d)

    Na, Mg, Al, Mn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cu, Fe, Ni, Ti

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cu, Fe, Ni, Ti.

Key Points

  • Transition metals:-
  • These are a group of elements in the d-block of the periodic table.
  • They are characterized by having incomplete d orbitals, which allows them to exhibit a variety of oxidation states and form colorful compounds.
  • Transition metals are found in a wide variety of applications, including construction, electronics, and catalysis.
  • Here is a list of all the transition metals:
  • Scandium (Sc)
  • Titanium (Ti)
  • Vanadium (V)
  • Chromium (Cr)
  • Manganese (Mn)
  • Iron (Fe)
  • Cobalt (Co)
  • Nickel (Ni)
  • Copper (Cu)
  • Zinc (Zn)
SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1019

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

According to the Census - 2011, what is the average annual growth rate of India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1.56%

  2. BOption (b)

    1.64% 

  3. COption (c)

    1.46% 

  4. DOption (d)

    1.95%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.64% 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1.64%.

Key Points

  • According to the 2011 Census of India, the average annual growth rate of India's population between 2001 and 2011 was 1.64%.

  • This means that the population grew by an average of 1.64% each year during that period.

  • 2011 census: 

  • C M Chandramauli was the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India for the 2011 Indian Census.

  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state.

  • Maharashtra is the second most populous state in India.

  • The sex ratio in the country is 943 females per 1000 males.

  • Haryana has the lowest sex ratio with just 879 women per 1000 males.

  • Bihar has the highest population density.

  • The overall literacy rate in India is 74% according to the 2011 census.

  • Bihar is the least literate state in India, with a literacy of 61.8%.

  • Goa was the most urbanized state with 62.17% of the population living in urban areas.

SSC Stenographer 2023 Official Paper (Held On: 13 Oct, 2023 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1020

SSC Stenographer 2023• General Awareness• General Awareness

With which sport is the oval stadium associated? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Football 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hockey 

  3. COption (c)

    Basketball 

  4. DOption (d)

    Cricket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cricket

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cricket

Key Points

  • Cricket:-
  • Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a cricket field, at the centre of which is a 22-yard-long (20 m) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps.
  • The batting side tries to score runs by striking the ball bowled at the wicket with the bat, running between the wickets, and any balls that reach the boundary are worth four runs. When ten batsmen have been dismissed, the innings ends and the teams swap roles.
  • The game is adjudicated by two umpires, aided by a third umpire and match referee in international matches.
  • The oval stadium is most commonly associated with cricket.
  • The oval shape of the stadium is well-suited for cricket, as it allows for a long boundary, which is important for scoring runs. The oval shape also provides a good viewing experience for spectators, as there is no obstruction from the stands.

Additional Information

  • Football:-
  • It is a team sport played with an inflated ball by two teams of eleven players on a rectangular field with a goal at each end.
  • The object of the game is to score more points than the other team by moving the ball down the field and kicking it into the opposing team's goal.
  • Hockey:-
  • It is a team sport played on ice skates with a stick and a puck.
  • The object of the game is to score more goals than the other team by hitting the puck into the opposing team's net.
  • Hockey is a fast-paced and exciting sport that is popular in many countries around the world.
  • Basketball:-
  • It is a team sport played with a ball by two teams of five players on a rectangular court with a hoop at each end.
  • The object of the game is to score more points than the other team by shooting the ball through the hoop.
  • Basketball is a fast-paced and exciting sport that is popular in many countries around the world.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Stenographer?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.