SSC GD Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 15th February 2019 Shift 1)

Kidney, Liver and Lungs are the internal organs of the body.

Whereas,

Nose is not an internal organ.

Hence, “nose” is the odd one out.

The pattern followed is,

Each term in the series is divisible by 7 except 37

21 ÷ 7 = 3

63 ÷ 7 = 9

49 ÷ 7 = 7

37 ÷ 7 = Not divisible

Hence, “37” is the odd number.

Sum of positional value of letters of each option is 30 except PQH.

PQH = P + Q + H = 16 + 17 + 8 =41

HJL = H + J + L = 8 + 10 + 12 =30

GJM = G + J + M = 7 + 10 + 13 = 30

ELM = E + L + M = 5 + 12 13 = 30

Hence, PQH is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

Hence, “JFVHGRLM” is the correct answer.

Concept:

• Meaning of "Some A are B" in Syllogism - there is at least one point in A which is in B.
• Meaning of "All A are B" in Syllogism - each point of A is in B.
• This explains why "some" can be considered as a subset of "all".
• Therefore, if "All A are B" is true, then "some A are B" is always true.

The least possible Venn diagram is,

Conclusion I: All mustards are olives → True (This is definitely true)

Conclusion II: Some olives are mustards → True (This is definitely true)

Hence, “both conclusions follow".

Interchanging the signs and using BODMAS rule,

Option 1 → + and ÷

The original equation is,

25 + 5 × 7 – 12 ÷ 3 = 26

Interchanging the signs,

25 ÷ 5 × 7 – 12 + 3 = 26

Using BODMAS rule,

5 × 7 – 12 + 3 = 26

35 – 12 + 3 = 26

38 – 12 = 26

26 = 26

Option 2 → + and ×

The original equation is,

25 + 5 × 7 – 12 ÷ 3 = 26

Interchanging the signs,

25 × 5 + 7 – 12 ÷ 3 = 26

Using BODMAS rule,

25 × 5 + 7 – 4 = 26

125 + 7 – 4 = 26

132 – 4 is not equal to 26

Option 3 → – and ÷

The original equation is,

25 + 5 × 7 – 12 ÷ 3 = 26

Interchanging the signs,

25 + 5 × 7 ÷ 12 – 3 = 26

Using BODMAS rule,

25 + 5 × 7/ 12 – 3 = 26

25 + 35/ 12 – 3 is not equal to 26

Option 4 → + and –

The original equation is,

25 + 5 × 7 – 12 ÷ 3 = 26

Interchanging the signs,

25 – 5 × 7 + 12 ÷ 3 = 26

Using BODMAS rule,

25 – 5 × 7 + 4 = 26

25 – 35 + 4 = 26

29 – 35 is not equal to 26

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The figure is embedded in,

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Arranging them according to the given information,

A is opposite D and third to the right of B.

E is between C and D.

G is between A and F.

H is to the right of A.

‘D’ is sitting third to the right of H.

Hence, “D” is the correct answer.

Given persons : O, P, Q, R, S, T and U

1. P is sitting at one extreme end.

2.  P is sitting second to the right of T.

3. Q is sitting to the immediate left of S.

4. U is not sitting at any extreme end.

5. O is sitting exactly between R and T.

Hence, P at the extreme right end.

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “101” is the correct answer.

Consider the left half of the given question figure.

• Here (5 + 7) - 1 = 12 - 1 = 11

​Similarly, consider the right half of the given question figure.

• Let the missing number be x.
• Then, we have (3 + x) - 1 = 13
• ⇒ 3 + x = 13 + 1 = 14.
• ⇒ x = 14 - 3 = 11.
• Therefore, the missing number in the right part is 11.

Hence, 11 is the correct answer.

Famous and Renowned are synonyms.

Similarly,

The synonym of fierce is Violent.

‘Violent’ is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “violent” is the correct answer.

Arranging them according to the given information,

J teaches Science on Wednesday.

O teaches Math second day after J.

K teaches on the first day of the week, but teaches neither Hindi nor English.

 

M teaches English before N and L teaches Arts before J.

K does not teach Hindi, so N teaches Hindi.

The only subject left is Social Science which is taught by K.

 

Math is taught between Thursday and Saturday.

Hence, “Math” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

The figure is moving anti clockwise by one position (the figure is rotating in anti-clockwise direction by 45° in each step).

The figure which will come next in the pattern is,

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “HMH” is the correct answer.

The figure which will complete the given pattern is,

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

For UP,

The place value of U is 21

The place value of P is 16

UP = 21 × 16 = 336

Similarly,

For ATE,

The place value of A is 1

The place value of T is 20

The place value of E is 5

ATE = 1 × 20 × 5 = 100

Hence, “100” is the correct answer.

The pattern which will appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line is,

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is,

Conclusion I: Some rubies are garnets → False (This is definitely false)

Conclusion II: No ruby is a garnet → False (This is definitely false)

Conclusion I and Conclusion II form a complimentary pair.

Hence, “Either conclusion I or conclusion II” follows.

A word with nearly same meaning is called a synonym and a word with opposite meaning is an antonym.

So,

Synonyms and Antonyms are words.

The correct Venn diagram is,

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

The mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at right side is,

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

For 45: 405,

405 is divisible by 45

405 ÷ 45 = 9

Similarly,

For 49: ?

Out of the given numbers, only 637 is divisible by 49

637 ÷ 49 = 13

‘637’ is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

Hence, “637” is the correct answer.

Artificial and Natural are antonyms.

Similarly,

Question is the antonym for answer.

‘Question’ is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Hence, “question” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Similarly,

Hence, “TV” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed is,

Hence, “- 20” is the correct answer.

The Correct Answer is Average Income.

Key Points

• The other name of Per Capita Income is Average Income.
• The average income received per person in a given area (city, region, world, etc in a given year is determined by per capita income (PCI) or average income. It is determined by dividing the total income of the area by its total population.
• National income divided by total population is per capita income.
• Per capita income is also used to calculate the total income of a sector and to compare different communities wealth.
• It is usually expressed in terms of the frequently used foreign currency, such as the euro or the US dollar, and is useful because it is widely accepted, easily calculated on the basis of readily available figures for the gross domestic product (GDP) and population, and provides useful statistics for comparing wealth between sovereign territories.
• This helps to determine the development status of a nation.
• It is one of the three measurements for measuring a country's Human Development Index.

The Correct Answer is Permanent Settlement.

• The East India Company, led by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793, brought into effect the Permanent Settlement of Bengal.
• This was essentially an arrangement to adjust the land income between the company and the Zamindars.
• This was first enacted in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha, and later followed in the presidency of northern Madras and in the district of Varanasi.
• Cornwallis thought this scheme was influenced by England's prevalent land revenue system, where the landlords were the permanent masters of their properties, receiving rent from the peasants and taking care of their interests.
• He imagined the development in India of a hereditary class of landlords. The Zamindari System was also called this system.

Important Points

• Jagirdari system, a type of land tenancy established during the period of Muslim rule in India (beginning in the early 13th century) in which an official of the state was given the collection of the revenues of an estate and the power to administer it.
• One of the three major land tenure revenue systems in British India, the Mahalwari system, is the zamindar (landlord) and the ryotwari (individual cultivator).
• One of the three primary methods of income collection in British India is the Ryotwari scheme. In most of southern India, it was prevalent, the regular structure of the Madras Presidency being (a British-controlled area now constituting much of present-day Tamil Nadu and portions of neighbouring states).

The Correct Answer is SEA VIGIL.

Key Points

• The recent largest ever coastal defence exercise is conducted by the Indian Navy is named as SEA VIGIL.
• The Indian Navy began the largest coastal defence exercise off the Indian coast today, ten years after "26/11" The first of its kind, exercise SEA VIGIL.
• It encompasses the entire 7516.6 km of coastline and the Exclusive Economic Zone of India and covers all 13 coastal states and territories of the Union, along with all maritime stakeholders, including fishing and coastal communities.
• Exercise SEA VIGIL seeks to validate the success of the steps taken since '26/11' comprehensively and holistically.
• Seaward surveillance during the exercise will include the Indian Navy, the Indian Coast Guard, aided by the State Marine Police patrolling offshore, in Offshore Construction Areas and off our islands.
• The purpose of the exercise is to enable the Coastal Protection Mechanism at the same time across all States and Union Territories.

The Correct Answer is Ujjain.

• In Hinduism, Kumbh Mela is a major pilgrimage and festival. It is celebrated at four river-bank pilgrimage sites in a period of approximately 12 years: the Prayagraj (confluence of the Ganges-Yamuna Sarasvati rivers), Haridwar (Ganges), Nashik (Godavari), and Ujjain (Shipra).
• The festival is characterised by a ceremonial dip in the waters, but it is also a celebration of community exchange with various fairs, schooling, saintly religious discourses, monks or poor people's mass feedings, and entertainment displays.
• As part of his efforts to launch major Hindu gatherings for philosophical discussions and debates along with Hindu monasteries in the Indian subcontinent, the festival is historically attributed to the Hindu philosopher and Saint Adi Shankara of the 8th century.
• There is, however, no historical literary evidence before the 19th century of these mass pilgrimages called "Kumbha Mela".
• It has been inscribed on the UNESCO Official List of Humanity's Intangible Cultural Heritage.

The Correct Answer is Produnova.

• In 2016 Rio Olympics, Indian gymnast Dipa Karmakar attempted the most dangerous vault known as Produnova.
• Dipa Karmakar created history by qualifying for the Vaults Final at the Rio Olympics 2016.
• She became the first female gymnast in India to qualify for an event.
• She was already the first Indian female gymnast to win an Olympic berth and the first Indian gymnast to qualify in 52 years for the Olympics.
• She rose to prominence at the 2014 Commonwealth Games where she won bronze, making her the first Indian female gymnast in the history of the games to do so.
• In her first rotation scoring 14,860, Dipa performed her signature vault event and secured eighth place to qualify her for the final.
• In uneven bars, she scored 11.666 and 12.866 in beam balance and 12.033 in floor exercises, both scores worthy of a champion.

Important Points

• Known to be an extremely dangerous vault, only five gymnasts in the world have attempted Pradunova in competition.
• It consists of a front handspring and two front somersaults, usually called 'The Death Vault'. Named after the first person to complete the vault in 1999, Yelena Produnova, this vault is one of the hardest vaults to carry out.

The Correct Answer is Alauddin Khilji.

• Alauddin Khilji is related to “market regulatory measures” in medieval India.
• He has adopted price regulation steps for a wide range of products on the market.
• Alauddin's courtier, Amir Khusrau, and the writer of the 14th century, Hamid Qalandar, say that these reforms were made by Alauddin for public welfare.
• Barani claims, however, that Alauddin decided to reduce the prices in order to make his soldiers low wages appropriate, and therefore to retain a large army.
• Alauddin appointed market supervisors and spies to ensure that the goods were sold at controlled rates, and received independent reports from them.
• His administration barred farmers and traders from storing grains to prevent a black market and built government-run granaries where the government's share of the grain was stored.
• In order to enable rapid grain transport to Delhi, the government also forced transport workers to resettle at distinct distances along the Yamuna River in villages.

The Correct Answer is Thermo Plastics.

• The plastics which get deformed easily on heating are known as Thermo Plastics.
• A thermoplastic is a material that becomes softer when heated and hard when cooled, typically a plastic polymer.
• It is possible to cool and heat thermoplastic materials many times without any alteration in their chemical or mechanical properties.
• Thermoplastics melt into a liquid when they are heated to their melting point.
• The Main types of thermoplastics are PET (polyethene terephthalate), HDPE (high-density polyethene), PS (polystyrene or styrofoam), PP (polypropylene), PVC (polyvinyl chloride) and LDPE (low-density polyethene).

Important Points

• Thermosetting plastics or thermoset plastic are synthetic materials that strengthen during heating, but after their initial heat-forming, called thermoset content, can not be successfully remoulded or reheated.
• Thermodynamics is the physical science that studies the effects on a material of temperature fluctuations and heat transfer, especially as the bodies change their state from solid to liquid and back again as plastics do during plastic processing and as heat is transferred to the mould cooling system from the injection-moulded plastic component.

The Correct Answer is Panj Tirath.

• Panj Tirath is a Hindu religious site in Peshawar, Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan, situated in Hashtnagri.
• It is a more than 1000-yr-old Hindu religious site. From the five pools of water present there, Panj Tirath derived its name.
• It was proclaimed as Pakistan's national heritage. There were five temples and five wells there before Pakistan was established, where members of the Hindu community would wash before prayers.
• The site has also been known as the location of Buddha's Alam Bowl by the English archaeologist Sir Alexander Cunningham and the French archaeologist Alfred Foucher.
• Under the KP Antiquities Act 2016, a notification was issued by the KP Directorate of Archaeology and Museums declaring the land as a heritage site in Panj Tirath Park.

Important Points

• The Shri Katas Raj Temple is a complex located in the Punjab province of Pakistan's Potohar Plateau area.
• Shri Varun Dev Mandir is a Hindu temple which located on Manora Island in Karachi, Sindh, Pakistan.
• Hinglaj Mata is a Hindu temple located on the Makran coast in the Lasbela district of Balochistan.

The Correct Answer is Indus.

Key Points

• A number of Himalayan tributaries are given to the Indus, such as the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting, and the Dras.
• It eventually emerges from the hills near Attock, where on its right bank it receives the Kabul River.
• The Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa and the Sangar are the other significant tributaries which join the right bank of the Indus.
• Many of them come from the Sulaiman Ranges. The river flows southward and receives 'Panjnad' a little above Mithankot.
• The name given to the five Punjab rivers, namely the Satluj, the Ravi, the Beas, the Chenab and the Jhelum, is the Panjnad.
• It discharges into the Arabian Sea, east of Karachi.

Important Points

• The Indus System is one of the world's largest river basins, covering an area of 11,65,000 sq. Km (321, 289 sq. km in India and an overall length of 2,880 km) (in India 1,114 km).
• The Indus also referred to as the Sindhu, It originates in the Tibetan area at an altitude of 4,164 m in the Kailash Mountain range from a glacier near Bokhar Chu.
• It is known in Tibet as 'Singi Khamban', or the mouth of the Lion. It passes through Ladakh and Baltistan after flowing in the northwest direction between the Ladakh and Zaskar ranges.

The Correct Answer is Its popular dance is called "Gotipua".

• Gotipua is a popular dance style from Odisha and the predecessor to the classical dance of Odissi.
• For centuries, it was done in Orissa by young boys dressed as women to honour Jagannath and Krishna.
• A group of children performing acrobatic figures inspired by the lives of Radha and Krishna perform the dance.

Key Points

• Ganesh Chaturthi is known in Maharashtra as Ganeshotsav. During the festival, families install small clay statues for worship.
• Tamasha is a traditional form of Marathi theatre, often with singing and dancing, widely performed throughout the state of Maharashtra by local or travelling theatre groups.
• Paithani is a variety of sari, named after Maharashtra state's Paithan town in Aurangabad, where the saree was first made by hand. Today, the town of Yeola in Nashik, Maharashtra, is the largest producer of Paithani.

The Correct Answer is It has the continental type of climate with extreme temperatures.

• The Prairies have situated in the centre of the continent. Thus with high temperatures, the atmosphere is continental in nature.
• With temperatures of around 20^oC, the summers are mild, and with temperatures of around -20^oC, the winters are very cold.
• In Winnipeg, Canada, you can get this temperature. In winter, this area is covered by a dense blanket of snow.
• In this area, it rains modestly and is ideal for grass growth. A nearby 'Chinook' wind blows here due to the absence of the north-south barrier.

Important Points

• The temperate grasslands of North America are the Prairies. The word 'Prairie' comes from the word 'priata' in Latin, meaning meadow.
• They have the following characteristics:
• It is a flat, gently sloping or hilly land area.
• For the most part, the prairies are treeless, but woodlands can be found on the low lying plains, flanking river valleys.
• Up to two metres high, tall trees dominate the landscape.
• Parts of the United States of America and parts of Canada occupy the prairies. In the West, the Rocky Mountains tie them together.
• In the east, the Great Lakes surround them. The plains in the USA are drained by the Mississippi tributaries. The Saskatchewan Rivers tributaries, on the other hand, drain Canada's prairies.

The Correct Answer is Sasaram.

• The tomb of Sher Shah Suri is in Sasaram, Bihar State.
• The tomb was built in memory of Emperor Sher Shah Suri, a Pathan of Bihar who defeated the Mughal Empire and founded the Suri Empire in northern India,
• On 13 May 1545 AD, he died in an accidental gunpowder explosion at the Fort of Kalinjar.
• This tomb is an example of Indo-Islamic architecture, designed by the architect Mir Muhammad Aliwal Khan and constructed between 1540 and 1545, this red mausoleum of sandstone is known as the second Taj Mahal of India, standing in the middle of an artificial lake, which is almost square.
• On the octagonal plan, the main tomb is constructed, topped by a dome, spanning 22 meters and is surrounded by ornamental domed kiosks that were once covered in colourful glazed tile work.
• The tomb was built during the life of Sher Shah and during the reign of his son, Islam Shah.
• Three months after the death of Sher Shah, an inscription dates its completion to 16 August 1545.

                            Tomb of Sher Shah Suri 

Important Points

• Sher Shah Suri referred to as Sher Khan was the founder of the Suri Empire in India, with its capital in modern-day Bihar in Sasaram.
• He introduced the Rupee currency.
• In 1537, when Babur's son Humayun was on an expedition elsewhere, He established a new economic and military administration during his seven-year rule from 1538 to 1545, issued the first Rupiya of 'Tanka' and organized the Indian Subcontinent's postal system.

The Correct Answer is The employers are bound to provide leave travel concession to its workers.

Important Points

• The organised sector is a sector in which the terms and conditions of employment are routine and in compliance with the government's rules and regulations.
• The terms and conditions of employment follow the main principles of different acts passed by the legislature, such as the Minimum Wages Act, the Gratuity Payment Act, etc.
• As mentioned below, four major features of the organised sector are:
• Employees enjoy job protection.
• They are paid overtime in the event that they perform more.
• Employees earn paid leave, provident funds, medical funds, etc.
• Staff are provided with basic health and sanitation services, such as free medical tests, clean drinking water, etc.

The Correct Answer is Garbhagriha.

Key Points

• In the context of temple architecture, the most important part of the temple is Garbhagriha.
• Garbhagriha is the sanctum sanctorum, the Hindu and Jain temples innermost sanctuary where the murti (idol or icon) of the temple's primary deity resides.
• The garbhagriha took the shape of a miniature vimana in the Dravida style with other features exclusive to the architecture of the southern Indian temple, such as the inner wall along with the outer wall, forming a pradakshina around the garbhagriha.
• In the Dravidian architecture of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka, and Telangana states of Southern India, a gopuram is a monumental entrance tower, typically ornate, at the entrance of a Hindu temple.
• Pradakshina refers to the circumambulation of holy places in the sense of Sikh, Hindu, Jain, or Buddhism, and the direction along which this is carried out to imbue their energy.

The Correct Answer is Tuberculosis, Pneumonia, Influenza.

Key Points

• Tuberculosis (TB) is typically an infectious disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB). Generally, tuberculosis affects the lungs but can affect other areas of the body as well.
• Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung disease that mostly affects the tiny air sacs known as alveoli. Infection with viruses or bacteria, and less often with other microorganisms, is typically the cause of pneumonia.
• Influenza is an infectious disease caused by an influenza virus, generally known as the 'flu'.

Additional Information

• Cholera is an acute infection with diarrhoea caused by ingestion of food or water infected with Vibrio cholerae bacteria.
• Typhoid fever is an infection which spreads through food and water that is contaminated.
• Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV), a chronic, often life-threatening disease.

The Correct Answer is Saina Nehwal.

• Saina Nehwal is the winner of the Women’s Singles Indonesian Masters Badminton tournament 2019.
• .In addition to reaching finals in Denmark, Indonesia Masters and Syed Modi International, Saina won a gold medal at the 2018 Commonwealth Games, a bronze in the Asian Games.

Key Points

• Arundhati Pantawane is an Indian female singles badminton player. At the women's team event at the 2010 Asian Games, she represented India. Among other distinctions, she captured the 2011 National Games gold medal and was runner-up at the 75th National Senior Badminton Championships.
• Gadde Ruthvika Shivani, who is currently playing singles, is an Indian badminton player.
• Pusarla Venkata Sindhu is a professional Indian badminton player from India. She climbed to a career-high ranking of no. 2 in April 2017 after making her international debut in 2009.

The correct answer is Original Jurisdiction.

• The dispute between two states can be resolved by the Supreme Court of India under its Original Jurisdiction.
• A court's original jurisdiction applies to a matter on which it first concerns the specific court.
• In the case of the Supreme Court in India, Article 131 relates to its original jurisdiction.
• The following cases are involved:
• Any conflict between one or more states and the Indian government.
• Any conflict between, on one hand, the Indian Government and one or more States and on the other, one or more States.
• Any controversy between two or more states.
• The original authority of the SC in matters relating to the protection of fundamental rights is laid down in Article 32 of the Constitution.
• In the nature of mandamus, habeas corpus, quo warranto, prohibition and certiorari, the SC will issue writs, instructions, or orders including writs.
• The SC also has the power to direct, from the High Court in one State to the High Court in another State, the transfer of a criminal or civil case.
• Cases from one subordinate court to another State High Court can also be moved

Important Points

• Appellate Jurisdiction: Under this only when they are appealed against a High Court order will the Supreme Court hear cases.
• Advisory Jurisdiction: Accordingly, the President can request the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter of law or of fact.
• The High Court's supervisory jurisdiction imposes a duty on the High Court to keep the lower courts and tribunals within the scope of their power and to ensure that they do what their duty demands and that they do so lawfully.

The Correct Answer is Boiling point elevation, freezing point depression.

Key Points

• Boiling point elevation, freezing point depression happens when common salt is added to water.
• It is necessary to increase the temperature by about half a degree Celsius for every 58 grammes of dissolved salt per kilogramme of water.
• Sodium chloride dissociates into sodium and chloride ions when salt added to the water.
• The intermolecular forces between water molecules are changed by these charged particles.
• There is an ion-dipole interaction to be considered, in addition to affecting the hydrogen bonding between water molecules.
• The ion-dipole interaction between the water molecules is stronger than the hydrogen bonding, so more energy is required to move water away from the ions and into the vapour phase.

The Correct Answer is Foreign companies.

Key Points

• Special Economic Zones are being set up by the Government in order to attract foreign companies.
• A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is an area in a country that is subject to economic regulations that are different from those in other regions of the same country.
• The economic regulations of the SEZ aim to promote and attract foreign direct investment (FDI).
• FDI refers to any investment in business interests located in another country made by a firm or person in one country.
• There are usually additional economic benefits for them when a country or person conducts business in an SEZ, including tax incentives and the ability to pay lower tariffs.
• SEZs are typically established in some geographic regions to promote rapid economic development.
• This economic growth is done by the leverage of tax incentives as a means of attracting foreign dollars and developing technology.

The Correct Answer is concave.

Key Points

• Concave lenses are used to cure Myopia.
• The term used to explain being short-sighted is myopia.
• When looking at objects close to them a myopic individual has perfect vision, but distant objects can appear blurred.
• This is because, in front of the retina, light is concentrated, and being so far ahead in the eye, objects appear distorted in the distance.
• Using a concave (curved inward) lens that is positioned in front of a myopic eye, transferring the vision back to the retina and making it clearer, shortsightedness is corrected.

 

 

Important Points

• The term used to describe being longsighted is hypermetropia.
• If you are hypermetropic, the image of a surrounding object is generated behind the retina. This indicates that light is focused too far back into the eye causing the appearance of blurred objects nearby.
• Using a convex (outward facing) lens, longsightedness is corrected. This is situated in front of a hypermetropic eye, pushing the picture forward and correctly focusing it on the retina.
• Astigmatism: This defect arises due to the difference in the radius of the curvature of the cornea in the different planes.
  

The cylindrical lens is used by people suffering from Astigmatism.

• Presbyopia arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens. It can be cured by using the bi-focal lens of the required power.

The Correct Answer is President of South Africa.

• Cyril Ramaphosa, the President of South Africa, was the chief guest of the 2019 Republic Day Parade.
• President Ramaphosa visited India as head of state for the first time. After Nelson Mandela, he is South Africa's second president to be the chief guest at the Republic Day celebrations.
• Ramaphosa, who succeeded Jacob Zuma in 2018 at the top position in the southern African country, was invited to the ceremony as a chief guest after the invitation was declined by US President Donald Trump because of 'scheduling problem.'
• Barack Obama was India's Chief Guest for Republic Day in 2015.
• On the sidelines of the G20 summit in Buenas Aires in December, PM Narendra Modi personally extended an invitation to Ramaphosa.
• Since this year(2019) marked Gandhi's 150th birthday, Cyril Ramaphosa, a follower of Mahatma Gandhi and Nelson Mandela, was invited.

​

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is socially and economically backward classes.

Important Points

• The B.P. Mandal commission was set up to study the reasons of backwardness of the socially and economically backward classes.
• The Mandal Commission or Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC) was set up in India on 1 January 1979 by the government of the Janata Party under Prime Minister Morarji Desai with a mandate to "identify the socially or educationally backward classes".
• It was led by B.P. Mandal, in order to consider the problem of reservations for individuals to remedy caste discrimination, Mandal and Indian parliamentarians used eleven social, economic and educational metrics to assess backwardness.
• In 1980, on the basis of its reasoning that OBCs ('Other Backward Classes') defined on the basis of caste, economic and social indicators accounted for 52% of India's population, the Commission's report recommended that reservations be given to members of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) for 27% of jobs in central government and public sector enterprises, making the total number of reservations available to members of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
• A provisional stay order was subsequently issued by the Supreme Court but enforced by the central government in 1992 for employment in public sector undertakings in the central government.

The Correct Answer is Government of Indian Act 1919.

• An act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom was the Government of India Act 1919.
• It was passed in order to increase Indian involvement in India's government. In the report of the Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford, the Act embodied the amendments suggested.
• Ten years were protected by the Act, from 1919 to 1929. This Act marked the end of benevolent despotism (the act of self-improving authorities) and started the genesis of India's responsible government.
• It was scheduled to be reviewed in 10 years by the Simon Commission.
• The Act provided the major provinces with a dual system of government (a "diarchy").
• In each of these provinces, a government of ministers accountable to the Provincial Council was granted power over certain areas of government, the "transferred list" Agriculture, local government oversight, health and education were part of the 'transferred list'.
• It expanded and revamped the Imperial Legislative Council. It became a bicameral parliament for all of India.
• In the lower house, there were 145 members of the Legislative Assembly, of which 104 were elected and 41 were nominated, with a term of three years. The Council of Parliament, consisting of 34 elected and 26 nominated representatives, with a term of five years, was the upper house.

Important Points

• An act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom was the Government of India Act 1935.
• The Act led to: 
• Establishment of RBI.
• FPSC, PPSC, JPSC.
• Federal Court in 1937.
• Bicameralism in 6 provinces (Bihar, Bombay, Madras, Bengal, Assam and United Provinces) out of 11 provinces.
• The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as Morley-Minto Reforms, a series of reform initiatives passed by the British Parliament in 1909, the main component of which applied the elective concept directly to membership in India's imperial and local legislative councils.
• The Indian Independence Act of 1947 is an Act of the UK Parliament separating British India into the two new independent dominions of India and Pakistan.

The Correct Answer is sublimation.

• Naphthalene ball disappears after some days due to the process of sublimation.
• Naphthalene balls vanish at room temperature due to the sublimation process (a process by with solid directly changes to gas without going through the intermediate state of matter, the liquid is called as Sublimation).
• When it passes through sublimation, the balls of naphthalene are converted from solid to gas.

Important Points

• Sublimation is the transition, without going through the liquid state, of a material directly from the solid to the gas state.
• When a liquid transforms into steam, evaporation occurs. When rain puddles "disappear" on a hot day or when wet clothes dry in the sun, it can be easily visualised.
• Melting is a physical mechanism resulting in a substance  transformation from a solid phase to a liquid.phase.

The Correct Answer is National Parks.

Key Points

• National Park is a protected area reserved for the protection of only animals, where no human intervention is allowed in any form of timber harvesting, the collection of minor forest products and private property rights; whereas a wildlife sanctuary is a protected area reserved for the conservation of only animals and human activities such as timber harvesting, the collection of minor forestry.
• eg. Recently Dehing Patkai wildlife sanctuary is upgraded to a National Park so that more restriction comes and the coal mining activities gets stop.While a limited number of human activities are allowed in wildlife sanctuaries, national parks are strictly off-limits.
• The Protected Areas (PAs) in India, consisting of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and conservation and community reserves, cover about 4.89% of the geographical area of the country as of July 2016.
• There are currently a maximum number of national parks on the Madhya Pradesh(Ten) and Andaman and Nicobar Islands (nine ), followed by Kerala, Maharashtra and Uttarakhand and West Bengal (six each).
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries (96), followed by Maharashtra (41) and Tamil Nadu (29). Areas of great geological, floral, faunal or natural importance are national parks and sanctuaries.
• Under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 & its amendments, the Indian Forest Act of 1927, the Forest (Protection) Act of 1980, the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, they are notified by the State Governments and protected by the Forest Departments.
• In protected areas, hunting of wild animals, habitat invasion and/or degradation, construction of tourist lodges and other such practises are prohibited.

A wildlife sanctuary can be upgraded to a National Park but a National Park can not be downgraded to Wildlife Sanctuary.

Concept:

If (x/a) = (y/b) = (z/c), then x : y : z = a : b : c

Calculation:

$\frac{X}{3} = \frac{Y}{5} = \frac{Z}{9} = K$

⇒ X = 3K, Y = 5K, Z = 9K

∴ Here, x : y : z = 3 : 5 : 9

Alternate MethodX/Y = 3/5, Y/Z = 5/9 

⇒ X : Y = 3 : 5

⇒ Y : Z = 5 : 9 

If Y same, then Y = 5

Ratio is 3 : 5 : 9

Given:

Height of a right circular cylinder = 12 cm

Radius of its base = 21 cm

Formula used:

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh (where r is the radius of base and h is the height of the cylinder)

Calculation:

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2 × (22/7) × 21 × 12

⇒ 1584 cm²

Given:

Principal amount, P = 14000

Number of years, N = 3

Rate of interest, R = 10%

Formula used:

Total amount, A = P × (1 + (R/100))^N

C.I = Total amount – Principal amount

Calculation:

Total amount, A = 14000 × (1 + (10/100))³

⇒ A = 18634

∴ C.I = 18634 – 14000 = 4634

Calculation:

Yield per square meter of Y1 = 520/130 = 4

Yield per square meter of Y5 = 850/170 = 5

∴ Required Percentage = ((5 – 4)/4) × 100 = 25%

Given:

Let 'a' be the side of square, l be the length and b be the breadth of the rectangle

The area of a square and a rectangle are equal ⇒ a² = l × b

The length of the rectangle is greater than the side of square by 9 cm and its breadth is less than the side of square by 6 cm

⇒ l = a + 9

⇒ b = a – 6

Formula used:

Area of Square = side²

Area of Rectangle = length × breadth

Perimeter of Rectangle = 2 × (length + breadth)

Calculation:

According to the question,

Area of Square = Area of Rectangle

⇒ a² = l × b

⇒ a² = (a + 9) × (a – 6)

⇒ a² = a² – 6a + 9a – 54

⇒ 3a = 54

⇒ a = 18

⇒ l = 18 + 9 = 27 and b = 18 – 6 = 12

Perimeter of the Rectangle = 2 × (length + breadth)

Perimeter of the Rectangle = 2 × (27 + 12) = 78 cm

∴ The correct answer is 78 cm.

Formula used:

The total percent marks = ((Total marks obtained)/(Total marks of 5 subjects)) × 100

Calculation:

Total marks obtained by P4 = 91 + 37 + 65 + 58 + 62 = 313

Total marks of 5 subjects = 5 × 100 = 500

∴ The total percent marks = (313/500) × 100 = 62.6%

Shortcut Trick

Since Simple Interest is constant every year, the difference between SI for 6 years and 2 years is equivalent to the SI for (6 − 2) = 4 years.

Total Interest % for 4 years = 15% × 4 = 60%

Required Difference = 60% of ₹10000

⇒ 0.60 × 10000 = ₹6000

∴ The correct answer is ₹6000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹10000

Rate (R) = 15% per annum

Time 1 (T₁) = 6 years | Time 2 (T₂) = 2 years

Formula Used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI for 6 years = (10000 × 15 × 6) ÷ 100

⇒ SI₁ = 100 × 90 = ₹9000

⇒ SI for 2 years = (10000 × 15 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ SI₂ = 100 × 30 = ₹3000

⇒ Difference = SI₁ − SI₂

⇒ Difference = 9000 − 3000 = ₹6000

∴ The correct answer is ₹6000.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Nature

Simple Interest remains the same every year because it is always calculated on the original Principal amount.

Total Amount Formula

The total Amount (A) at the end of the period is the sum of the Principal and Interest: A = P + SI.

Effective Rate Method

Difference in SI can be found using the difference in time periods: Difference = P × R × (T₁ − T₂) ÷ 100.

Given:

Ratio of two numbers is 14 : 25

Difference between them is 264

Calculation:

Let the numbers be 14x and 25x

⇒ 25x – 14x = 264

⇒ 11x = 264

∴ x = 24

⇒ Smaller number = 14x = 14 × 24 = 336

∴ The smaller of the two numbers is 336.

Given:

S is 160% of T

Calculation:

S = (160/100) × T = (8/5)× T

∴ T = (5/8) × S

⇒ (5/8) × 100 = 62.5%

Given:

Ratio of marked price and cost price = 3 : 2

Ratio of marked price and selling price = 5 : 4

Calculation:

Let Marked price be denoted as M, Selling price as S and cost price as C

⇒ M : C = 3 : 2

M : S = 5 : 4

⇒ M : S : C = 15 : 12 : 10

∴ S : C = 12 : 10

If S.P = 12 unit and C.P = 10 unit, Profit = 2 unit

∴ Profit percentage = (2/10) × 100 = 20%

Formula used:

Mean = (Sum of terms)/(Number of terms)

Calculation:

Mean = (2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9)/8 = 44/8 = 5.5

Given:

Average marks of 15 students of class first = 160

Average marks of 10 students of class second = 120

Average marks of 15 students of class third = 180

Formula used:

Total marks = Average marks × Number of students

Calculation:

Total marks of 15 students of class first = 160 × 15 = 2400

Total marks of 10 students of class second = 120 × 10 =1200

Total marks of 15 students of class third = 180 × 15 = 2700

Total marks of students of all the classes together = 2400 + 1200 + 2700 = 6300

Total students = 15 + 10 + 15 = 40

The average marks of students of all the classes together = 6300/40 = 157.5

Shortcut Trick

Time taken by both pipes to fill the whole tank = (12 × 36) ÷ (12 + 36)

Time taken for whole tank = 432 ÷ 48 = 9 hours

To fill one-third of the tank, the time required is simply 1/3 of the total time.

Required time = 9 × (1/3) = 3 hours

∴ The correct answer is 3 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Pipe X to fill the tank = 12 hours

Time taken by Pipe Y to fill the tank = 36 hours

Calculations:

⇒ Total capacity of the tank (Total Work) = 36 units

⇒ Combined efficiency of Pipe X and Pipe Y = 3 + 1 = 4 units/hour

⇒ We need to find the time to fill one-third part of the tank.

⇒ Required work = 36 × (1/3) = 12 units

⇒ Time required = Required work ÷ Combined efficiency

⇒ Time required = 12 ÷ 4 = 3 hours

∴ The correct answer is 3 hours.

Additional Information

Two Pipes Filling a Tank

If pipe A fills a tank in x hours and pipe B fills it in y hours, total time taken together = (x × y) ÷ (x + y) hours.

One Filling and One Emptying Pipe

If pipe A fills in x hours and pipe B empties in y hours (where y > x), time taken to fill = (x × y) ÷ (y − x) hours.

Part of Tank Filled

To fill a specific fraction of the tank, simply multiply the total time taken to fill the entire tank by that fraction.

Given:

The product of two numbers = 720

Least Common Multiple = 360

Concept:

Product of two numbers always will be the product of their Least Common Multiple and Highest common Factor

Formula used:

Product of 2 numbers = LCM × HCF

Calculation:

720 = 360 × HCF

∴ HCF = 720/360 = 2

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Explanation:

(14 ÷ 49 - 3 ÷ (7/2) of 5)

= 14 ÷ 49 - 3 ÷ (35/2)

= (2/7) - (6/35)

= (10 - 6)/35

= 4/35

Formula used:

Per year average production of rice = Total production of rice/Number of years

Calculation:

Per year Average Production = (520000 + 570000 + 680000 + 720000 + 850000)/5 = 668000

Given:

Train is moving with a uniform speed.

Train crosses a bridge of length 243 meters in 30 seconds and a bridge of length 343 meters in 36 

Seconds

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Let the length of the train be x meter

⇒ (x + 243)/30 = (x + 343)/36

⇒ 36x + 8748 = 30x + 10290

⇒ x = 257

∴ Speed =  (x + 243)/30 = (257 + 243)/30 = 16.66 meter per seconds

16.66 × (18/5) = 59.97 km/hr

⇒ From options, speed of the train = 60 km/hr

Given:

A car covers a certain distance at a speed of 54 km/hr in 7 hours

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Distance covered in 7 hours = 54 × 7 = 378 km

Speed of car to cover the same distance in 6 hours = 378/6 = 63 km/hr

(∵ Speed = Distance covered/Time taken)

Given:

The average of 16, 17, 18, ..... up to fifteen terms

n = 15, a = 16, d = 1

Formula used:

For an A.P of n numbers with common difference d and first term a

Sum of n numbers = (n/2) × (2a + (n – 1 ) × d)

Average = Sum/number of terms

Calculation:

Here, a = 16, d = 1 and n = 15

According to the question, 

Sum of n numbers = (n/2) × (2a + (n – 1 ) × d)

⇒ Sum = (15/2) × ((2 × 16) + (15 – 1) × 1))

⇒ 345

Average = 345/15

⇒ 23

∴ The average of 16, 17, 18, ..... up to fifteen terms will be 23.

Follow the BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

24 – [48 ÷ {48 × (48 ÷ (24 × 24))}]

= 24 – [48 ÷ {48 × (48 ÷ 576)}]

= 24 – [48 ÷ {48 × (1/12)}]

= 24 – [48 ÷ 4]

= 24 – 12

= 12

Given:

A, B and C invest ₹14000, ₹18000 and ₹24000 respectively

The profit at the end of the year = ₹25480

Calculation:

A : B : C = 14000 : 18000 : 24000 = 7 : 9 : 12

Total share of A and B = ((7 + 9)/28) × 25480 = 14560

Given:

A person buys 25 kg of rice for ₹600

Sells them at a loss equal to the selling price of 5 kg

Concept:

The loss will be the same as the Selling price of 5 kg rice

Formula used:

Loss percentage = (Loss/ Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Cost Price of 25 kg of rice = 600

⇒ Cost Price of 1 kg of rice = 600/25 = 24

Given, Cost Price of 25 kg of rice – Selling Price of 25 kg of rice = Selling Price of 5 kg of rice

∴ Cost Price of 25 kg of rice = Selling Price of 30 kg of rice

⇒ Selling Price of 30 kg of rice = 600

⇒ Selling Price of 1 kg of rice = 600/30 = 20

∴ Loss Percentage = ((24 – 20)/24) × 100 = 16.66%

Shortcut TrickLoss = Cost price(CP) - Selling price(SP)

According to the question,

Loss = Selling price of 5 kg of rice

⇒ CP of 25 kg of rice – SP of 25 kg of rice = SP of 5 kg of rice

⇒ 25 CP = 30 SP

⇒ CP/SP = 30/25

Loss% = (CP - SP)×100/CP

⇒  (30 - 25)× 100/30

⇒ 16.66%

Given:

A person purchases36 articles for ₹360

Formula used:

Profit = S.P – C.P

Profit% = (Profit/C.P) × 100

Calculation:

C.P of 36 articles = 360

C.P of 1 article = 360/36 = 10

When he sold articles for 360 he got 50% profit

S.P of 1 article = 10 × (150/100) = 15

Number of articles sold = 360/15 = 24

∴ The number of article is 24

Given:

40 persons can repair a bridge in 12 days

Concept:

Work = Total manpower × Total days

M1D1/W1 = M2D2/W2

Calculation:

M₁ = 40, D₁ = 12, M₂ = 48, D₂ = y (Let)

Using the formula

M1D1/W1 = M2D2/W2

⇒ 40 × 12 = 48 × y

⇒ y = (40 × 12/48) = 10

∴ 48 persons can repair a bridge in 10 days.

Given:

The curved surface area of a cone = 550 cm²

The area of its base =154 cm²

Formula used:

Curved surface area of cone = πrl

Area of base = πr²

Volume of cone = (1/3) × πr²h (where r is the radius of the circle)

Calculation:

Area of base = πr2

⇒ πr² = 154

⇒ r = 7 cm

Curved surface area of a cone = 550 cm2

⇒ πrl =  550

⇒ l = 550/πr = 550/[(22/7) × 7] 

⇒ l = 25 cm

Now,

⇒ h = √(l)² - (r)² 

⇒ h = √ (25)² - (7)²

⇒ h = √ 576

⇒ h = 24 cm

Volume of cone = (1/3) × πr²h

⇒ V = (1/3) × (22/7) × (7²) × 24 = 1232 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 1232 cm³ .

The correct answer is- To avoid someone.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
• To keep someone at arm’s length- to avoid being very close to or friendly with someone or something. (किसी या किसी चीज़ के बहुत करीब या मैत्रीपूर्ण होने से बचने के लिए)
• Example: 
• They no longer trust her and are keeping her at arm's length.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  

• According to Samuel Johnson's “Dictionary of the English Language”, the phrase originated from boxing “in which the weaker man may overcome the stronger if he can keep him from closing.”

The correct answer is - negotiate.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given options: 
• navigate- to lead a company, activity, etc. in a particular direction, or to deal effectively with a difficult situation
• neglect- to fail to give needed care or attention to someone or something
• negate- to cause something to have no effect
• negotiate- to have formal discussions with someone in order to reach an agreement with them
• According to the context of the given sentence, 'negotiate' is an apt choice as one has to bargain to get a good deal.
  

Correct Sentence: You must negotiate hard to get the best deal.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the words related to the given word:
• Synonyms- arrange, bargain, concert, conclude
• Antonyms-  louse up, mangle, mess (up), mishandle, muff

The correct answer is- is already going on.

Key Points

• The verb is chosen according to the main subject i.e. the work, in the given sentence. Hence the auxiliary verb 'is' will be used here.
• The adverb 'already' is placed correctly in the underlined part.
• Since the work has not been completed yet, the present participle of the verb i.e. going on will be used here.
• The desired structure is followed in the 2nd option and hence it will be the correct choice.
  

Correct Sentence: The work on two projects is already going on which will connect Leh-Ladakh by a railway line and air.

Confusion Points

• The 4th option contains a phrasal verb 'go up' which means to be built or erected. It makes no sense in the given sentence.

The correct answer is- Cannibal.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
• Cannibal- a person who eats human flesh, especially for magical or religious purposes. (एक व्यक्ति जो मानव मांस खाता है, विशेष रूप से जादुई या धार्मिक उद्देश्यों के लिए)
• Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
• omnivorous- (of an animal or person) feeding on a variety of food of both plant and animal origin. ((किसी जानवर या व्यक्ति का) पौधे और पशु मूल दोनों के विभिन्न प्रकार के भोजन पर भोजन करना)
• vegan- a person who does not eat any food derived from animals and who typically does not use other animal products. (एक व्यक्ति जो जानवरों से प्राप्त कोई भी भोजन नहीं खाता है और जो आमतौर पर अन्य पशु उत्पादों का उपयोग नहीं करता है।)
• carnivorous- (of an animal) feeding on other animals. ((किसी जानवर का) दूसरे जानवरों को खाना।)
• Hence from the given meanings, we find that Cannibal is the one-word substitute for one who feeds on human flesh.

The correct answer is- Appealing.

Key Points

• Among all the given options, appealing is correctly spelt.
• Let's look at the meaning marked option:
• Appealing- interesting and attractive.
• Example:
• The package describing European tours certainly made them seem appealing.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the words related to the given word:
• Synonyms- alluring, attractive, bewitching, captivating, charismatic.
• Antonyms- obnoxious, odious, offensive, shocking, sickening.

The correct answer is- Auditor.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
• Auditor- someone whose job is to carry out an official examination of the accounts of a business and to produce a report. ( वह व्यक्ति जिसका काम किसी व्यवसाय के खातों की आधिकारिक जांच करना और एक रिपोर्ट तैयार करना है)
• Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
• Controller- a person who controls something, or someone who is responsible for what a particular organization does. (वह व्यक्ति जो किसी चीज़ को नियंत्रित करता है, या कोई ऐसा व्यक्ति जो किसी विशेष संगठन द्वारा किए जाने वाले कार्यों के लिए ज़िम्मेदार होता है)
• Supervisor- a person whose job is to supervise someone or something. (वह व्यक्ति जिसका काम किसी चीज की निगरानी करना है)
• Officer- a person who has a position of authority in an organization. (वह व्यक्ति जिसके पास किसी संगठन में अधिकार का पद हो)
• Hence from the given meanings, we find that Auditor is the one-word substitute for one who makes an official examination of accounts.

The correct answer is - abandon.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given word and the marked option:
• forsake- to leave a place, thing, or person, usually forever. (किसी स्थान, वस्तु या व्यक्ति को आमतौर पर हमेशा के लिए छोड़ देना)
• abandon- to leave a person or thing permanently; to give up or discontinue an activity.
• Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
• accept- to agree to take something. (कुछ लेने के लिए सहमत )
• adopt- to legally take another person's child into your own family and take care of him or her as your own child. (कानूनी तौर पर किसी अन्य व्यक्ति के बच्चे को अपने परिवार में ले जाना और उसकी देखभाल अपने बच्चे के रूप में करना)
• adapt- to change, or to change something, to suit different conditions or uses. (विभिन्न परिस्थितियों या उपयोगों के अनुरूप बदलने के लिए, या कुछ बदलने के लिए)
• Hence, from the given meanings, we find that abandon is the synonym for forsake.

The correct answer is - rather to go.

Key Points

• The adverb 'else' is followed by 'but' whereas 'rather/other/otherwise', are followed by 'than'.

• ​The adverb 'rather' is followed by a bare infinitive as illustrated in the example given below.

• For example:

• ​The teacher would rather to slap him but beat.

• ​​​​The teacher would rather slap him than beat.

• As per the rule given above, 'rather go' will be used instead of 'rather to go' in the given sentence.
  

Correct Sentence: I would rather go home than go to a restaurant for dinner.

Additional Information

• In case of 'rather', the verb used after 'than' will always be the 1st form of the verb.

The correct answer is - resist.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given options: 
• respond- to say something in return
• resist- to exert oneself so as to counteract or defeat
• restrain- to prevent from doing, exhibiting, or expressing something
• restore- to put or bring back into existence or use
• According to the context of the given sentence, 'resist' is an apt choice as the subject had an urge to visit the mountains.
  

Correct Sentence: The adventurer in him cannot resist the call of the mountains.

Confusion Points

• The 3rd option 'restrain' could have been correct if the latter part of the sentence didn't have the noun 'call'.
• One can restrain/resist oneself and resist the call by anyone/anything.

The correct answer is - by me.

Key Points

• Certain verbs are followed by certain prepositions irrespective of the voice form.
• Some of them are given below:
• vexed at, surprise/astonished/amazed at, known to, tired of, engulfed in, etc.
• Example:
• ​This problem has vexed researchers for years. (Active)
• The researchers have been vexed at this problem for years. (Passive)
• Hence, from the given rule and example, we find that 'to' will replace 'by' in the given sentence.
  

Correct Sentence: It is a fact that you are known to me.

Additional Information  ​​​​

• The verb 'surprise' is followed by 'at' when the action is contrary to the expectations.
• In all other cases, 'surprised by' will be used.
• Example:
• I was surprised at his weird behavior.
• He was surprised by the arrangements.
• Both of the given sentences are correct because of the different contexts.

The correct answer is - preferred.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given word and the marked option:
• favoured- preferred or recommended. (पसंदीदा या अनुशंसित)
• preferred- like (one thing or person) better than another or others; tend to choose. (से (एक चीज या व्यक्ति) दूसरे या दूसरों से बेहतर; चुनने की प्रवृत्ति रखते हैं)
• Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
• rejected- 

dismiss as inadequate, unacceptable, or faulty. (अपर्याप्त, अस्वीकार्य या दोषपूर्ण के रूप में खारिज करना)

• neglected- to pay no attention or too little attention to. ( ध्यान न देना या बहुत कम ध्यान देना)
• trusted- 

regarded as reliable or truthful. (विश्वसनीय या सच्चा माना जाता है)

• Hence, from the given meanings, we find that preferred is the synonym for favoured.

Confusion Points

• The word 'trusted' is close but not exact, hence 'preferred' the correct choice here.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. might become .

Key Points

• The given sentence conveys a hypothetical situation where children avoid food due to the fear of becoming overweight.
• The correct modal verb to express possibility or likelihood in such a situation is "might".
• Using "might become" correctly indicates the possibility without certainty.

Correct sentence: Even children shrink away from food thinking that they might become overweight.

Additional Information

• Modal verbs:
• Might: Used to express possibility (e.g., She might come to the party).
• Should: Indicates recommendation or advice (e.g., You should eat healthy).
• Will: Expresses certainty or future action (e.g., It will rain tomorrow).
• Hypothetical situations: Often use modal verbs like might, could, or would for clarity.

The correct answer is Too.

Key Points​​

• ​Let's look at the proverb given below:
• too many cooks spoil the broth- if too many people are involved in a task or activity, it will not be done well.
• Example:
• I sincerely hope that you have taken care that too many cooks will not spoil the broth in this event.
• ​Idioms and proverbs/sayings are always used in their original form i.e. without any change. Hence 'too' will be the correct choice here.

 ​​​​

Additional Information​

• ​​Let's look at the difference between the following adjectives:
• few- hardly any. (used in a negative sense)
• a few- some but not many.
• the few- not many but all that is available.
• so - very, extremely, or to such a degree
• The words "so" and "too" are both adverbs that indicate a degree or extent, but they are used differently in sentences.
• Use of "So"
• "So" is used to indicate a degree or extent of a particular quality, often followed by an adjective or adverb, and it usually precedes a result or consequence introduced by "that."
• Example : "The movie was so interesting that we decided to watch it again."
• In this example, "so" is used to describe the extent of the movie being interesting, leading to the result of deciding to watch it again.
• Use of "Too"
• "Too" is used to indicate that there is more of a particular quality than is desired, needed, or suitable. It conveys the idea of excess and is often followed by an adjective or adverb.
• Example : "The soup is too hot to eat right now."
• In this example, "too" is used to describe the soup as having an excess amount of heat, implying that it is not suitable for eating immediately.

The correct answer is- Mischievous.

Key Points

• Among all the given options, mischievous is correctly spelt.
• Let's look at the meaning marked option:
• Mischievous- tending to or exhibiting reckless playfulness (लापरवाह चंचलता को प्रदर्शित करना या प्रदर्शित करना।)
• Example:
• The children had been so mischievous that we had to pay the babysitter extra and then clean up the mess.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the words related to the given word:
• Synonyms- frolicsome, kittenish, playful, sportful, sportive.
• Antonyms- grave, grim, sedate, sober, solemn.

The correct answer is- will need.

Key Points

• ​A gerund is the present participle form of the verb, e.g., singing, dancing, etc.

• An infinitive is the to + the base form of the verb, e.g., to sing, to dance, etc.

• There are certain verbs that are used in a particular pattern given below:

• Subject + verb + noun/pronoun + infinitive.

• Some of the verbs are given below:

• ask, tell, advise, encourage, urge, wish, intend, need, invite, help, allow, hate, permit, etc.

• For example:

• ​I urge you helping me solve this problem.

• ​I urge you to help me solve this problem.

• According to the rule and the example given above, 'will need' will be used in the underlined part of the sentence.
  

Correct Sentence: You will need to complete all the pending work before it becomes unmanageable.

​

Additional Information

• There are certain verbs that are used in a particular pattern given below:
• Subject + verb + noun/pronoun + present participle.
• Some of the verbs are given below:
• hate, stop, finish, enjoy, prefer, keep, rest, worth, propose, regret, etc.
• Example: 
• ​She hates going out at night.

The correct answer is- usual.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given word and marked option:
• Peculiar- different from the usual or normal

. (सामान्य से अलग)

• Usual- accordant with usage, custom, or habit

. (उपयोग, रीति या आदत के अनुसार)

• Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
• Quiet- free from noise or uproar. (शोर या हंगामे से मुक्त)
• Strange- different from what is usual, ordinary, or expected. (जो सामान्य, सामान्य या अपेक्षित है उससे अलग)
• Sacred- dedicated or set apart for the service or worship of a deity. (किसी देवता की सेवा या पूजा के लिए समर्पित)
• Hence from the given meanings, we find that peculiar and usual are antonyms.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the words related to the given word:
• Synonyms- uncommon, uncustomary, unique, unusual, unwonted
• Antonyms- common, customary, normal, ordinary, typical

The correct answer is- To be at ease​.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
• To be at home​- to feel comfortable and relaxed. (आराम और आराम महसूस करने के लिए।)
• Example: 
• By the end of the week, she was beginning to be at home in her new job. ​​​​

Additional Information  

• There are a couple of other idioms with the word 'home' given below:
• to drive something home- to insist on or repeat a point until it is clearly understood. (किसी बिंदु पर जोर देना या उसे तब तक दोहराना जब तक वह स्पष्ट रूप से समझ में न आ जाए।)
• home (away) from home- somewhere you are as comfortable as you are in your own home (कहीं न कहीं आप उतने ही सहज हैं जितने आप अपने घर में हैं)
• on the house- free, at the management’s expense (usually in reference to a drink or meal at a restaurant or bar) (नि:शुल्क, प्रबंधन के खर्च पर (आमतौर पर किसी रेस्तरां या बार में पेय या भोजन के संदर्भ में))

The correct answer is- Ritesh is best​.

Key Points

• If one thing is compared with the others of the same variety, 'the comparative degree' and 'any other' will be used there.
• Example:
• Arko is the best than any musician. (incorrect)
• Arko is better than any other musician. (correct)
• Since a boy is being chosen out of many, the adjective 'better' will be the correct choice here.
  

Correct sentence- Ritesh is better than many other boys in his class.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  

• If one thing is chosen out of 'more than two' or 'all', a superlative degree is preceded by 'the' and followed by 'of'.
• Example: 
• Jack is one of the best of all players in our school.

The correct answer is- Kind.

Key Points

• Let's look at the meanings of the given word and marked option:
• Ruthless- 

having or showing no pity or compassion for others. (दूसरों के लिए दया या करुणा न होना या न दिखाना)

• Kind- generous, helpful, and thinking about other people's feelings

. (उदार, मददगार और अन्य लोगों की भावनाओं के बारे में सोचने वाला)

• Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
• humble- not proud or not believing that you are important. (गर्व नहीं करना या विश्वास नहीं करना कि आप महत्वपूर्ण हैं)
• merciless- having or showing no mercy. (दया न करना या न दिखाना)
• careful- giving attention to something in order to avoid esp. an accident or problem. (दुर्घटना या समस्या से बचने के लिए किसी चीज़ पर ध्यान देना)
• Hence from the given meanings, we find that ruthless and kind are antonyms.

Confusion Points

• The word 'humble' is close but not exact, hence 'kind' the correct choice here.

The correct answer is- must.

Key Points

• ​An auxiliary verb is a verb that adds functional or grammatical meaning to the clause in which it occurs, so as to express tense, aspect, modality, voice, emphasis, etc.
• A modal or a modal auxiliary is a word such as 'can' or 'would' which is used with a main verb to express ideas such as possibility, intention, or necessity.
• Example:
• I have taken my breakfast. (have- auxiliary verb)
• One should obey one's elders. (should- modal)
• As per the context of the sentence, there is an obligation for all good things to come to an end.
• In the given condition, the modal 'must' is the correct choice as 'ought to' is used for moral suggestions/duty.
  

Correct Sentence: All good things must come to an end.

​

Additional Information

• The modal 'must' expresses duty too.
• Example:
• A doctor must treat his/her patient without any discrimination.

The correct answer is - he.

Key Points

• A pronoun is a word that is used to avoid repetition of a noun.
• Some of the personal pronouns are- He, she, it, you, we, they, etc.
• In the 1st sentence of the cloze test, an old man is mentioned in the latter part of the sentence.
• Now in the beginning of the 2nd sentence, a personal pronoun is needed for this noun.
• The pronoun 'he' will be the correct choice here in the 1st blank.