General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 360.

Key Points

• Article 360 of the Constitution of India provides the framework for the proclamation of a Financial Emergency by the President if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.
• The proclamation must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within two months from its date of issuance by a simple majority.
• Once the Parliament approves the proclamation, it continues indefinitely until the President revokes it through a subsequent proclamation; unlike other emergencies, it does not require periodic legislative renewal.
• During the operation of a Financial Emergency, the Union Executive can issue directions to states to observe canons of financial propriety and may require all Money Bills to be reserved for the President’s consideration.
• The President is empowered to order the reduction of salaries and allowances for all classes of persons serving the Union or the States, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
• Historically, a Financial Emergency has never been declared in India, despite the country facing a severe Balance of Payments crisis in 1991.

 Additional Information

• Emergency Framework:
• The Emergency Provisions are detailed in Part XVIII of the Constitution, specifically spanning from Article 352 to 360, and are largely inspired by the Government of India Act, 1935.
• Constitutional Safeguards:
• The 44^th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced significant checks, ensuring that the President's satisfaction for declaring an emergency is subject to judicial review.
• Classification of Emergencies:
• Apart from the financial type, the Constitution identifies two other categories: National Emergency (declared under Article 352 for war or rebellion) and President’s Rule (declared under Article 356 for the failure of constitutional machinery in states).
• Impact on Fundamental Rights:
• While Articles 358 and 359 deal with the suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergencies, Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction) and Article 21 (protection of life and liberty) cannot be suspended even during a crisis.

The correct answer is 42^nd Amendment.

Key Points

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, often referred to as the Mini-Constitution, brought about the most extensive changes to the Indian Constitution during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• One of the significant changes was the transfer of five subjects from the State List (List II) to the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule.
• These five subjects were Education, Forests, Weights and Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice (excluding the Supreme Court and High Courts).
• By moving Education to the Concurrent List, the amendment enabled both the Parliament and the State Legislatures to enact laws on the subject, though central legislation takes precedence in case of a conflict under Article 254.
• This shift was intended to ensure a uniform national standard and policy for education across all states in India.

 Additional Information

• 44^th Amendment Act, 1978:
• Passed by the Janata Government to nullify several distortions introduced by the 42^nd Amendment.
• It is most notable for removing the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and making it a Legal Right under Article 300A.
• 52^nd Amendment Act, 1985:
• Commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law.
• It inserted the Tenth Schedule to prevent political defections by members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
• 86^th Amendment Act, 2002:
• Focused on the implementation of the Right to Education.
• It inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years a Fundamental Right.
• It also added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities.

The correct answer is 13^th Finance Commission.

Key Points

• The 13^th Finance Commission, which was chaired by Dr. Vijay Kelkar and covered the award period from 2010 to 2015, was the first to explicitly recommend a compensation package for states to facilitate the rollout of the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
• The commission proposed a GST Compensation Fund with an initial corpus of 50,000 crore rupees to provide a financial cushion for states that might experience revenue shortfalls during the transition to the new indirect tax regime.
• It introduced the concept of a Grand Bargain, emphasizing that the central government should provide fiscal incentives to states to encourage the adoption of a comprehensive and uniform GST model across the country.
• The commission argued that while GST would eventually increase the tax base and improve economic efficiency by creating a common national market, the immediate loss of state-level taxes like VAT and Entry Tax required a formal compensation mechanism.
• These recommendations laid the essential groundwork for the fiscal architecture that was later adopted under the 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, which eventually brought GST into effect on 1^st July 2017.

 Additional Information

• 12^th Finance Commission:
• Chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan (2005–2010), this commission primarily focused on fiscal consolidation and incentivizing states to implement the Value Added Tax (VAT) system.
• 14^th Finance Commission:
• Led by Y.V. Reddy (2015–2020), it is significant for increasing the vertical devolution of central taxes to states from 32 percent to 42 percent, providing greater fiscal autonomy to state governments.
• 15^th Finance Commission:
• Chaired by N.K. Singh (2021–2026), it addressed the post-GST fiscal landscape and maintained the devolution share at 41 percent, accounting for the new status of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
• Constitutional Mandate:
• The Finance Commission is a Constitutional Body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to recommend the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States.

The correct answer is Tea plantations.

Key Points

• Two Leaves and a Bud is a seminal novel written by Mulk Raj Anand, first published in 1937. It serves as a scathing critique of the British colonial administration and the capitalist exploitation inherent in the plantation economy.
• The narrative is set in the Macpherson Tea Estate located in Assam, India. The title of the novel is a direct reference to the method of plucking the top two leaves and a bud from the tea plant, which yields the highest quality tea.
• The story revolves around the protagonist, Gangu, a displaced Punjabi peasant who is lured to the tea gardens by the false promise of a better life and high wages, only to find himself trapped in a system of indentured labor and debt bondage.
• Anand vividly depicts the dehumanizing conditions faced by the workers, including poor sanitation, physical abuse, and the lack of basic legal rights, highlighting the stark contrast between the laborers' misery and the hedonistic lifestyle of the British managers like Reggie Hunt.
• The novel concludes tragically with the murder of Gangu by Reggie Hunt, followed by a trial that results in the acquittal of the British officer, thereby illustrating the systematic injustice and racial bias of the colonial legal system.

 Additional Information

• Mulk Raj Anand (1905–2004):
• He was a prominent Indian writer in English and a pioneer of the Indo-Anglian novel, alongside R.K. Narayan and Raja Rao.
• Anand was a founding member of the Progressive Writers' Association and was deeply influenced by Marxist ideology and social realism.
• His other notable works include Untouchable (1935), which explores the life of a sweeper named Bakha, and Coolie (1936), which depicts the struggles of a young hill boy named Munoo across various urban labor settings.
• He was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1971 and the Padma Bhushan in 1967 for his contributions to literature and education.

The correct answer is Human Development Report.

Key Points

• The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual publication released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure and analyze global progress in human welfare.
• It was first introduced in 1990 by the visionary Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen with the goal of shifting the focus of development economics from national income accounting to people-centered policies.
• The report is primarily known for the Human Development Index (HDI), a composite statistic that ranks countries based on three key dimensions: Long and healthy life (measured by life expectancy at birth), Knowledge (measured by mean and expected years of schooling), and A decent standard of living (measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita).
• Unlike traditional economic reports that focus solely on Gross Domestic Product (GDP), the HDR explores critical themes such as poverty, gender inequality, and sustainability to provide a holistic view of human capability.

 Additional Information

• Global Risks Report:
• This is an annual study published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) ahead of its annual meeting in Davos.
• It identifies and assesses the most significant threats the world faces, categorized into environmental, societal, geopolitical, and technological risks.
• World Economic Outlook (WEO):
• Published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), this report provides a detailed analysis of the global economy and forecasts future growth trends.
• It is released twice a year, typically in April and October, and serves as a vital resource for global policy coordination.
• Global Competitiveness Report:
• Another flagship publication of the World Economic Forum (WEF), it measures the Global Competitiveness Index (GCI).
• It evaluates factors like institutional quality, infrastructure, and market efficiency to determine the level of productivity of various nations.

The correct answer is World Economic Forum.

Key Points

• The Global Energy Transition Index (ETI) is a specialized framework designed to track and benchmark the progress of various nations toward a secure, sustainable, and affordable energy future.
• It is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), typically in collaboration with Accenture, providing a data-driven analysis for policymakers and business leaders.
• The index evaluates countries across two primary dimensions: Energy System Performance (current state of the energy system) and Transition Readiness (the robustness of the enabling environment for future transitions).
• The System Performance pillar focuses on three core imperatives: Environmental Sustainability, Energy Security and Access, and Economic Development and Growth.
• The Transition Readiness dimension measures factors such as Capital and Investment, Regulation and Political Commitment, Institutions and Governance, and Infrastructure.
• In recent editions, such as the Energy Transition Index 2024, advanced economies like Sweden, Denmark, and Finland have consistently ranked at the top of the list.

 Additional Information

• World Economic Forum (WEF)
• Established in January 1971 by Klaus Schwab, it is a non-profit foundation headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland.
• It is globally recognized for its annual meeting in Davos, where political and business elites gather to discuss pressing global issues.
• Other prominent reports released by the WEF include the Global Gender Gap Report, Global Risks Report, and the Global Competitiveness Report.
• International Energy Agency (IEA)
• An intergovernmental organization established in 1974 in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis, based in Paris, France.
• It publishes the flagship World Energy Outlook report, which provides comprehensive projections and analysis of global energy trends.
• World Bank
• Headquartered in Washington, D.C., it was founded in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference.
• It consists of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA), primarily publishing the World Development Report.
• OPEC
• The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries was founded in 1960 in Baghdad and is currently headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
• Its mission is to coordinate the petroleum policies of its member countries to ensure the stabilization of oil markets.

The correct answer is 90 min.

Key Points

• According to Law 7 of the Laws of the Game established by the International Football Association Board (IFAB) and recognized by FIFA, a standard professional football match consists of two equal periods of 45 minutes.
• The total official duration of the match, excluding any additional time added for injuries or substitutions, is 90 minutes.
• The referee is the sole timekeeper on the pitch and has the authority to signal the end of each 45-minute half, though they usually add allowance for time lost (stoppage time) at their discretion.
• Between the two halves, players are entitled to a half-time interval, which must not exceed 15 minutes as per standard regulations.

 Additional Information

• Extra Time
• In knockout competitions where a winner must be decided, if the match is a draw after 90 minutes, two extra periods of 15 minutes each are played, totaling 120 minutes.
• Stoppage Time
• This is the time added at the end of each half to compensate for substitutions, player injuries, disciplinary sanctions, or VAR reviews.
• Shortened Matches
• While 90 minutes is the standard for senior football, certain youth, senior (veteran), or disability football matches may be played over 80 minutes (two 40-minute halves) or shorter durations depending on competition rules.

The correct answer is Calcium and phosphorus compounds.

Key Points

• Bone is a specialized connective tissue characterized by a highly mineralized extracellular matrix, which provides the skeletal system with its necessary rigidity and hardness.
• The inorganic component of bone accounts for approximately 65% to 70% of its total dry weight, consisting almost entirely of Calcium and Phosphorus.
• These minerals are primarily organized into a crystalline lattice structure known as Hydroxyapatite, which has the chemical formula Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂.
• The process of mineralization occurs when these calcium phosphate salts are deposited within the collagen fiber framework of the bone, transforming a soft tissue matrix into a hard, durable structure.
• While the organic collagen fibers provide tensile strength (flexibility), the calcium-based crystals provide compressive strength, allowing bones to support body weight and resist physical impact.

 Additional Information

• Bone Matrix Components:
• Osteoblasts: These are the bone-forming cells responsible for secreting the organic osteoid matrix before it becomes mineralized.
• Calcium Carbonate: Along with Calcium Phosphate, small amounts of calcium carbonate are present, further contributing to the mineral density of the skeletal system.
• Regulatory Factors:
• Vitamin D: Essential for the homeostasis of bone health, as it facilitates the absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract.
• Magnesium: Although Magnesium is found in bones and aids in the biochemical reactions of osteoblasts, it is not the primary source of bone hardness compared to calcium and phosphorus.
• Non-Structural Minerals:
• Sodium and Potassium: These function mainly as electrolytes for nerve impulse transmission and fluid balance rather than providing structural hardness to the bone matrix.
• Iron: Found primarily in hemoglobin within the bone marrow for oxygen transport, not as a hardening agent for the bone tissue itself.

The correct answer is Goa 2023.

Key Points

• The 37^th edition of the National Games was hosted by Goa in 2023, representing one of the largest multi-sport events in the country with over 10,000 athletes participating.
• During this edition, the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) reported that more than 20 athletes (approximately 26-28 individuals) tested positive for banned substances, which is one of the highest numbers recorded at a single event in India.
• The testing program conducted by NADA was extensive, involving the collection of over 1,000 samples across various disciplines to ensure the integrity of the competition.
• Athletes from diverse sports such as weightlifting, athletics, cycling, wrestling, and wushu were found to have Adverse Analytical Findings (AAFs) in their samples.
• The substances detected included various anabolic steroids such as Drostanolone and Stanozolol, as well as Selective Androgen Receptor Modulators (SARMs), which are strictly prohibited under the WADA list.

 Additional Information

• National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA):
• Established as a registered society in 2005, it is the primary body responsible for anti-doping rules and education in Indian sports.
• It operates under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and follows the guidelines set by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
• Gujarat 2022:
• This was the 36^th National Games, held after a seven-year hiatus, covering six cities in Gujarat including Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar.
• Uttarakhand 2025:
• The 38^th National Games are scheduled to be hosted by Uttarakhand in early 2025, continuing the tradition of the biennial sports festival.
• Kerala 2015:
• The 35^th edition was held in Kerala, which was significant for being spread across seven districts to utilize existing regional infrastructure.

The correct answer is Mobilize savings for planned development.

Key Points

• The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) was established on September 1, 1956, after the Parliament passed the Life Insurance Corporation Act earlier that year.
• The primary motive behind nationalization was to mobilize small savings from the public and channel them into long-term investments required for the Second Five-Year Plan and subsequent planned economic development of the country.
• Nationalization aimed to spread life insurance more widely, particularly in rural areas, ensuring that the benefits of financial security reached the socially and economically backward classes.
• The government sought to protect policyholders from the mismanagement, frequent failures, and unethical practices of the private insurance companies that dominated the market prior to 1956.
• By consolidating the industry, the state gained control over substantial investible funds, which were utilized for nation-building activities, infrastructure projects, and the development of the public sector.

 Additional Information

• Historical Background of LIC:
• The Government of India issued an ordinance on January 19, 1956, taking over the management of insurance businesses before full nationalization.
• LIC was formed by the amalgamation and nationalization of 245 Indian and foreign insurers and provident societies.
• The Finance Minister at the time of nationalization was C.D. Deshmukh, who envisioned the corporation as a tool for social welfare and capital formation.
• The official motto of LIC is Yogakshemam Vahamyaham, which is derived from the Bhagavad Gita and translates to 'Your welfare is my responsibility'.
• Currently, LIC is one of the largest institutional investors in India, significantly contributing to the equity and debt markets.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Statement I: The Bhagavad Gita is a cornerstone of Shankardeva’s teachings, particularly the concept of Eka Sarana, which emphasizes total surrender to Lord Krishna as the supreme deity. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Statement II: The Bhagavata Purana serves as the primary theological and philosophical source for his Neo-Vaishnavite movement; he translated its core sections into Assamese to make them accessible to the masses. Hence, statement II is correct.
• The religious system established by Shankardeva is known as Eka Sarana Nama Dharma, which focuses on the worship of one God through the chanting of His name (Nama).

 Additional Information

• Srimanta Shankardeva (1449–1568):
• A great 15^th-century polymath and saint-reformer from Assam who propagated Vaishnavism.
• He introduced the Sattriya dance, which is now recognized as one of the eight classical dances of India.
• He founded the Satras (monasteries) and Namghars (community prayer halls) that continue to be centers of cultural and religious life in Assam.
• His literary works include the Kirtan Ghosha, a collection of poetical verses meant for community singing, and the Borgeets, which are classical devotional songs.
• He advocated for an egalitarian society, rejecting caste-based discrimination and complex sacrificial rituals in favor of simple Bhakti (devotion).

The correct answer is SHRESHTA Scheme.

Key Points

• The SHRESHTA (Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas) was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to provide high-quality education to meritorious Scheduled Caste (SC) students.
• The primary objective is to enhance the reach of development interventions and to bridge the educational gap for SC students by providing them entry into high-quality private residential schools.
• Admissions are targeted for Class 9 and Class 11, focusing on students whose parental annual income does not exceed 2.5 lakh rupees.
• Selection is performed through a transparent mechanism called the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS), which is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
• The scheme is implemented in two modes: one involving direct admission to CBSE-affiliated private schools and another involving support to NGO-run residential schools and hostels for primary and secondary education.
• It covers the complete expenditure for the student, including school fees and hostel charges, ensuring that socio-economic background does not hinder the academic growth of bright students.

 Additional Information

• UDAN Scheme:
• Known as Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik, it is a regional airport development and Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• It aims to make air travel affordable and widespread, stimulating inclusive economic growth and infrastructure development in underserved regions of India.
• PM-KUSUM:
• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
• It focuses on solarizing agriculture by providing subsidies for solar pumps and establishing grid-connected solar power plants on barren lands.
• FAME India Scheme:
• Standing for Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles, it is part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
• It promotes the manufacturing of electric and hybrid vehicle technology and provides incentives to consumers to reduce the dependency on fossil fuels and lower vehicular emissions.

The correct answer is sitting down beside.

Key Points

• The word Upanishad is derived from the Sanskrit language, composed of the roots Upa (near), Ni (down), and Sad (to sit).
• Literally, the term means sitting down beside or near a teacher to receive instructions on the most profound spiritual truths and philosophical concepts.
• The name reflects the Guru-Shishya (teacher-disciple) tradition of ancient India, where students sat at the feet of a master to learn esoteric knowledge that was not intended for the general public.
• These texts represent the Jnana Kanda (knowledge section) of the Vedas, focusing on the nature of existence rather than ritualistic ceremonies.

 Additional Information

• Core Philosophy of Upanishads:
• They are frequently referred to as Vedanta, meaning the end of the Vedas, signifying the highest goal of Vedic knowledge.
• The central theme involves the relationship between Atman (the individual soul) and Brahman (the universal reality).
• Major concepts like Samsara (cycle of birth and death), Karma (actions), and Moksha (liberation) find their primary development in these texts.
• Important Upanishads:
• There are 108 Upanishads recognized in the Muktika canon, though 10 to 13 are considered Mukhya (principal) Upanishads.
• The Brihadaranyaka Upanishad is one of the oldest and contains the famous prayer Asato ma sadgamaya.
• The Mundaka Upanishad is the source of the Indian national motto, Satyameva Jayate.
• The Chandogya Upanishad is noted for the phrase Tat Tvam Asi (That Thou Art).

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Majuli Festival is an annual cultural celebration held in Majuli, the largest river island in the world, situated in the Brahmaputra River in the state of Assam.
• The festival typically takes place in the month of November, aiming to showcase the rich cultural heritage and traditional diversity of the indigenous communities living on the island.
• It provides a significant platform for the promotion of Sattriya, which is one of the eight major Indian Classical Dances, originated by the 15^th-century saint and reformer Srimanta Sankardev.
• During the event, various ethnic groups like the Mishing, Deori, and Sonowal Kacharis exhibit their traditional music, dance forms, and unique culinary delicacies.
• The festival also highlights the Neo-Vaishnavite culture through exhibitions of local handlooms, bamboo crafts, and pottery, reflecting the socio-religious history of the Sattras (monasteries).

 Additional Information

• Goa
• Famous for the Goa Carnival, a vibrant celebration characterized by parades, floats, and music reflecting Indo-Portuguese culture.
• Celebrates Shigmo, a spring festival involving traditional folk dances like Ghode Modni and Fugdi.
• Kerala
• Renowned for Onam, a harvest festival featuring the Vallam Kali (snake boat race) and Pookalam (floral carpets).
• Celebrates Vishu, the astronomical New Year, and Thrissur Pooram, famous for its grand display of caparisoned elephants.
• Karnataka
• Home to the Mysuru Dasara, a state festival celebrating the victory of Goddess Chamundeshwari.
• Known for Kambala, an annual buffalo race held in the coastal regions of the state.

The correct answer is 110.

Key Points

• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) celebrated its 110^th Foundation Day in 2025. Although the organization was officially established on July 1, 1916, the commemorative events and national celebrations often commence on the eve, June 30.
• The organization was born out of the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum in Kolkata, with the primary objective of promoting survey, exploration, and research to advance the knowledge of the exceptionally rich faunal diversity of the Indian subcontinent.
• With its inception in 1916, the ZSI completed its Centenary (100 years) in 2016. By calculating the timeline to 2025, the organization marks 109 years of completion, leading into the celebration of its 110^th anniversary.
• The ZSI operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India, and serves as the premier taxonomic research institution in the country.

 Additional Information

• Institutional Structure and Leadership:
• The headquarters of the Zoological Survey of India is located at Prani Vigyan Bhawan in Kolkata, West Bengal.
• It currently operates through 16 Regional Centres strategically located across different bio-geographic zones of India to facilitate localized faunal studies.
• Dr. Dhriti Banerjee made history by becoming the first woman Director of the ZSI in its century-long existence, appointed in 2021.
• Core Functions and Publications:
• The ZSI is responsible for preparing the Red Data Book on Indian Animals, which categorizes species based on their conservation status (Endangered, Vulnerable, etc.) similar to the IUCN standards.
• It hosts the Animal Taxonomy Summit, a significant platform for scientists to discuss biodiversity conservation and new species discoveries.
• Major publications include the Records of the Zoological Survey of India, Memoirs of the ZSI, and the Fauna of India series.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Rapid combustion is a process in which a substance burns rapidly and produces a large amount of heat and light in a very short duration. This occurs when an external source like a spark or a flame is provided, such as the burning of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) in a kitchen stove or a matchstick catching fire. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Spontaneous combustion refers to a type of combustion that occurs without the application of any external heat or spark. The substance catches fire on its own when its ignition temperature is reached through internal heating or atmospheric conditions. Notable examples include the spontaneous burning of white phosphorus at room temperature and devastating fires in coal mines caused by coal dust. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• Other classifications of combustion processes include:
• Explosion: This is a sudden combustion reaction that results in the evolution of heat, light, and a large volume of gas accompanied by sound. It is commonly observed during the ignition of firecrackers.
• Complete Combustion: Occurs in the presence of sufficient oxygen, producing carbon dioxide and water. It is characterized by a non-luminous blue flame.
• Incomplete Combustion: Takes place when the oxygen supply is limited, leading to the formation of carbon monoxide, carbon soot, and water. It is typically identified by a yellow luminous flame.
• Ignition Temperature: The minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its ignition temperature; a substance cannot catch fire as long as its temperature is lower than this value.

The correct answer is Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi.

Key Points

• The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was established in September 1928 during a historic meeting held at the Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi.
• The organization was a transformation of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), which had been founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Sachindra Nath Sanyal and Ram Prasad Bismil.
• The leadership of the HSRA included prominent revolutionaries such as Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar, and Bhagwati Charan Vohra.
• The inclusion of the word 'Socialist' in the name was a result of the influence of Marxist ideologies, aiming for a revolution that would end all forms of exploitation.
• The primary goal of the HSRA was to establish a Federal Republic of the United States of India through an armed revolution against the British Raj.

 Additional Information

• Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay:
• This venue hosted the first session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in December 1885.
• The session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee and organized by A.O. Hume.
• Alfred Park in Allahabad:
• This location is where Chandrashekhar Azad fought his final battle against the British police on February 27, 1931.
• Azad shot himself with his last remaining bullet to uphold his vow of never being captured alive.
• Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar:
• Site of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919, where General Dyer ordered troops to fire on a peaceful crowd.
• This event was a major catalyst for the Non-Cooperation Movement and led Rabindranath Tagore to renounce his knighthood.

The correct answer is 2.0.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare released the findings of the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), which was conducted in two phases between 2019 and 2021, showing that India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has declined to 2.0.
• This figure represents a significant drop from the 2.2 recorded during the previous NFHS-4 survey conducted in 2015-16, indicating a successful transition in population stabilization efforts.
• The current TFR of 2.0 places India slightly below the replacement level fertility, which is globally accepted as 2.1 children per woman.
• The survey highlights a disparity between geographical settings, where the Urban fertility rate stands at 1.6, while the Rural fertility rate is slightly higher at 2.1.
• Key factors contributing to this decline include increased contraceptive prevalence rates (CPR), improved female literacy, and better access to family planning services across various states.

 Additional Information

• Total Fertility Rate (TFR):
• It represents the average number of children a woman would have during her reproductive years, typically defined as the ages between 15 and 49 years.
• A TFR of 2.1 is known as the replacement level, the point at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next without migration.
• Despite the national average of 2.0, five states still have a TFR above the replacement level: Bihar (2.98), Meghalaya (2.91), Uttar Pradesh (2.35), Jharkhand (2.26), and Manipur (2.17).
• NFHS-5 Scope:
• The survey provides critical data on maternal and child health, nutrition, anemia, and family planning indicators.
• It is used by the Government of India to formulate policies for the National Health Mission (NHM) and other social welfare schemes.
• The decline in fertility is closely linked to the rise in the use of modern contraceptives, which increased from 47.8% in NFHS-4 to 56.5% in NFHS-5.

The correct answer is Subsidies.

Key Points

• Revenue Expenditure consists of all those expenditures of the government which do not result in the creation of physical or financial assets. It relates to those expenses that do not reduce the liabilities of the government and are typically recurring in nature.
• Subsidies are a primary component of revenue expenditure in the Indian Budget. They are transfer payments made by the government to producers or consumers (such as Food Subsidies, Fertilizer Subsidies, and Petroleum Subsidies) to ensure the affordability of essential goods. These payments are consumed within the fiscal year and provide no direct asset return.
• The Union Budget classifies expenditures into revenue and capital. Revenue expenditure is essential for the day-to-day running of government machinery and the delivery of social welfare services. In recent years, subsidies have accounted for roughly 7% to 9% of the total revenue expenditure of the Government of India.
• In contrast, expenditures on Combat Aircraft, Naval Ships, and Expressway construction are classified as Capital Expenditure because they involve the acquisition of long-term assets or infrastructure that enhance the nation's productive or defensive capacity over many years.

 Additional Information

• Capital Expenditure (CapEx):
• Defense Acquisition: The procurement of high-value hardware like fighter jets and warships is recorded under the Capital Outlay on Defense Services.
• Infrastructure Development: The construction of Expressways and National Highways creates tangible public assets, stimulating long-term economic growth.
• Asset Creation: Any expenditure that leads to the creation of machinery, equipment, or buildings is categorized here.
• Other Revenue Expenditure Components:
• Interest Payments: This is usually the largest single item of revenue expenditure, representing the cost of servicing the Public Debt.
• Salaries and Pensions: Payments made to government employees and retired personnel are mandatory revenue outlays.
• Grants-in-aid: Grants provided to State Governments and Union Territories are technically revenue expenditures, even if they are utilized for creating capital assets at the state level.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is a strategic diplomatic partnership consisting of four nations: India, the United States, Australia, and Japan.
• During the 2024 QUAD Leaders' Summit held in Wilmington, Delaware, it was officially announced that India would host the next summit in 2025.
• Initially, India was slated to host the summit in 2024; however, following a mutual agreement and a request from the U.S. President, the hosting sequence was swapped, resulting in the USA hosting in 2024 and India taking the lead for 2025.
• The 2025 Summit in India will focus on advancing the Indo-Pacific agenda, including maritime security, critical technologies, climate action, and health security.
• This hosting duty underscores India's growing role in the Indo-Pacific region and its commitment to a rules-based international order.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of QUAD:
• The concept was first proposed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007 but gained significant momentum when it was revived in 2017.
• The first-ever In-Person Leaders' Summit took place in September 2021 at the White House, Washington D.C.
• Previous Summit Locations:
• Japan: Hosted the summit in Tokyo in 2022 and coordinated a meeting on the sidelines of the G7 Summit in Hiroshima in 2023.
• Australia: Originally scheduled to host the 2023 summit in Sydney, though the venue was shifted to Japan due to domestic political scheduling in the USA.
• USA: Hosted the 2024 summit in the hometown of President Joe Biden, emphasizing personal diplomacy.
• Core Initiatives:
• The group promotes the IPMDA (Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness) to track dark shipping and illegal fishing.
• Other pillars include the Quad Vaccine Partnership and the Quad Fellowship for STEM students.