General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Panchayati Raj.

Key Points

• The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 was enacted to institutionalize Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), providing them with constitutional status and protection.
• This amendment inserted a new Part IX into the Constitution of India, titled The Panchayats, which encompasses provisions from Article 243 to 243-O.
• It also introduced the 11^th Schedule, which details 29 functional items or subjects, such as agriculture, land improvement, and minor irrigation, that fall under the jurisdiction of Panchayats.
• The act gave practical shape to Article 40 of the Directive Principles of State Policy, which directs the State to organize village panchayats as units of self-government.
• It mandates a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in every state: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• The act provides for mandatory reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population, and at least one-third reservation for women.
• To ensure financial and electoral autonomy, the act established the State Finance Commission to review financial positions and the State Election Commission to conduct fair elections every five years.

 Additional Information

• Anti-defection:
• Introduced by the 52^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 to prevent political defections.
• It added the 10^th Schedule, which lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection.
• Tribunals:
• Constitutional status was provided by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• It added Part XIV-A, containing Article 323A for administrative tribunals and Article 323B for other matters.
• Cooperative Societies:
• Given constitutional status through the 97^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011.
• It added Part IX-B and included the right to form cooperatives as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(c).

The correct answer is Sarojini Naidu.

Key Points

• Sarojini Naidu was appointed as the Governor of the United Provinces (currently known as Uttar Pradesh) on August 15, 1947, following India's independence.
• She held this prestigious constitutional office until her death on March 2, 1949, making her the first woman to serve as a Governor in the history of independent India.
• Commonly known as the Nightingale of India (Bharat Kokila), she was a prolific poet and a major political figure in the Indian National Movement.
• In 1925, she became the first Indian woman to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress during its Kanpur Session.
• She was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and played a significant role during the Civil Disobedience Movement, including the Dandi March and the Dharasana Satyagraha.

 Additional Information

• Indira Gandhi:
• She was the first woman Prime Minister of India, serving from 1966 to 1977 and again from 1980 until 1984.
• She was the first woman to be honored with the Bharat Ratna in 1971 for her leadership during the Indo-Pakistani War.
• Sucheta Kripalani:
• She became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state, leading the government of Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967.
• She was a member of the Constituent Assembly and founded the All India Mahila Congress in 1940.
• Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit:
• She was the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly, elected in 1953.
• She served as a prominent diplomat and was the sister of India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

• The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in September 2014 in New Delhi under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan to provide a simplified health-related air quality status to the public.
• Developed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in consultation with IIT Kanpur and medical professionals, it follows the mantra of One Number-One Colour-One Description.
• The index measures eight major pollutants for which short-term national standards have been prescribed. These are Particulate Matter (PM10), Particulate Matter (PM2.5), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO₂), Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O₃), Ammonia (NH₃), and Lead (Pb).
• The AQI calculation is based on the 24-hour average concentration for most pollutants, except for Ozone and Carbon Monoxide, which are monitored on an 8-hour average basis to better reflect immediate health impacts.
• The overall AQI for a location is determined by the sub-index of the pollutant that is most prominent (the pollutant with the highest concentration relative to its standard) on a given day.

 Additional Information

• AQI Categories and Health Impact:
• Good (0−50): Minimal health impact.
• Satisfactory (51−100): May cause minor breathing discomfort to sensitive individuals.
• Moderately Polluted (101−200): May cause breathing discomfort to people with asthma and heart diseases.
• Poor (201−300): Causes breathing discomfort to most people on prolonged exposure.
• Very Poor (301−400): Leads to respiratory illness upon prolonged exposure.
• Severe (401−500): Affects healthy people and seriously impacts those with existing respiratory or cardiovascular ailments.
• Comparison with NAAQS:
• While the AQI monitors 8 pollutants, the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) officially monitor 12 pollutants.
• The four pollutants included in NAAQS but excluded from daily AQI reporting are Benzene, Benzo(a)pyrene, Arsenic, and Nickel, as they are primarily monitored for long-term (annual) chronic exposure rather than short-term spikes.

The correct answer is People's perception of having control over life decisions.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report utilizes six key variables to explain the variation in happiness across different nations, one of which is the Freedom to make life choices.
• This specific metric is defined as the national average of binary responses (0 or 1) to the Gallup World Poll question: 'Are you satisfied or dissatisfied with your freedom to choose what you do with your life?'.
• It represents an individual's subjective perception of their own autonomy and the extent to which they feel they have the agency to steer their own life path without undue restriction.
• Unlike objective measures of civil liberties or legal rights, this indicator focuses on the internal psychological state of feeling 'free', which is highly correlated with overall life satisfaction.
• Data collected indicates that a strong sense of personal agency is a fundamental pillar of human well-being, often ranking as more significant than absolute income in developed economies.

 Additional Information

• The Happiness Index is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN).
• The index is calculated using a three-year average of data, primarily employing the Cantril Ladder, where respondents rate their lives on a scale from 0 to 10.
• Other core variables in the report include:
• GDP per Capita: A measure of the average economic output per person, adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
• Social Support: Evaluated by asking if citizens have relatives or friends they can count on during trouble.
• Healthy Life Expectancy: Extracted from World Health Organization (WHO) data, reflecting physical health and longevity.
• Generosity: Calculated based on the residual of average responses to questions regarding donating money to charity.
• Perceptions of Corruption: Measured by the perceived level of corruption in government and business sectors.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• The 37^th edition of the National Games of India was officially held in the state of Goa from October 26 to November 9, 2023.
• This was the first time that Goa hosted the prestigious multi-sport event, which saw participation from over 10,000 athletes representing all 28 states, 8 Union Territories, and the Services Sports Control Board (SSCB).
• The games were inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium located in Fatorda, South Goa.
• The official mascot for the event was named Moga, an Indian Bison (Gaur), which is the state animal of Goa; the name Moga is derived from the Konkani word for love or affection.
• The competition featured a record 43 sporting disciplines, including the debut of sports such as Beach Football, Rollball, Golf, Sepaktakraw, Kalaripayattu, Lagori, and Pencak Silat.
• The events were organized across five main Goan cities: Panaji, Margao, Mapusa, Ponda, and Vasco, with Cycling and Golf being the only events held in New Delhi due to infrastructure requirements.

 Additional Information

• Performance and Awards:
• Maharashtra finished at the top of the medal tally with a total of 228 medals (80 gold, 69 silver, and 79 bronze), successfully claiming the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy.
• The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) secured the second position with 66 gold medals, while Haryana finished third with 62 gold medals.
• Srihari Nataraj, a swimmer from Karnataka, was adjudged the Best Male Athlete for winning 8 gold, 1 silver, and 1 bronze medal.
• Sanyukta Prashen Kale and Pranati Nayak, both gymnasts, were jointly named the Best Female Athlete.
• Context and History:
• The previous 36^th National Games were hosted by Gujarat in 2022 after a significant delay due to the pandemic.
• The 38^th edition of the National Games is scheduled to be held in the state of Uttarakhand.
• The National Games of India are modeled after the Olympics and are organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to promote sports at the grassroots level and identify national talent.

The correct answer is Very high, leading to crisis.

Key Points

• During the late 1980s, India faced a severe macroeconomic imbalance due to persistent fiscal deficits, which climbed to nearly 8.4% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 1990-91.
• The government increasingly relied on external commercial borrowings and short-term debt to bridge the gap between revenue and expenditure, leading to a massive accumulation of external debt.
• By 1990, India's external debt had reached approximately $72 billion, and the debt-service ratio surged to over 35%, meaning more than one-third of export earnings went solely toward interest payments.
• This unsustainable debt level triggered a Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, as the foreign exchange reserves plummeted to a critical low of about $1.2 billion.
• These reserves were sufficient to finance essential imports (like petroleum and fertilizers) for only about two weeks, pushing the country toward sovereign default.

 Additional Information

• The 1991 economic crisis was exacerbated by external factors and required significant policy shifts:
• Gulf War (1990): The conflict caused crude oil prices to skyrocket and led to a sharp decline in remittances from Indian workers in the Middle East, further draining foreign exchange.
• IMF Intervention: To secure an emergency loan from the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the Reserve Bank of India had to airlift 47 tonnes of gold to the Bank of England as collateral.
• New Economic Policy: The crisis served as a catalyst for the July 1991 reforms, introducing Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) to restructure the Indian economy.

The correct answer is Monopolized salt production and imposed heavy taxes.

Key Points

• The British Salt Act of 1882 prohibited Indians from collecting or selling salt, a staple nutrient, and established a government monopoly over its manufacture and sale.
• The act forced Indians to purchase salt from British-controlled agencies, which imposed heavy taxes on a resource that was naturally and freely available along the Indian coastline.
• Since salt is a universal necessity for both humans and livestock, the tax was viewed as highly regressive and cruel, disproportionately impacting the poorest sections of society.
• Mahatma Gandhi identified the Salt Law as the most inhuman of all colonial laws because it taxed a basic gift of nature essential for life.
• This law became the primary grievance that sparked the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, as it unified different classes of Indian society against colonial exploitation.
• The Dandi March, which began on March 12, 1930, was a direct act of non-violent resistance where Gandhi and his followers manufactured salt to break the British monopoly.

 Additional Information

• The Dandi March and its Significance:
• The march covered 240 miles from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
• It demonstrated the power of Satyagraha (truth-force) and brought the Indian independence movement to the forefront of global media attention.
• Following the march, the salt satyagraha spread across India, with notable protests in Dharasana and along the Vedaranyam coast.
• British Economic Policy:
• The revenue generated from the salt tax contributed roughly 8.2 percent of the total British Raj tax revenue at its peak.
• The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) eventually allowed Indians living near the sea to produce salt for domestic use but did not grant the right to sell it commercially.
• The Salt Law was eventually abolished when India gained independence in 1947, recognizing salt as a fundamental right of the people.

The correct answer is Vishnu.

Key Points

• The Alvars were a group of Tamil poet-saints from South India who flourished between the 6^th and 9^th centuries CE.
• They were wandering singers who were completely immersed in their devotion to Lord Vishnu and his diverse incarnations, such as Krishna and Rama.
• The term Alvar translates to 'one who is deeply immersed' in the ocean of divine love for the Supreme Being.
• There were 12 Alvars in total, including prominent figures like Nammalvar, Periyalvar, and Andal, who was the only female saint in the group.
• They played a vital role in initiating the Bhakti Movement, making religious devotion accessible to all sections of society regardless of caste or gender.
• Their sacred compositions were compiled by Nathamuni into a collection known as the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, often hailed as the Dravida Veda.

 Additional Information

• Nayanars:
• These were 63 saints who were devoted to Lord Shiva and were contemporaries of the Alvars.
• Their hymns were compiled into the Thirumurai, and the first seven volumes are known as the Tevaram.
• Durga:
• A principal deity in Shaktism, she represents feminine power (Shakti) and is revered as the destroyer of evil, specifically the demon Mahishasura.
• Agni and Indra:
• Agni is the God of Fire and acts as a mediator between gods and humans in Vedic rituals.
• Indra is the King of Gods and the God of Thunder and Rain, holding supreme status during the Rig Vedic period.

The correct answer is 63843.

Key Points

• The Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA) was approved by the Union Cabinet on October 2, 2024, to ensure the holistic development of tribal villages.
• The mission specifically targets 63,843 tribal-majority villages across the country to saturate gaps in social infrastructure and basic facilities.
• This massive tribal outreach program covers 549 districts and 2,740 blocks across 30 States and Union Territories.
• The scheme is designed to directly benefit more than 5 crore tribal people, focusing on improving their socio-economic indicators through inter-ministerial convergence.
• The implementation strategy involves identifying Scheduled Tribe (ST) dominated areas where the saturation of government schemes has not yet been achieved.

 Additional Information

• Financial and Administrative Structure:
• The total financial outlay for the mission is Rs. 79,156 crore, with the Central Government contributing Rs. 48,399 crore and the State Governments providing Rs. 30,757 crore.
• The mission involves 25 specific interventions that are implemented through 17 different Central Ministries.
• Core Objectives and Legacy:
• The program is named after Bhagwan Birsa Munda, popularly known as 'Dharti Aaba' (Father of the Earth), a legendary tribal freedom fighter and folk hero.
• It follows the model of the PM-JANMAN (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan), which focused on Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
• Key infrastructure targets include the construction of 20 lakh pucca houses, 25,000 km of roads, and providing piped water to every tribal household.
• Education and health initiatives include the establishment of Tribal Multipurpose Marketing Centres (TMMCs) and Ashram schools.

The correct answer is Dharma.

Key Points

• Dharma is the foundational concept in the Vedic framework that refers to righteousness, moral values, and the ethical code of conduct necessary to maintain the balance of the universe.
• The term is derived from the Sanskrit root Dhri, which means to uphold, support, or sustain. It signifies the duties and laws that govern individual actions and social order.
• In the context of the Purusharthas (the four aims of human life), Dharma is considered the most critical because it provides the ethical framework within which the other goals must be pursued.
• It emphasizes integrity, justice, and Satya (truth), guiding individuals to perform their Svadharma (personal duty) in harmony with the cosmic order, known as Rta in the Rig Veda.
• By prioritizing ethical living, Dharma ensures that human behavior leads to both Abhyudaya (worldly prosperity) and Nishreyasa (spiritual well-being).

 Additional Information

• The Purusharthas provide a holistic approach to a fulfilling life by balancing material and spiritual needs:
• Artha: This goal focuses on material prosperity, wealth, and economic security. It is essential for survival and social stability but must be acquired through righteous means as defined by Dharma.
• Kama: It represents desire, sensory pleasure, love, and aesthetic enjoyment. The Vedas recognize Kama as a natural human urge that should be satisfied within the boundaries of moral law.
• Moksha: This is the ultimate goal of human existence, signifying liberation from the cycle of birth and death (Samsara). It represents the realization of the self (Atman) and union with the supreme reality (Brahman).

The correct answer is Writing.

Key Points

• Voluntary actions are those activities in the human body that are performed under the conscious control and will of the individual. These actions are primarily regulated by the cerebrum, the largest part of the brain, which processes sensory information and initiates motor impulses.
• Writing is a classic example of a voluntary action as it involves conscious thought, decision-making, and memory. The motor cortex in the frontal lobe of the brain sends specific signals through the spinal cord to the skeletal muscles in the fingers, hand, and wrist to execute precise movements.
• Unlike reflexes, voluntary actions can be initiated, modified, or stopped at any moment based on environmental stimuli or personal choice. These actions are learned over time and require a high degree of neuromuscular coordination and cognitive processing.

 Additional Information

• Involuntary Actions: These are spontaneous and automatic responses that do not require conscious thought. They are controlled by the autonomous nervous system and the hindbrain.
• Vomiting: This is a protective reflex action controlled by the vomit center located in the medulla oblongata. It is an involuntary ejection of stomach contents through the mouth.
• Salivation: This is an involuntary response to the sight, smell, or taste of food, managed by the salivary nuclei in the brainstem to facilitate digestion.
• Breathing: Although it can be modulated voluntarily for short durations, respiration is fundamentally an involuntary process driven by the pons and medulla to maintain homeostasis of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• Article 262 of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys.
• According to Article 262(1), Parliament is the sole authority empowered to make laws providing for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint regarding the use, distribution, or control of the waters of any inter-State river or river valley.
• The Constitution further provides under Article 262(2) that Parliament may, by law, exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court in respect of such water disputes.
• This provision was included to ensure that complex riparian issues and inter-state conflicts are resolved through specialized mechanisms rather than standard judicial litigation, which might be time-consuming or technically limited.

 Additional Information

• Legislative Acts under Article 262:
• Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956: This Act was enacted to facilitate the creation of ad-hoc tribunals (e.g., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal) for the adjudication of inter-state water conflicts.
• River Boards Act, 1956: This law provides for the establishment of River Boards for the regulation and development of inter-State rivers, aimed at advising the Central Government on coordination and development.
• Constitutional Distribution of Power:
• Entry 17 of the State List (List II) gives states power over water supplies, irrigation, and canals.
• Entry 56 of the Union List (List I) gives the Union power over the regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys to the extent declared by Parliament to be in the public interest.
• Other Entities:
• The President, Council of Ministers, and Union Home Minister do not possess the constitutional authority to legislate or provide the legal framework for the adjudication of these specific water disputes; their roles are limited to executive functions or administrative implementation.

The correct answer is Tibetan New Year.

Key Points

• Losar is the most significant festival in the Tibetan calendar, marking the arrival of the New Year. The term is derived from the Tibetan words 'Lo' (year) and 'Sar' (new).
• The festival is primarily celebrated by followers of Tibetan Buddhism and is observed in Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, and various regions of India, including Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh (specifically by the Monpa tribe).
• It follows the Lunisolar Tibetan Calendar, typically falling in the months of February or March. The celebrations last for 15 days, though the first three days are considered the most crucial.
• The festival predates Buddhism in Tibet and has its roots in the Bon religion, where incense was offered to appease local spirits and deities.
• Key rituals include the preparation of Guthuk (a special noodle soup), house cleaning to drive away evil spirits, and the performance of Cham dances (masked religious dances) by monks in monasteries.
• The first day is known as Lama Losar, dedicated to the Dalai Lama and other spiritual leaders, while the second day is Gyalpo Losar (King's Losar).

 Additional Information

• Hindu New Year
• Celebrated under various names across India, such as Chaitra Sukladi, Ugadi (Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka), Gudi Padwa (Maharashtra), and Vaisakhi (Punjab).
• It usually marks the beginning of the Vikram Samvat or Shaka Samvat era in the month of Chaitra.
• Tamil New Year
• Known as Puthandu or Varusha Pirappu, it falls on the first day of the Tamil month Chithirai.
• It generally occurs on or around April 14 every year, following the solar cycle.
• Paris New Year
• Refers to the Gregorian New Year celebrated on January 1^st.
• It is a secular event marked by fireworks at the Eiffel Tower and gatherings at the Champs-Elysees.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying, Rajiv Ranjan Singh, officially launched the 5^th Marine Census during the Coastal State Fisheries Conference 2025 held in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• The census is a massive national-level exercise conducted to gather updated and granular data on the marine fisheries sector, which is vital for evidence-based policy formulation and the blue economy.
• The Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) has been designated as the nodal agency to execute this census, covering the entire 8,118 km coastline of India, including all maritime states and Union Territories.
• This initiative aims to enumerate fishing families, fishing craft, and gear, while also assessing the socio-economic status of the fishing community to ensure better targeted developmental schemes.
• The conference in Mumbai served as a platform for coastal states to discuss sustainable fishing practices, infrastructure development, and the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).

 Additional Information

• Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI):
• Established in 1947 under the Ministry of Agriculture and later joined the ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) in 1967.
• Headquartered in Kochi, Kerala, it is the leading organization for marine fisheries research in India.
• Marine Fisheries Census History:
• The previous 4^th Marine Fisheries Census was conducted in 2016, providing data on over 4 million fisherfolk.
• The 5^th edition leverages digital technology and mobile applications for real-time data collection and enhanced accuracy.
• Significance of the Fisheries Sector:
• India is the third-largest fish producer and the second-largest aquaculture producer in the world.
• The sector contributes significantly to the Gross Value Added (GVA) of the Indian economy and provides livelihoods to nearly 28 million people.

The correct answer is Ministry of Home Affairs.

Key Points

• The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner (ORGI) was established in 1961 by the Government of India to provide a permanent foundation for the census organization.
• It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), which oversees the security and internal policy of the country.
• The organization is headed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, who is typically an officer of the rank of Joint Secretary or above from the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).
• The primary responsibility of this office is to conduct the decennial Population Census, which is authorized under the Census Act, 1948.
• It is also responsible for the implementation of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, which manages the Civil Registration System (CRS) across India.
• The office plays a critical role in the maintenance of the National Population Register (NPR) under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Linguistic Survey of India.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• MoSPI is the nodal agency for the planned development of the statistical system in the country and manages the National Statistical Office (NSO).
• While it conducts major surveys like the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and computes the Consumer Price Index (CPI), it is not responsible for the population census.
• Constitutional and Historical Context:
• The Census is a Union Subject listed under Entry 69 of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The first census in India was conducted in 1872 under Lord Mayo, but the first synchronous (complete) census took place in 1881 under Lord Ripon.
• The Census Commissioner was a temporary post until the office was made permanent in 1961.

The correct answer is To cut off the supply of air, reduce the temperature of the fuel, or both.

Key Points

• Fire is a chemical reaction known as combustion, which requires three fundamental components typically represented as the Fire Triangle: Fuel (combustible material), Heat (to reach ignition temperature), and Oxygen (usually from air).
• The fundamental principle of a fire extinguisher is to disrupt this Fire Triangle by removing or neutralizing one or more of its legs.
• Extinguishers like Carbon Dioxide (CO2) work primarily by displacing oxygen. Since CO2 is heavier than air, it settles over the fire, creating a blanket that cuts off the air supply necessary for combustion.
• Water-based extinguishers function primarily by absorbing heat from the burning fuel, cooling it down below its flash point or ignition temperature to stop the reaction.
• Dry chemical extinguishers use agents like Monoammonium Phosphate to both smother the fire and interrupt the chemical chain reaction that sustains the flame.

 Additional Information

• Fire extinguishers are categorized based on the types of fires they are designed to combat:
• Class A: Used for ordinary solid combustibles such as wood, paper, and textiles.
• Class B: Designed for flammable liquids like petrol, oil, and paint.
• Class C: Suitable for fires involving flammable gases like methane or propane.
• Class D: Specialized for combustible metals like magnesium or potassium.
• Electrical Fires: Often handled by non-conductive agents like CO2 or Halon to prevent electrocution.
• The PASS technique is the standard operating procedure for using a portable fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the trigger, and Sweep the nozzle from side to side.

The correct answer is Moral suasion.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages the money supply and inflation in the Indian economy through its Monetary Policy, which utilizes two types of instruments: Quantitative and Qualitative.
• Quantitative tools (General tools) are intended to regulate the total volume of credit and liquidity available in the banking system without discriminating between the sectors that receive the credit.
• Qualitative tools (Selective tools) are used to regulate the direction and purpose of credit flow toward specific sectors of the economy, such as agriculture or priority sectors.
• Moral suasion is a Qualitative instrument where the RBI uses persuasion, informal suggestions, or psychological pressure on commercial banks to align their lending activities with the central bank’s economic objectives.
• Unlike Quantitative tools, Moral suasion does not involve mandatory legal requirements or immediate changes in interest rates but relies on the cooperation of the banking community.

 Additional Information

• Quantitative Tools of RBI:
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): It is the percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that commercial banks are legally required to maintain as cash reserves with the RBI.
• Bank Rate: This is the standard rate at which the RBI is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers, acting as a long-term interest rate signal for the economy.
• Open Market Operations (OMO): This involves the simultaneous buying and selling of Government Securities (G-Secs) by the RBI to either inject liquidity into or absorb excess liquidity from the market.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The minimum percentage of deposits that a bank must maintain in the form of liquid assets like gold or unencumbered government securities.
• Other Qualitative Tools:
• Margin Requirements: Adjusting the difference between the market value of a security and the loan amount granted against it.
• Rationing of Credit: Fixing a ceiling or maximum limit on credit for specific industries or sectors.

The correct answer is Brasilia.

Key Points

• The 11^th BRICS Parliamentary Forum is scheduled to be convened in Brasilia, Brazil, in June 2025.
• The hosting of this forum aligns with the rotating presidency of the BRICS group, where Brazil officially assumes the chairmanship for the year 2025, succeeding the Russian Federation.
• This forum serves as a primary platform for inter-parliamentary cooperation, enabling heads of legislative bodies from member states to discuss multilateralism, global security, and sustainable development.
• The 10^th BRICS Parliamentary Forum took place in St. Petersburg, Russia, in July 2024, where members emphasized the importance of legislative diplomacy in a multipolar world.
• As the host nation, Brazil is responsible for coordinating the agenda, which typically includes the 17^th BRICS Summit and various high-level ministerial meetings throughout the year.

 Additional Information

• BRICS Membership and Expansion:
• Founded in 2006 as BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, China) and joined by South Africa in 2010, the group represents a significant portion of global economic output.
• Effective January 1, 2024, the bloc expanded to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• The 2025 meetings in Brasilia will be among the first major gatherings to fully integrate the legislative representatives of these newly admitted nations.
• Strategic Objectives:
• The forum aims to strengthen the New Development Bank (NDB) and promote the use of local currencies in international trade to reduce dependence on the US Dollar.
• Legislative cooperation within BRICS often focuses on reforming international financial institutions like the IMF and World Bank to reflect the current global economic landscape.
• Host City Significance:
• Brasilia, the federal capital of Brazil, is the seat of the National Congress of Brazil, making it the strategic venue for high-level parliamentary negotiations.

The correct answer is Abhinav Bindra.

Key Points

• A Shot at History: My Obsessive Journey to Olympic Gold is the official autobiography of the renowned Indian shooter Abhinav Bindra, published in 2011.
• The book was co-authored by the acclaimed sports journalist Rohit Brijnath and provides a deep dive into the mental and physical rigors of elite competitive shooting.
• The narrative focuses on Bindra's journey to winning India's first-ever individual Olympic gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• It highlights his obsessive pursuit of perfection, detailing unique training methods such as commando training, brain mapping, and his struggle with a career-threatening back injury.
• The autobiography is considered a seminal work in Indian sports literature for its honest portrayal of the isolation and pressure faced by Olympic athletes.

 Additional Information

• Neeraj Chopra:
• He is an Indian Javelin Thrower who made history by winning the gold medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• He is the second Indian, after Abhinav Bindra, to win an individual Olympic gold and the first from independent India to win a medal in Athletics.
• Gagan Narang:
• An Indian shooter who specialized in the Air Rifle category.
• He won the Bronze medal in the Men's 10m Air Rifle event at the 2012 London Olympics and has won multiple gold medals in Commonwealth Games.
• Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore:
• A former professional shooter and retired Indian Army officer.
• He won the Silver medal in the Men's Double Trap event at the 2004 Athens Olympics, which was India's first individual silver medal since independence.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• India recorded its best-ever performance in Olympic history at the Tokyo 2020 Summer Olympics (held in 2021), where the contingent won a total of 7 medals.
• The medal distribution for the Tokyo 2020 Games included 1 Gold, 2 Silver, and 4 Bronze medals, placing India at the 48^th position in the global medal standings.
• Neeraj Chopra created history by winning the Gold medal in the Men’s Javelin Throw with a massive throw of 87.58 meters, becoming the first Indian to win a track and field gold.
• The previous record for the highest medal tally was 6 medals, which was set during the London 2012 Olympics.
• The 7 medalists from Tokyo 2020 include Neeraj Chopra (Gold), Mirabai Chanu (Silver), Ravi Kumar Dahiya (Silver), P.V. Sindhu (Bronze), Lovlina Borgohain (Bronze), Bajrang Punia (Bronze), and the Indian Men’s Hockey Team (Bronze).

 Additional Information

• London 2012 Olympics:
• India won 6 medals (2 Silver and 4 Bronze). Notable winners were Vijay Kumar and Sushil Kumar (Silver), and Saina Nehwal, Mary Kom, Gagan Narang, and Yogeshwar Dutt (Bronze).
• Paris 2024 Olympics:
• India concluded the Paris 2024 campaign with 6 medals (1 Silver and 5 Bronze). Manu Bhaker became the first athlete from independent India to win two medals in a single Olympic edition.
• Beijing 2008 Olympics:
• This edition saw India winning 3 medals, highlighted by Abhinav Bindra winning India’s first-ever individual Gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle event.
• 1932 Los Angeles Olympics:
• India won a Gold medal in Field Hockey. The team, led by Lal Shah Bokhari, defeated the USA with a record-breaking score of 24−1 in the final match.