General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The Aditya-L1 mission, led by ISRO, is India’s first dedicated solar mission aimed at studying the Sun's atmosphere and its dynamic processes.
• The SUIT (Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope) payload is designed to image the solar disk in the near-ultraviolet spectrum to study the temperature, chemical composition, and dynamics of the Sun's photosphere and chromosphere.
• The SOLEXS (Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer) instrument is a high-resolution X-ray spectrometer developed to study solar flares and active regions in soft X-ray wavelengths.
• Both SUIT and SOLEXS are among the seven payloads on Aditya-L1, which aim to provide unprecedented insights into solar activities and their impact on space weather.
• Aditya-L1 will be positioned in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point L1, approximately 1.5 million km from Earth, ensuring continuous observation of the Sun.

Additional Information

• Aditya-L1 Mission:
• India’s first solar observatory mission developed by ISRO to study the Sun’s corona, chromosphere, and solar winds.
• It includes seven scientific payloads to observe the Sun’s electromagnetic spectrum, magnetic fields, and particle flux.
• The mission aims to improve understanding of space weather phenomena and their effects on Earth.
• Lagrange Point L1:
• A point in space where the gravitational forces of the Earth and the Sun balance the centrifugal force of a satellite.
• Provides a stable orbit for continuous observation of the Sun without any interruptions due to Earth’s shadow.
• SUIT Payload:
• Designed to study the solar photosphere and chromosphere in the near-ultraviolet spectrum.
• Helps analyze temperature variations and chemical compositions, providing insights into solar dynamics.
• SOLEXS Instrument:
• A high-resolution spectrometer focused on detecting soft X-rays emitted during solar flares.
• Critical for studying active regions of the Sun and understanding solar magnetic activity.
• Space Weather:
• Refers to the conditions and phenomena in space caused by solar activities, such as solar winds and flares.
• Space weather impacts satellite operations, communication systems, and power grids on Earth.

The correct answer is Investigate the quantity and quality of water on the Moon and explore its dark side.

Key Points

• The LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) Mission is a collaborative effort between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
• The mission aims to explore the Moon's polar regions, specifically to investigate the presence and characteristics of water ice.
• LUPEX will study the Moon's "dark side," which remains permanently shadowed and holds potential reserves of water ice.
• The findings from LUPEX are expected to support future human exploration and the development of lunar habitats.
• Both ISRO and JAXA are contributing unique technologies, including a rover and a lander, to achieve the mission's objectives.

Additional Information

• Water Ice on the Moon:
• Water ice is believed to exist in the Moon's polar regions, specifically in permanently shadowed craters where sunlight cannot reach.
• The discovery of water ice is crucial for future lunar exploration, as it can be used for drinking water, oxygen extraction, and fuel production.
• The Moon's "Dark Side":
• The "dark side" of the Moon refers to areas that are permanently shadowed, not visible from Earth.
• These regions are of scientific interest due to their unique environmental conditions and potential water ice deposits.
• ISRO and JAXA Collaboration:
• ISRO will provide the rover for the mission, while JAXA will contribute the lander and launch services.
• The collaboration reflects a growing partnership between the two space agencies to explore the Moon and beyond.
• Lunar Exploration Goals:
• Understanding the Moon's resources is essential for future space missions and establishing sustainable lunar habitats.
• LUPEX is a step forward in international efforts to explore extraterrestrial environments and utilize their resources.

The correct answer is Only Statement 3 is correct.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is not called advection; it is known as convection.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of air is termed advection, not convection.
• Statement 3 is correct: 'Loo' winds in northern India during summer are caused by advection, as they involve the horizontal movement of hot air masses.
• Advection is a critical process in meteorology, as it plays a significant role in transferring heat and moisture across regions.
• Convection, on the other hand, refers to the vertical movement of air and is often associated with phenomena like thunderstorms and cloud formation.

Additional Information

• Advection:
• Advection refers to the horizontal movement of air or water in the atmosphere or oceans.
• It is responsible for the large-scale transfer of heat, moisture, and other properties across different regions.
• For example, warm ocean currents like the Gulf Stream cause advection of warm air to nearby land areas, influencing the regional climate.
• Convection:
• Convection is the vertical movement of air caused by differences in temperature and density.
• It is a key process in the formation of clouds, thunderstorms, and other weather phenomena.
• For instance, during the day, the Earth's surface heats up, causing air to rise and creating convection currents.
• Loo Winds:
• Loo winds are strong, hot, and dry winds that blow across northern India during the summer months.
• These winds are caused by advection, as they involve the horizontal transfer of heat from the Thar Desert to nearby regions.
• Prolonged exposure to loo winds can cause heatstroke, making them hazardous to human health.
• Other Heat Transfer Mechanisms:
• Radiation: Transfer of energy through electromagnetic waves without the need for a medium.
• Conduction: Transfer of heat through direct contact between molecules in a solid medium.

The correct answer is Amplitude.

Key Points

• Amplitude is the height of a sound wave and directly determines the loudness of the sound.
• The greater the amplitude of a sound wave, the louder the sound it produces.
• Amplitude is measured in decibels (dB), which is a logarithmic unit representing sound intensity.
• For example, a whisper has a low amplitude, while a shout has a high amplitude, resulting in greater loudness.

Additional Information

• Wavelength
• The distance between two successive crests or troughs of a sound wave.
• It determines the type of sound but does not directly affect its loudness.
• Pitch
• Pitch is determined by the frequency of the sound wave.
• Higher frequency results in a higher pitch, while lower frequency results in a lower pitch.
• Frequency
• Frequency is the number of sound wave cycles per second, measured in Hertz (Hz).
• While frequency affects pitch, it does not influence the loudness of the sound.
• Decibel Scale
• Loudness is measured in decibels (dB), with 0 dB being the threshold of human hearing.
• Sounds above 85 dB for prolonged periods can cause hearing damage.

The correct answer is Public Order.

Key Points

• Public Order is listed as a subject under the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• Subjects in the State List are primarily under the jurisdiction of the state governments, allowing them to legislate on these matters.
• Public order covers issues such as maintaining law and order, controlling riots, and ensuring public safety within a state.
• The State List includes 61 subjects (originally 66) that pertain exclusively to the states, as per the Constitution of India.
• Examples of other subjects in the State List include police, public health, agriculture, and local government.

Additional Information

• Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
• It divides legislative powers between the Union and the states under three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• The Union List includes 97 subjects (originally 100), such as defence, foreign affairs, and banking, which are under the Central Government's jurisdiction.
• The Concurrent List includes 47 subjects (originally 52), such as education, marriage, and forests, on which both the Union and State Governments can legislate.
• Public Order:
• Defined as the state of peace and tranquility in society, where individuals can enjoy their rights without fear of violence or unrest.
• Ensuring public order is vital for the proper functioning of democracy and maintaining the rule of law.
• Legislative Power Distribution:
• The Indian Constitution follows a federal structure, with a clear distribution of legislative powers.
• In cases of conflict between Union and State laws on Concurrent List subjects, the Union law prevails.
• Key Articles Related to State List:
• Article 245: Empowers the state legislature to make laws for the whole or any part of the state.
• Article 246: Specifies the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and state legislatures.

The correct answer is BVR Subrahmanyam.

Key Points

• BVR Subrahmanyam was appointed as the CEO of NITI Aayog in February 2023, succeeding Parameswaran Iyer.
• He is a 1987-batch IAS officer of the Chhattisgarh cadre and has held several key positions in the government.
• BVR Subrahmanyam previously served as the Commerce Secretary of India before taking up the position of NITI Aayog CEO.
• He is well-known for his role as the Chief Secretary of Jammu & Kashmir during the region's transition into a Union Territory in 2019.
• His appointment is expected to bring strategic leadership to NITI Aayog's initiatives, focusing on policy formulation and implementation for India's development.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India)
• Established in 2015, NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission to serve as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• It focuses on fostering cooperative federalism through structured support and guidance to states.
• NITI Aayog is responsible for strategic planning, innovation, and monitoring the implementation of sustainable development goals (SDGs).
• The organization plays a pivotal role in formulating policies for economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental sustainability.
• Role of a CEO in NITI Aayog
• The CEO ensures effective coordination among various departments and stakeholders in policy creation and implementation.
• Provides leadership in driving transformative projects and initiatives that align with India's development priorities.
• Serves as the link between the government, private sector, and civil society for collaborative efforts.
• Focuses on innovation and technology-driven solutions for achieving national and global objectives.
• Key Initiatives by NITI Aayog
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): Promotes entrepreneurship and innovation across India.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Monitors and supports India's progress on global SDG targets.
• National Energy Policy: Frames strategies for energy security and sustainability.
• Digital India: Promotes technology-driven governance and digital infrastructure development.
• BVR Subrahmanyam's Previous Contributions
• Played a significant role in administrative reforms in Jammu & Kashmir during its transition to Union Territory status.
• As Commerce Secretary, he contributed to enhancing India's trade policy and export strategies.
• Known for his administrative acumen and ability to handle complex governance challenges.

The correct answer is It allows Centre to dismiss State governments.

Key Points

• Article 356 of the Indian Constitution grants the President of India the authority to impose "President's Rule" in a state if the state government cannot function according to constitutional provisions.
• This provision allows the Central Government to dismiss the State government and take over its administration temporarily.
• It is invoked when there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in a state, as certified by the Governor of the state.
• During President's Rule, the State Assembly is either dissolved or kept in suspended animation, and the Governor administers the state on behalf of the President.
• This provision has been criticized for undermining the federal structure of India, as it centralizes power in the hands of the Union government.

Additional Information

• Federal Structure in India:
• The Indian Constitution establishes a federal system where powers are divided between the Union and State governments.
• Articles 245 to 255 outline the legislative relations between the Centre and the states.
• Article 356, however, is seen as a mechanism that disrupts this balance during emergencies.
• Constitutional Machinery Failure:
• This term refers to a situation where the state government is unable to function in accordance with the Constitution.
• Examples include the breakdown of law and order, political instability, or governance paralysis.
• Criticism of Article 356:
• It has been criticized for being misused for political purposes, particularly to dismiss opposition-led state governments.
• The Sarkaria Commission recommended that it be used only as a last resort.
• Judicial Safeguards:
• The Supreme Court, in the SR Bommai case (1994), established guidelines to prevent the misuse of Article 356.
• Judicial review of the proclamation of President's Rule is permissible, ensuring its use is not arbitrary.

The correct answer is Vacuoles are generally larger in animal cells than in plant cells.

Key Points

• Vacuoles are significantly larger in plant cells compared to animal cells, where they typically occupy a central position and can take up most of the cell's volume.
• In animal cells, vacuoles are smaller and more numerous, often serving specialized functions like storage and waste disposal.
• Plant vacuoles are surrounded by a membrane called the tonoplast and play critical roles in maintaining turgor pressure, which supports the plant's structure.
• The primary function of vacuoles includes storage of nutrients and waste products, maintaining cell homeostasis, and isolating harmful substances.
• Option 1 is incorrect because vacuoles are larger in plant cells than animal cells, not the other way around.

Additional Information

• Central Vacuole (Plant Cells):
• It is a large vacuole found in most mature plant cells, surrounded by the tonoplast membrane.
• Functions include storage of water, nutrients, and waste products, as well as maintaining cell rigidity through turgor pressure.
• Vacuoles in Animal Cells:
• Animal cells usually have smaller vacuoles that perform specialized roles such as storage, transport, and waste management.
• They do not occupy a central position as in plant cells.
• Tonoplast Membrane:
• The tonoplast is a semi-permeable membrane surrounding the plant vacuole, regulating the movement of ions and molecules.
• It helps in maintaining the vacuole's internal environment and plays a role in osmoregulation.
• Functions of Vacuoles:
• Storage of nutrients, ions, and waste materials.
• Isolation of harmful substances and maintenance of internal hydrostatic pressure.
• Facilitating cellular processes such as autophagy and ion balance.

The correct answer is INSPIRE Portal.

Key Points

• The INSPIRE MANAK Scheme is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, to strengthen the innovation culture among school students.
• The platform for submitting ideas under this scheme is the official INSPIRE Portal.
• The portal allows students from grades 6 to 10 to submit their innovative ideas through their schools.
• The INSPIRE MANAK Award is given to students whose ideas are selected for funding and further development.
• The scheme aims to encourage creativity and critical thinking by recognizing and nurturing innovative ideas at a young age.

Additional Information

• INSPIRE Programme:
• INSPIRE stands for Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research.
• It is an initiative by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) to attract talent to the study of science.
• The programme includes various components such as scholarships, internships, and awards for students and researchers.
• MANAK Scheme:
• MANAK stands for Million Minds Augmenting National Aspirations and Knowledge.
• It focuses on encouraging students to address societal problems through science and technology-based solutions.
• Around 2 lakh ideas are shortlisted annually, and top innovations are showcased at the national level.
• Submission Process:
• Students need to register their ideas online through the INSPIRE Portal.
• Schools act as facilitators in the submission process.
• The ideas are evaluated based on originality, societal impact, and scientific feasibility.
• Support and Recognition:
• Selected students receive a cash award and mentorship for developing prototypes.
• The best innovations are showcased in exhibitions and events organized by DST.

The correct answer is To appreciate his efforts in promoting Kabaddi in Europe.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Mr. Michal Spiczko, President of the Kabaddi Federation of Poland, to recognize his efforts in promoting Kabaddi as a sport in Europe.
• Mr. Spiczko has been instrumental in introducing and popularizing Kabaddi in Poland and other European countries.
• The meeting reflects India's commitment to fostering global interest in traditional Indian sports.
• Kabaddi, a sport with roots in India, has gained increasing international recognition and participation in recent years.
• This interaction aligns with the Indian government's efforts to promote cultural and sports diplomacy on a global platform.

Additional Information

• Kabaddi:
• Kabaddi is an ancient Indian contact sport that combines strength, strategy, and team coordination.
• The game is widely played in South Asia and has become a key feature of the Asian Games.
• It includes variations such as circle-style Kabaddi and standard-style Kabaddi.
• India is a dominant force in international Kabaddi, consistently winning championships.
• Sports Diplomacy:
• Sports diplomacy refers to the use of sports as a tool to build international relationships.
• It helps in fostering goodwill, cultural exchange, and mutual respect among nations.
• India has leveraged traditional sports like Kabaddi to strengthen ties with countries globally.
• Kabaddi in Europe:
• European countries, including Poland, have shown growing interest in Kabaddi over the past decade.
• Efforts by organizations like the Kabaddi Federation of Poland have led to structured leagues and tournaments.
• Such initiatives contribute to the global expansion of this indigenous Indian sport.
• Globalization of Indian Sports:
• India has been actively working to globalize its traditional sports like Kabaddi and Kho-Kho.
• These sports are introduced at international events to showcase India's rich cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• Wankhede Stadium is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and is one of India’s most iconic cricket venues.
• It was established in 1974 and has hosted numerous international matches, including the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup Final.
• The stadium has a seating capacity of approximately 33,000 spectators.
• It is the home ground of the Indian Premier League (IPL) team Mumbai Indians and the Mumbai cricket team.
• Renovated in 2010, the stadium is equipped with modern facilities and offers panoramic views of the Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

• History of the Wankhede Stadium:
• The stadium was constructed after disputes between the Cricket Club of India (CCI) and the Mumbai Cricket Association (MCA) over Brabourne Stadium.
• It was named after Sheshrao Wankhede, a politician and former president of the MCA.
• Notable Matches:
• The stadium hosted the historic 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup Final, where India defeated Sri Lanka to win the trophy.
• It has also hosted Test matches, ODIs, and T20Is featuring some of the world’s best cricketers.
• Renovation:
• The stadium underwent extensive renovation in 2010 to prepare for the 2011 Cricket World Cup.
• Upgrades included new seating arrangements, better drainage facilities, and improved player amenities.
• Mumbai's Sporting Legacy:
• Mumbai is considered the cradle of Indian cricket, having produced legendary players such as Sachin Tendulkar, Sunil Gavaskar, and Rohit Sharma.
• The city has a rich cricketing heritage, with Wankhede Stadium playing a central role in its history.

The correct answer is Both Executive and Legislative.

Key Points

• The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, thus playing a legislative role in the Parliament.
• In the absence of the President, the Vice-President functions as the acting President of India, thereby assuming an executive role.
• The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament through a process of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• As the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President ensures the smooth functioning of the Upper House of Parliament.
• The Vice-President's role is unique as it bridges the executive and legislative branches of the government, making the position integral to India's governance structure.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Provisions:
• The Vice-President's office is established under Article 63 of the Indian Constitution.
• Articles 64 to 71 provide details regarding the election, qualifications, and removal of the Vice-President.
• Election Process:
• The Vice-President is not elected by the general public but by an electoral college comprising members of Parliament.
• To be eligible, a candidate must be an Indian citizen, at least 35 years old, and qualified to be elected as a Rajya Sabha member.
• Legislative Role:
• As Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President presides over its sessions, maintaining decorum and ensuring legislative procedures are followed.
• In case of a tie in voting in Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President casts the decisive vote.
• Executive Role:
• The Vice-President assumes the role of acting President in case of the President's death, resignation, removal, or incapacity.
• During this period, the Vice-President exercises all executive powers of the President.

The correct answer is Shahid Beheshti Port.

Key Points

• India is primarily developing and operating the Shahid Beheshti Port, which is one of the two terminals at Chabahar Port, Iran.
• The development of Shahid Beheshti Port is part of India's strategy to create a trade and transit corridor to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
• India Ports Global Limited (IPGL), a joint venture between the Shipping Corporation of India and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust, is responsible for managing the Shahid Beheshti Port.
• The port is critical for India's connectivity initiatives, including the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), which aims to reduce transportation time and costs between India, Iran, Russia, and Europe.
• India has committed to investing in the modernization and expansion of the Shahid Beheshti Port, including the supply of equipment and financial resources for its operational efficiency.

Additional Information

• Chabahar Port:
• Chabahar Port is located in southeastern Iran, along the Gulf of Oman, and consists of two terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
• The port is strategically important as it provides Iran with direct access to the Indian Ocean and allows India to bypass Pakistan for trade with Afghanistan.
• Chabahar is considered a gateway for regional cooperation among India, Iran, and Afghanistan.
• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC):
• INSTC is a 7,200 km-long multimodal transportation network linking India with Russia and Europe through Iran.
• It aims to reduce the cost and time of freight transport compared to the traditional Suez Canal route.
• India Ports Global Limited (IPGL):
• IPGL was established by the Indian government to enhance its overseas port operations and investments.
• It plays a key role in India's involvement in the development of the Shahid Beheshti Port at Chabahar.
• Geopolitical Importance:
• Chabahar Port provides India with an alternative to the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) and Gwadar Port in Pakistan.
• It is vital for India's energy security and trade diversification in the region.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Madhabi Puri Buch became the first woman chairperson of SEBI on 2 March 2022. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2: Tuhin Kanta Pandey was appointed as the Chairman of SEBI for a period of three years beginning 28 February 2025. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3: Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded "The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer" by Kuwait, not by Saudi Arabia. It is Kuwait's highest civilian honour bestowed on foreign heads of state and government. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Therefore, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Additional Information

• SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India):
• Established in 1988 and given statutory status in 1992.
• Regulates the securities market in India.
• Headquarters: Mumbai.
• Madhabi Puri Buch:
• First woman and first private-sector professional to head SEBI.
• Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer:
• Highest honour of Kuwait awarded to foreign dignitaries.

The correct answer is Marmagao Port.

Key Points

• Marmagao Port, located in the state of Goa, is one of the oldest and most significant ports in India.
• It is the largest exporter of iron ore in India, handling a significant portion of the country’s iron ore exports, particularly to countries like Japan and China.
• The port is strategically located near the iron ore mining regions of Goa and Karnataka, making it a key hub for iron ore shipment.
• Marmagao Port is equipped with specialized berths and infrastructure for the efficient handling and storage of bulk cargo like iron ore.
• It is managed by the Mormugao Port Trust (MPT), which oversees its operations and development.

Additional Information

• Iron Ore in India
• India is the fourth largest producer of iron ore globally, with significant reserves in states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Jharkhand, and Goa.
• Iron ore is a critical raw material for the steel industry, which plays a vital role in India's industrial and economic development.
• Major Indian Ports
• India has 13 major ports, including Paradip Port, Chennai Port, and Visakhapatnam Port, which handle a variety of cargo.
• Each port specializes in certain types of cargo based on its location and infrastructure.
• Global Iron Ore Trade
• Countries like China, Japan, and South Korea are the largest importers of Indian iron ore due to their significant steel production industries.
• India competes with exporters like Australia and Brazil in the global iron ore trade.
• Marmagao Port’s Economic Importance
• The port contributes significantly to Goa's economy by facilitating trade and exports.
• It also supports ancillary industries such as logistics, shipping, and warehousing in the region.

The correct answer is Geetanjali Shree.

Key Points

• Geetanjali Shree is the author of the Hindi novel Tomb of Sand, which became the first Hindi-language book to win the International Booker Prize in 2022.
• The book Tomb of Sand, originally titled Ret Samadhi in Hindi, was translated into English by Daisy Rockwell.
• The story explores themes such as loss, grief, and identity, centering on an 80-year-old woman who embarks on a journey to Pakistan following the death of her husband.
• Tomb of Sand is recognized for its innovative narrative style and deep cultural insights, marking a milestone for Hindi literature on the global stage.
• The International Booker Prize is awarded annually for a book translated into English, emphasizing the importance of translated literature worldwide.

Additional Information

• International Booker Prize:
• Formerly known as the Man Booker International Prize, this prestigious literary award recognizes works translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
• The prize money of £50,000 is equally split between the author and the translator, highlighting the critical role of translation in global literature.
• Geetanjali Shree:
• A celebrated Hindi author, Geetanjali Shree has written several novels and short stories, including Mai, Hamara Shahar Us Baras, and Tirohit.
• Her works are known for their exploration of gender, identity, and societal issues, often blending realism with imaginative storytelling.
• Daisy Rockwell:
• An accomplished translator, painter, and writer, Daisy Rockwell translated Ret Samadhi into Tomb of Sand, garnering global recognition for her efforts.
• She has translated several other works of Hindi and Urdu literature into English, contributing significantly to the accessibility of South Asian literature worldwide.
• Significance of Translated Literature:
• Translated literature bridges cultural and linguistic gaps, offering readers an opportunity to engage with diverse perspectives and stories.
• It plays a crucial role in promoting global literary heritage and fostering cross-cultural understanding.

The correct answer is To manage oilseed procurement and processing.

Key Points

• The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) played a significant role in the Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO), which was launched by the Indian government in 1986.
• NDDB was involved in managing oilseed procurement, processing, and marketing to ensure fair prices for farmers and improve the domestic production of edible oils.
• It facilitated the establishment of several oilseed cooperatives, modeled after the Anand Pattern, to empower farmers and streamline the supply chain.
• The NDDB also helped in reducing India's dependency on imported edible oils by promoting self-sufficiency through technological and infrastructural support.
• This initiative was part of the broader mission to increase oilseed production and reduce the gap between demand and supply in the edible oil sector.

Additional Information

• Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO):
• Launched in 1986 under the leadership of then-Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi to make India self-reliant in edible oil production.
• It aimed at improving productivity and minimizing post-harvest losses through better technology and infrastructure.
• The mission focused on key oilseeds such as groundnut, soybean, sunflower, rapeseed, and mustard.
• Role of NDDB in Agriculture:
• Established in 1965, NDDB is known for its pivotal contribution to the White Revolution in India.
• It extended its expertise to other agricultural sectors, including oilseeds, to replicate the success of Operation Flood.
• NDDB works towards strengthening rural economies by forming cooperatives and ensuring better returns for farmers.
• Edible Oil Scenario in India:
• India is one of the largest consumers and importers of edible oils in the world.
• The high dependency on imports has been a concern, necessitating missions like TMO to boost domestic production.
• Key imported edible oils include palm oil, soybean oil, and sunflower oil.
• Current Initiatives in Edible Oil Sector:
• The government has launched the National Mission on Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) to promote oil palm cultivation.
• This mission aims to reduce import dependency and ensure better returns for farmers.
• It focuses on the northeastern states and Andaman & Nicobar Islands for oil palm cultivation.

The correct answer is Eleventh Schedule - Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats.

Key Points

• The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added through the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
• It contains a list of 29 functional items related to the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
• The schedule emphasizes the decentralization of governance by empowering Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to manage local self-governance effectively.
• Key areas include agriculture, rural development, water management, social forestry, education, health, and public distribution systems.
• This initiative was a significant step to strengthen grassroots democracy and ensure effective participation of local bodies in governance.

Additional Information

• Twelfth Schedule
• Added through the 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, it lists 18 functional items related to the powers and responsibilities of Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities).
• Focuses on areas like urban planning, slum improvement, public health, sanitation, and urban poverty alleviation.
• Ninth Schedule
• Introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951, it protects laws related to land reform and the abolition of the zamindari system from judicial review.
• It aims to uphold social justice and equitable distribution of resources.
• 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act
• Enacted in 1992, it institutionalized Panchayati Raj in India by adding Part IX to the Constitution.
• Mandated the establishment of a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions (village, intermediate, and district levels).
• Introduced provisions for direct elections, reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, and a fixed tenure of five years.
• 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act
• Introduced in 1992, it institutionalized Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities) by adding Part IXA to the Constitution.
• Strengthened the framework for decentralized governance in urban areas.

The correct answer is Permitting collection of biometric and biological data.

Key Points

• The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 permits the collection of biometric and biological data, including retina scans and behavioral attributes, expanding the scope beyond fingerprints and photographs under the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920.
• The Act allows collection of data not only from convicted individuals but also from persons arrested or detained under any preventive detention law.
• It provides for the use of modern technologies like iris and face recognition systems, ensuring more comprehensive identification methodologies.
• Storage and analysis of the collected data are permitted for up to 75 years, ensuring long-term availability for law enforcement purposes.
• The Act aims to enhance crime investigation efficiency and improve the criminal justice system by leveraging advanced identification techniques.

Additional Information

• Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920:
• Limited collection of data to fingerprints and photographs.
• Applied only to convicted individuals and certain categories of suspects.
• Did not include advanced biometric or biological data.
• Biometric and Biological Data:
• Includes fingerprints, iris scans, face recognition, and other physical identifiers.
• Biological data includes DNA samples, blood samples, and other bodily substances.
• These data points are crucial for establishing identity with high accuracy.
• Preventive Detention Laws:
• These laws allow authorities to detain individuals to prevent potential offenses.
• Under the 2022 Act, biometric data collection extends to detainees under such laws.
• Data Storage and Privacy:
• The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 mandates secure storage of collected data.
• Data can be retained for up to 75 years unless a court orders deletion.
• Privacy concerns have been raised, emphasizing the need for robust safeguards.
• Advancements in Identification Technology:
• Modern tools like artificial intelligence are used for analyzing biometric data.
• Enhanced accuracy in matching suspects to crime scenes.
• These technologies aim to reduce errors and improve overall efficiency in criminal investigations.

The correct answer is Article 352.

Key Points

• Article 352 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency if there is a threat to the security of India or any part thereof due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• This type of emergency is also known as a "National Emergency" and can be declared for the entire country or a specific part of it.
• The proclamation of National Emergency requires written communication from the Union Cabinet to the President before it is issued.
• Once declared, the fundamental rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended, and the central government gains overriding legislative and executive powers over the states.
• The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month and can remain in effect for six months, with subsequent extensions requiring parliamentary approval every six months.

Additional Information

• Types of Emergencies in India:
• National Emergency (Article 352): Declared due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• President's Rule (Article 356): Declared due to the failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
• Financial Emergency (Article 360): Declared if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.
• Key Terminologies:
• War: Armed conflict between nations or states.
• External Aggression: Hostile actions by a foreign country against India.
• Armed Rebellion: Organized armed resistance against the government within the country.
• Effect on Federal Structure:
• The central government assumes control over state subjects, temporarily altering the federal framework of governance.
• State governments continue to function, but their powers are significantly curtailed.
• Judicial Safeguards:
• The 44^th Amendment (1978) introduced safeguards, requiring the written recommendation of the Cabinet and parliamentary approval for declaring a National Emergency.
• It also limited the suspension of fundamental rights during an emergency.