SSC Stenographer 2024 Official Paper (Held On: 10 Dec, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

BOIL : DRMQ

And,

SCAR : UFEW

Similarly,

MAIL : ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) No phone is a device → Does not follow (As some devices are electronics, all electronics are mobiles and no mobile is a phone. So it is possible but not definite)

(II) At least some electronics are phones → Does not follow (As all electronics are mobiles and no mobile is a phone. As whole electronics comes in mobiles which cannot be phone, therefore it is false)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Given:

251 – 332 – 422 

2 + 5 + 1 = 8

3 + 3 + 2 = 8

4 + 2 + 2 = 8

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 144 – 225 – 729 

1 + 4 + 4 = 9 ≠ 8

2 + 2 + 5 = 9 ≠ 8

7 + 2 + 9 = 18 ≠ 8

Option 2) 125 – 223 – 342

1 + 2 + 5 = 8

2 + 2 + 3 = 7 ≠ 8

3 + 4 + 2 = 9 ≠ 8

Option 3) 432 – 523 – 712

4 + 3 + 2 = 9 ≠ 8

5 + 3 + 2 = 10 ≠ 8

7 + 1 + 2 = 10 ≠ 8

220 = 220 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) 161 – 512 – 710

1 + 6 + 1 = 8

5 + 1 + 2 = 8

7 + 1 + 0 = 8

Thus, out of all the options '161 – 512 – 710' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some cushions are beds → Follow (As all cushions are quilts and all quilts are beds. As whole cushions comes in quilts which whole comes in beds, therefore it is true.)

II. Some pillows are beds → Follow (As all pillows are quilts and all quilts are beds. As whole pillows comes in quilts which whole comes in beds, therefore it is true.)

III. Some cushions are pillows → Does not follow (As all cushions are quilts and all pillows are quilts. So it is possible but not definite)

∴ Here, Only conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given date: 05 December 2045

So, calculating total number of odd days:

Total odd days till 5 December 2045 = 22 + 33 + 3 ⇒ 58 ÷ 7 = 2

Thus, "2" is the code for 'Tuesday'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

And,

Note : Multiple of 400 years i.e 800, 1200, 1600, 2000 will also have 0 odds days.

Given: 21 × 8 – 18 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64 

According to the question, after interchanging the numbers:

Option 1) 32 and 64

21 × 8 – 18 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64 ⇒ 21 × 8 – 18 + (32 ÷ 2) + 64 = 64

⇒ 21 × 8 – 18 + (32 ÷ 2) + 64 = 64

⇒ 21 × 8 – 18 + 16 + 64 = 64

⇒ 168 + 16 + 64 – 18 = 64

⇒ 248 – 18 = 64

⇒ 230 ≠ 64 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) 8 and 18

21 × 8 – 18 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64 ⇒ 21 × 18 – 8 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64

⇒ 21 × 18 – 8 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64

⇒ 21 × 18 – 8 + 32 + 32 = 64

⇒ 378 + 32 + 32 – 8 = 64

⇒ 442 – 8 = 64

⇒ 434 ≠ 64 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) 18 and 32

21 × 8 – 18 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64 ⇒ 21 × 8 – 32 + (64 ÷ 2) + 18 = 64

⇒ 21 × 8 – 32 + (64 ÷ 2) + 18 = 64

⇒ 21 × 8 – 32 + 32 + 18 = 64

⇒ 168 + 32 + 18 – 32 = 64

⇒ 218 – 32 = 64

⇒ 186 ≠ 64 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) 8 and 2

21 × 8 – 18 + (64 ÷ 2) + 32 = 64 ⇒ 21 × 2 – 18 + (64 ÷ 8) + 32 = 64

⇒ 21 × 2 – 18 + (64 ÷ 8) + 32 = 64

⇒ 21 × 2 – 18 + 8 + 32 = 64

⇒ 42 + 8 + 32 – 18 = 64

⇒ 82 – 18 = 64

⇒ 64 = 64 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 + 2 × 33 – 13  

According to the question, after numbers on the left-hand side are interchanged and two signs on the right-hand side are interchanged:

Option 1) 3 and 8; + and -

9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 + 2 × 33 – 13 ⇒ 9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 - 2 × 33 + 13

⇒ 9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 - 2 × 33 + 13

⇒ 9 × 0.33 + 8 – 7 = 4 - 2 × 33 + 13

⇒ 3 + 8 – 7 = 4 + 13 - 66

⇒ 11 – 7 = 17 - 66

⇒ 4 ≠ -49 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) 1 and 9; ÷ and ×

9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 + 2 × 33 – 13 ⇒ 1 × 9 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 × 3 + 2 ÷ 33 – 13

⇒ 1 × 9 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 × 3 + 2 ÷ 33 – 13

⇒ 1 × 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 × 3 + 0.06 – 13

⇒ 3 + 8 – 7 = 36 + 0.06 – 13

⇒ 11 – 7 = 36.06 – 13

⇒ 4 ≠ 13.06 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  3) 3 and 7; + and ÷

9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 + 2 × 33 – 13 ⇒ 9 × 1 ÷ 7 + 8 – 3 = 12 + 3 ÷ 2 × 33 – 13

⇒ 9 × 1 ÷ 7 + 8 – 3 = 12 + 3 ÷ 2 × 33 – 13

⇒ 9 × 0.14 + 8 – 3 = 12 + 1.5 × 33 – 13

⇒ 1.26 + 8 – 3 = 12 + 49.5 – 13

⇒ 9.26 – 3 = 61.5 – 13

⇒ 6.26 ≠ 48.5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) 1 and 3; + and ×

9 × 1 ÷ 3 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 + 2 × 33 – 13 ⇒ 9 × 3 ÷ 1 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 × 2 + 33 – 13

⇒ 9 × 3 ÷ 1 + 8 – 7 = 12 ÷ 3 × 2 + 33 – 13

⇒ 9 × 3 + 8 – 7 = 4 × 2 + 33 – 13

⇒ 27 + 8 – 7 = 8 + 33 – 13

⇒ 35 – 7 = 41 – 13

⇒ 28 = 28 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'CAT' is coded as 9

(Number of letter in the word 'CAT')² → (3)² ⇒ 9

And,

'MOUSE' is coded as 25

(Number of letter in the word 'MOUSE')2 → (5)2 ⇒ 25

Similarly,

'TROUBLE' be coded

(Number of letter in the word 'TROUBLE')2 → (7)2 ⇒ 49

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: Five players (A, B, C, D, and E) are fielding on a cricket ground in such a way that all are equidistant from each other.

B is to the East of A, while C is to the South of A.

D is to the East of C and to the West of E.

Thus, B is to the north west of E.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct order of words in a logical and meaningful order is:

4. Triangle → Three sided polygon.
5. Square → Four sided polygon.
6. Pentagon → Five sided polygon.
7. Hexagon → Six sided polygon.
8. Heptagon → Seven sided polygon.

The correct order is '4, 1, 5, 2, 3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct order of words in a logical and meaningful order is:

3. Buckingham Palace → A specific landmark.
4. London → The city where Buckingham Palace is located.
5. The United Kingdom → The country in which London is situated.
6. Europe →The continent encompassing the United Kingdom.
7. World → The largest entity that includes all continents.

The correct order is '3, 4, 1, 5, 2'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) HEI 

Option 2) VSW 

Option 3) MJL 

Option 4) QNR

Thus, out of all the options, 'MJL' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: 

1) Q is married to P. 

2) P is the father of M. 

3)  R is the brother of Q.

4) T is the daughter of K. 

5) M is the husband of K.

Thus, Q is T's paternal grandmother or father’s mother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

13 is related to 44

13 × 3 + 5 = 44

39 + 5 = 44

44 = 44 (LHS = RHS)

And,

15 is related to 50

15 × 3 + 5 = 50

45 + 5 = 50

50 = 50 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

21 is related to

21 × 3 + 5 = ?

63 + 5 = ?

68 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

The corner elements of the first row interchange positions.

The top row center element is replaced by new element.

The second row elements shift clockwise.

The bottom row elements shift anticlockwise.

2. Second box series →

The center element is replaced by new element.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise.

Thus, final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Six students (Ritu, Vinayak, Arnab, Maya, Fathima and Ankur) are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1) Arnab is sitting second to the left of Fathima. 

2) Fathima is sitting second to the left of Vinayak. 

3) Ritu is an immediate neighbour of both Vinayak and Arnab.

4. Vinayak is an immediate neighbour of both Ritu and Maya. 

After positioning Maya only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. Ankur.

Thus, according to the final arrangement Ankur is the immediate neighbour of both Fathima and Arnab.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Decoding symbols:

Given: P @ Q # R & S % T

P @ Q → P is the parental grandfather of Q.

Q # R → Q is the son of R.

R & S → R is the wife of S.

S % T → S is the brother of T.

Thus, P is the father of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

42 is related to 36 

(4 + 2)² = 36

(6)2 = 36

36 = 36 (LHS = RHS)

And,

57 is related to 144

(5 + 7)2 = 144

(12)2 = 144

144 = 144 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

? is related to 81

Let the two digit number (?) be → pq

(p + q)2 = 81

(p + q) = √81

9 = (p + q)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 45 → (4 + 5) = 9 

Option 2) 46 → (4 + 6) = 10 ≠ 9

Option 3) 56 → (5 + 6) = 11 ≠ 9

Option 4) 44 → (4 + 4) = 8 ≠ 9

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method ​

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

The logic followed here is:

3 : 31

(3)³ + 4 = 31

27 + 4 = 31

31 = 31 (LHS = RHS)

And,

2 : 12

(2)3 + 4 = 12

8 + 4 = 12

12 = 12 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 5 : 128

(5)3 + 4 = 128

125 + 4 = 128

129 ≠ 128 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) 4 : 65

(4)3 + 4 = 65

64 + 4 = 65

68 ≠ 65 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) 6 : 220

(6)3 + 4 = 220

216 + 4 = 220

220 = 220 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) 8 : 315

(8)3 + 4 = 315

512 + 4 = 315

516 ≠ 315 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, out of all the options '6 : 220' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As P is common on both the dice, it is clear that S, T, R, and Q are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e., U will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

T → Q

S → R

P → U

So, the opposite side of "S" will be side "R".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 3 ÷ 4 − 5 × 6 + 2 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘÷’are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are interchanged:

3 ÷ 4 − 5 × 6 + 2 = ? ⇒ 3 + 4 × 5 - 6 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 3 + 4 × 5 - 6 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 3 + 4 × 5 - 3 = ?

⇒ 3 + 20 - 3 = ?

⇒ 23 - 3 = ?

⇒ 20 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given: 70 × 2 – 4 ÷ 60 + 150 = ? 

70 × 2 – 4 ÷ 60 + 150 = ? ⇒ 70 ÷ 2 × 4 + 60 – 150 = ?

⇒ 70 ÷ 2 × 4 + 60 – 150 = ?

⇒ 35 × 4 + 60 – 150 = ?

⇒ 140 + 60 – 150 = ?

⇒ 200 – 150 = ?

⇒ 50 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

10 : 101

(10)² + 1 = 101

100 + 1 = 101

101 = 101 (LHS = RHS)

And,

6 : 37

(6)2 + 1 = 37

36 + 1 = 37

37 = 37 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 7 : 50

(7)2 + 1 = 50

49 + 1 = 50

50 = 50 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2) 14 : 196 

(14)2 + 1 = 196

196 + 1 = 196

197 ≠ 196 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) 11 : 120

(11)2 + 1 = 120

121 + 1 = 120

122 ≠ 120 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) 8 : 64

(8)2 + 1 = 64

64 + 1 = 64

65 ≠ 64 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, out of all the options '7 : 50' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0 

According to the question, after interchanging two signs and two numbers (not digits):

Option 1) 1, 3 and '–', '÷' 

55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0 ⇒ 55 × 5 - 3 ÷ 1 + 14 = 0

⇒ 55 × 5 - 3 ÷ 1 + 14 = 0

⇒ 55 × 5 - 3 + 14 = 0

⇒ 275 + 14 - 3 = 0

⇒ 289 - 3 = 0

⇒ 286 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  2) 1, 5 and '+', '–'

55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0 ⇒ 55 × 1 ÷ 5 + 3 - 14 = 0

⇒ 55 × 1 ÷ 5 + 3 - 14 = 0

⇒ 55 × 0.2 + 3 - 14 = 0

⇒ 11 + 3 - 14 = 0

⇒ 14 - 14 = 0

⇒ 0 = 0 (LHS = RHS)

Option  3) 5, 14 and '–', '×'

55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0 ⇒ 55 - 14 ÷ 1 × 3 + 5 = 0

⇒ 55 - 14 ÷ 1 × 3 + 5 = 0

⇒ 55 - 14 × 3 + 5 = 0

⇒ 55 + 5 - 42 = 0

⇒ 60 - 42 = 0

⇒ 18 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option  4) 3, 5 and '+', '÷'

55 × 5 ÷ 1 – 3 + 14 = 0 ⇒ 55 × 3 + 1 – 5 ÷ 14 = 0

⇒ 55 × 3 + 1 – 5 ÷ 14 = 0

⇒ 55 × 3 + 1 – 0.35 = 0

⇒ 165 + 1 – 0.35 = 0

⇒ 166 – 0.35 = 0

⇒ 165.65 ≠ 0 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Solution:

335 : 216 :: 987 : ?

The logic followed here is

335 : 216

⇒ 335 - 119 = 216

So, 987 : ?

⇒ ? = 987 - 119 = 868

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

The logic followed here is:

Embroidery : Thread

Embroidery is done using thread.

Similarly,

Weaving : ?

Weaving is done using wool.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​‘BROWN’ is coded as DTMYP

And,

‘PLACE’ is coded as RNYEG

Similarly,

‘RIGHT’ is coded as

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) LMIQ 

Option 2) GHDV 

Option 3) STPJ 

Option 4) NOPQ

Thus, out of all the options, 'NOPQ' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: K, L, M, W, X, Y and Z scored different marks in an exam. 

1) K scored more than only three people. 

_ > _ > _ > K > _ > _ > _

2) Y scored less than only L and M. 

L/M > L/M > Y > K > _ > _ > _

3) W scored more than Z but less than X.

L/M > L/M > Y > K > X > W > Z

4. L did not score the highest marks.

M > L > Y > K > X > W > Z

Thus, according to the final arrangement two people scored less than X.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

Thus, as marked there are a total of 6 triangles.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. First box series →

First row elements interchange positions.

The rest of the elements shift clockwise.

The top left corner element is replaced by new element.

2. Second box series →

The bottom row elements interchange positions.

The rest of the elements shift anticlockwise.

The bottom left corner element is replaced by new element.

Thus, final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Ramesh wants to visit his childhood friend’s house. Ramesh’s friend explained his house directions over a text message.

When you step out of your house, you are facing north.

Take a right and walk 3 km, you will see a T-point/junction.

Take a right and walk 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. 

Take the second left from the roundabout and walk 1 km. 

Take a right and walk 3 km. 

Take a right and walk 1 km. You will find my house at the front.

Thus, Ramesh is facing in the south direction when he takes the second left from the roundabout.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

Here, specifically "Roundabout" is mentioned, so accordingly counting clockwise from the roundabout - 2nd left will be in the south direction.

Furthermore, it is also mentioned "There will be a roundabout with four roads.", so 4 roads are of the four direction, therefore at the roundabout when counted clockwise:

Ramesh (Facing south) → 1st road

1st left (east) → 2nd road

2nd left (south) → 3rd road

3rd left (west) → 4th road

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All wolves are sheep → Does not follow (As all sheep are wolves. So it is possible but not definite)

II. All dogs are foxes → Follow (As all dogs are sheep, all sheep are wolves and all wolves are foxes. As whole dogs comes in sheep which whole comes in wolves which whole comes in foxes, therefore it is true.)

III. All dogs are wolves → Follow (As all dogs are sheep and all sheep are wolves. As whole dogs comes in sheep which whole comes in wolves, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusions II and III follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

1. At least some chairs are doors → Follow (As some elephants are chairs and all elephants are doors. As some part of chairs is common with elephants which whole comes in doors, therefore it is true)
2. All doors are elephants → Does not follow (As all elephants are doors. So it is possible but not definite)

∴ Here, Only conclusion 1 follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given statement: P ≤ Q = R > S; Q ≤ T ≤ U = V

Conclusions:

Option 1) S > P  → Does not follow (As P ≤ Q = R > S. Here, no relation can be determined between S and P, therefore it is false)

Option 2) V < S → Does not follow (As S < R = Q ≤ T ≤ U = V. So, it can be concluded as 'V > S', therefore it is false)

Option 3) S ≥ U → Does not follow (As S < R = Q ≤ T ≤ U = V. So, it can be concluded as 'U > S', therefore it is false)

Option 4) V ≥ P → Follow (As P ≤ Q ≤ T ≤ U = V. So, it can be concluded as 'V ≥ P', therefore is true)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1) R sit second to the left of V.

2. Only one person sits between R and S.

3) Only two persons sit between S and W.

4) T is not an immediate neighbour of R.

After positioning T only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. U.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, T sits second to the left of U.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

(13, 57, 111)

(13 × 4) + (57 + 2) = 111

52 + 59 = 111

111 = 111 (LHS = RHS)

And,

(11, 49, 95)

(11 × 4) + (49 + 2) = 95

44 + 51 = 95

95 = 95 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (9, 41, 79) 

(9 × 4) + (41 + 2) = 79

36 + 43 = 79

79 = 79 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2) (12, 53, 109) 

(12 × 4) + (53 + 2) = 109

48 + 55 = 109

113 ≠ 109 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) (8, 37, 73)

(8 × 4) + (37 + 2) = 73

32 + 39 = 73

72 ≠ 73 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) (10, 54, 11)

(10 × 4) + (54 + 2) = 11

40 + 56 = 11

96 ≠ 11 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, out of all the options '(9, 41, 79)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some black are cats → Follow (As all cats are animals and all animals are black. As whole cats comes in animals which whole comes in black, therefore it is true.)

II. All cats are black → Follow (As all cats are animals and all animals are black. As whole cats comes in animals which whole comes in black, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Fatehpur Sikri

Key Points

• Temples in Vrindavan, near Mathura, were built in a style similar to the Mughal palaces in Fatehpur Sikri.
• The architecture of the temples in Vrindavan was influenced by the style of the Sultanates of Bijapur and Golconda.
• Many buildings in Fatehpur Sikri were influenced by the architectural styles of Gujarat and Malwa.
• Mughal rulers were skilled at adapting regional architectural styles in their buildings.

Additional Information

• Akbar build Fatehpur Sikri in honour of Sheikh Salim Chisti.
• It enshrines the burial place of the Sufi saint, Salim Chisti (1478 – 1572), a descendant of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti of Ajmer, and who lived in a cavern on the ridge at Sikri.
• The mausoleum was constructed by Akbar as a mark of his respect for the Sufi saint.
• Fatehpur Sikri is a town in the Agra District of Uttar Pradesh, India.
• The city itself was founded as the capital of the Mughal Empire in 1571 by Emperor Akbar, serving this role from 1571 to 1585, when Akbar abandoned it due to a campaign in Punjab and was later completely abandoned in 1610.

The correct answer is Sattriya 

Key Points

• Jatin Goswami
• A well-known veteran classical dancer from Assam is Jatin Goswami.
• In 1933, Jatin Goswami was born in Dergaon, Upper Assam.
• Jatin Goswami began his first lesson of Satriya dance at home with the help of his father.
• Later, he received expert gurus' instruction in dance and music on the Vaishnava Satras.
• In order to advance and expand the Satriya dancing style, he also founded a dance group.
• In 1962, the Kalaguru Bishnu Prasad Rabha and Roseswar Saikia Borbayan collaborated to form the dancing group known as Pragati Kala Parishad.
• Jatin Goswami has received numerous recommendations and titles.
• During the Khajuraho Dance Festival, Jatin Goswami was given the National Kalidas Samman, Madhya Pradesh's most prestigious cultural award, for 2017.

Additional Information

• Sangeet Natak Akademi
• Sangeet Natak Akademi, the apex body in the field of performing arts in the country, was formed in 1953.
• It was set up for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India's diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance, and drama.
• The management of the Akademi vests in its General Council.
• Ariyakudi Ramanuja Iyengar Karaikudi was the first to receive the Sahitya Natak Akademi award.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Puraskar is an award given by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's National Academy of Music, Dance & Drama.
• The Sangeet Natak Academy was established on 31 May 1952 by a resolution of the Ministry of Human Resource development.
• The Akademi was officially inaugurated on 28 January 1953 by the first President of India Rajendra Prasad and PV Rajmannar was appointed as its first Chairman.

The correct answer is Thar

Key Points

• The Thar Desert is located in India (Rajasthan) and is also known as the Great Indian Desert.
• The Thar Desert extends between the Aravalli Hills in the northeast and the Rann of Kutch in the west and the alluvial plains of the Indus River in the northwest.
• It is located partly in the Rajasthan state of India and partly in the Punjab and Sindh provinces of Pakistan.
• The Aravalli Range is the oldest range of fold mountains in India.
• The Great Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh in the Thar Desert in the Kutch District of Gujarat.
• It is one of the largest salt deserts in the world.
• The Black Buck is a species of antelope found mainly in the Thar region.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Pataliputra.

Key Points 

• Mauryan empire lasted from about 321 to 185 BCE.
• Pataliputra was the capital of the Mauryan empire.
• The area around Pataliputra was under the direct control of the emperor.
• There were five major political centres in the Mauryan empire including the capital Pataliputra and the provincial centres of Taxila, Ujjayini, Tosali, and Suvarnagiri.

Additional Information

• The third Buddist council was held at Pataliputra.
• Kautilya's Artha-shastra was the most important literary source for the Maurya's.
• Chandragupta Maurya is the founder of the Mauryan dynasty.
• Ashoka was the most famous Mauryan ruler and he was the first ruler who tried to take his message to the people through inscriptions.
• Mauryan empire started declining due to the invasions, defections by southern princes after the death of Ashoka.

The correct answer is 2022

Key Points

• The Energy Conservation Amendment Bill, which mandates non-fossil sources of energy and establishes a domestic carbon market in India, was passed in 2022.
• The "Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022" was passed to enable the government to set up a carbon trading system within the country.
• The bill aims to promote the use of renewable energy sources like green hydrogen, biomass, and ethanol.
• It empowers the government to set up a domestic carbon market where companies can trade carbon credits.
• The Act came into force on January 1, 2023

Additional Information

• The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 was the original act aimed at promoting energy efficiency and conservation in India.
• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) was established under this act to implement various policies and programs.
• Energy conservation is crucial for reducing the carbon footprint and combating climate change.
• India has committed to reducing its carbon emissions intensity as part of its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.
• The amendment bill is part of India's efforts to meet its climate goals and promote sustainable development.

The correct answer is Velodrome

Key Points

• Velodrome:
• A velodrome is an arena for track cycling.
• Modern velodromes feature steeply banked oval tracks, consisting of two 180-degree circular bends connected by two straights.
• The straights transition to the circular turn through a moderate easement curve.
• The first velodromes were constructed during the late 1870s, the oldest of which is Preston Park Velodrome, Brighton, United Kingdom, built-in 1877 by the British Army.
• Indoor velodromes were also common, particularly in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

Additional Information

• The important terms used in sports and games

The correct answer is 1966-19969.

Key Points

• The Plan Holidays were decided in the Third Year Five Year Plan. The time period for the third year five year plan was 1961-1966.
• Aim and Objective of the Third Year Five Year Plan: 
• The focus was on agriculture and improvement in the production of wheat.
• States were entrusted with additional development responsibilities. Ex- States were made responsible for secondary and higher education.
• Panchayat elections were introduced to bring democracy to the grassroots level.
• The target growth rate was 5.6% and the actual growth rate only achieved 2.4%.
• This indicated a miserable failure of the Third Plan, and the government had to declare "Plan Holidays" (1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69). The Sino-Indian War and the Indo-Pak War, which caused the Third Five Year Plan to fail, were the **primary causes of the plan holidays.**​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Canada, USA and Mexico

Key Points

• The 23rd FIFA World Cup (2026) will be jointly organized by Canada, Mexico, and the United States.
• This will be the first time the tournament is hosted by three countries
• It also marks the first time since 1994 that the event is returning to North America.
• The 2026 World Cup will feature 48 teams, an increase from the 32 teams that have participated in previous tournaments.
• The decision to expand the tournament was made to allow more countries to compete and make the event even more inclusive.

Additional Information

• The FIFA World Cup, often called the World Cup, is an international association football competition among the senior men's national teams of the members of the Fédération Internationale de Football Association (FIFA), the sport's global governing body.
• The tournament has been held every four years since the inaugural tournament in 1930, with the exception of 1942 and 1946 due to the Second World War.
• The reigning champions are Argentina, who won their third title at the 2022 tournament by defeating France.
• After FIFA was founded in 1904, it tried to arrange an international football tournament between nations outside the Olympic framework in Switzerland in 1906

The correct answer is Sodium

Key Points

• The element primarily responsible for high blood pressure is sodium.
• Eating too much sodium, which is found in table salt, can directly contribute to increased blood pressure.
• When sodium levels in the blood rise, it can lead to increased water retention
• The atomic number of sodium is 11.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Bhupen Hazarika.

Key Points

• Bhupen Hazarika 
• Bhupen Hazarika, better known by his stage name Xudha kontho, was an Indian playback singer, lyricist, musician, poet, actor, and filmmaker who was born in Assam on September 8, 1926.
• His songs, which he wrote and sang mainly in Assamese, are characterised by humanism and a sense of universal brotherhood.
• They have been translated into various languages and performed, most notably in Bengali and Hindi.
• He is also credited for introducing Assamese and Northeast Indian folk music and culture to Hindi movies on a national scale.
• From December 1998 to December 2003, Hazarika served as the Sangeet Natak Akademi's chairman.
• Awards and Honour
• Padma Shri in 1977
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1987
• Bharat Ratna in 2019
• Padma Bhushan in 2001
• Padma Vibhushan in 2012

Additional Information

The correct answer is 2016

Key Points

• The pilot project for Unified Payments Interface (UPI) was launched on April 11, 2016 in Mumbai.
• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) operated the pilot project.
• UPI is a system that allows users to make payments using multiple bank accounts through a mobile app.
• It combines several banking features, fund routing, and merchant payments into one platform.

Additional Information

• UPI is an advanced version of the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS).
• UPI allows users to make peer-to-peer requests, which can be scheduled and paid as needed.
• Banks began uploading their UPI-enabled apps to the Google Play store on August 25, 2016.
• In March 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched UPI123Pay, a UPI payment facility for feature phones.
• Participants in UPI
• Payer PSP (Payment service Provider)
• Payee PSP
• Remitter Bank
• Beneficiary Bank
• NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India)
• Bank Account holders
• Merchant

The correct answer is They have the largest atomic size in their period.

Key Points

• The incorrect statement regarding the halogens group is "They have the largest atomic size in their period".
• Halogens are located on the right side of the periodic table compared to other elements in their period,
• It means they have smaller atomic sizes than other elements in the same period.
• In their elemental state**, halogens exist as diatomic molecules like F2, Cl2, Br2, and I2.**

Additional Information

• The Halogens are the elements belonging to Group 17 in the periodic table.
• A periodic table is an arrangement of elements based on their atomic numbers and chemical properties.
• It is divided into 18 groups and 7 periods running vertically and horizontally respectively.
• The periodic table accommodates a discrete combination of metal, non-metals, and metalloids.
• The elements in the periodic table are arranged horizontally in ascending order of their atomic numbers known as periods.
• Vertically the elements having identical chemical properties are clubbed together known as groups.
• The 18 groups are also known as columns and the 7 periods are also known as the rows.

The correct answer is the Chandela Dynasty

Key Points

• Khajuraho was an ancient city in Madhya Pradesh.
• It was the capital of the Chandelas from the 10th to 12th century.
• The majority of temples at Khajuraho are either Hindu (Saiva or Vaisnava) or Jain.
• Khajuraho is listed by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site.
• The temples at Khajuraho are famous for their erotic sculptures.
• They were built during the reign of the Chandela dynasty.​

Additional Information

• Pratihara Dynasty​
• The Gurjara-Pratihara (Pratihara) was a dynasty that ruled much of Northern India from the mid-8th to the 11th century.
• They ruled first at Ujjain and later at Kannauj.
• The Gurjara Pratihara dynasty was founded by Harichandra.
• Nagabhata I was the first prominent ruler of Pratiharas.
• Mihira Bhoja was one of the most important rulers of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.
• Pala Dynasty
• The Pala Dynasty is known for its contributions to the art, culture, and architecture of Bengal and Bihar regions.
• The dynasty's name "Pala" means "protector" and was used as a suffix to the names of all Pala monarchs.
• Dharmapala, one of the most prominent rulers of the Pala Dynasty, was instrumental in establishing the Pala influence over northern India.
• The Pala period is often regarded as a high point in the history of Bengal and Bihar, marked by prosperity and cultural flourishing.
• The Pala rulers were also known for their military prowess and diplomatic relations with other regional powers.
• Kalachuri Dynasty​
• The Kalchuri dynasty was formed by Kokalla(1st) in 845 AD ruled in the (7th-13th) century in the central region.
• He made Tripuri as its capital. At present, it is located in the Jabalpur district.
• He defeated the ruler of the Pratihara Dynasty Bhoj. They are also known as the Kalchuri of Chedi.
• The Kalchuri dynasty was the contemporary of Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta, and the Chalukyas of Kalyani.
• This dynasty reached its zenith under the ruler Lakshmikarna.

The correct answer is the National Commission for Minorities

Key Points

• The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) is not a constitutional body, but rather a statutory body.
• The NCM was established by the National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992.
• The NCM's functions include: 
• Monitoring the safeguards for minorities in the Constitution and in laws
• Ensuring that the Prime Minister's 15-Point Programme for the Welfare of Minorities is implemented
• Evaluating the development of minorities in the Union and States

Additional Information

• Comptroller and Auditor General of India 
• The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the government of India.
• The current CAG is K**. Sanjay Murthy**.
• Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
• Also known as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities (CLM), this officer investigates issues related to linguistic minorities in India.
• The CLM is appointed by the President of India.
• The CLM reports to the President, who then shares the reports with Parliament and the state governments.
• Attorney General of India 
• ​The Attorney General of India (AGI) is the country's chief law officer.
• The AGI advises the Union government on legal issues referred by the President.
• The AGI is the government's main lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.​

The correct answer is Pennatula

Key Points

• The scientific name of the sea pen that belongs to the phylum Cnidaria is Pennatula.
• Pennatula is a genus of sea pens that includes the phosphorescent sea pen (Pennatula phosphorea).
• Pennatula is also known as the sea feather.
• It has a stalk, a "rachis", and appendages with branches, which gives it a feather-like appearance.
• Pennatula is a member of the phylum Cnidaria, which also includes corals.
• Pennatula can be bioluminescent, and some species include Pennatula rubra, Pennatula phosphorea, and Pennatula aculeata.

Additional Information

• Gorgonia
• A genus of soft corals that are also known as sea fans.
• For example, Gorgonia mariae is a species of sea fan that lives in the Caribbean Sea and the tropical western Atlantic Ocean.
• Obelia
• A genus of invertebrate marine animals that are part of the Hydrozoa class.
• Obelia has two forms in its life cycle: polyp and medusa.
• The polyp form is attached to a solid surface or the ocean bottom and resembles a small sea anemone.
• Adamsia
• A genus of sea anemones that are part of the Cnidaria phylum.
• Adamsia is also known as the sea anemone.

The correct answer is Shashi Tharoor.

Key Points

• The Great Indian Novel is a satirical novel by Shashi Tharoor.
• It is first published by Viking Press in 1989.
• It is a fictional work that takes the story of the Mahabharata, the Indian epic.
• Figures from Indian history are transformed into characters from mythology, and the mythical story of India is retold as a history of Indian independence.
• The work includes numerous puns and allusions to famous works about India.
• The phrase "great Indian novel" is an allusion to the long-standing idea of the "Great American Novel".

Additional Information

• Shashi Tharoor is an Indian former international diplomat, politician, writer and public intellectual.
• He has been serving as a Member of Parliament for Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, since 2009.
• He was formerly Under-Secretary-General of the United Nations and ran for the post of Secretary-General in 2006.
• He also serves as Chairman of the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Information Technology and All India Professionals Congress.
• He formerly served as Chairman of the Parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs.

The correct answer is Jagannath.

Key Points

• The Rath Yatra or Car Festival is a famous festival celebrated in Puri, Odisha, and is associated with Lord Jagannath.
• The festival involves the procession of Lord Jagannath, along with his siblings, Lord Balabhadra and Goddess Subhadra, in chariots or raths.
• The chariots are pulled by devotees, and the procession moves from the Jagannath temple to the Gundicha temple, where the deities stay for nine days before returning to the Jagannath temple.
• The Rath Yatra is an important festival for devotees of Lord Jagannath, and it is believed that pulling the chariots during the festival is a way to attain moksha or liberation.

Additional Information

• Lord Shiva is worshipped in Puri.
• There is a famous temple dedicated to him called the Lokanath temple.
• Kartikeya
• ​Kartikeya is the Hindu god of war and victory.
• He is also known by the names Skanda, Kumara, Shanmukha, and Murugan.
• Ganesh 
• ​Ganesha also spelled Ganesh, and also known as Ganapati, Vinayaka, and Lambodara,
• He is one of the best-known and most worshipped deities in the Hindu pantheon

The correct answer is In 1989.

Key Points

• The voting age was reduced to 18 from 21 years in the year 1989.
• In India, the voting age has been reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988.
• It comes into force by amending Article 326.
• It concerns elections to the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies.

Additional Information 

• The bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 15th December 1988.
• The bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 20th December 1988.
• The bill was assented by President Venkaraman on 28th March 1989.
• The bill came into force on 28th March 1989.
• The Prime Minister who reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years - Rajiv Gandhi.
• The first general elections to the Lok Sabha were held in India - Between 25th October 1951 and 21st February 1952.

The correct answer is Ribosome.

Key Points

• Living organisms are made up of several cells.
• Cells are the basic functional unit of a body that is capable of independent reproduction.
• A cell can be either a prokaryotic cell or a eukaryotic cell.
• Prokaryotic cell lacks well-defined nuclear membrane-bound nucleus and organelles.
• A bacterial cell is a prokaryotic cell.
• A eukaryotic cell has a well-defined nucleus and membrane-bound cell organelles.
• Humans have eukaryotic cells.
• Thus Ribosome is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
• Cell organelles are sub-cellular structures that have characteristic morphological forms and specific functions.
• Mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, ER, Golgi body, etc. are some examples of cell organelles.

Additional Information

• Nucleus 
• ​The nucleus is a prominent organelle in a cell.
• It is surrounded by a double-layered membrane called the nuclear envelope.
• The nuclear envelope separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm.
• The nucleus contains chromosomes, which are made up of DNA.
• The nucleus is filled with a semi-solid substance called nucleoplasm.
• Cell organelle
• ​A cell organelle is a subcellular structure that performs a specific function in a cell.
• Organelles are similar to organs in the body.
• Cell membrane
• ​The cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane, is a semipermeable barrier that separates the inside of a cell from its outside environment.
• It's made of a lipid bilayer, which is a double layer of phospholipids.
• The cell membrane is responsible for regulating what enters and exits the cell.

The correct answer is John Newlands

Key Points

• In 1866, John Newlands, an English scientist, arranged the then-known elements in order of increasing atomic mass.
• He started with the element with the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ended with Thorium which was the 56th element.
• He found that every eighth element has the same properties as the first. He compared it to the octave found in music.
• That's why he called it the 'law of octaves.
• This is known as 'Newlands' Law of Octaves'.
• The properties of lithium and sodium were found to be similar in Newlands' octave.

Additional Information

• It was assumed by Newlands that only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements would be discovered in the future.
• But, later on, several new elements were discovered, whose properties did not fit into the Law of Octaves.
• In 1869, just five years after John Newlands put forward his Law of Octaves, a Russian chemist called Dmitri Mendeleev published a periodic table.
• Mendeleev also arranged the elements known at the time in order of relative atomic mass, but he did some other things that made his table much more successful.
• Marie Curie is best remembered for discovering radium and polonium, and for her huge contribution to finding treatments for cancer.
• In 1829, Johann Döbereiner grouped the elements with similar chemical properties into clusters of three called 'Triads'.
• Döbereiner invented the first lighter, which was known as the Döbereiner's lamp.

The correct answer is Boron

Key Points

• Boron (B) is the first element in group 13 of the periodic table.
• Group 13 is also known as the Boron family.
• The boron family is named after boron because it is the first element in the group.
• Boron is generally unreactive with many elements, but it can form compounds with hydrogen, called boranes.
• Boron can be used to make sodium perborate, a bleach alternative.​

Additional Information

• Aluminum
• The third most abundant element in the Earth's crust.
• It's resistant to corrosion and is recyclable.
• Gallium
• It Has an atomic number of 31 and a boiling point of 2,400C
• It's used in semiconductors, transistors, LEDs, thermometers, and mirrors.
• Indium
• It Has an atomic number of 49.
• It can adopt a +1 or +3 oxidation state, but the +3 state is more common.

The correct answer is Micas, chlorite, talc, and serpentine

Key Points

• Phyllosilicates are sheet silicates, meaning their crystal structure is made up of stacked silicate layers.
• They exhibit perfect cleavage along these layers due to weak van der Waals forces.
• Micas (e.g., Muscovite, Biotite) – Common phyllosilicates with excellent basal cleavage.
• Chlorite – A group of phyllosilicates with similar properties to micas.
• Talc – The softest mineral on the Mohs scale, used in talcum powder.
• Serpentine – Includes minerals like chrysotile (a form of asbestos).

Additional Information

• Pyrite, galena, and sphalerite are important minerals, each with distinct compositions and uses:
• Pyrite (FeS₂) –
• Also known as "fool's gold" due to its metallic luster and pale brass-yellow color, pyrite is an iron sulfide mineral.
• Galena (PbS) –
• The primary ore of lead, galena has a high density, metallic luster, and a lead-gray color.
• Sphalerite (ZnS) –
• The most important ore of zinc, sphalerite occurs in various colors, including brown, yellow, red, and black, depending on the presence of impurities like iron.
• Mercury (Hg)
• It is a metal but exists in liquid form at room temperature.
• It is a good conductor of electricity.
• It is highly dense and toxic in nature.
• Used in thermometers, barometers, and electrical switches.
• Graphite
• It is a form of carbon (an allotrope).
• It has a layered structure, making it soft and slippery.
• It is a good conductor of electricity due to free-moving electrons.
• Used in pencil leads, lubricants, and batteries.
• Diamond
• Another allotrope of carbon, but with a different structure.
• It is the hardest natural substance.
• It does not conduct electricity, unlike graphite.
• Used in jewelry, cutting tools, and industrial applications.

The correct answer is Raja Bhimdev I

Key Points

• The Sun Temple at Modhera was built by King Bhimdev I of the Solanki dynasty in 1026 AD.
• The temple is located in the village of Modhera, in the Mehsana district of Gujarat, India.
• The Solanki dynasty were descendants of the Sun and built the temple to honor Suryadeva, the Hindu sun god.
• The temple is considered a remarkable example of Gujarat's rich architectural and cultural heritage.
• The temple is located on the banks of the Pushpavati river, about 100 kilometers north of Ahmedabad.
• The temple is considered an endangered monument by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).

Additional Information

The correct answer is In 1927, to recommend a further reform of India’s Constitution 

Key Points

• The Simon Commission was appointed by the British government in 1927 to assess the working of the Government of India Act, 1919, and suggest further constitutional reforms for India.
• However, it faced strong opposition because it did not include any Indian members.
• The Simon commission or the Indian Statutory Commission arrived in India in 1928 to study constitutional reform.
• The Simon commission was headed by Sir John Simon with 7 Englishmen as its members.
• In 1927, Viceroy Lord Irwin called Mahatma Gandhi to Delhi and informed him that a report was being prepared to bring statutory reforms in India.
• As per the Government of India Act 1919, it was decided that after 10 years from 1919 a Commission will be set which will study the working of this act and will see the progress of this act.

Additional Information

• Government of India Act 1919 said that the participation of Indians in the British Parliament will increase.
• This commission was supposed to be appointed in 1929 but was appointed in 1928 itself and since there were no Indian members in it, Indians saw this as an insult as they thought that some Britishers cannot determine their destiny so this Commission was boycotted.
• Thus the Simon Commission was appointed to see the Indian constitutional reforms.

The correct answer is Both statements are correct

Key Points

• Statement 1: The Peninsular region of India does not have any well-defined cold weather season.
• ✅This statement is  Correct
• The Peninsular region of India (which includes states like Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra) is surrounded by large water bodies like the Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, and Indian Ocean.
• This surrounding water moderates the climate, preventing extreme temperature variations.
• As a result, winters are not severe, and there is no well-defined cold season like in North India, where temperatures drop significantly in winter.
• In contrast, regions like Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh experience distinct winter months (December–February) due to cold winds from the Himalayas.
• Statement 2: By the end of December (that is, by 22 December), the Sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern Hemisphere.
• ✅This statement is Correct
• December 21 or 22 marks the Winter Solstice, which is the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere and the longest day in the Southern Hemisphere.
• On this date, the Sun is directly overhead at noon over the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° South latitude).
• This happens because of the tilt of Earth's axis (23.5°) and its revolution around the Sun.
• As a result:
• The Southern Hemisphere experiences summer, and countries like Australia, South Africa, and Argentina have their hottest months.
• The Northern Hemisphere experiences winter, with shorter daylight hours and colder temperatures.

The correct answer is Planning

Key Points

• Planning was the key factor that promoted overall economic growth by stimulating the industrial and tertiary sectors.
• After independence, India adopted a planned economic approach, mainly through the Five-Year Plans initiated in 1951.
• These plans focused on systematic development across all sectors, including agriculture, industry, and services (tertiary sector).
• Planning directly contributed to industrial growth through:
• Public Sector Enterprises (PSUs): Heavy industries like steel, coal, and petroleum were set up under government control.
• Infrastructure Development: Dams, power plants, and transport networks were developed to support industries.
• Industrial Policies: The Industrial Policy of 1956 encouraged the growth of core industries and limited private sector participation.
• Small and Cottage Industries: Special support was given to small-scale industries to boost employment and production.

Additional Information

• The tertiary sector (services sector) also expanded due to planning:
• Banking & Finance: Nationalization of banks (1969) improved credit availability for industries.
• Transport & Communication: Roads, railways, and telecommunication networks were expanded.
• Education & Healthcare: Planned investments led to better literacy rates and healthcare, improving the workforce quality.
• Trade & Commerce: Economic planning led to urbanization, increasing demand for retail, tourism, and IT services.

The correct answer is Non-tax revenues

Key Points

• Non-tax revenues, such as income from public sector enterprises, fines, or licenses, are typically considered as revenue sources, but they are not usually a primary method for financing government deficits.
• A government deficit occurs when a government spends more money than it receives in revenue.
• This deficit can indicate how well a country's economy is doing financially.
• Types of government deficits
• Budget deficit: The total amount by which a government's spending exceeds its revenue in a given year
• Revenue deficit: When a government spends more on revenue than it receives in revenue
• Primary deficit: The difference between a government's total expenses and its total revenue, excluding interest payments ​

Additional Information

• Higher taxation:
• When the government increases taxes, it boosts its revenue.
• This can help reduce or eliminate a deficit, but it's more of a preventive measure (increasing revenue) than a method of financing an existing deficit.
• Borrowings from domestic and international sources:
• This is a direct method of financing deficits.
• Governments often issue bonds, borrow from international institutions like the World Bank or IMF, or obtain loans from domestic banks to raise funds and cover deficits.
• Deficit financing:
• This involves the government borrowing from its central bank or printing money to cover the deficit.
• This increases the money supply and can lead to inflation if done excessively.
• It's a common method for financing deficits, especially in situations where borrowing from external sources is not viable.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam

Key Points

• Yamini Krishnamurthy was a classical Indian dancer who performed Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi
• Yamini Krishnamurthy was a prominent dancer in India for decades.
• She was born in Madanapalle, Andhra Pradesh on December 20, 1940 and died in New Delhi on August 3, 2024.
• She was a recipient of the Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan awards.
• She also received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1977

Additional Information

The correct answer is Centrioles

Key Points

• Centrioles are involved in cell division and organizing microtubules but are not classified as cytoskeletal filaments.
• Centrioles are small organelles involved in cell division
• A cytoskeleton is found in the cytoplasm as a network of protein filaments.
• Centrioles are composed of nine triplets of microtubules arranged in a circular pattern.
• During cell division, they duplicate to form two centrioles, which move to opposite poles of the cell, assisting in the formation of the spindle fibers that help in chromosome segregation.

Additional Information

• There are three types of cytoskeletons found in the cytoplasm- microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments.
• They are found only in eukaryotic cells.
• Cytoskeleton provides mechanical support to the cell and helps maintain the shape of the cell.
• They are important for cell division and movements inside the cell.
• They also function in supporting the cell organelle and allow cell motility.

The correct answer is The Untouchables

Key Points

• The Untouchables was not written by Jyotiba Phule.
• Jyotiba Phule wrote Gulamgiri, Shetkaryacha Asud, and other books.
• Jyotirao Govindrao Phule (1827-1890) was a social reformer and writer from Maharashtra, India.
• He was a leader of the non-Brahmin movement and fought against caste restrictions.
• He also worked for women's education and the rights of low-caste people.

Additional Information

• The Untouchables
• This refers to the group of people historically known as "Dalits" or "untouchables" in the caste system of India.
• The term was used by social reformers to describe those outside the traditional four-fold caste system.
• Gulamgiri
• "Gulamgiri" (translated as "Slavery") is a famous book written by Jyotirao Phule in 1873.
• In this work, Phule critiques the social structure of caste discrimination and exposes the exploitation of the lower castes by the higher castes and the Brahminical system.
• Shetkaryacha Asud
• "Shetkaryacha Asud" (translated as "The Farmer’s Whipcord") is a Marathi book written by Narayan Meghaji Lokhande.
• The book is a call to action for the rights and betterment of farmers, focusing on their struggles and exploitation.
• Brahmananche Kasab
• "Brahmananche Kasab" (translated as "The Brahmin's Slave") is another work by Jyotirao Phule.
• It critiques the upper caste Brahmins who held power and perpetuated the social and economic exploitation of lower castes.

The correct answer is Jhootha Sach – Yashpal

Key Points

• Jhootha Sach – Yashpal
• ​This pair is Correct.
• Jhootha Sach (translated as False Truth) is indeed written by Yashpal.
• This novel is one of the important works in Hindi literature,
• It reflects the struggle of people during the Indian independence movement and the post-independence period.
• The novel explores the disillusionment that people faced in the post-independence period in India.

Additional Information

• Tamas – Shrilal Shukla
• This is incorrect.
• The novel Tamas was written by Bhisham Sahani, not Shrilal Shukla.
• Tamas is a powerful novel that portrays the violence and chaos during the partition of India in 1947.
• The novel's focus is on how religious and social divisions led to brutal conflicts during the partition period.
• Maila Anchal – Bhisham Sahani
• This is incorrect.
• Maila Anchal (translated as The Soiled Breeze) was written by Phanishwar Nath Renu, not Bhisham Sahani.
• Renu is well-known for his depiction of rural India in his writing.
• Maila Anchal deals with the lives of rural communities in Bihar, capturing the simplicity, struggles, and joys of their existence.
• It is a significant work in Hindi literature that reflects the socio-political issues of the time.
• Chitralekha – Phanishwar Nath Renu
• This is incorrect.
• Chitralekha was actually written by Ravindra Kiran (also known as R.K. Laxman) and is not a work of Phanishwar Nath Renu.
• The novel deals with themes of love, spirituality, and the complexities of human desires.
• It is set against the backdrop of ancient Indian culture and is a philosophical exploration of human life.

The correct answer is 1975.

Key Points

• India won the first World Cup title in Hockey in 1975, which was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
• In the final match, India defeated Pakistan by 2-1 to lift the trophy.
• This was a historic moment for Indian hockey as it marked the first time that India had won a major international tournament in 15 years.
• The captain of the Indian team at that time was Ajit Pal Singh, who led the team to victory and was also awarded the Player of the Tournament title.

Additional Information

• In 1971, India won the the bronze medal, Lost to West Germany in the semi-finals, but defeated France in the bronze medal match.
• India did not win the World Cup title in 1982.
• In fact, India did not even qualify for the 1982 World Cup, which was held in Mumbai, India.

Achievements:

• World Cup: Won their only title in 1975.
• Olympics: Hold a record eight gold medals (1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, 1980).
• Asian Games: Won 4 gold medals, 9 Silver medals, 3 Bronze medals
• Commonwealth Games: Won 3 Silver medals (2010*, 2014, 2022) and 2 times fourth place (1998, 2018)

Current Status:

• Ranked 5th in the world by the International Hockey Federation (FIH).
• Facing challenges like lack of infrastructure and funding, but also has a strong youth development program.

The correct answer is Kochi.

Key Points The  ‘Queen of Arabian Sea’:

• Kochi port is known as the 'Queen of Arabian Sea' as it was an important trade center for species on the western coast of India from the 14th century.
• Occupied by the Portuguese Empire in 1503, Kochi was the first of the European colonies in colonial India.
• Kochi:
• It is a part of the Ernakulam district.
• Kochi was the first of the European colonies in Colonial India.
• It remained the main seat of Portuguese until 1530.
• It is called the Judicial Capital of Kerala as the High Court of Kerala is situated here.

Additional Information​

The correct answer is the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare 

Key Points

• The Sahakar Pragya Initiative is an important program introduced by India's Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
• It aims to promote and strengthen the cooperative movement in the country.
• The initiative focuses on creating awareness about the cooperative sector and its potential for socio-economic development.
• It includes training programs, workshops, seminars, and capacity-building initiatives to empower cooperative societies and their members.

Additional Information

• Sahakar Pragya Initiative: Objectives
• To train the cooperative societies in rural areas with 45 new training modules with the support of
• NCDC Schemes
• 1000 Farmers Producer Organizations
• Dairy Infrastructure Development Scheme
• Fisheries Infrastructure Development Scheme
• Agriculture Infrastructure Funding Scheme
• Pradhan Mantri Matasya Sampada Yojana
• Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro food Processing Enterprise (PMFME) Program
• To educate the farmers about agricultural management using Primary Cooperatives.
• To strengthen the cooperative sector and make it capable of shielding the farmers from unfair trade practices and unscrupulous traders.
• To enhance the training capacity of NCDC by establishing 18 Regional Training Centers.
• To educate and make the farmer community self-aware and self-sufficient to make the rural economy sustainable and aatmanirbhar.

The correct answer is Nagaland

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census of India, Nagaland had no Scheduled Caste (SC) population.
• The 2011 Census of India recorded no SC population in Nagaland.
• Nagaland is the only state in India that recorded a negative population growth rate of -0.58%.
• The total population of Nagaland in 2011 was 1,980,602

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1850

Key Points

• The Lex Loci Act of 1850 was passed by the British government of India, allowing converts to Christianity to inherit their ancestral property.
• This law was passed to make it easier for Indians to convert to Christianity.
• The Lex Loci Act of 1850 allowed Hindus who converted to Christianity to inherit their ancestral property.
• Before this law was passed, it was not permitted for converts to inherit ancestral property.
• Some people felt that the law went against Hindu religious law of property.
• In 1830, Christian missionaries were allowed to own land and property, and to operate freely in the East India Company's territories.

Additional Information

• The new Act allowed Hindus who converted from the Hindu religion to another religion equal rights under the new law, especially in the case of inheritance.
• The Caste Disabilities Removal Act, of 1850 was passed to make the conversion to Christianity easier.
• This law allowed an Indian who had converted to Christianity to inherit the property of his ancestors.
• Many Indians began to feel that the British were destroying their religion, their social customs, and their traditional way of life.
• There were of course other Indians who wanted to change existing social practices.

The correct answer is Magadha

Key Points

• According to historical records, Magadha emerged as the most powerful Mahajanapada after a prolonged conflict for supremacy among the various kingdoms
• For many years**, Pataliputra was the capital of** Magadha.
• The kingdom was bounded by the Ganges in the north, river Champa in the east, and river Son in the west.
• According to ancient texts, Brihadratha was the earliest known ruler of Magadha.
• The kingdom was also ruled by King Bimbisara, under whom Magadha flourished.
• Great Indian empires including the famous Maurya Dynasty originated in Magadha.
• Gautama Buddha spent much of his life in Magadha, hence the region is believed to hold great significance to Buddhists.

Additional Information

• Gandhara:-
• This great kingdom was served graciously by the river Indus and its capital Taksashila (Taxila) housed the renowned center of learning, the ‘Taksashila University.’
• Scholars came to the university from all over the world in order to seek greater knowledge and wisdom.
• Kosala:-
• The kingdom of Kosala was located close to the kingdom of Magadha.
• With Ayodhya as its capital, Kosala was bound by the river Ganges in the south, river Gandak in the east, and the Himalaya mountains in the north.
• Vamsa / Vatsa:-
• Considered to be an offshoot of the Kurus, the kingdom of Vatsa or Vamsa was roughly situated at the location of modern-day Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.
• The capital city was known as Kaushambi, which was a prosperous city.

The correct answer is Sunetra Gupta

Key Points

• Sunetra Gupta has written several other novels, including The Glassblower's Breath and A Sin of Colour.
• She has received numerous accolades for her work, including the Sahitya Akademi Award.
• In addition to her literary achievements, Gupta is also recognized for her contributions to science, particularly in the field of infectious disease research.
• Her writing is often praised for its rich, poetic language and deep psychological insight.

Additional Information

The correct answer is a paired barrel-shaped organelle located in the cytoplasm of animal cells near the nuclear envelope

Key Points

• A centriole is a barrel-shaped organelle found in animal cells,
• It primarily responsible for organizing microtubules and playing a crucial role in cell division by forming the poles of the mitotic spindle
• It is typically located near the nucleus within a structure called the centrosome.
• It is Composed of nine sets of microtubule triplets arranged in a cylindrical pattern.

Additional Information

• In the context of cell biology, an "organelle" refers to a specialized structure within a cell that performs a specific function, essentially acting like a tiny organ within the cell, with examples including the nucleus (which stores DNA), mitochondria (which produce energy), and the endoplasmic reticulum (involved in protein synthesis).
• Each organelle has a dedicated task to contribute to the overall function of the cell, similar to how organs in a body have specific roles.
• Examples of organelles:
• Nucleus: Stores genetic material (DNA) and controls cellular activities.
• **Mitochondria: "**Powerhouse of the cell," produces energy in the form of ATP.
• Endoplasmic reticulum (ER): A network of membranes involved in protein synthesis and lipid production.
• Golgi apparatus: Modifies and packages proteins for transport within the cell.
• Lysosomes: Contain enzymes to break down waste materials.
• Ribosomes: Small structures responsible for protein synthesis.

The correct answer is TH Vinayakram.

Key Points

• T H Vinayakram (also known as Vikku Vinayakram) is a legendary ghatam player who use clay pot percussion instrument in the Indian classical music.
• He is known as the "God of Ghatam".
• His was honoured with prestigious awards like the Padma Shri and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.
• Carnatic music originates in south India back over 2000 years.
• Some of the most revered composers in Carnatic music include: Tyagaraja (1767–1847), Muthuswami Dikshitar (1775–1835), Syama Sastri (1762–1827), Papanasam Sivan (1890–1973), Swathi Thirunal (1813-1846).
• The primary elements of music are: Raga, Tala, Kriti.
• Carnatic music features several instruments. Some of the main ones include: Veena, Mridangam, Violin, Flute, Ghatam

Additional Information